Time : 3 Hrs.

TEST MM : 720

[PHYSICS]

Choose the correct answer :

1. If velocity (v), acceleration (a) and force (F) are 5. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform annular
taken as fundamental quantities, the dimensions of disc about one of the diameters is I. Its moment of
Young’s modulus (Y ) would be inertia about an axis perpendicular to the annular
2 –5 2 –4
surface and passing through its centre is
(1) F a v (2) F a v
(3) F a v
2 –3
(4) F a v
2 –2 (1) 2I (2) 2I

2. The kinetic energy K of a particle moving along a

I I
circle of radius R depends upon the distance S as (3) (4)
2
K = S , where  is a constant. Tangential 2 2
acceleration of the particle is proportional to
6. A can filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle
1 of radius 4 m and the water just does not fall down.
(1) S (2) The time period of revolution will be
S
(1) 1 s (2) 10 s
(3) S (4) S S
(3) 8 s (4) 4 s
3. The gravitational potential energy of a body at a
7. A rectangular vessel full of water, takes
distance r from the centre of the earth is U. Its
10 minutes to be emptied through an orifice in its
weight at a distance 2r from the centre of the earth
bottom. How much time will it take to be emptied
is
when half filled with water?
U
U
(1) (1) 9 minutes
r 2r
(2) 7 minutes
U U
(3) (4) (3) 5 minutes
(2) 4r 2r
4. The terminal velocity v of a spherical ball of radius (4) 3 minutes
r falling through a viscous fluid varies with r such that 8. A body weighs 50 g in air and 40 g in water. How
much would it weigh in a liquid of specific gravity
v
(1) = Constant (2) vr = Constant 1.5?
r
(1) 30 g (2) 35 g
v
2
(3) vr = Constant (4) 2
= Constant (3) 65 g (4) 45 g
r
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9. A particle executes SHM with an amplitude of 2 cm. 13. A ball collides directly with another ball at rest and
When the particle is at 1 cm from the mean position, is brought to rest by the impact. If half of the initial
the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its kinetic energy is lost in the impact, then the
acceleration. Then its time period in seconds is coefficient of restitution is

1 1 1
(1) (2) 2 3 (1) (2)
2 3 4 2

2 3 3 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 2 4 2

10. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.4. If a force is 14. A boat of mass 90 kg is floating in still water. A boy
applied to a wire of this material, there is a of mass 30 kg walks from one end to the other on
decrease of cross-sectional area by 2%. The it. If the length of the boat is 3 m, then the distance
percentage increase in its length is through which the boat will move is

(1) 3 % (1) 0.75 m (2) 0.25 m

(2) 2.5% (3) 0.45 m (4) 0.65 m

(3) 1% 15. A child is standing with folded hands at the centre

(4) 0.5%
11. A bodyy falls from a height of 200 m. The ratio of
distance travelled in each time interval of 2 seconds
during t = 0 to t = 6 second of journey is
of a platform rotating about its central axis. The
kinetic energy of the system is K. The child now
stretches his arms so that the moment of inertia of
the system doubles. The kinetic energy of the
system now is

(1) 1 : 4 : 9 (2) 1 : 2 : 4 K
(1) 2K (2)
(3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 1 : 2 : 3 2

12. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The K

coefficient of static friction is 0.4. A force of 2.5 N is (3) (4) 4K
applied on the block as shown in figure. The contact 4
force between the block and the floor is 16. The potential energy of a particle in motion along X
axis is given by U = U0 – u0 cos ax. The time period
F of small oscillation is
ma U0
(1) 10 N (1) 2 (2) 2
U0 ma
(2) 12.5 N
(3) 20.15 N 2 m m
(3) (4) 2
a U0 aU0
(4) 20 N
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17. A volume V versus pressure P graph was obtained 21. The velocity of sound is generally greater in solid
from state 1 to state 2 when a given mass of a gas than in gases because
is subjected to temperature changes. During the
(1) The density of solids is high but the elasticity is
process the gas is low
P
1 (2) The density of solids is high but the elasticity of
solids is very high
(3) Both the density and elasticity of solids are low

2 (4) The density of solids is low but the elasticity is

high
V
(1) Heated continuously 22. An observer moves towards a stationary source of
sound, with a velocity one-fifth the velocity of sound.
(2) Cooled continuously What is the percentage increase in apparent
(3) Heated in the beginning and cooled towards end frequency?
(4) Cooled in the beginning and heated towards end (1) Zero (2) 0.5%
18. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant (3) 5% (4) 20%
pressure, the fraction of heat energy supplied which
23. Two successive resonance frequencies in an open
increases the internal energy of the gas is
organ pipe are 1944 Hz and 2592 Hz. If the speed
2 3 of sound in air is 324 m/s, then the length of the
(1) (2)
5 5 tube must be
3 5 (1) 25 cm (2) 50 cm
(3) (4)
7 7 (3) 100 cm (4) 12.5 cm
19. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 24. A small metallic sphere having no net charge is
120 K to 480 K. If at 120 K, the root mean square placed near a finite metal plate carrying a positive
velocity of the gas molecule is v, then at 480 K, it charge. The electric force on the particle will be
will be
(1) Towards the plate (2) Away from the plate
(1) 4v (2) 2v
(3) Parallel to the plate (4) Zero
v v
(3) (4) 25. The energy density in the electric field created by a
2 4 point charge varies with the distance from the point
20. The rate of cooling of a body depends upon charge as
(1) Surface area of body 1 1
(1) (2)
(2) Mass of body r4 r3
(3) Specific heat of material of body 1 1
(3) (4)
(4) All of these r2 r
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26. Find the current through 4  resistor in the circuit 30. The segment of wire shown in figure carries a current
shown in figure. of i = 5 A. The magnetic field (in Tesla) at the point
P is
2

2 4 8

2V2V2V8
15 cm

(1) Zero (2) 2 A

(3) 4 A (4) 6 A 
3
27. An electric bulb, when connected across a power P
10 cm
supply of 220 V, consumes a power of 60 W. If the
supply is suddenly increased to 240 V, then what will
be the power consumed? 5 25
(1) 0 (2) 0
(1) 112 W (2) 71 W 18 18
(3) 160 W (4) 240 W
28 22
28. Which of the following particles will have minimum (3) 0 (4) 
3 7 0
frequency of revolution when projected with the same
velocity perpendicular to a magnetic field? 31. A wire carrying a current of 3 A is bent in the form
2
of a parabola y = 4 – x as shown in figure. The wire
(1) Electron (2) Proton 
+ + is placed in a uniform magnetic field B = 5kˆ tesla.
(3) He (4) Li
The force acting on the wire is
29. Two parallel wires P and Q placed at a separation
of d = 6 cm carry electric currents i 1 = 5 A and y(m)
i 2 = 2 A in opposite directions as shown in figure.
The point on the line PQ where the resultant
magnetic field is zero is at
i1 i2
d x (m)

P Q
(1) 4 cm from P on right
(2) 2 cm from Q on left
(1) 60 iˆ N (2) – 60 iˆ N
(3) 4 cm from Q on right
(4) 2 cm from P on left (3) 30 iˆ N (4) – 30 iˆ N

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32. In LC circuit, the capacitor has maximum charge q0. 35. If the critical angle for the material of a prism is C,
dI and the angle of the prism is A, then there will be
The maximum value of is
dt no emergent ray when

q0 q0 (1) A < 2C
(1) (2)
LC LC (2) A  2C

q0 2q0 (3) A > 2C

(3) (4) (4) A < C
2 LC LC
33. Choose the correct combinations for the given graph. 36. An object is 20 cm away from a concave mirror of
(Symbols have their usual meaning) focal length, 15 cm. If the object moves with a speed
of 5 m/s along the axis, then the instantaneous
(Impedance) Z speed of image will be
1 2
(1) 9 m/s
3 (2) 18 m/s
4
(3) 30 m/s

(Angular frequency) (4) 45 m/s

1 2 3 4 37. A ray of light of intensity I is incident on a parallel

glass slab at a point A as shown. It undergoes partial
(1) LR R C L reflection and refraction. At each reflection, 25% of
incident energy is reflected. If the rays AB and AB
(2) RC C R L
undergo interference, then the ratio of their
(3) LCR L R C intensities is

(4) LCR C R L I B B
34. If  0 and 0 represents the permittivity and A
permeability of vaccum and,  and  represents the A
permittivity and permeability of medium, then
refractive index of the medium is given by

00 
(1) (2) 0  0
 C

 00 (1) 4 : 3 (2) 16 : 9

(3) 0  0 (4) 
 (3) 7 : 1 (4) 49 : 1
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38. Two identical metal plates show photoelectric effect 42. The graph showing the energy spectrum of  particle
by a light of wavelength A falling on plate A and B is
on plate B (A = 2B ). The maximum kinetic energy n(E) n (E )
is

KB (1) (2)
(1) 2K = K (2) K 
A B A
2
E E
KB
(3) K = 2K (4) K  n (E ) n (E)
A B A
2

39. The recoil energy of a hydrogen atom after it emits (3) (4)
a photon in going from n = 5 state to n = 1 state is
(M = Mass of H atom, R = Rydberg’s constant, h = E E
Planck’s constant) 43. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor
increases when electromagnetic radiation of
2
24Rh 1 (Rh)2 wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is incident on it.
(1) (2) Find the band gap of the semiconductor.
25 2M 2M
(1) 1.5 eV (2) 0.5 eV
2 2
21 1 18 1 (3) 0.75 eV (4) 0.05 eV
(3) Rh (4) Rh
25 2M 25 2M 44. For the given logic gate network, the output at Y
when A = 1, B = 1 and A = 0, B = 0 are
40. In the nuclear reaction.
A
11
C  11B +  + + X
6 5
B
What does X stand for? Y

(1) Electron (2) Proton

(3) Neutron (4) Neutrino

(1) 1, 1 (2) 0, 0
41. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2 hr (3) 1, 0 (4) 0, 1
emits radiation of intensity which is 64 times the 10
45. In a n-p-n transistor 10 electrons enter the emitter
permissible safe level. The minimum time after which –6
in 10 s and 2% electrons are lost in the base. The
it would be possible to work safely with this source is
current amplification factor of transistor is
(1) 6 hr (2) 12 hr
(1) 39 (2) 38
(3) 42 hr (4) 128 hr (3) 49 (4) 27
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 [CHEMISTRY]
46. Market price for methyl alcohol, ethylene glycol and 51. Two electrons move around the nucleus
nuc in circular
glycerol are same per kilogram. Which will cost orbits of ‘R’ and ‘4R’ in an atom. Find out the ratio
least as antifreeze? of time taken by them to complete one complete
(1) Methyl alcohol revolution.

(2) Ethylene glycol (1) 1 : 8 (2) 8 : 1

(3) Glycerol (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1

–
(4) All will have same cost 52. Equivalent weight of MnO in the following reaction
4
will be
47. Which of the following process is endothermic?
2MnO  I  H O  2M
MnO  IO  2OH
(1) u u (2) H H 4 2 2 3

3M M
(3) O O2 (4) F F (1) (2)
11 11
48. Which of the following configuration does not follow
Hund’s rule? M M
(3) (4)
(1) 3 5

(2) 53. A crystal is made of particles x, y and z. x forms

fcc packing, y occupies all the octahedral voids and
(3) z occupies all the tetrahedral voids. If all the particles
along the one diagonal plane are removed, then
(4) Both (2) & (3) formula of the crystal would be

[Zn2 ] (1) x5 y7 z8
49. Reaction quotient (Q) for Daniell cell is 2 .
[Cu ] (2) x5 y5 z8
cell o
cell
Calculate its value if E is 1.1591 and E is 1.10 (3) x5 y5 z4
volts. (4) x3 y3 z5
+2 +1
(1) Q = 10 (2) Q = 10 54. When Fe Cl3 solution is added to NaOH, sol
–2 –
–3
(3) Q = 10 (4) Q = 10 particles will carry
50. 254 g of I2 reacts completely with 142 g of Cl2 to (1) + ve charge
yield a mixture of ICl and ICl3. Ratio of moles of ICl
and ICl3 is (2) – ve charge

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) May be + ve or – ve charge

(3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3 (4) No charge

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55. Which of the following is most soluble in water? 60. For a gaseous state reaction
(1) BaCO3 (2) CaCO3 1
A 2 (g) B(g)  C(g),
(3) BeCO3 (4) MgCO3 2
+ 2–
56. Enthalpy of dissociation of H2C2O4  2H + C2O The increase in pressure from 100 mm to 120 mm
4
is noticed in 5 minutes. The rate of appearance of C
will be if enthalpy of neutralisation of strong –1
in mm min is
acid and strong base is –13.7 kcal–1 and that of
–1
oxalic acid by a strong base is –25 kcal mol . (1) 8 (2) 20
–1 –1
(1) –11.3 kcal mol (2) 2.4 kcal mol (3) 40 (4) 10
–1 –1
(3) 1.2 kcal mol (4) 11.7 kcal mol 61. The degree of hardness of 1 L sample of water
–
57. Calculate the concentration of OH ions in a solution having 0.025 g of MgCl2 is
prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.2 M methyl (1) 23.6 (2) 26.3
+ – –4
amine and 0.6 M CH3NH3 Cl [Given kb = 3.6 × 10 ]
(3) 28.4 (4) 21.3
–5 –4
(1) 1.85 × 10 M (2) 3.6 × 10 M
–4 –2
62. In excess, which of the following can harm bones
(3) 1.5 × 10 M (4) 3.6 × 10 M and teeth?
58. Oxygen is difficult to liquify as compared to
(2) NO
2
ammonia, then which of the following is true about (1) SO
4 3
oxygen as the reason for this fact?
(1) It has high critical temperature (3) F (4) All of these

(2) It has low critical temperature 63. Which of the following process is carried out for
concentration when impurity of SiO2 is in excess in
(3) It has high bond dissociation enthalpy
bauxite ore?
(4) Its electronegativity is high
(1) Bayer’s process
59. Find out correct representation of PF3 Cl2
(2) Mond’s process
Cl Cl
F F (3) Zone refining
(1) F P (2) F P (4) Serpeck’s process
F Cl
Cl Cl 64. Aluminium forms a carbide ‘x’ which react with water
to give a gas ‘y’. ‘y’ does not react with Br2 water.
F F Give ‘x’ and y respectively.
Cl F F
(3) F P (4) P (1) CH4, Al4C3 (2) Al2C3, C3H4
Cl Cl Cl
(3) C2H2, Al4C3 (4) Al4C3, CH4
F
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65. The sum of  and d –p bonds in H4P2O7 is 73. Find out the oxidation state of tin in its salt, when
(1) 10 (2) 8 11.0 g of tin is deposited when a current of 1.0 A is
passed for 5 hours through molten salt.
(3) 12 (4) 14
(Given atomic weight of tin = 119)
66. Find out the pair of isostructural compounds.
–
(1) ICl and Xe F
–
(2) ICl and Xe F (1) 3
4 4 4 2
(3) BrO and Xe O
–
(4) Both (1) & (3) (2) 2
3 3

67. In which of the following there will be no Jahn-Teller (3) 1

effect with either weak or strong ligand? (4) Zero
9 2
(1) d (2) d 74. Isoprene can form two polymers which are natural
4 3
(3) d (4) d rubber and gutta percha. They are related to each
other by
68. Strongest base among following is
(1) Yb (OH)3 (2) Lu (OH)3 (1) Optical isomerism

(3) Ce(OH)3 (4) La (OH)3 (2) Chain isomerism

69. Which of the following does not follow EAN rule? (3) Geometrical isomerism
(1) Ni(CO)4 (2) K4[Fe(CN)6] (4) Metamerism
(3) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (4) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 75. Glycerol reacts with 3 moles of HI to form ‘X’ and
70. Which of the following is correct relation of stability? excess of HI to form Y. Here ‘Y’ and ‘X’ are
respectively
(1) H  H (2) N  O
2 2 2 2 (1) 2-Iodopropane and Allyl iodide
(2) 1-Iodopropane and Allyl iodide
(3) N2  O2 (4) H2  Li2
(3) Allyl iodide and 2-Iodopropane
71. Which of the following is/are acidic salts?
(4) Allyl iodide and propene
(1) NaH2 PO4 (2) NaH2PO2
(3) Na2 HPO3 (4) All of these 76. Find out the most stable carbocation.

72. Find out the incorrect statement.

(1) Basicity of H3BO3 and H 3 PO3 are 1 and 2 (1) (2)
respectively
+
(2) Bond order of CO is more than CO
(3) Al is least electronegative element in group 13
(4) Number of B — O — B linkages in Na2 B4 O7 · (3) (4)
10 H2 O is six

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77. Find out correct order of C — N bond length in 80. Which of the following is least reactive towards
following amines. dehydration in acidic medium?

(I) CH3CH2CH2 — NH 2
(1) (2) CH3
(II) CH2 CH — NH2 OH
OH

(III) NH2
H3C OH OH
(3) (4)
(1) I > III > II (2) III > II > I CH 3
(3) II > III > I (4) I > II > III CH3

78. ‘A’ compound on reaction with HCl forms

81. Benzene on oxidation in presence of V2O5/773 K
H3 C Cl gives
as major compound.
(1) Glyoxal

(2) Oxalic acid

Compound ‘A’ can be: (3) Succinic acid

CH2 (4) Maleic anhydride

CH CH
2
82. Find out the most stable carbocation.
(1) (2)
C
(1) H H
H
(3) (4) All of these
CH3
(2)
P/I2 Mg HCHO
79. Alcohol X Y Z
H O /H+
2   2  Methyl propanol

(3)
Alcohol is:
(1) Ethanol (2) Propan-2-ol
(3) Propanol (4) Butan-2-ol (4) CH3 — CH2 — CH — O — CH3

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 (i) O3 Aq. NaOH Heat
CH3
83. 
(ii) 
Zn/H A    B  C
2O
87. H3 C C CH2 Br has no -hydrogen and

Here ‘C’ is : CH3

undergoes dehydrohalogenation to form alkene using
O O
|| following mechanism.

(1) (2) (1) Elimination with rearrangement of carbocation

(2) Elimination with rearrangement in free radical
O (3) Elimination with formation of carbanion
O
(4) Hofmann elimination
(3) (4)
88. Which of the following artificial sweeteners is
sweetest?
Which of the following will be oxidised by Fehling’s
84. solution? (1) Alitame
(2) Sucralose
CHO CH2CHO
(3) Aspartame

(1) (2) (4) Saccharin

89. Which of the following reaction is associated with
amine as a product?
HO — CH — CH3
(1) HVZ

(3) (4) All of these (2) Schmidt

(3) Curtius
Hydrolysis of sucrose in acidic medium is known as (4) Both (2) & (3)
85.
(1) Saponification (2) Inversion 90. CaF2 is sparingly soluble salt having Ksp = 4.43 × 10 .
–16

(3) Esterification (4) Mutarotation If in a saturated solution of CaF 2, calcium ions are
increased and its concentration becomes four times.
86. Number of  and  bonds in anthracene The fluoride ion concentration will become
(1) One third
are:
(2) Half

(1) 26 and 9  (2) 26  and 7 (3) One fourth

(3) 30 and 9 (4) 30  and 7 (4) Double

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 [BIOLOGY]
91. A species can be distinguished from the other
closely related species on the basis of
(1) Sharing a common gene pool
(2) Being biologically interfertile
(3) Common ancestor
(4) Distinct morphological features
92. Archaebacteria can thrive well in some of the most
harsh habitats like high temperature, low pH and
high salinity because of
(1) Presence of 16 S rRNA
(2) Their different cell wall composition
(3) Only anaerobic respiration for ATP synthesis
(4) Lipid monolayer in membrane without the
phytanyl side group chains
93. Choose incorrect statement for club fungi
(1) Dolipore septum present in all the members
(2) Karyogamy and meiosis occur in basidium
(3) Prolonged dikaryotic phase in life cycle
(4) Exogenously produced basidiospores
94. Naked seeded plants differ from bryophytes and
pteridophytes in
(1) Absence of independent free living gametophytes
(2) Presence of non-integumented megasporangium
(3) Possessing true stem, root and leaves
(4) Absence of fertilisation through pollen tube
95. Most common asexual spores among algae is
(1) Aplanospores (2) Zoospores
(3) Parthenospores (4) Akinetes
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96. Sub-aerial modification of stem in which a slender
lateral branch arises from the base of the main axis
and after growing aerially for sometime arches
downward to touch the ground, is
(1) Offset (2) Runner
(3) Sucker (4) Stolon
97. Distinguishing feature of angiospermic family
Solanaceae are all, except
(1) Persistent calyx with valvate aestivation
(2) Berry or capsule fruits with many endospermous
seeds
(3) Syncarpous ovary with swollen placenta
(4) Synandrous epipetalous stamens
98. Which of these pair of modified structures are
homologous?
(1) Phylloclade and cladode
(2) Phyllode and phylloclade
(3) Spines and thorns
(4) Cladophyll and phyllode
99. Choose odd one out w.r.t. secondary meristems.
(1) Phellogen
(2) Intrafascicular cambium
(3) Interfascicular cambium
(4) Cambium in dicot root
100. Stele in a monocot stem
(1) Consist of open vascular bundles
(2) Does not possess pericycle and pith
(3) Includes all tissues inner side of endodermis
(4) Consists internal phloem with parenchyma
101. Cell organelle that divides intracellular space of a
cell into two compartments luminal space and extra
luminal space
(1) Shows a distinct polarity and is situated near
the nucleus
(2) Is composed of tiny tubular structures scattered
in the cytoplasm
(3) May have ribosomes attached by its smaller
subunit
(4) Performs the function of packaging materials
102. Centriole and eukaryotic flagella resemble in
(1) Absence of same number of peripheral
microtubules
(2) Presence of amorphous pericentriolar materials
(3) Possessing microtubules composed of tubulins
(4) Consisting two central singlets of microtubules
103. Choose incorrect statement for nucleolus.
(1) Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
(2) Large sized and more in number in cells actively
carrying out protein synthesis
(3) Polygonal structure present in nucleoplasm
(4) Continuous with rest of the nucleoplasm
104. Prophase in mitotic cell division is characterised by
(1) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle
(2) Chromosomes consisting of two chromatids not
attached together at the centromere
(3) Absence of E.R., golgi complex, nucleolus and
nuclear membrane at its beginning
(4) Condensation of chromatin into chromosomes
and their alignment at the equator
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105. Formation of bivalents occur in stage of
meiosis I and is facilitated by .
(1) Zygotene, synaptonemal complex
(2) Diplotene, synaptonemal complex
(3) Pachytene, recombinase
(4) Leptotene, recombinase
106. Facilitated diffusion and active transport are similar
in being
(1) Uphill transport across a membrane
(2) Highly selective and show transport saturation
(3) Require special membrane proteins but are not
affected by protein inhibitors
(4) Require cellular energy and are sensitive to ETS
inhibitors
107. Stomatal opening is promoted by
(1) Increased osmotic pressure of guard cell
(2) Accumulation of malic acid in guard cell
+
(3) Out flux of H from subsidiary cell to guard cell
(4) Conversion of starch into hexose
108. The greatest contribution of root pressure in plants
is
(1) Guttation
(2) Active water absorption
(3) Re-establishment of continuous water column in
tracheary elements
(4) Upward movement of water and minerals in
herbaceous plants
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109. Toxicity of Mn in plants 113. Which of these inhibits ATP synthesis in
2+ mitochondria by inhibiting electron transport through
(1) Inhibits absorption of Ca from soil
complex IV?
(2) Produces brown spots surrounded by chlorotic (1) Oligomycin (2) Rotenone
veins in leaves
(3) Cyanides (4) DNP
(3) Competes with Fe for binding to enzymes
114. Plant growth regulator that plays an important role in
(4) Reduce the fresh weight of tissues by about plant responses to wounds and stresses of biotic and
10 per cent abiotic origin is
110. Photosynthetic yield is increased when shorter and (1) Derived from carotenoids
longer light wavelength are simultaneously irradiated
(2) Associated with seed dormancy and abscission
to a photosynthetic cell. This proves that
(3) Categorised as growth inhibitor
(1) There are two pigment systems in chloroplasts
(4) All are correct
(2) The two pigment systems are interconnected
115. Promotion of flowering in pineapple, abscission in
(3) Photolysis of water is essential for formation of
older and mature leaves and apical dominance are
assimilatory power function of
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Ethylene (2) ABA
111. Select incorrect statement for RuBisCO. (3) Auxins (4) Auxins and ABA
(1) Most abundant enzyme on earth 116. Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent
phases are observed in
(2) Has less affinity for CO2 than O2
(1) Bamboo and apple
(3) Present in bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
(2) Mustard and carrot
(4) Shows photorespiration due to oxygenase
activity (3) Mango and peepal
112. Direct phosphorylation in glycolytic pathway of (4) Annual plants only
respiration
117. Organisms exhibiting external fertilisation
(1) Occurs when triose bisphosphate is
(1) Show synchrony between the sexes and release
dephosphorylated to triose phosphate of large number of gametes
(2) Produces a total of 2 molecules of ATP per (2) Are disadvantaged by loss of the offsprings as
glucose they are vulnerable to predators
(3) Occurs when 2H atoms are removed from (3) Mostly depend upon water because water serves
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate as medium for gamete transfer
(4) Needs enzyme pyruvate kinase only (4) All are correct

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118. In a mature two-celled pollen
(1) The intine is discontinuous and made up of
cellulose and pectin
(2) The vegetative cell is bigger with abundant food
reserve and has spindle shaped nucleus
(3) The generative cell is smaller with dense
cytoplasm
(4) The exine is sculptured and continuous
119. What is incorrect for pollination by water?
(1) All aquatic plants are pollinated by water
(2) Pollen grains often possess mucilagenous
sheath
(3) Emergent flowers above the level of water are
pollinated by insects or winds
(4) Pollination can take place inside or on water
surface
120. Percentage of plants homozygous for round seeds
and heterozygous for yellow seeds in F2 generation
of a typical dihybrid cross in pea plant is
(1) 6.25% (2) 12.5%
(3) 37.5% (4) 25%
121. Interaction between two non-allelic genes in which a
dominant gene has no expression of its own but can
inhibit the expression of the other gene is
(1) Duplicate gene
(2) Supplementary gene
(3) Inhibitory gene
(4) Modified supplementary gene
122. CML in human is the result of
(1) Simple translocation
(2) Reciprocal translocation
(3) Frame-shift mutation
(4) Duplication of DNA segment
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123. Among the two nucleic acids, DNA is a better
genetic material
(1) As DNA is stable due to thymine
(2) DNA lacks 2-OH group in pentose sugar
(3) DNA is chemically less reactive and structurally
more stable than RNA
(4) All are correct
124. Select wrong statement w.r.t. transcription unit.
(1) Coding strand codes for nothing
(2) Presence of a promoter does not define the
coding and template strands
(3) Regulatory sequences are present upstream or
downstream to the promoter
(4) Promoter is situated upstream to the structural
genes
125. Iac operon in E.coli
(1) Remains switched off in absence of substrate
(2) Consist a total of six transcribing genes
(3) Can never show positive regulation
(4) Has y-gene for producing transacetylase enzyme
126. Prabhani Kranti, a new variety of bhindi has been
made resistant to yellow mosaic virus through
(1) Mutation breeding
(2) Hybridisation
(3) Introducing polyploidy and hybridisation both
(4) Mass selection
127. What is not a significance of SCP?
(1) Can reduce pressure on agriculture
(2) Reduces pollution
(3) Microbes could not meet the demand of food
(4) Alternate source of proteins to remove hidden
hunger
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128. Streptokinase, a clot buster used to remove clots 132. Which of these protects the nutrients from being
from blood vessels of patients of myocardial infraction washed out and lost from the ecosystem?
is obtained from (1) Decomposer microbes

(1) Mortierella renispora (2) Consumers of tertiary level

(2) Candida lipolytica
(3) Streptomyces
(4) Genetically modified Streptococcus bacteria
129. Select incorrect w.r.t. sewage treatment plants.
(1) Bacterial flocs are allowed to sediment in
settling tank when BOD of sewage is high
(2) Activated sludge is pumped into anaerobic
sludge digesters to digest the bacteria and fungi
(3) In anaerobic sludge digester, gases like
methane, H2S and CO2 are also produced
(4) Primary treatment of sludge is based on
sequential filtration and sedimentation
130. Which one is an anatomical adaptation in plants
growing in dry habitats?
(1) Well developed water storage tissue
(2) Leaves modified to spines
(3) Producers and decomposers both
(4) Producers only
133. Select incorrect for DFC
(1) Begins with dead organic matter
(2) Much larger fraction of energy flows through DFC
in aquatic ecosystem
(3) May be connected to GFC
(4) Made up of heterotrophs mainly fungi and
bacteria
134. Biodiversity is maximum in tropics because
(1) Speciation is a function of time
(2) Tropics have less seasonal variation and
relatively more predictable environment
(3) Tropics are more productive and can support a
wider range of species
(4) All are correct
135. Most effective greenhouse gas is
(1) CFCs (2) CH4
(3) CO2 (4) N2O

(3) Stems become leaf like and are fleshy green 136. Which of the following is correct match w.r.t. animal,
its symmetry, type of coelom, grade of organisation
(4) Deep penetrating roots and circulatory system?

131. Choose odd one out w.r.t. Protocooperation. Animal Symmetry Coelom
Grade of Circulatory
organisation system

(1) Sea anemone – Hermit crab (1) Ascaris Bilateral Pseudocoelom Organ Open

(2) Pheretima Bilateral Enterocoelom Organ Closed

(2) Red-billed oxpecker – Black rhinoceros system
(3) Loligo Bilateral Schizocoelom Organ Closed
(3) Barnacles – Whales system
(4) Asterias Radial Schizocoelom Organ Open
(4) Crocodile bird – Crocodile system

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137. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t. animal, two of its 141. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t.
features and class to which it belongs. structure in cockroach and its total number?

Animal Features Class (1) Ommatidia in one – 2000

(1) Euspongia (I) Skeleton made up of Demospongiae compound eye
spongin fibres
(ii) Found in marine water (2) Alary muscles – 12
(2) Lepisma (i) Wingless Insecta
(ii) Direct development
(3) Spiracles – 20
(3) Salamandra (i) Skin is moist Amphibia (4) Malpighian tubules – 100 – 150
(ii) Dicondylic skull
(4) Neophron (I) Sternum with a Aves 142. Which of the following enzyme catalyses the
median keel following reaction?
(ii) Alecithal eggs
x y
138. Male shark is able to transfer sperms to female —C—C— x—y + —C C—
shark with the help of
(1) Histidine decarboxylase
(1) Claspers on pectoral fins
(2) Steapsin
(2) Claspers on pelvic fins

(3) Claspers on dorsal fin (3) DNA polymerase

(4) Claspers on caudal fin (4) Glutamate pyruvate transaminase

139. Spongy bone differs from compact bone in 143. Find out the correct set of homopolysaccharides

(1) Texture (1) Inulin, starch, peptidoglycan

(2) Arrangement of lamellae (2) Glycogen, hemicellulose, pectin

(3) Absence of calcium salts (3) Cellulose, starch, glycogen

(4) Both (1) & (2) (4) Chitin, inulin, pectin

140. In male cockroach, middle layer of trilayered 144. Which of the following protein exhibits -pleated
spermatophore is secreted by sheet structure?

(1) Long tubule of mushroom gland (1) Myoglobin

(2) Phallic gland (2) Collagen

(3) Ejaculatory duct (3) -keratin

(4) Small tubules of mushroom gland (4) Silk fibroin

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145. Find out the incorrect statement w.r.t. digestive 148. Which of the following is target organ of secretin
organs in humans. hormone?

(1) Each hepatic lobule is covered by a thin (a) Pancreas (b) Gall bladder
connective tissue sheath called Glisson’s (c) Liver (d) Stomach
capsule (1) a, b, c & d (2) a & c only
(2) In humans three pairs of salivary glands are (3) b & d only (4) a, c & d
located inside buccal cavity
149. Which of the following is paired cartilage of larynx?
(3) The muscular coat in stomach comprises of (1) Cartilage of Santorini (2) Thyroid cartilage
outer layer of longitudinal muscles, middle layer
(3) Cricoid catilage (4) Epiglottis
of circular muscles and inner layer of oblique
muscles 150. In humans, volume of air that remains in the lungs
after a normal expiration is
(4) Pancreatic acini forms the main mass of
(1) RV (2) TV + IRV
pancreas and secretes pancreatic juice
(3) ERV + RV (4) TV + IRV + ERV
146. The dental formula for monophyodont teeth in
humans is 151. Which of the following explains Haldane effect?
(1) As carbon dioxide enters the systemic blood
2123 2102 stream, it causes more oxygen to dissociate
(1) 2 (2) 2
2123 2102 from haemoglobin
(2) Combination of oxygen with haemoglobin causes
0021 2122
(3) 2 (4) 2 the haemoglobin to become a stronger acid
0021 2122
(3) Bicarbonate ions diffuse out from RBCs into
147. Match the following : plasma, whereas chloride ions move from the
plasma into RBCs
Column I Column II
(4) Excess of 2, 3 diphosphoglycerate dissociates
a. Duct of Wirsung (i) Gall bladder oxygen from haemoglobin
b. Rivinus duct (ii) Submandibular salivary 152. Which of the following are phagocytic cells of blood
glands with bean shaped nucleus and agranular cytoplasm?
(1) Neutrophils (2) Lymphocytes
c. Cystic duct (iii) Pancreas
(3) Monocytes (4) Both (1) & (3)
d. Wharton’s duct (iv) Sublingual salivary
glands 153. Find out the correct sequence of transmission of
cardiac impulse in heart during a cardiac cycle.
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) SAN  AVN  Purkinje fibres  AV Bundle
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) AVN  SAN  Bundle of His  Purkinje fibres
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) Purkinje fibres  Bundle of His  AVN  SAN
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) SAN  AVN  Bundle of His  Purkinje fibres
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154. In human body, the lymph collected by the thoracic 159. Biceps brings the forearm towards upper arm
duct is poured into therefore it can be categorised under
(1) Right subclavian vein (2) Left subclavian vein (1) Abductor muscle (2) Adductor muscle
(3) Cisterna chyli (4) Right lymphatic duct (3) Flexor muscle (4) Extensor muscle
155. Which of the following vein is not a part of hepatic 160. The type of joint between metacarpals and
portal circulation? phalanges of fingers is
(1) Jugular vein (1) Ellipsoid (2) Hinge
(2) Cystic vein (3) Saddle (4) Pivot
(3) Superior mesenteric vein 161. What percentage of lactic acid is oxidised into CO2
(4) Gastric vein and water in liver during Cori’s cycle?
156. Which of the following reaction is catalysed by renin (1) 20% (2) 50%
secreted by juxtaglomerular cells in kidney?
(3) 40% (4) 80%
(1) Angiotensinogen  Angiotensin I
162. Which of the following cranial nerve controls the
(2) Angiotensin I  Angiotensin II secretion of salivary glands?
(3) Angiotensin II  Angiotensinogen (1) VII (2) IX
(4) Angiotensin II  Angiotensin I (3) III (4) Both (1) & (2)
157. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. materials reabsorbed 163. Consider the following diagrammatic representation of
in different parts of the nephron of kidney. the sectional view of cochlea with certain labelled
Parts of nephron Reabsorbed parts A, B, C and D. Find out the incorrect match
w.r.t. labelled part and its identification/description.
(1) PCT Glucose, amino acids,
vitamin C
–
(2) DCT NaCl, HCO A
3
C
(3) Ascending limb NaCl
of loop of Henle B
(4) Descending limb Water & NaCl
of loop of Henle

158. What will happen if the parasympathetic nerve fibres

innervating urinary bladder and internal urethral D
sphincter are cut? (1) A - Scala media - Contains endolymph
(1) Contraction of detrusor muscle (2) B - Tectorial membrane - Vibrates and sends
(2) Frequent urination sensory impulses to auditory area of brain
(3) Polyuria (3) C - Scala vestibuli - Contains perilymph
(4) Absence of micturition (4) D - Basilar membrane - Organ of Corti rest upon it

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164. Which of the following disease is not due to 169. The type of placenta found in human is
hyposecretion of its concerned hormone?
(1) Haemochorial, zonary, deciduate
(1) Myxoedema - Hyposecretion of thyroid hormone
in adults (2) Chorionic, metadiscoidal, haemoendothelial
(2) Cushing’s syndrome - Hyposecretion of cortisol (3) Allanto chorionic, contra-deciduate, discoidal
(3) Diabetes insipidus - Hyposecretion of ADH
(4) Metadiscoidal, haemochorial, chorionic
(4) Tetany - Hyposecretion of parathormone
170. Which of the following oral contraceptive pill does
165. All of the following are functions of catecholamines not contain estrogen or progesterone?
except
(1) Mala D
(1) Pupillary constriction
(2) Saheli
(2) Perspiration
(3) Piloerection (3) POPs

(4) Tachycardia (4) Ortho-novum

166. Oestrus cycle is present in all of the following 171. Which of the following statement is wrong about test
mammals, except tube baby?
(1) Gorilla (2) Pig
(1) Fusion of sperm and ovum is done outside the
(3) Horse (4) Deer body of female
167. Gravidex test for pregnancy involves the check of (2) The zygote or early embryo up to eight
(1) Estrogen in blood blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tube

(2) Progesterone in urine (3) The embryo more than eight blastomeres is
(3) Thyroxine in blood transferred into the uterus

(4) hCG in urine (4) The ova and sperms used in this technique are
obtained from wife and husband only
168. In human female the blastocyst
(1) Forms placenta even before implantation 172. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t. evolution of man.

(2) Gets implanted into uterus three days after (1) Tuang baby – Australopithecus
ovulation africans
(3) Gets nutrition from uterine endometrial (2) Cro-Magnon man – Homo sapiens fossils
secretions only after implantation
(3) Java Ape man – Sinanthropus erectus
(4) Gets implanted in endometrium by trophoblast
cell (4) Handy man – Homo habilis

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173. Which of the following could not be explained by the 177. A particular vector contains two types of origin of
Darwin’s natural selection theory? replication, one type functions in eukaryotic cell and
(1) Giraffe has long neck and long legs another functions in Escherichia coli. A suitable
example is
(2) Retention of characters of no use or vestigial
organs (1) pBR322
(3) In a forest numerous young trees grow below (2) pUC 8
the parent trees, but many of them perish
(3) BAC
(4) Evolution of various species of finches from a
single group of ancestors that colonized the (4) Yeast episomal plasmid
Galapagos islands
178. Which of the following chemicals helps foreign DNA
174. Which of the following malarial parasite has the to enter the host cell?
maximum incubation period?
(1) Calcium chloride
(1) Plasmodium vivax
(2) Polyethylene glycol
(2) Plasmodium ovale
(3) Taq polymerase
(3) Plasmodium malariae
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Plasmodium falciparum
175. Which of the following statement is correct? 179. Chemically synthesised hirudin gene has been
transferred into
(1) Antibody mediated immune response is
responsible for graft rejection (1) Brassica napus

(2) Colostrum contains IgA antibodies and provides (2) Nicotiana tobaccum
natural active immunity to new born
(3) Zea mays
(3) Interferons are glycolipids secreted by virus-
infected cells to protect non-infected cells from (4) Gossypium
viral infection 180. Which of the following recombinant protein is
(4) The symptoms of allergy are quickly reduced by incorrectly matched with its function?
adrenaline and steroids
(1) Reo Pro – Prevention of blood clots
176. Plant with hallucinogenic property is (2) Humulin – Treatment of diabetes mellitus
(1) Papaver somniferum (2) Atropa belladona (3) Factor IX – Treatment of haemophilia B
(3) Theobroma cacao (4) Thea chinensis (4) -IFN – Treatment of emphysema

  
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