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TR|NR

ACADEMY
MAJOR TEST – 07 TR NR
ACADEMY
DATE :- 22/03/2024

XI & XII Foundation


JEE (Mains + Advanced)
NEET (UG)

Maximum Marks :- 720


Syllabus

Physics :- Syllabus of TEST NO.5, 6 and Rotational Motion, A.C, Electromagnetic waves, Physics
Experiment No. 11 & 12
Chemistry :- Syllabus of TEST NO.5, 6 and p-Block 13 to 18 group
Biology :- Syllabus of TEST NO.5, 6

This Booklet is your question paper which contains 200 questions. (50 For Each Subject)

Section Types of Questions Marking Scheme Number of Questions

A. Single Correct Type +4 – 1 35

B. Single Correct Type +4 – 1 10 (Out of 15)

vko’;d funs Z ’ k %& Compulsory Instruction :-

1. iz’ui= feyrs gh pSd dj ysa fd vkidks tks iz’ui= fn;k x;k gS og 1. First of all check which question paper has been given,
vkids }kjk pqusa x;sa Stream ds vuqlkj gS ;k ughaA is selected Stream according to you.
2. OMR Sheet Hkjus gsrq dsoy dkyk iSu] uhyk iSu ;k ,p- ch- isfUly 2. Use only Black, Blue or HB Pencil to fill OMR sheet.
dk gh iz;ksx djsaA 3. There should not be any type of cutting in OMR sheet.
3. OMR Sheet esa fdlh izdkj dh dkaV & NkaV uk djsaA
4. Dark the oval completely like this :-
4. xksys dks iwjk HkjsaA tSlsa %& 5. Dark related oval only. Don’t write any world on other
5. ,d iz’u ds mÙkj ds fy, dsoy lacaf/kr xksys dks gh dkyk djsa vU; place.
txg dqN u fy[ksaA 6. The result will not be declared for wrong filling OMR sheet.
6. xyr OMR Sheet Hkjus ij ifj.kke ?kksf”kr ugha fd;k tk;sxkA

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PRE MEDICAL TESTRathi"
"TR Jain, Nitesh – 2023-24 1
TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

SECTION-A SECTION-A
1. A person wants to drive motorcycle on the vertical surface 1. ,d O;fä lkekU;r% ldZl esa ^^ekSr dk dqvka** ds :i esa tkus
of a large cylindrical wooden well commonly known as okyh ydM+h dh csyukdkj Å/oZ nhokj ij eksVj lkbZfdy
death well in a circus. The radius of well is 5m and the pykuk pkgrk gSA nhokj dh f=T;k 5m gS vkSj eksVj lkbZfdy
coefficient of friction between the tyres of the motorcycle ds Vk;jksa o dq¡, dh nhokj ds chp ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad 0.5 gSAa eksVj
and the wall of the well is 0.5 . The minimum speed, the lkbZfdy lokj dks fQlyus ls cpus ds fy, U;wure pky
motorcyclist must have in order to prevent slipping should fdruh j[kuh gksxh ¼ms–1 esa½ &
be (in ms–1) :
(A) 10 (B) 100 (A) 10 (B) 100
(C) 5 (D) 25 (C) 5 (D) 25
2. A thin flexible wire of length L is connected to two 2. ikl&ikl fLFkr nks fLFkj fcUnqvksa ls tqMk+ L yEckbZ okys ,d
adjacent fixed points carries a current I in the clockwise irys ,oa yphys rkj ls nf{k.kkorhZ fn'kk esa I /kkjk çokfgr
direction, as shown in the figure. When system is put in gks jgh gSA tc bl fudk; dks dkxt ds ry ds vUnj dh
a uniform magnetic field of strength B going into the vksj bafxr B rhozrk okys le:i pqEcdh; {ks= esa j[kk tkrk
plane of paper, the wire takes the shape of a circle. The gS] rkj o`Ùkkdkj vk—fr çkIr dj ysrk gSA rkj esa ruko gS &
tension in the wire is :

IBL IBL
(A) IBL (B) (A) IBL (B)
 
IBL IBL IBL IBL
(C) (D) (C) (D)
2 4 2 4
3. Assertion : Displacement current is result of timing 3. : foLFkkiu /kkjk ifjorZu'khy fo|qr {ks= dk ifj.kke
varying electric field. gSA
Reason : Displacement current flow in a connecting : foLFkkiu /kkjk la;kstd rkjksa esa cgus okyh /kkjk gSA
wire.
(A) Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is (A) dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gS rFkk dkj.k] dFku dh
correct explanation of Assertion. lgh O;k[;k djrk gSA
(B) Both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is (B) dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k] dFku dh
not correct explanation of Assertion. lgh O;k[;k ugha djrk gSA
(C) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect (C) dFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect (D) dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa vlR; gSA

Space for rough work

PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 2


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

4. 220 V çR;korhZ fo- ok- cy dks 4.4 kV ij 6.6 kW 'kfä


4. An ideal transformer is used to step up an alternating lapj.k ds fy, mPph—r djus gsrq ,d vkn'kZ VªkalQkeZj
emf of 220 V to 4.4 kV to transmit 6.6 kW of power. The ç;qä fd;k tk jgk gSA f}rh;d esa /kkjk gS &
current rating of the secondary is: (A) 30 A (B) 3 A
(A) 30 A (B) 3 A (C) 1.5 A (D) 1 A
(C) 1.5 A (D) 1 A 5. leku æO;ekuksa okys rhu d.k fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj ,d
5. Three particles of equal masses are placed at the corners leckgq f=Hkqt ds dksuksa ij j[ks gq, gSaA vc d.k A, v1 osx
of an equilateral triangle as shown in the figure. Now ds lkFk js[kk AB ds vuqfn'k] d.k B, v2 osx ds lkFk js[kk BC
particle A starts with a velocity v1 towards line AB, particle ds vuqfn'k vkSj d.k C, v3 osx ds lkFk js[kk CA ds vuqfn'k
B starts with a velocity v2 towards line BC and particle C xfr çkjEHk dj nsrs gSa rks t le; ds i'pkr~ æO;eku dsUæ dk
starts with velocity v3 towards line CA. The displacement foLFkkiu gksxk&
of CM of three particle A, B and C after time t will be (fn;k gS ;fn v1 = V2 = V3)
(given if v1 = V2 = V3)

v1  v 2  v 3 v1  v 2  v 3
(A) zero (B) t (A) 'kwU; (B) t
3 3
3 v 3 v
v1  v  3 v  v2  v3 v1  v  3 v1  v 2  v 3
(C) 2 2 2 t (D) 1 t (C) 2 2 2 t (D) t
3 4 3 4
6. Assertion : Current carrying wire produces only mangtic 6. : /kkjkokgh rkj dsoy pqEcdh; {ks= mRiUu djrk gSA
field.
Reason : The value of net flow of charge in current : /kkjkokgh rkj esa izokfgr dqy vkos'k 'kwU; gksrk gSaA
carrying wire is zero.
(A) Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is (A) dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gS rFkk dkj.k] dFku dh
correct explanation of Assertion. lgh O;k[;k djrk gSA
(B) Both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is (B) dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k] dFku dh
not correct explanation of Assertion. lgh O;k[;k ugha djrk gSA
(C) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect (C) dFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect (D) dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa vlR; gSA

Space for rough work

PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 3


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

7. A stationary body explodes in to four identical fragments 7. ,d fLFkj oLrq] ,d tSls pkj VqdM+kas esa bl çdkj foLQksfVr
such that three of them fly mutually perpendicular to each gksrh gS fd muesa ls rhu ijLij yEcor~ fn'kkvksa esa mM+ tkrs
other, each with same KE(E0). The energy of explosion gSa] çR;sd leku xfrt ÅtkZ (E0) ds lkFkA foLQksV dh
will be ÅtkZ gS &
(A) 6E0 (B) 3E0 (C) 4E0 (D) 2E0 (A) 6E0 (B) 3E0 (C) 4E0 (D) 2E0
8. If a charge particle kept at rest experiences an 8. ;fn fojkekoLFkk esa j[kk gqvk dksbZ vkosf'kr d.k ,d fo|qr
electromagnetic force, pqEcdh; cy vuqHko djrk gS
(i) the electric field must not be zero (i) fo|qr {ks= fuf'pr :i ls 'kwU; ugha gksxk
(ii) the magnetic field must not be zero (ii) pqEcdh; {ks= fuf'pr :i ls 'kwU; ugha gksxk
(iii) the electric field may or may not be zero (iii) fo|qr {ks= 'kwU; gks Hkh ldrk gS vkSj ugha Hkh
(iv) the magnetic field may or may not be zero (iv) pqEcdh; {ks= 'kwU; gks Hkh ldrk gS vkSj ugha Hkh
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iv) (A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) (D) (i), (iv) (C) (ii), (iii) (D) (i), (iv)
9. A girl finds herself stuck with her back to the wall of a 9. ,d csyu tks Lo;a dh v{k ds ifjr% ?kw.kZu dj jgk gS] bldh
cylinder rotating about its axis. Which diagram correctly nhokj ls ,d yM+dh viuh ihB ds lgkjs fp=kuqlkj [kM+h gqbZ
shows the forces acting on her? gSA yM+dh ij dk;Zjr cyksa dks n'kkZus okyk lgh fodYi gksxk%

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 4


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

10. Six rods of the same mass m and length  are arranged 10. leku æO;eku m rFkk yEckbZ  okyh N% NM+kas dks fp=kuqlkj
as shown in figure. Calculate the coordinate of the centre O;ofLFkr fd;k tkrk gSA fudk; ds æO;eku dsUæ ds funs'Z kkad
of mass of the system:- gksxsa&
  7    7 
(A)  ;  (A)  ; 
2 6  2 6 
   
(B)  ;   (B)  ;  
3  3 
  4    5    4    5 
(C)  ;  (D)  ;  (C)  ;  (D)  ; 
2 3  2 3  2 3  2 3 
11. A train has a constant speed of 40 m/s on a level track 11. ,d Vªsu dh lery iFk ij] 3 × 104 N ifjek.k okys
against resistive force of magnitude 3 × 10 N, the power
4 izfrjks/kd cy ds fo:) 40 m/s fu;r pky gSa] batu dh
of engine is :- 'kfDr gSa%&
(A) 1.2 × 106 w (B) 1.2 × 103 W (A) 1.2 × 106 w (B) 1.2 × 103 W
(C) 2.4 × 106 w (D) 2.4 × 103 W (C) 2.4 × 106 w (D) 2.4 × 103 W
True power
12. The ratio
Apparent power
is referred to as- 12. vuqikr dks dgrs gSa%&
(A) reactance (B) impedance (A) izfr?kkr (B) izfrck/kk
(C) power factor (D) none of these (C) 'kfDr xq.kkad (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
13. The ozone layer of atmosphere absorbs :- 13. ok;qe.My dh vkstksu ijr vo'kksf"kr djrh gS &
(A) visible radiations (B) infrared radiations (A) –'; fofdj.kksa dks (B) vojä fofdj.kksa dks
(C) ultraviolet radiations (D) radio waves (C) ijkcSaxuh fofdj.kksa dks (D) jsfM;ks rjaxksa dks
14. Three particles with equal mass move with equal speed 14. leku æO;eku ds rhu d.k fp=kuqlkj ,d leckgq f=Hkqt
v along the medians of an equilateral triangle as shown. dh ef/;dkvksa ij leku pky v ls xfr'khy gSaA ;s ,d lkFk
They all collide at the centroid simultaneously. After the dsUæd ij Vdjkrs gSAa VDdj ds i'pkr~ A fojke esa vk tkrk
collision, A comes to rest, B retraces it's path with same gS] B mlh pky ls vius iFk ij ykSV tkrk gSA VDdj ds
speed. What is speed of C after the collision? i'pkr~ C dh pky gS&

(A) v (A) v
(B) v/2 (B) v/2
(C) 2v (C) 2v
(D) information insufficient (D) vkadM+s vi;kZIr gSa
Space for rough work

PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 5


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

15. The electric field strength in an electromagnetic wave is 15. fdlh fo|qr pqEcdh; rjax esa fo|qr {ks= dh rhozrk
10 V/m. The magnitude of magnetic field strength (in
4
104 V/m gSA pqEcdh; {ks= dh rhozrk dk ifjek.k ¼VsLyk esa½
tesla) will be :- gksxk&
(A) 104 (B) 3 × 1012 (A) 104 (B) 3 × 1012
(C) 3.3 × 10–4 (D) 3.3 × 10–5 (C) 3.3 × 10–4 (D) 3.3 × 10–5
16. Average torque on a projectile of mass m, initial speed u 16. m æO;eku] çkjfEHkd pky u rFkk ç{ksi.k dks.k  okys
and angle of projection  between initial and final ç{ksI; ds fy,] fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj çkjfEHkd ,oa vfUre
positions P and Q as shown in the figure about the point fLFkfr;k¡ P rFkk Q ds chp ç{ksi.k fcUnq ds ifjr% vkSlr
of projection is: cyk?kw.kZ gS&

mu2 sin 2 mu2 sin 2


(A) (B) mu2 cos  (A) (B) mu2 cos 
2 2
mu2 cos  mu2 cos 
(C) mu2 sin  (D) (C) mu2 sin  (D)
2 2
17. A 50 kg girl is swinging on a swing from rest. Then, the 17. 50 kg æO;eku okyh yM+dh fojkekoLFkk ls ,d >wys ij
power delivered when moving with a velocity of 2 m/s >wyrh ;g Å/oZ ls 60° dks.k cukrs gq, Åij dh vksj
upwards in a direction making an angle 60° with the 2 m/s osx ds lkFk xfr dj jgh gS] rks çnÙk 'kfä gksxh
vertical is
(A) 980 W (B) 490 W (A) 980 W (B) 490 W
(C) 490 3 W (D) 245 W (C) 490 3 W (D) 245 W
18. A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V supply. Find the 18. ,d fo|qr cYc 22 V vkiwfrZ ij 100 W 'kfDr nsus ds fy,
resistance of bulb- cuk;k x;k gS] rc cYc dk izfrjks/k%&
(A) 4840  (B) 484  (A) 4840  (B) 484 
(C) 242  (D) 100  (C) 242  (D) 100 
19. A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V supply. Find the 19. ,d fo|qr cYc 22 V vkiwfrZ ij 100 W 'kfDr nsus ds fy,
peak voltage of source is cuk;k x;k gS] rc fo|qr L=ksr dh f'k[kj oksYVrk%&
(A) 220 V (B) 440 V (A) 220 V (B) 440 V
(C) 311 V (D) 300 V (C) 311 V (D) 300 V
20. A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V supply. Find the 20. ,d fo|qr cYc 22 V vkiwfrZ ij 100 W 'kfDr nsus ds fy, cuk;k
rms current through the bulb- x;k gS] rc cYc ls izokfgr gksus okyh rms /kkjk dk eku%
(A) 1 A (B) 0.454 A (A) 1 A (B) 0.454 A
(C) 0.854 A (D) 0.624 A (C) 0.854 A (D) 0.624 A
Space for rough work

PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 6


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

21. The variation of current versus time is shown in the 21. xzkQ esa le; ds lkFk /kkjk dk ifjorZu n'kkZ;k x;k gSA ml
graphs. Choose the circuit which has AC current:- ifjiFk dk pquko dhft, ftlesa izR;korhZ /kkjk gSa%&

(A) only b (A) dsoy b


(B) b, c and d (B) b, c rFkk d
(C) both b and c (C) b rFkk c nksuksa
(D) All of the above (D) mijksDr lHkh
22. Choose the correct option : 22. lgh dFku dk pquko dhft,&
(a) At very high frequency an inductor in an AC circuit (a) vfr mPp vko`fÙk ij AC ifjiFk esa izsjdRo yxHkx [kqys
nearly amounts to open circuit ifjiFk dh Hkkafr gksrk gSA
(b) At very high frequency an inductor in an AC circuit (b) vfr mPp vko`fÙk ij AC ifjiFk esa izsjdRo yxHkx y?kq
nearly amounts to short circuit ifjiFk dh Hkkafr gksrk gSA
(c) At very high frequency an capacitor in an AC circuit (c) vfr mPp vko`fÙk ij AC ifjiFk esa la/kkfj= yxHkx [kqys
nearly amounts to open circuit ifjiFk dh Hkkafr gksrk gSA
(d) At very high frequency an capacitor in an AC circuit (d) vfr mPp vko`fÙk ij AC ifjiFk esa la/kkfj= yxHkx y?kq
nearly amounts to short circuit ifjiFk dh Hkkafr gksrk gSA
(A) a and d (B) a and c (A) a rFkk d (B) a rFkk c
(C) b and c (D) b and d (C) b rFkk c (D) b rFkk d
23. Find the effective impendance of the circuit shown in 23. fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj ifjiFk esa cgqr mPp vko`fÙk ij izHkkoh
figure at very high frequencies :- izfrck/kk Kkr dhft;s%&

(A) R 1  R 3 (B) R 2  R 3 (A) R 1  R 3 (B) R 2  R 3


R1R 2 R1R 2
(C) R  R (D)  (C) R  R (D) 
1 2 1 2
Space for rough work

PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 7


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

24. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 F is being 24. 20 F /kkfjrk ds fdlh lekUrj ifV~Vdk la/kkfj= dks fdlh
charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing ,sls oksYVrk L=ksr }kjk vkosf'kr fd;k tk jgk gS ftldk
at the ratio 3 V/s. The conduction current through the foHko 3 V/s dh nj ls ifjofrZr gks jgk gSA la;kstd rkjksa ls
connecting wires, and the displacement current through izokfgr pkyd /kkjk] vkSj ifV~Vdkvksa ls xqtjus okyh foLFkkiu
the plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively: /kkjk Øe'k% gksxh%&
(A) zero, zero (B) zero, 60 A (A) 'kwU;] 'kwU; (B) 'kwU;, 60 A
(C) 60 A, 60 A (D) 60 A , zero (C) 60 A, 60 A (D) 60 A , 'kwU;
25. For a transparent medium relative permeability and 25. fdlh ikjn'khZ ek/;e ds fy, vkisf{kd pqEcdh; r vkSj
permittivity, r and  r are 1.0 and 1.44 respectively.. fo|qr'khyrk r Øe'k% 1.0 vkSj 1.44 gSA bl ek/;e esa
The velocity of light in this medium would be : izdk'k dk osx gksxk%&
(A) 2.5 × 108 m/s (B) 3 × 108 m/s (A) 2.5 × 108 m/s (B) 3 × 108 m/s
(C) 2.08 × 108 m/s (D) 4.32 × 108 m/s (C) 2.08 × 108 m/s (D) 4.32 × 108 m/s
26. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of 26. fo|qr'khyrk 0 vkSj pqEcd'khyrk 0 okys ek/;e esa
permittivity  0 and permeability 0 is given by : fo|qrpqEcdh; fofdj.k dk osx gksrk gSa%&
1 0 0 1 0 0
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0 0 (A) 0  0 (B) (C) (D) 0 0
0  0 0 0 0 0
27. If  0 and 0 are the electric permittivity and magnetic 27. ;fn fuokZr esa fo|qr'khyrk 0 vkSj pqEcdh; 0 gks rFkk
permeability in a free space,  and  are the fdlh ek/;e esa budk eku  vkSj  gks rks ek/;e dk
corresponding quantities in medium, the index of viorZukad gksxk%&
refraction of the medium is :

0  0  0   0  0  0  
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) 0  0 (C) (D) 0
 0  0  0 0   0

28. If  v ,  x and  m represent the wavelengths of visible 28. ;fn  v ,  x vkSj  m Øe'k% n`'; izdk'k] X-fdj.kksa vkSj
light, X-rays and microwaves respectively, then : lw{erjaxksa dh rjaxnS/;Z gksa] rks%&
(A)  m   x   v (B)  m   v   x (A)  m   x   v (B)  m   v   x
(C)  v   x   m (D)  v   m   x (C)  v   x   m (D)  v   m   x
29. The structure of solids is investigated by using : 29. Bkslksa dh lajpuk dks ns[kus gsrq iz;ksx dh tkrh gSa%&
(A) cosmic rays (B) X-rays (A) dkWfLed rjaxs (B) X-rjaxs
(C)  -rays (D) infra-red radiations (C)  -rjaxs (D) vojDr fofdj.k
30. In an ac circuit an alternating voltage 200 2 sin100t 30. fdlh A.C. ifjiFk es a ,d iz R ;korhZ oks Y Vrk]
volts is connected to a capacitor of capacity 1F . The e= 200 2 sin100t oksYV] dks 1F /kkfjrk ds ,d la/kkfj=
r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is : ls tksM+k x;k gSA
(A) 10 mA (B) 100 mA (A) 10 mA (B) 100 mA
(C) 200 mA (D) 20 mA (C) 200 mA (D) 20 mA
Space for rough work

PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 8


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

31. A capacitor of capacity C has reactance X. If capacitance 31. ,d la/kkfj= dh /kkfjrk C vkSj izfr?kkr X gS ;fn /kkfjrk o
and frequency become double then reactance will be : vko`fÙk nqxquh dj nh tk,] rks u;k izfr?kkr gksxk%&
(A) 4X (B) X/2 (A) 4X (B) X/2
(C) X/4 (D) 2X (C) X/4 (D) 2X
32. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 32. fn;s x;s ifjiFk ds fy, oksYVj V1 rFkk V2 dk ikB~;kad 300
300 volts each. The reading of the voltmeter V 3 and oksYV gSA oksYVehVj V3 rFkk ,sehVj A ds ikB~;kad Øe'k%
ammeter A are respectively : gksaxs%&

(A) 150 V, 2.2 A (B) 220 V, 2.2 A (A) 150 V, 2.2 A (B) 220 V, 2.2 A
(C) 220 V, 2.0 A (D) 100 V, 2.0 A (C) 220 V, 2.0 A (D) 100 V, 2.0 A
33. An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor 33. ,d a. c. oksYVrk dks Js.khØe esa tqM+s ,d izfrjks/kd R vkSj
L in series. If R and the inductive reactance are both izsjd L ij vuqiz;qDr fd;k x;k gSA ;fn R vkSj izsjdh;
equal to 3 , the phase difference between the applied izfr?kkr esa izR;sd dk eku 3 gks] rks ifjiFk esa vuqiz;qDr
voltage and the current in the circuit is : oksYVrk vkSj fo|qr /kkjk ds chp dykUrj gksxk%&
(A)  / 6 (B)  / 4 (C)  / 2 (D) zero (A)  / 6 (B)  / 4 (C)  / 2 (D) 'kwU;
34. The instantaneous values of alternating current and 34. fdlh ifjiFk esa ijkorhZ fo|qr /kkjk rFkk oksYVrk ds rkR{kf.kd
voltages in a circuit are given as ekuksa dks Øe'k% fuEu izdkj fu:fir fd;k tkrk gS%
1 1
i sin(100 t) ampere i sin(100 t) ,sfEi;j rFkk
2 2
1   1  
e sin 100 t   volt e sin 100 t   volt
2  3 2  3
The average power in watts consumed in the circuit is : bl ifjiFk esa {kf;r vkSlr 'kfDr ¼okWV esa½ gksxh%&
1 3 1 1 1 3 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 2 8 4 4 2 8
35. As the temperature of a metallic resistor is increased, 35. ,d /kkfRod izfrjks/k dk rki c<+kus ij izfrjks/kdrk ,oa
the product of resistivity and conductivity: pkydrk dk xq.kuQy%&
(A) increase (A) c<+rk gS
(B) decrease (B) ?kVrk gS
(C) may increase or decrease (C) ?kV Hkh ldrk gS vkSj c<+ Hkh ldrk gS
(D) remains constant (D) fu;r jgrk gS
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PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 9


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

SECTION-B SECTION-B
36. The electric resistance of certain wire of iron is R. If its 36. ,d fo'k"k yksg rkj dk oS|qr izfrjks/k R gSA ;fn bldh
length and radius both are doubled, then:- yEckbZ o f=T;k nksuksa nks xquh dj nh tk, rks%&
(A) the resistance will be halved and the specific (A) izfrjks/k vk/kk gks tk,xk vkSj fof'k"V izfrjks/k vifjofrzr
resistance will remain unchanged jgsxk
(B) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance (B) izfrjks/k vk/kk gks tk,xk vkSj fof'k"V izfrjks/k nqxquk gks
will be double tk,xk
(C) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both (C) izfrjks/k vkSj fof'k"V izfrjks/k nksuksa vifjofrZr jgsaxs
remain unchanged
(D) the resistance will be doubled and the specific (D) izfrjks/k nqxquk gks tk,xk vkSj fof'k"V izfrjks/k vk/kk gks
resistance will be halved tk,xkA
37. In half deflection method, a high resistance box is 37. v)Z fo{ksi fof/k esa] ,d cSVjh ds lkFk ,d mPp izfrjks/k
connected in series with the battery so that ckWDl Js.khØe esa tksM+k tkrk gS D;ksafd%&
(A) The deflection of the galvanometer is brought within (A) xsYosuksehVj dk fo{ksi iSekus ds Hkhrj yk;k tk ldsA
the scale
(B) Power losses minimized (B) fo|qr dh gkfu de gks ldsA
(C) High resistance values are easily available (C) mPp izfrjks/k eku vklkuh ls miyC/k gks ldsA
(D) None of the above (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
38. The scale of a galvanometer of resistance 100  38. 100  izfrjks/k okys xsYosuksehVj esa 25 fMfotu gSA ;g
contains 25 divisions. It gives a deflection of 1 division on 4 × 10–4 A dh /kkjk izokfgr djus ij] 1 fMfotu dk fo{ksi
pasing a current of 4 × 10–4 A. The resistance in ohm to nsrk gSA blesa fdrus vkse dk izfrjks/k tksM+k tk, ftlls ;s
be added to it, so that it may become a voltmeter of 2.5 V ijkl dk oksYVehVj cu ldsA
range 2.5 V is ............. .
(A) 250 (B) 300 (A) 250 (B) 300
(C) 150 (D) 100 (C) 150 (D) 100
39. A force F  (5iˆ  3ˆj)N is applied over a particle which 39. ,d d.k ij F  (5iˆ  3ˆj)N U;wVu cy yxkus ij og vius

displacement it from its origin to the point where ewy fcUnq ls r  (2iˆ  1j)
ˆ ehVj dh fLFkfr ij foLFkkfir

r  (2iˆ  1j)
ˆ metres. The work done on the particle is : gksrk gSA d.k ij fd, x, dk;Z dk eku gksxk%&
(A) – 7J (B) + 13J (A) – 7J (B) + 13J
(C) + 7J (D) +11 J (C) + 7J (D) +11 J
40. A force of 5N acts on a 15 kg body initially at rest. The 40. fojke esa fLFkr 15 kg dh fdlh oLrq ij 5N dk cy yxk;k
work done by the force during the first secoind and motion tkrk gSA oLrq dh xfr ds izFke lSd.M ds nkSjku cy }kjk
of the body is : fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk%&
5 5
(A) 5J (B) J (C) 6J (D) 75 J (A) 5J (B) J (C) 6J (D) 75 J
6 6
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TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

41. A body of mass 6kg is under a force which causes 41. 6kg nzO;eku dh ,d oLrq esa fdlh cy }kjk mRiUu foLFkkiu
t2 t2
displacement in it given by S  metres where t is S ehVj ls iznf'kZr gS] tgk¡ t le; gSA 2s esa cy }kjk
4 4
time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is : fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk%&
(A) 12J (B) 9J (A) 12J (B) 9J
(C) 6J (D) 3J (C) 6J (D) 3J
42. A cylinder of mass 10 kg is sliding on a plane with an 42. 10 kg nzO;eku dk ,d csyu 10 m/s ds izkjfEHkd osx ls
initial velocity of 10 m/s. If the coefficient of friction fdlh lery ij yq<+d jgk gSA ;fn lery o csyu ds
between the surface and cylinder is 0.5, then before e/; ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad 0.5 gks] rks :dus ls iwoZ blds }kjk r;
stopping it will describe : nwjh gksxh%&
(A) 12.5 m (B) 5 m (A) 12.5 m (B) 5 m
(C) 7.5 m (D) 10 m (C) 7.5 m (D) 10 m
 
43. A force F  6iˆ  2ˆj  3kˆ acts on a particle and produces 43. fdlh d.k ij dk;Zjr cy F  6iˆ  2ˆj  3kˆ }kjk mRiUu
 
a displacement of s  2iˆ  3jˆ  xkˆ . If the work done is foLFkkiu s  2iˆ  3jˆ  xkˆ gSA ;fn fd;k x;k dk;Z 'kwU;
zero, the value of x is : gks] rks x dk eku gSa%&
(A) –2 (B) 1/2 (A) –2 (B) 1/2
(C) 6 (D) 2 (C) 6 (D) 2
44. A spring when stretched by 2 mm its potential energy 44. ,d fLizax dks tc 2 mm [khapk tkrk gS] rks bldh fLFkfrt
becomes 4J. If it is stretched by 10 mm, its potential ÅtkZ 4J gks tkrh gSA ;fn bls 10 mm [khapk tk;s rks
energy will be equal to : fLFkfrt ÅtkZ gksxh%&
(A) 4J (B) 54J (A) 4J (B) 54J
(C) 415 J (D) None of these (C) 415 J (D) buesa
ls dksbZ ugha
45. A mass of 0.5kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a 45. ,d fpdus {kSfrt ry ij 1.5 m/s ds osx ls xfr'khy 0.5
horizontal smooth surface collides with a nearly kg nzO;eku dh ,d oLrq yxHkx Hkkjghu fLizax] ftldk
weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The fLiazx fu;rkad k = 50 N/m gS] ls Vdjkrh gSA fLizax dk
maximum compression of the spring would be : vf/kdre laihM+u gksxk%&
(A) 0.15 m (B) 0.12 m (A) 0.15 m (B) 0.12 m
(C) 1.5 m (D) 0.5 m (C) 1.5 m (D) 0.5 m
46. A ball of mass 2kg and another of mas 4kg are dropped 46. 2kg nzO;eku dh ,d xsna rFkk 4kg nzO;eku dh ,d vU; xsan
together from a 60 feet tall building. After a fall of 30 dks 60 feet Å¡ph bekjr l ,d lkFk fxjk;k tkrk gSA i`Foh
feet towards. The earth, their respectively kinetic energies dh vksj 30 feet fxjus dss i'pkr~ nksuksa xsanksa dh xfrt
will be in the ratio of ÅtkZvksa dk vuqikr gksxk%&
(A) 2 :1 (B) 1 : 4 (A) 2 :1 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 2

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PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 11


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

47. Four particles given have the same momentum. Which 47. fn, gq, pkj d.kksa ds laosx leku gSA rks fdl d.k dh
one has the maximum kinetic energy? xfrt ÅtkZ vf/kdre gksxh%&
(A) proton (A) izksVkWu
(B) electron (B) bysDVªkWu
(C) deutron (C) M~;wVªkWu
(D)   particles (D)   d.k
48. If a man increases his speed by 2m/s, his KE becomes 48. ;fn ,d O;fDr viuh pky dks 2m/s ls c<+krk gS] rks mldh
double, the original speed of the man is : xfrt ÅtkZ nqxquh gks tkrh gSA O;fDr dh okLrfod pky
gSa%&
(A) (1  2 2)m / s (A) (1  2 2)m / s
(B) 4 m/s (B) 4 m/s
(C) (2  2 2)m / s (C) (2  2 2)m / s
(D) (2  2)m / s (D) (2  2)m / s
49. A force of 2iˆ  3jˆ  4kˆ acting on a body for 4 seconds, 49. ,d cy 2iˆ  3jˆ  4kˆ }kjk fdlh oLrq esa 4 seconds, esa
produces a displacement of (3iˆ  4ˆj  5k)ˆ . The power mRiUu foLFkkiu ˆ gSA
(3iˆ  4ˆj  5k) iz;qDr 'kfDr gksxh%&
used is :
(A) 9.5 W (A) 9.5 W
(B) 7.5 W (B) 7.5 W
(C) 6.5 W (C) 6.5 W
(D) 4.5 W (D) 4.5 W
50. The power of a pump, which can pump 200 kg of water 50. ml iai dh 'kfDr D;k gksxh] tks 200 kg ikuh dks 50m
to a height of 50m in 10s, will be Å¡pkbZ rd 10s esa igq¡pkrk gS\
(A) 10 × 103 watts (A) 10 × 103 watts
(B) 20 × 103 watts (B) 20 × 103 watts
(C) 4 × 10 watts
3
(C) 4 × 103 watts
(D) 60 × 103 watts (D) 60 × 103 watts

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PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 12


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

SECTION-A SECTION-A
51. The main factor responsible for weak acidic nature of 51. BF3 dh nqcZy vEyh; izd`fr dk eq[; dkj.k gaS%&
BF3 is :
(A) Large electronegativity of F (A) F dh mPp fo|qr _.krk
(B) 3C – 2e bond in BF3

(B) BF3 esa 3C – 2e– cU/k
(C) P – d back boding in B – F (C) B – F cU/k esa P – d i'p vkcU/ku
(D) P – P back bond in BF3 (D) BF3 cU/k eas P – P i'p vkcU/ku
52. Among the following substituted silanes the one which 52. fuEu esa ls fdl foLFkkfir flysu ds ty vi?kVu ij fr;Zd
will give rise to cross-linked silicone polymer on hydrolysis laf/k flfydkWu nsrk gSa%&
is :
(A) R3SiCl (B) R4Si (A) R3SiCl (B) R4Si
(C) RSiCl3 (D) R2SiCl2 (C) RSiCl3 (D) R2SiCl2
53. Inter layer distance in graphite is : 53. xzsQkbV esa varjijrh; nwjh gaS%&
(A) Very small, the layers being tightly packed (A) cgqr NksVh] ijr ,d&nwljs ds cgqr utnhd
(B) Half of the covalent radius of carbon (B) dkcZu dh lgla;kstd f=T;k ls vk/kh
(C) More than twice the covalent radius of carbon (C) dkcZu dh lgla;kstd f=T;k ds nqxquk ls T;knk
(D) The same as the covalent radius of carbon (D) dkcZu dh lgla;kstd f=T;k ds cjkcjA
54. Phosphine, acetylene and ammonia can be formed by 54. ................ dh ty ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djkus ij QkWLQhu]
treating H2O with : ,lhfVyhu rFkk veksfu;k curh gSa%&
(A) Mg3P2, Al4C3, Li3N (A) Mg3P2, Al4C3, Li3N
(B) Ca3P2, CaC2, Mg2C3 (B) Ca3P2, CaC2, Mg2C3
(C) Ca3 P2, CaC2, Mg3N2 (C) Ca3 P2, CaC2, Mg3N2
(D) Ca3P2, Mg2C3, NH3NO3 (D) Ca3P2, Mg2C3, NH3NO3
55. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to : 55. SO2 dk fojatd xq.k ---------------------- ds dkj.k gksrk gS%&
(A) reduction (A) vip;u
(B) oxidation (B) vkWDlhdj.k
(C) hydrolysis (C) ty vi?kV~u
(D) acidic nature (D) vEyh; xq.k
56. PH3 can be formed in :- 56. fuEu esa ls fdlls PH3 fufeZr gksrk gSa%&
(A) hydrolysis of calcium phosphide (A) dSfY'k;e QkWLQkbM ds ty vi?kVu esa
(B) heating H3PO3 (B) H3PO3 dks xeZ djus eas
(C) reaction of P4 & NaOH in inert atmosphere (C) vfØ; okrkoj.k eas P4 rFkk NaOH dh vfHkfØ;k esa
(D) All of the above (D) mijksDr lHkh

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PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 13


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

57. MF + XeF4  'A' (M-alkali metal) hybridisation of A & 57. MF + XeF4  'A' (M-{kkjh; /kkrq)
shape of A is : A dk ladj.k o vkd`fr gSa%&
(A) sp3d, Triagonal bipyramidal (A) sp3d, f=dks.kh; f}fijkfeMh;
(B) sp3d3, Distorted octahedral (B) sp d , fod`r v"VQydh;
3 3

(C) sp3d3, Pentagonal planar (C) sp3d3, iapHkqth; leryh;


(D) sp3, Tetrahedral (D) sp3, prq"Qydh;
58. H2 S  H2 O2  S  2H2 O 58. H2 S  H2 O 2  S  2H2 O
This reaction shows - ;g vfHkfØ;k n'kkZrk gSa%&
(A) Acidic nature of H2O2 (A) H2O2 dk vEyh; O;ogkj
(B) Basic nature of H2O2 (B) H2O2 dk {kkjh; izd`fr
(C) Oxidising nature of H2O2 (C) H2O2 dh vkWDlhdkjd izd`fr
(D) Reducing nature of H2O2 (D) H2O2 dh vipk;d izd`fr
59. Volume of O2 required (at STP) for complete combustion 59. ,d eksy izksisu ds iw.kZ ngu ds fy;s STP ij O2 ds fdrus
of one mole of propane will be : vk;ru dh vko';drk gksxh%&
(A) 22.4 L (B) 67.2 L (A) 22.4 L (B) 67.2 L
(C) 112 L (D) 112 mL (C) 112 L (D) 112 mL
60. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of 60. tc 22.4 yhVj H2(g) dks 11.2 yhVj Cl2(g) ds lkFk S.T.P.
Cl2(g), each at S.T.P., the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal ij fefJr fd;k tkrk gS rks HCl(g) ds eksy cusaxs%&
to :
(A) 0.5 mol of HCl(g) (B) 1.5 mol of HCl(g) (A) HCl(g) ds 0.5 eksy (B) HCl(g) ds 1.5 eksy
(C) 1 mol of HCl(g) (D) 2 mol of HCl(g) (C) HCl(g) ds 1 eksy (D) HCl(g) ds 2 eksy
61. The following equilibrium are given 61. uhps fuEufyf[kr lkE; fn;s x;s gSa%&
N2 + 3H2 2NH3; K1 N2 + 3H2 2NH3; K1
N2 + O2 2NO; K2 N2 + O2 2NO; K2
H2 + 1/2O2 H2O; K3 H2 + 1/2O2 H2O; K3
the equilibrium constant of the reaction vfHkfØ;k
2NH3 + 5/2 O2 2NO + 3H2O 2NH3 + 5/2 O2 2NO + 3H2O
in terms of K1, K2 and K3 is :- ds fy;s K1, K2 rFkk K3 ds inksa esa lkE; fLFkjkad gksxk%&
(A) K1K2/K3 (B) K1K32/K2 (C) K2K33/K1 (D) K1K2K3 (A) K1K2/K3 (B) K1K32/K2 (C) K2K33/K1 (D) K1K2K3
62. KC for A (g)  B (g) C(g) +D(g) is 10 at 25 C. If a
O
62. 25 C ij
O
vfHkfØ;k A (g)  B (g) C(g) +D(g) ds fy, KC
container contains 1, 2, 3, 4 mol/litre of A, B, C and D dk eku 10 gSA 25 C rki ij ,d ik= eas A,B,C rFkk D ds
O

respectively at 25OC, the reaction will proceed :- Øe'k% 1, 2, 3, 4 mol/L mifLFkr gSa rk vfHkfØ;k c<+sxh\
(A) From left to right (B) From right to left (A) ck;ha ls nk;ha vksj (B) nk;ha ls ck;ha vksj
(C) in Equilibrium (D) Either of these (C) lkE;koLFkk eas (D) buesa ls dksbZ Hkh

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PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 14


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

63. Weak acid HX has the dissociation constant 1 × 10 –5. It 63. nqcZy vEy HX dk fo;kstu fLFkjkad 1 × 10–5 gSA {kkj ds
forms a salt NaX on reaction with alkali. The percentage lkFk fØ;k djds ;g yo.k NaX cukrk gSA 0.1M foy;u dk
hydrolysis of 0.1M solution of NaX is : izfr'kr ty vi?kVu gaSa%&
(A) 0.0001 (B) 0.01 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.15 (A) 0.0001 (B) 0.01 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.15
64. The solubility product of AgCl in water at 25°C is 64. 25°C ij AgCl dk foys;rk xq.kuQy 1.6 × 10–10 gSA 0.1M
1.6 × 10–10. Its solubility in the presence of 0.1M HCl is : HCl dh mifLFkr eas bldh foys;rk gSa%&
(A) 1.26 × 10–5 (B) 2.52 × 10–7 (A) 1.26 × 10–5 (B) 2.52 × 10–7
(C) 1.6 × 10 –9
(D) 1.6 × 10 –8
(C) 1.6 × 10 –9
(D) 1.6 × 10–8
65. The enthalpy of formation of ammonia is –46 kJ mol–1. 65. veks f u;k dh la H kou ,UFkS Y ih –46 kJ mol–1 gS rks
The enthalpy change for the reaction 2NH 3(g)  N2(g)  3H2(g) ds fy, ,UFkSYih eas ifjorZu
2NH 3(g)  N2(g)  3H2(g) is:- D;k gksxk\
(A) 46.0 kJ (B) 92.0 kJ (A) 46.0 kJ (B) 92.0 kJ
(C) –23.0 kJ (D) –92.0 kJ (C) –23.0 kJ (D) –92.0 kJ
66. 1 mole of H2SO4 is mixed with 2 moles of NaOH. The 66. tc 1 eksy H2SO4 dks 2 eksy NaOH ds lkFk feyk;k tkrk
heat evolved will be : gS rks fu"dkflr Å"ek gksxh%&
(A) 57.3 kJ (B) 2 × 57.3 kJ (A) 57.3 kJ (B) 2 × 57.3 kJ
57.3 57.3
(C) kJ (D) Can't be predicted (C) kJ (D) ugha crk;k tk ldrk
2 2
67. The enthalpy of formation of N2O and NO are 82 and 90 67. N2O vkSj NO dhlaHkou Å"ek,¡ Øe'k% 82 rFkk 90 kJ/mol gSa
kJ/mol respectively then the enthalpy of reaction, rks fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k dh vfHkfØ;k Å"ek gksxh%&
2N2 O (g)  O 2(g)  4NO (g) will be :- 2N2 O (g)  O 2(g)  4NO (g)
(A) 8 kJ (B) 88 kJ (C) –16 kJ (D) 196 kJ (A) 8 kJ (B) 88 kJ (C) –16 kJ (D) 196 kJ
68. What will be the melting point of benzene if 68. cs a th u d k xyuka d fcU nq D;k gks x k ;fn
Hfusion  9.95 kJ / mol and S fusion  35.7 J / K  mol Hfusion  9.95 kJ / mol rFkk S fusion  35.7 J / K  mol
(A) 278.7OC (B) 278.7 K (A) 278.7OC (B) 278.7 K
(C) 300 K (D) 298 K (C) 300 K (D) 298 K
69. Based on the following thermochemical equations : 69. fuEu Å"ek jklk;fud lehdj.kksa ds vk/kkj ij
H2 O(g)  C(s)  CO(g)  H2 (g); H  131kJ H2 O(g)  C(s)  CO(g)  H2 (g); H  131kJ
CO(g)  1 / 2O2 (g)  CO2 (g); H  282 kJ CO(g)  1 / 2O2 (g)  CO2 (g); H  282 kJ
H2 (g)  1 / 2O2 (g)  H2 O(g); H  242 kJ H2 (g)  1 / 2O2 (g)  H2 O(g); H  242 kJ
C(s)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g); H  X kJ C(s)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g); H  X kJ
The value of X will be : X dk eku gksxk%&
(A) –393 kJ (B) –655 kJ (A) –393 kJ (B) –655 kJ
(C) +393 kJ (D) +655 kJ (C) +393 kJ (D) +655 kJ
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ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

70. The rate of reaction A(g) + 2B(g)  3C(g) becomes 72 70. vfHkfØ;k A(g) + 2B(g)  3C(g) dk osx] A dh lkUnzrk dks 3
times when concentration of A is tripled and concentration xquk rFkk B dh lkUnzrk dks 2 xquk djus ij] 72 xquk gks tkrk
of B i doubled then the order of reaction with respect to gS rks A rFkk B ds lkis{k vfHkfØ;k dh dksfV Øe'k% gS:-
A and B respectively is :-
(A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3 (A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 2 (D) 2, 2 (C) 3, 2 (D) 2, 2
71. A first order reaction is 10% completed in 20 minutes 71. ,d izFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k 20 feuV esa 10% iw.kZ gks tkrh gS
then what will be the time for 19% completion of reaction? rks vfHkfØ;k dh 19% iw.kZrk esa yxk le; D;k gksxk\
(A) 30 min (B) 40 min (A) 30 min (B) 40 min
(C) 50 min (D) 38 min (C) 50 min (D) 38 min
72. The half life of a second order reaction is : 72. ,d f}rh; dksfV vfHkfØ;k dh v)Z vk;q gSa%&
(A) Proportional to initial concentration of reactants. (A) fØ;kdkjdksa dh izkjfEHkd lkUnzrk ds lekuqikrh
(B) independent of initial concentration of reactants (B) fØ;kdkjdkas dh izkjfEHkd lkUnzrk ds Lora=
(C) inversely proportional to initial concentration of (C) fØ;kdkjdkas dh izkjfEHkd lkUnzrk ds O;qRØekuqikrh
reactants
(D) inversely proportional to initial concentration of (D) fØ;kdkjdkas dh izkjfEHkd lkUnzrk ds oxZ d O;qRØekuqikrh
reactants
73. The mechanism of reaction 2NO + Cl2  2NOCl is given 73. vfHkfØ;k 2NO + Cl2  2NOCl dh fØ;kfof/k fuEu izdkj
as gSa%
(i) 2NO (NO)2 ...... (fast) (i) 2NO (NO)2 ...... (rhoz)

(ii) (NO)2 + Cl2 


K2
 2NOCl .... (slow) (ii) (NO)2 + Cl2 
K2
 2NOCl .... (/khek)
The rate expression of reaction will be vfHkfØ;k dk osx O;atd gksxk%&
(A) r = K1K2 [(NO)2] [CI2] (A) r = K1K2 [(NO)2] [CI2]
(B) r = K1K2[NO] [Cl2]
2
(B) r = K1K2[NO]2 [Cl2]
(C) r = K1K2 [Cl2] (C) r = K1K2 [Cl2]
(D) r = K1K2[NO] [Cl2] (D) r = K1K2[NO] [Cl2]
74. The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction : 74. vfHkfØ;k N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ds fy, vfHkfØ;k
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is given by xq.kkad Q = [NH3] /[N2][H2] }kjk fn;k tkrk gSA vfHkfØ;k
2 3

Q = [NH3] /[N2][H2] . The reaction will proceed from right


2 3
nka;h ls cka;h vksj c<+sxh ;fn [KC = lkE; fu;rkad]
to left if [KC = equilibrium constant]
(A) Q = 0 (B) Q = KC (A) Q = 0 (B) Q = KC
(C) Q < KC (D) Q > KC (C) Q < KC (D) Q > KC

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TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

75. In an exothermic reaction X  Y the activation energy 75. ,d Å"ek{ksih vfHkfØ;k X  Y ds fy, X dh lfØ;.k
is 100 KJ mol–1 of X. The enthalpy of the reaction is ÅtkZ 100 KJ mol–1 gSA vfHkfØ;k ds fy, ,UFkSYih –140 kJ
–140 kJ mol–1. The activation energy of the reverse mol–1 gSA i'p vfHkfØ;k Y  X ds fy, lfØ;.k ÅtkZ
reaction Y  X is : gSa%&
(A) 40 (B) 100 (C) 140 (D) 240 (A) 40 (B) 100 (C) 140 (D) 240
76. The sum of the oxidation states of all the carbon atoms 76. ;kSfxd C6H5CHO esa mifLFkr lHkh dkcZu ijek.kqvksa ds
present in the compound C6H5CHO is : vkWDlhdj.k voLFkkvksa dk ;ksx gaS%&
(A) –4 (B) 3 (C) +5 (D) –4/7 (A) –4 (B) 3 (C) +5 (D) –4/7
77. Which of the following will act as only oxidising agent : 77. fuEu esa ls dkSu dsoy vkWDlhdkjd dh rjg O;ogkj djsxk%&
(A) HNO2 (B) KMnO4 (C) H2O2 (D) SO2 (A) HNO2 (B) KMnO4 (C) H2O2 (D) SO2
78. Find equivalent weight of FeS2 in following reaction : 78. fuEu vfHkfØ;k eas FeS2 dk rqY;kadh Hkkj gksxk%&
3
FeS 2  Fe  SO3 FeS 2  Fe 3  SO3
M M M M M M M M
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
11 15 5 7 11 15 5 7
79. Work in reverible adiabatic process is : 79. mRØe.kh; :)ks"e izØe esa dk;Z gaS%&
n n
(A) W  nC v (T2  T1 ) (B) W  (T  T1 ) (A) W  nC v (T2  T1 ) (B) W  (T  T1 )
 1 2  1 2
V2 V2
(C) W  2.303 nRT log10 V (C) W  2.303 nRT log10
1 V1
P1 P1
(D) W  2.303 nRT log10 P (D) W  2.303 nRT log10 P
2 2

80. What will be the solubility of AlCl3 in solution of CaCl2 80. C lkUnzrk ds CaCl2 foy;u esa AlCl3 dh foys;rk D;k gksxh%&
with concentration of C:-
K SP K SP K SP K SP K SP K SP K SP K SP
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
2C 8C 3
3C 4C2 2C 8C 3 3C 4C2
81. Which of the following will not show common ion effect 81. fuEu eas ls dkSu HCl feykus ij levk;u izHkko iznf'kZr ugha
on addition of HCl ? djsxk?
(A) CH3COOH (B) H2S (A) CH3COOH (B) H2S
(C) C6H5COOH (D) H2SO4 (C) C6H5COOH (D) H2SO4
82. Weakest base from the following is : 82. fuEu eas ls nqcZyre {kkj gSa%&
(A) CH3 COO (B) Br
  (C) OH (D) HCO 
3
(A) CH3 COO (B) Br  (C) OH (D) HCO3
83. The number of oxalic acid molecules in 100 ml of 0.02 N 83. 100 ml 0.02 N vkWDlsfyd vEy foy;u eas vkWDlsfyd vEy
oxalic acid? ds fdrus v.kq mifLFkr gSa\
(A) 10–3 (B) 2 × 10–3 N0 (A) 10–3 (B) 2 × 10–3 N0
(C) 10 N0
–3
(D) 2 N0 (C) 10 N0
–3
(D) 2 N0

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TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

84. x gram of metal on reaction with oxygen gives y gram of 84. x xzke /kkrq dh vfHkfØ;k vkWDlhtu ds lkFk djkus ij y xzke
metal oxide. The equivalent mass of metal is : /kkrq vkWDlkbM ds curs gSAa /kkrq dk rqY;kadh Hkkj D;k gksxk%
(y  x) 8x x 8y (y  x) 8x x 8y
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
8 (y  x) (y  x) (y  x) 8 (y  x) (y  x) (y  x)
85. In the manufacture of H2SO4 by contact process the 85. H2SO4 ds fuekZ.k dh lEidZ d{k fof/k eas V2O5 dk;Z djrk
presence of V2O5 acts as gS%&
(A) Catalytic promoter (B) Inhibiter (A) mRizsjd o/kZd (B) fujks/kd
(C) Catalyst (D) Poision (C) mRizsjd (D) fo"k
SECTION-B SECTION-B
86. Volume of CO2 obtained at NTP by decomposition of 86. 9.85 g BaCO3 ds iw.kZ fo?kVu ls izkIr CO2 dk NTP ij
9.85 gm. BaCO3 (atomic wt. of Ba = 137) vk;ru gS%& (Ba dk ijek.kq Hkkj = 137)
(A) 2.24 lt. (B) 1.12 lt. (A) 2.24 lt. (B) 1.12 lt.
(C) 0.84 lt. (D) 0.6 lt. (C) 0.84 lt. (D) 0.6 lt.
87. Maximum number of molecules is present in : 87. v.kqvksa dh la[;k vf/kdre fdlesa gSa%&
(A) 7 gm. N2 (B) 2 gm. H2 (A) 7 gm. N2 (B) 2 gm. H2
(C) 16 gm. NO2 (D) 16 gm. O2 (C) 16 gm. NO2 (D) 16 gm. O2
88. In the reaction, H2 + I2 2HI. In a 2 litre flask 0.4 88. vfHkfØ;k H2 + I2 2HI.
moles of each H2 and I2 are taken. At equilibrium 0.5 esa ,d 2 yhVj ds ¶ykLd esa H2 vkSj I2 izR;sd ds 0.4 eksy
moles of HI are formed. What will be the value of fy;s tkrs gSaA lkE;koLFkk ij HI ds 0.5 eksy curs gSa] rks
equilibrium constant, KC lkE;koLFkk fLFkjkad KC dk eku gksxk%&
(A) 20.2 (B) 25.4 (C) 0.284 (D) 11.1 (A) 20.2 (B) 25.4 (C) 0.284 (D) 11.1
89. The solubility product of a salt having general formula 89. ,d yo.k ftldk lkekU; lw= MX2 gS] dk ty esa foys;rk
MX2, in water is 4 × 10–12. The concentration of M2+ ions xq.kuQy 4 × 10–12 gS rks yo.k ds tyh; foy;u esa M2+
in the aqueous solution of the salt is : vk;u dh lkUnzrk gSa%&
(A) 2.0 × 10–6 M (B) 1.0 × 10–4 M (A) 2.0 × 10–6 M (B) 1.0 × 10–4 M
(C) 1.0 × 10–6 M (D) 1.0525 × 10–7 M (C) 1.0 × 10–6 M (D) 1.0525 × 10–7 M
90. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer? 90. fuEu ;qXeksa esa ls dkSulk ,d cQj foy;u cukrk gSSa\
(A) HNO3 and NH4NO3 (B) HCl and KCl (A) HNO3 rFkk NH4NO3 (B) HCl rFkk KCl
(C) HNO2 and NaNO2 (D) NaOH and NaCl (C) HNO2 rFkk NaNO2 (D) NaOH rFkk NaCl
91. Which of the following molecules, acts as a Lewis acid? 91. fuEufyf[kr v.kqvksa eas dkSulk yqbZl vEy dh rjg dk;Z
djrk gSa%&
(A) (CH3)3N (B) (CH3)3B (A) (CH3)3N (B) (CH3)3B
(C) (CH3)2O (D) (CH3)3P (C) (CH3)2O (D) (CH3)3P

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ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

92. In a closed isolated container a liquid i tirred with a padle to 92. ,d can foyfxr ik= esa j[ks nzo dks ,d iSMy ls rki o`f)
increase the temperature. Which of the following is true: gsrq fgyk;k tkrk gS] rks dkSulk lgh gSa%&
(A) E  W  0, q  0 (B) E  W  0, q  0 (A) E  W  0, q  0 (B) E  W  0, q  0
(C) E  0, W  q  0 (D) W  0, E  q  0 (C) E  0, W  q  0 (D) W  0, E  q  0
93. 2 mole of an ideal gas at 27 C temperature is expaned
O
93. 2 eksy vkn'kZ xSl 27 C rki ij 2 yhVj ls 20 yhVj rd
O

reversible from 2 lit to 20 lit. Find entropy change mRØe.kh; rkSj ij izlkfjr dh tkrh gSA ,UVªkWih cnyko
(R = 2 cal/mol K) gksxk%& (R = 2 cal/mol K)
(A) 92.1 cal K–1 (B) 0 cal K–1 (C) 4 cal K–1 (D) 9.2 cal K–1 (A) 92.1 cal K–1 (B) 0 cal K–1 (C) 4 cal K–1 (D) 9.2 cal K–1
94. Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamics parameter, 94. ,UVªksih (S) dks m"ekxfrd izkpy ekurs gq, fdlh Hkh izØe
the criterion for the spontaneity of any process is :- ds Lor% gksus gsrq 'krZ gSa%&
(A) S surrounding  0 only (B) S system  Ssurrounding  0 (A) S surrounding  0 dsoy (B) S system  Ssurrounding  0
(C) S system  Ssurrounding  0 (D) S system  0 only (C) S system  S surrounding  0 (D) S system  0 dsoy
95. For a first order reaction A  B the reaction rate at 95. ,d izFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k A  B ds fy, 0.01 M vfHkdkjd
reactant concentration of 0.01 M is found to be lkUnzrk ij vfHkfØ;k dk osx 2.0 × 10–5 eksy L–1 s–1 gS
2.0 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1 the half life period of the reaction is vfHkfØ;k dh v)Zvk;q gksxh%&
(A) 300 s (B) 30 s (C) 220 s (D) 347 s (A) 300 s (B) 30 s (C) 220 s (D) 347 s
96. The bromination of acetone that occur in acid solution is 96. vEyh; foy;u eas gksus okys ,lhVksu ds czksehuhdj.k dks
represented by this equation. fuEu lehdj.k }kjk iznf'kZr djrs gSa%
CH3 COCH3 (aq)  Br2 (aq)  CH3 COCH2Br(aq)  H (aq)  Br  (aq) CH3 COCH3 (aq)  Br2 (aq)  CH3 COCH2Br(aq)  H (aq)  Br  (aq)
These kinetic data were obtained for given reaction nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k lkUnzrkvksa ds fy, ;s xfrd vkadM+s izkIr
concentrations. gq,A
Initial concentration (M) Rate of izkjfEHkd lkUnzrk (M) Br2 ds foyksiu
[CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H ]
+
disappearance of [CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+] dh nj (Ms–1)
Br2(Ms–1) 0.30 0.05 0.05 5.7 × 10–5
0.30 0.05 0.05 5.7 × 10–5 0.30 0.10 0.05 5.7 × 10–5
0.30 0.10 0.05 5.7 × 10–5 0.30 0.10 0.10 1.2 × 10–4
0.30 0.10 0.10 1.2 × 10–4 0.40 0.05 0.20 3.1 × 10–4
0.40 0.05 0.20 3.1 × 10–4 bu vk¡dM+ksa ds vk/kkj ij lehdj.k gSa%&
Based on these data the rate equation is : (A) nj = k[CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]
(A) Rate = k[CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+] (B) nj = k[CH3COCH3] [H+]
(B) Rate = k[CH3COCH3] [H+] (C) nj = k[CH3COCH3] [Br2]
(C) Rate = k[CH3COCH3] [Br2] (D) nj = k[CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]2
(D) Rate = k[CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]2
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TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

97. For an endothermic reaction, energy of activation is E a 97. ,d Å"ek'kks"kh vfHkfØ;k esa lfØ;.k ÅtkZ Ea rFkk vfHkfØ;k
and enthalpy of reaction is H (both of these in kJ/mol). Å"ek H (nksuksa kJ/mol es)a gS rks Ea dk U;wrue eku gksxk%&
Minimum value of Ea will be :
(A) Equal to zero (B) Less than H (A) 'kwU;ds cjkcj (B) H ls de
(C) Equal to H (D) More than H (C) H ds cjkcj (D) H ls vf/kd
98. 2 moles of A and 3 moles of B are mixed and the reaction 98. 2 eksy A rFkk 3 eksy B dks 400°C ij fuEu vfHkfØ;kuqlkj
is carried at 400°C according to the equation vfHkd`r fd;k x;kA ;fn vfHkfØ;k dk lkE; fLFkjkad 4 gS]
A (g)  B (g) 2C(g), the equlibrium constant of the rks C ds lkE; ij eksy Kkr dhft;s%&
reaction is 4. Find the moles of C at equlibrium : A (g)  B (g) 2C(g)
(A) 1.2 mol (B) 8.5 mol (A) 1.2 mol (B) 8.5 mol
(C) 2.4 mol (D) 5.4 mol (C) 2.4 mol (D) 5.4 mol
99. At 87OC, H2(g) + S(s) H2S(g), KC= 0.08. If 0.3 99. 87OC ij H2(g) + S(s) H2S(g), KC= 0.08 ;fn
mole of hydrogen and 2 mole of sulphur are heated to gkbMªkt
s u ds 0.3 eksy rFkk lYQj ds 2 eksy 87°C ij 2L d
87°C in a 2L vessel, the concentration of H 2 S at ik= esa xeZ fd, tk,¡ rks lkE;koLFkk ij H2S dh lkUnzrk gS%a &
equilibrium:
(A) 0.011 M (B) 0.022 M (A) 0.011 M (B) 0.022 M
(C) 0.044 M (D) 0.08 M (C) 0.044 M (D) 0.08 M
100. For the reaction, N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g) under 100. fuf'pr rki rFkk vkaf'kd nkc dh fLFkfr esa vfHkfØ;k
certain condition of temperature and partial pressure of N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g) ds fy, NH3 ds fuekZ.k dh nj
the reactants, the rate of formation of NH 3 is 10–3 kg hr–1 gS rks leku fLFkfr;ksa esa H2 ds ifjorZu dh nj
10–3 kg hr–1. The rate of conversion of H2 under same gksxh%&
condition is :-
(A) 1.5 × 10–3 kg hr–1 (A) 1.5 × 10–3 kg hr–1
(B) 1.76 × 10–4 kg hr–1 (B) 1.76 × 10–4 kg hr–1
(C) 2 × 10–3 kg hr–1 (C) 2 × 10–3 kg hr–1
(D) 3 × 10–3 kg hr–1 (D) 3 × 10–3 kg hr–1

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PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 20


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

SECTION-A (Q.101 to 135) SECTION-A (Q.101 to 135)


101. Which one of the following cellular part is incorrectly 101. fuEu esa ls dkSuls dksf'kdh; Hkkx dk xyr feyku gSa%&
matched?
(A) Centrioles – Cell division (A) rkjddsUæ – dksf'kdk foHkktu
(B) Nucleus – Control cellular activity (B) dsUæd – dksf'kdh; xfrfof/k;ksa dk fu;a=.k
(C) Stroma – Light reaction (C) ihfBdk & izdk'kh; vfHkfØ;k
(D) SER – Lipid synthesis (D) SER – fyfiM la'ys"k.k
102. Based on the type of pigments plastids can be classified 102. o.kZdksa ds vk/kkj ij yod dk oxhZdj.k fdrus çdkj esa
into :- fd;k x;k gS&
(A) Amyloplast, elaioplast, and aleuroplasts (A) ,ekbyksIykLV] bfy;ksIykLV rFkk ,Y;wjksIykLV
(B) Chlorophyll, carotenoid and xanthophyll (B) DyksjksfQy] dSjksVhu‚;M rFkk tSUFkksfQy
(C) Chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplast (C) gfjryod] ØkseksIykLV rFkk Y;wdksIykLV
(D) Phytochrome, phycobilins and phycoerythrin (D) QkbVksØkse] Qkbdksfcyhu rFkk QkbdksbjsFkzhu
103. Segregation of mendelian factors (Aa) occurs during:- 103. es.Msfy;u dkjdksa (Aa) dk i`FkDdj.k fdlesa gksrk gS &
(A) Diplotene (A) fMIyksVhu
(B) Anaphase-I (B) ,sukQst&I
(C) Pachytene (C) iSdsVhu
(D) Anaphase-II (D) ,sukQst&II
104. A structure that connect the cytoplasm of neighbouring 104. lajpuk tks lehi fLFkr dksf'kdkvksa ds dksf'kdkæO; dks
cells and another which holds or glues the different tksM+rh gS rFkk nwljh lajpuk tks lehi fLFkr fofHkUu
neighbouring cell together. These are:- dksf'kdkvksa dks ,d lkFk fLFkj djrh gS ;k fpidkus dk
dk;Z djrh gS] ;s lajpuk,a gSa&
(A) Cell wall and middle lamella respectively (A) Øe'k% dksf'kdk fHkfÙk rFkk e/; iVfydk
(B) Plasmodesmata and middle lamella respectively (B) Øe'k% IykTeksMsLesVk rFkk e/; iVfydk
(C) Middle lamella and desmosomes respectively (C) Øe'k% e/; iVfydk rFkk MsLekslksEl
(D) Middle lamella and plasmodesmata respectively (D) Øe'k% e/; iVfydk rFkk IykTeksMsLesVk
105. The content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of 105. dsfUædk dk æO;] dsUædæO; ls lrr~ lEidZ cuk;s j[krk gS
the nucleoplasm as :- D;ksafd&
(A) Nucleolus is not a membrane bound structure (A) dsfUædk f>Yyh ls f?kjh lajpuk ugha gSA
(B) Nucleolus is connected to the nucleoplasm with the (B) dsfUædk] dsUædæO; ls dsUnzd fNnz dh lgk;rk ls
help of nuclear pore lEifdZr jgrh gSA
(C) Nucleolus synthesise m-RNA with the help of (C) dsfUædk] dsUædæO; esa mifLFkr Øksefs Vu dh lgk;rk ls
chromatin present in the nucleoplasm m-RNA dk la'ys"k.k djrh gSA
(D) Nucleolus cannot be easily distinguished from (D) dsfUædk dks dsUædæO; ls vklkuh ls igpkuk ugha tk
nucleoplasm ldrk gSA
106. Which of the following is not correct for anaphase in 106. lelw=h foHkktu esa ,ukQst ds fy, fuEu esa dkSulk lgh
mitosis ugha gS\
(A) Centromeres split and chromatids separate (A) xq.klw= fcUnq foHkkftr gksrk gS ,oa ØksesfVM i`Fkd gks
tkrs gSaA
(B) Daughter chromosomes move to opposite poles (B) iq=h xq.klw=] foifjr /kzqoksa dh vksj xfr djrs gSaA
(C) Reformation of ER and Golgi apparatus (C) ER ,oa xksYth midj.k dk iqu% fuekZ.kA
(D) Number of chromosomes become double in cell (D) dksf'kdk esa xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k dk nqxquk gks tkukA
PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 21
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ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

107. In anaphase-I, as compared to metaphase-I, cell 107. ,ukQst&I voLFkk esa] esVkQst&I voLFkk dh rqyuk esa]
possessing- dksf'kdk esa&
(A) Same number of chromosomes and same number (A) xq.klw=ksa dh leku la[;k rFkk çR;sd xq.klw= esa Øksefs VM~l
of chromatids in each chromosome dh leku la[;k gksrh gSA
(B) Half number of chromosomes and half number of (B) xq.klw=ksa dh vk/kh la[;k rFkk çR;sd xq.klw= esa Øksefs VM~l
chromatids in each chromosome dh vk/kh la[;k gksrh gSA
(C) Half number of chromosomes and same number of (C) xq.klw=ksa dh vk/kh la[;k rFkk çR;sd xq.klw= esa Øksefs VM~l
chromatids in each chromosome. dh leku la[;k gksrh gSA
(D) Half number of chromosomes and Double number of (D) xq.klw=ksa dh vk/kh la[;k rFkk çR;sd xq.klw= esa Øksefs VM~l
chromatids in each chromosome dh nqxquh la[;k gksrh gSA
108. A nucleic acid contains thymine or methylated uracil then 108. ;fn ,d U;wfDyd vEy esa Fkkbehu vFkok feFkkbysVsM
it should be - ;wjsfly gS rks og D;k gksxk &
(A) DNA (B) RNA (A) DNA (B) RNA
(C) Either DNA or RNA (D) RNA of bacteria (C) ;k rks DNA ;k RNA (D) thok.kq dk RNA
109. A Nitrogen base together with pentose sugar and 109. ,d ukbVªkstu {kkjd isUVkst 'kdZjk ,oa Q‚LQsV ds lkFk
phosphte forms :- feydj fdldk fuekZ.k djrs gSa &
(A) Nucleoside (B) Polypeptide (A) U;wfDyvkslkbM dk (B) i‚fyisIVkbM
(C) Nucleotide (D) Amino acid (C) U;wfDyvksVkbM dk (D) vehuksa vEy dk
110. The molecule represented is? 110. uhps n'kkZ;k x;k v.kq D;k gS\

(A) Uridine and it is a pyrimidine (A) ;wjhMhu gS] tks fd ,d ihfjfeMhu gSA
(B) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleoside (B) ;wjhMkbfyd vEy gS] tks fd ,d U;wfDy;kslkbM gSA
(C) Uridine and it is a nucleoside (C) ;wjhMhu gS] tks fd ,d U;wfDy;kslkbM gSA
(D) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleotide (D) ;wjhMkbfyd vEy gS] tks fd ,d U;wfDy;ksVkbM gSA
111. In Avery, MacLeod and McCarty experiment, transforming 111. ,sosjh] eSdfyvksM rFkk eSddkVhZ ds ç;ksx ls #ikUrj.k
agent was :- dkjd Fkk%&
(A) RNA (B) DNA (A) RNA (B) DNA
(C) Protein (D) Carbohydrate (C) Protein (D) Carbohydrate
112. Transcription unit in E.coli is generally:- 112. E.coli esa lkekU;r% vuqys[ku bdkbZ gksrh gS&
(A) Monocistronic (B) Polycistronic (A) Monocistronic (B) Polycistronic
(C) with intron (D) non-coding (C) with intron (D) non-coding
113. Which of the following is not a part of operon? 113. fuEu esa ls dkSulk vksisj‚u dk Hkkx ugha gS\
(A) An operator (B) Structural gene (A) v‚ijsVj (B) lajpukRed thu
(C) An Inducer (D) A promoter (C) izsjd (D) çkseksVj
114. In Lac operon, Allolactose act as :- 114. ySd vksisjku esa] ,syksySDVksl dk dk;Z gksrk gS&
(A) repressor (B) co-repressor (A) laned (B) lg&laned
(C) co-enzyme (D) Inducer (C) dks& ,atkbe (D) çsjd

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TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

115. Which of the following RNA polymerase enzyme catalyses 115. fuEu esa ls dkSulk RNA iksyhesjst ,Utkbe mRNA ds
the formation of precursor of mRNA (hnRNA) :- iwoZorhZ :i (hnRNA) ds fuekZ.k dks mRçsfjr djrk gS&
(A) DNA ligase (A) DNA ykbxst
(B) RNA Polymerase II (B) RNA iksyhesjst II
(C) RNA Polymerase I (C) RNA iksyhesjst I
(D) DNA Polymerase II (D) DNA iksyhesjts II
116. DNA and RNA differ from each other with respect to :- 116. DNA rFkk RNA ,d nwljs ls fdl lanHkZ esa fHkUu gS&
(A) Nitrogen base only (A) dsoy ukbVªkstu {kkjksa ds fy,
(B) Sugar only (B) dsoy 'kdZjk ds fy,
(C) Stability (C) LFkkf;Ro
(D) All of these (D) mijksDr lHkh
117. If both strands in a given segment of DNA are transcribed 117. DNA ds ,d [kaM esa ;fn nksuks DNA jTtqdks dk vuqy[ s ku gks
then the two RNA molecules formed must be :- tk, rks blls cuus okys RNA&
(A) Parallel and complementary (A) lekukarj o iwjd gksxs
(B) Parallel and identical (B) lekukarj o leku gksxs
(C) Anti-parallel and complementary (C) çfr lekukarj o iwjd gksxs
(D) Anti-parallel and identical (D) çfr lekukarj o leku gksxs
118. Methionine and Phenylallanine are coded by : 118. Methionine o Phenylallanine dk fu/kkZj.k gksrk gSa%&
(A) AUG. UUU. (B) AUG. AUU. (A) AUG. UUU. (B) AUG. AUU.
(C) AUG. GUG. (D) GUG. UUU. (C) AUG. GUG. (D) GUG. UUU.
119. A DNA molecule contain 20,000 base pairs. How many 119. ,d Mh,u, ds v.kq esa 20]000 {kkj ;qXe gSa rks blesa fdrus
nucleotides would be present in it? U;wfDy;ksVkbM~l blesa mifLFkr gksaxs \
(A) 2000 (B) 10,000 (A) 2000 (B) 10,000
(C) 40,000 (D) 20,000 (C) 40,000 (D) 20,000
120. Which of the following feature generates approximately 120. fuEu esa ls dkSulh fo'ks"krk Mh,u, esa nks i‚yhU;wfDy;ksVkbM
uniform distance between the two strand of DNA:- J`a[kykvksa ds chp dh nwjh dks ges'kk yxHkx leku cuk,
j[krh gS&
(A) One purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine (A) ,d I;wjhu ds lkeus ges'kk ,d fijhfeMhu vkrk gS
(B) One purine always comes opposite to a purine (B) ,d I;wjhu ds lkeus ges'kk ,d I;wjhu vkrk gS
(C) One pyrimidine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine (C) ,d ifjehMhu ds lkeus ges'kk ,d fijhehMhu vkrk gSA
(D) Presence of pentose sugar (D) isUVkst 'kdZjk dh mifLFkfr
121. Methylated uracil attached with which carbon of pentose 121. isUVkst 'kdZjk ds dksuls dkcZu ds lkFk feFkkbysVM s ;wjsfly
sugar? }kjk tqM+rk gS\
(A) 1st (B) 5th (A) 1st (B) 5th
(C) 3rd (D) 2nd (C) 3rd (D) 2nd
122. Which of the DNA molecule will separated into two strand 122. fuEu esa ls dkSulk DNA v.kq fuEure rkieku ij nks i`Fkd
at lowest temperature LVªsUM esa foHkä gksxk\
(A) 5' - A A T G C T G C-3 (B) 5' - A A T A A G T C-3' (A) 5' - A A T G C T G C-3 (B) 5' - A A T A A G T C-3'
3 - T T A C G A C G-5' 3'- T T A T T C A G-5' 3 - T T A C G A C G-5' 3'- T T A T T C A G-5'
(C) 5' - G T C T A C A A-3' (D) 5' - A G C T T C C A-3' (C) 5' - G T C T A C A A-3' (D) 5' - A G C T T C C A-3'
3' - C A G A T G T T-5' 3' - T C G A A G G T-5' 3' - C A G A T G T T-5' 3' - T C G A A G G T-5'

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ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

123. By a monohybrid cross, which of the following 123. ,dy ladj ladj.k }kjk fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk fl)kar Li"V
phenomenon can't be explained? ugha fd;k tk ldrk \
(A) Segregation of factors (A) dkjdksa dk i`FFkdj.k
(B) Dominance (B) çHkkfork
(C) Independent assortment (C) Lora= viO;wgu
(D) All (D) lHkh
124. How many characters choosed by Mendel related to 124. fdrus y{k.k esaMy }kjk p;fur fd, x, tks fd chtksa ls
seeds? lacaf/kr gSa \
(A) 1 (B) 2 (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5 (C) 3 (D) 5
125. Alleles are:- 125. ,yhy gksrs gSa &
(A) True breeding homozygotes (A) ;FkkFkZ çtuudkjh le;qXet
(B) Different molecular forms of a gene (B) thu ds fofHkUu vkf.od :i
(C) Heterozygotes (C) fo"ke;qXet
(D) Different phenotype (D) fofHkUu y{k.k çk:i
126. When a heterozygous tall pea plant of F generation upon 126. ,d F1 ih<h dk fo"ke;qXeth yEcs eVj dk ikni Lofu"kspu
self fertilization produces tall and dwarf phenotypes it ij yEcs vkSj ckSus y{k.k ç:i mRiUu djrk gS rks ;g fl)
proves the principle of :- djrk gS&
(A) Incomplete Dominance (A) viw.kZ çHkkfork
(B) Segregation (B) i`FkDdj.k
(C) Independant assortement (C) Lora= viO;wgu
(D) Codominsnce. (D) lg çHkkfork
127. In a dihybrid heterozygous plant, How many types and in 127. ,d f}ladj fo"ke;qXet ikS/kksa esa fdrus çdkj ds ,oa fdl
what ratio the gametes are produced? vuqikr esa ;qXed mRikfnr fd, tk,axs \
(A) 4 types in the ratio of 9:3:3:1 (A) 4 çdkj ds] 9:3:3:1
(B) 2 types in the ratio of 3:1 (B) 2 çdkj ds] 3:1
(C) 3 types in the ratio of 1:2:1 (C) 3 çdkj ds] 1:2:1
(D) 4 types in the ratio of 1:1:1:1 (D) 4 çdkj ds] 1:1:1:1
128. Symbol used in pedigree analysis for unspecified sex is:- 128. vKkr fyax ds fy, oa'kkoyh fo'ys"k.k esa mi;ksx fd;k tkus
okyk fpUg gSa&
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

129. Henking observed that 50% of the sperm received a 129. Henking us ns[kk fd 50% 'kqØk.kqvksa ,d fof'k"V dsUædh;
specific nuclear structure. whereas the other 50% sperm lajpuk çkIr djrs gSa] tcfd vU; 50% 'kqØk.kqvksa ;g
did not receive it. Henking gave a name to this structure lajpuk çkIr ugha gksrh gS Henking us bl lajpuk dks D;k
as uke fn;k&
(A) Y-body (A) Y-dk;
(B) X-body (B) X-dk;
(C) Barr Body (C) Barr Body
(D) W-Chromosome (D) W-xq.klw=

PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 24


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

130. 130.

Choose the correct answer for given diagram- fn, x, fp= ds fy, lgh fodYi dk p;u djsaA
(A) A-has negative charge (A) A- ij _.kkRed vkos'k gksrk gSA
(B) B-is a Linker DNA (B) B- ,d Linker DNA gSA
(C) C-formed by five types of nonhistone protein (C) C&ik¡p çdkj dh xSjfgLVksu çksVhu ls feydj curh gSA
(D) A-is a sealing protein (D) A-,d sealing çksVhu gSA
131. How many x-chromosome will be found in a woman having 131. ,d Mkmu fl.Mªkse okyh efgyk esa fdruh x-xq.klw= gksaxsa\
down syndrom?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
132. There are three genes a, b and c. The present on 132. rhu thUl a, b o c xq.klw= ij mifLFkfr gSaA a rFkk b ds
chromosome percentage of crossing over between a and e/; Ø‚flax v‚oj dh çfr'krrk 20% b rFkk c ds e/;
b is 20%, b and c is 28% and a and c is 8%. What is the 28% rFkk a o c ds e/; 8% gS] rks bu rhuksa thUl dh
sequence of genes on chromosome xq.klw= ij O;oLFkk D;k gksxh&
(A) b, a, c (B) a, b, c (C) a, c, b (D) b, c, a (A) b, a, c (B) a, b, c (C) a, c, b (D) b, c, a
133. Study the given figure and find out : 133. fn, x;s fp= dk v/;;u dhft, rFkk Kkr dhft,&

What will the distance between gene of white eye and 'osr us= thu dh thu rFkk NksVs vkdkj ds ia[kksa dh
miniature wing? ¼y?kqrj½ thu ds chp dh nwjh D;k gS\
(A) 37.2 CM (B) 62.8 CM (A) 37.2 CM (B) 62.8 CM
(C) 1.3 CM (D) 98.7 CM (C) 1.3 CM (D) 98.7 CM

PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 25


TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

134. A plant having genotype AaBBTt and all three genes are 134. ,d ikS/k ftldk thu çk:i AaBBTt gS rFkk lHkh rhuksa
completely linked then it will produce pollen grains in thu iw.kZr;k lgyXu gSa] rc ;g fdl vuqikr esa ijkxd.k
ratio:- cuk,xk&
(A) 1:1 (A) 1:1
(B) 1:1:1:1 (B) 1:1:1:1
(C) 3:1 (C) 3:1
(D) 1:1:1:1:1:1:1:1 (D) 1:1:1:1:1:1:1:1
135. Which is incorrectly matched ? 135. dkSu lk lgh lqesfyr ugha gS \
(A) – Unaffected male (A) – vçHkkfor uj
(B) – Second marriage (B) – nwljk fookg

(C) – Affected female (C) – çHkkfor eknk

(D) – Sex unspecified (D) – vKkr fyax


SECTION-B (Q.136 to 150) SECTION-B (Q.136 to 150)
136. CryIAb endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis 136. csflyl FkqfjfUt,fll ls çkIr CryIAb ,aMksV‚fDlu fdlds
are effective against :- çfr dkjxj gksrs gSa \
(A) Nematodes (B) Cotton Bollworms (A) uheSVksM (B) dikl ds eqdqy —fe
(C) Mosquitoes (D) Corn borer (C) ePNj (D) eDdk Nsnd
137. Which technique is now routinely used to detect HIV in 137. vktdy lkekU;r;k lansgkRed ,M~l jksfx;ksa esa ,p-vkbZ-
suspected AIDS patients. oh- dh igpku gsrq dkSulh rduhdh dk mi;ksx gksrk gS \
(A) PCR (B) MOET (A) PCR (B) MOET
(C) RFLP (D) Western blotting (C) RFLP (D) osLVu CyksfVax
138. Which option is correct ? 138. dkSulk fodYi lR; gS \
(A) Introns are present in mRNA while exons are present (A) Introns mRNA esa mifLFkr gksrs gSa tcfd exons tRNA
in tRNA. esa
(B) Codons are present in mRNA while anticodons are (B) Codons mRNA esa mifLFkr gksrs gSa tcfd anticodons
present in tRNA. tRNA esa
(C) Every intron is a set of three terminator codons (C) çR;sd Intron esa rhuks çfrca/ku Codons gksrs gSaA
(D) Exons are present in eukaryotes but introns are (D) Exons eukaryotes esa mifLFkr gksrs gSA
a ysfdu Introns
present in prokaryotes. prokaryotes esa mifLFkr gksrs gSaA
139. LAB produce 139. LAB ls curk gSa%&
(A) Vit A (B) Vit B (A) Vit A (B) Vit B
(C) Vit C (D) Vit D (C) Vit C (D) Vit D
140. Genetically modified plants have been useful in many 140. vkuqokaf'kdrk :ikarfjr ikS/kksa dk mi;ksx dbZ çdkj ls
ways EXCEPT :- ykHknk;d gS flok; ,d dks NksM+dj&
(A) Enhanced nutritional value of food (A) [kk| inkFkksaZ ds iks"kf.kd Lrj esa o`f)
(B) Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (B) ikS/kksa }kjk [kfut mi;ksx {kerk esa
(C) Made crops more tolerant to abiotics stress (C) vtSo çfrcy ds çfr vf/kd lfg".kq Qlyksa dk fuekZ.k
(D) Recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants (D) jksx xzflr ikniksa ls LoLFk ikniksa dk fuekZ.k

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TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

141. The process of separation and purification of expressed 141. cktkj esa Hkstus ls igys] vfHkO;ä çksVhu ds çFkDdj.k vkSj
protein before marketing is called:- 'kq)hdj.k dh çfØ;k dks D;k dgk tkrk gS\
(A) Bioprocessing (A) tSo çØe.k
(B) Biofortification (B) tSo iqf"Vdj.k
(C) Downstream processing (C) vuqçokg çØe.k
(D) Upstream processing (D) çfrçokg çØe.k
142. Which of the following is correct match ? 142. fuEu esa ls lgh esy gS&
(A) Insulin - SCID disease (A) balqyhu & SCID chekjh
(B) ADA gene - Diabetes (B) ADA thu& e/kqesg
(C) -1 antitrypsin -Cancer (C) -1 ,aVhfVªIlhu & dSalj
(D) Golden Rice - Vitamin - A (D) lqugjk pkoy& foVkfeu A
143. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to 143. :ikarj.k gsrq] DNA ls ysfir lw{e d.k] ftudks Þthu xu**
be bombarded with gene gun are made up of :- ls nkxk tkrk gks] fdlds cus gksrs gSa\
(A) Silicon or Platinum (B) Gold or Tungsten (A) flfyd‚u vFkok IysfVue (B) Lo.kZ vFkok VaxLVu
(C) Silver or platinum (D) Platinum or zinc (C) jtr vFkok IysfVue (D) IysfVue vFkok ftad
144. The following diagram represents :- 144. fn;k x;k fp= fdldks çnf'kZr dj jgk gS&

(A) Proinsulin (B) Mature insulin (A) çkDbalqfyu (B) ifjiDo balqfyu
(C) Functional insulin (D) Both (B) and (C) (C) fØ;k'khy balqfyu (D) 2 vkSj 3 nksuksa
145. Match the column I with column II :- 145. d‚ye I dk d‚ye II ds lkFk lgh feyku dhft,&

(A) A-(iv), B-(iii); C-(ii), D-(i) (A) A-(iv), B-(iii); C-(ii), D-(i)
(B) A-(i), B-(ii); C-(iii), D-(iv) (B) A-(i), B-(ii); C-(iii), D-(iv)
(C) A-(ii), B-(iv) ; C-(i), D-(iii) (C) A-(ii), B-(iv) ; C-(i), D-(iii)
(D) A-(iv), B-(ii); C-(iii), D-(i) (D) A-(iv), B-(ii); C-(iii), D-(i)
146. Which one of the following helps the plant in absorption 146. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ikS/kksa esa Q‚LQksjl ds vo'kks"k.k esa
of phosphorus from soil ? lgk;d gksrk gS\
(A) Anabaena (B) mychorhiza (A) ,ukchuk (B) ekbdksjkbtk
(C) Rhizobium (D) Frankia (C) jkbtksfc;e (D) ÝSafd;k
147. Dominant character is : 147. izHkkoh y{k.k gSa%&
(A) Yellow seed (A) Yellow seed
(B) Green pod (B) Green pod
(C) Tall plant (C) Tall plant
(D) All (D) All
PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 27
TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

148. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given 148. uhps nh x;h rkfydk esa xyr feyk;h x;h enksa dks pqfu,\
table?

149. Large holes in swiss cheese are due to production of a 149. fLol pht esa ik;s tkus okys cM+s&cM+s fNæ ,d thok.kq }kjk
large amount of CO2 by a bacterium is : mRiUu CO2 ds dkj.k gksrs gSa ;g thok.kq gSa&
(A) Lactobacillus lactis (A) ysDVkscsflyl ysfDVl
(B) Clostridium butylicum (B) DyksLVªhfM;e C;wfVfyde
(C) Propionibacterium sharmanii (C) çksfivksuh csfDVfj;e 'kkjekuh
(D) Mycobacterium laprae (D) ekbdkscsfDVfj;e ysçh
150. A colour blind girl is rare because she will be born only 150. ,d o.kkaZ/k yM+dh nqyZHk gS D;ksafdD;ksa og dsoy rHkh iSnk
when gksxh tc
(A) Her mother and maternal grand father were colour (A) mldh ek¡ vkSj ukuk o.kkaZ/k gksa
blind
(B) Her father and maternal grand father were colour (B) mlds firk vkSj ukuk o.kkaZ/k gksa
blind
(C) Her mother is colour blind and father has normal (C) mldh ek¡ o.kkaZ/k gksa vkSj firk dh lkekU; –f"V gksa
vision
(D) Parents have normal vision (D) ekrk&firk lkekU; –f"V ds gksa
SECTION-A (Q.151 to 185) SECTION-A (Q.151 to 185)
151. Which of the following is a recessive trait for a character 151. m|ku eVj esa esMa y }kjk pqus x, pfj= ds fy, fuEufyf[kr
choosen by Mendel in garden pea? esa ls dkSu lk ,d vçHkkoh fo'ks"kd gS\
(A) Violet flower color (A) cSaxuh jax dk Qwy
(B) Yellow pod color (B) Qyh dk ihyk jax
(C) Axial flower position (C) Qwy dh v{kh; fLFkfr
(D) Tall stem height (D) rus dh yEch Å¡pkbZ
152. Indentify the incorrect statement: 152. xyr dFku dks igpkusa&
(A) Tall plant produce gametes by meiosis and the dwarf (A) yack ikS/kk v/kZlw=hfoHkktu }kjk vkSj ckSuk ikS/kk lw=h
plants by mitosis. foHkktu }kjk ;qXed iSnk djrk gSA
(B) Only one allele is transmitted to a gamete. (B) dsoy ,d ;qXefodYih ;qXed esa lapfjr gksrk gSA
(C) The segregation of alleles is a random process. (C) ;qXefodYih dk i`FkDdj.k ,d ;k–fPNd çfØ;k gSA
(D) Gametes will always be pure for the trait. (D) ;qXed ges'kk fo'ks"kd ds fy, 'kq) jgsaxsA

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TR|NR MAJOR TEST – 07
ACADEMY DATE :- 22/03/2024

153. The ultimate source of allelic variation is: 153. ;qXefodYih fHkUurk dk vafre lzksr gS&
(A) Recombination (B) Natural selection (A) iqu;ksZtu (B) çk—frd p;u
(C) Mutation (D) Drift (C) mRifjorZu (D) fopyu
154. In the case of incomplete dominance, the F1 generation 154. viw.kZ çHkkfork ds ekeys esa] F1 ih<+h l–'k fn[krk gS&
resembles
(A) Dominant parent (A) çHkkoh tud
(B) Recessive parent (B) vçHkkoh tud
(C) Both the parents (C) nksuksa tud
(D) None of the parents (D) nksuksa esa ls dksbZ tud ugh
155. What can be the possible blood groups of progeny whose 155. larku ftlds firk vkSj ekrk Øe'k% A vkSj B lewg ds gSa dk
father and mother are of A and B group respectively? laHkkfor jä lewg D;k gks ldrk gS\
(A) A and B only (A) dsoy A vkSj B
(B) AB only (B) dsoy AB
(C) All except O (C) O dks NksM+dj lHkh
(D) A, B, AB and O (D) A, B, AB vkSj O
156. What is incorrect for Hemophilia? 156. gseksfQfy;k ds fy, D;k xyr gS\
(A) In this disease, a single protein that is a part of the (A) bl chekjh esa] ,d ,dy çksVhu tks jä ds FkDds esa
cascade of proteins involved in the clotting of blood is 'kkfey çksVhu ds lksiku dk ,d fgLlk gksrk gSA
affected.
(B) In an affected indlvidual a simple cut will result in (B) ,d çHkkfor O;fä esa ,d lk/kkj.k dV tkus dk ifj.kke
non-stop bleeding. fcuk #ds jälzko gksrk gSA
(C) The heterozygous female (carrier) for haemophilia (C) gheksfQfy;k ds fy, ,d fo"ke;qXeth efgyk ¼okgd½
may transmit the disease to sons. csVksa dks jksx lapkfjr dj ldrh gSA
(D) The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic (D) ,d efgyk ds gheksfQfyd gksus dh laHkkouk vR;ar
is extremely rare because mother of such a female has nqyHZ k gS D;ksafdD;ksa ,slh efgyk dh ek¡ dks gheksfQfyd gksuk
to be hemophilic and the father should be a carrier. pkfg, vkSj firk dks ,d okgd gksuk pkfg,A
157. What is the mode of inheritance of phenylketonuria? 157. QsukbYdsVksU;wfj;k ds oa'kkxfr dh fof/k D;k gS\
(A) Autosomal recessive (A) vçHkkoh vfyax xq.klw=h;
(B) Autosomal dominant (B) çHkkoh vfyax xq.klw=h;
(C) Sex linked recessive (C) vçHkkoh fyax lgyXu
(D) Sex linked dominant (D) çHkkoh fyax lgyXu
158. Which of the following is not a feature of Down's Syndrome? 158. fuEu esa ls dkSu Mkmu flaMªkse dh fo'ks"krk ugha gS\
(A) It is caused by a non-disjunction in an autosome (A) ;g vfyax xq.klw= ds vfo;kstu ds dkj.k gksrk gS
(B) The affected individual has trisomy of chromosome 21 (B) çHkkfor O;fä esa xq.klw= 21 dh f=xq.klw=rk gksrh gS
(C) The aflected individual has a characteristic palm (C) izHkkfor O;fä ds ikl ,d fof'k"V dfi ÅfeZdk ¼gFksyh
crease dh ydhjs½ gksrh gS
(D) The mental development of affected individual is (D) çHkkfor O;fä dk ekufld fodkl lkekU; gksrk gS
normal
159. Packing of substance for export from the cell occurs by 159. dksf'kdk ls fu;kZr ds fy, inkFkZ dk laos"Vu fdlds }kjk
the : gksrk gS\
(A) RER (B) Lysosome (A) RER (B) y;udk;
(C) Nucleus (D) Golgi body (C) dsUæd (D) x‚Yth dk;
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160. Cell theory’s earlier proposed by Schleiden and Schwann 160. LykbMsu vkSj 'oku }kjk çLrkfor iwoZrj dksf'kdk fl)kar
failed to explain fdldh O;k[;k djus esa foQy jgk\
(A) how new cells are formed (A) ubZ dksf'kdk,a dSls curh gSa
(B) how cells die (B) dksf'kdk,¡ dSls ejrh gSa
(C) how cell division takes place (C) dksf'kdk foHkktu dSls gksrk gS
(D) how plant cell is different from animal cell (D) ikni dksf'kdk] tarq dksf'kdk ls dSls fHkUu gS
161. Select the correct matching in the following pairs. 161. fuEufyf[kr ;qXeksa esa lgh feyku dk p;u djsaA
(A) Smooth ER—Oxidation of phospholipids (A) fpduh ER—Q‚LQksfyfiM dk v‚Dlhdj.k
(B) Smooth ER—Synthesis of lipids (B) fpduh ER—fyfiM dk la'ys"k.k
(C) Rough ER—Synthesis of glycogen (C) [kqjnjh ER—Xykbdkstu dk la'ys"k.k
(D) Rough ER—Oxidation of fatty acids (D) [kqjnjh ER—olh; vEyksa dk v‚Dlhdj.k
162. Algae have cell wall made up of 162. 'kSoky esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk cuh gksrh gS&
(A) cellulose, galactans and mannans (A) lsyqyksl] xSysDVsUl vkSj eSukUl
(B) hemicellulose, pectins and proteins (B) gsehlsywyksl] isfDVu vkSj çksVhu
(C) pectins, cellulose and proteins (C) isfDVu] lsyqykslvkSj çksVhu
(D) cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins (D) lsyqyksl] gsehlsywyksl] vkSj isfDVu
163. Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some 163. dqN lkbukscSDVhfj;k esa o.kZd;qä f>Yyhuqek foLrj.k gksrk
cyanobacteria are gS&
(A) heterocysts (A) gsVsjksflLV
(B) basal bodies (B) vk/kkjh; 'kjhj
(C) pneumatophores (C) 'oluewy
(D) chromatophores (D) o.kZdh yod
164. The structures that are formed by stacking of organised 164. gfjryod esa O;ofLFkr piVh f>Yyhuqek FkSfy;ksa ds ,d=.k
flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are ls cuus okyh lajpuk,¡ gSa
(A) cristae (B) grana (A) fØLVh (B) xzus k
(C) stroma lamellae (D) stroma (C) ihfBdk iêfydk,a (D) ihfBdk
165. Which of the following is the part of the Endomembrane 165. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu var% f>fYydk ra= dk Hkkx gS&
system
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex, lysosomes and (A) varnZOz ;h tkfydk] x‚Yth lfEeJ] y;udk; vkSj fjfädk
vacuoles
(B) Golgi complex and ER only (B) x‚Yth lfEeJ vkSj dsoy ER
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex, and vacuoles (C) varnZzO;h tkfydk] x‚Yth lfEeJ] vkSj fjfädk
(D) Nucleus, Endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex, and (D) dsUæd] varnZzO;h tkfydk] x‚Yth lfEeJ] vkSj fjfädk
vacuoles
166. Vacuole in a plant cell 166. ikni dksf'kdk esa jl/kkuh&
(A) is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins (A) f>Yyhc) gksrh gS vkSj çksVhu vkSj fyfiM dk HkaMkj.k
and lipids gksrk gS
(B) is membrane-bound and smaller than animal cell (B) f>Yyhc) gksrh gS vkSj tUrq dksf'kdk ls NksVh gksrh gSA
(C) lacks membrane and contains air (C) f>Yyh dk vkHkko gksrk gS vkSj ok;q varfoZ"V gksrh gS
(D) lacks membrane and contains water and excretory (D) f>Yyh dk vkHkko gksrk gS vkSj ty ,oa mRltZd inkFkZ
substances varfoZ"V gksrs gS

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167. Which of the following is true about prokaryotic cell 167. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk çkddsaædh dksf'kdk ds fo"k; esa
lgh gS\
(A) no well-defined nucleus (A) vYi fodflr dsUæd
(B) membrane bound organal absent (B) f>Yyh ;qDr dksf'kdk vuqifLFkr
(C) nuclear membrane is absent (C) dsUæd dyk dh vuqifLFkfr
(D) All of the above (D) mijksä lHkh
168. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell 168. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dksf'kdk f>Yyh dk ,d ?kVd
membrane ? ugha gS\
(A) Cholesterol (B) Glycolipids (A) dksysLVª‚y (B) XykbdksfyfiM~l
(C) Proline (D) Phospholipids (C) çksykbu (D) Q‚LQksfyfiM~l
169. Select the wrong statement from the following: 169. fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u djsa&
(A) both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner (A) gfjryod vkSj lw=df.kdk nksuksa esa ,d vkarfjd vkSj
and an outer membrane ,d cká f>Yyh gksrh gS
(B) both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal (B) gfjryod vkSj lw=df.kdk nksuksa esa ,d vkarfjd dks"B
compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the gksrs gSa] FkkbykdksbM fjä LFkku FkkbysdksbM f>Yyh }kjk
thylakoid membrane f?kjk gksrk gS
(C) both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA (C) gfjryod vkSj lw=df.kdk nksuksa esa Mh,u, gksrk gS
(D) the chloroplasts are generally much larger than (D) gfjryod lkekU;r% lw=df.kdk ls dkQh cM+s gksrs gS
mitochondria
170. During meiosis, the sister chromatids separate during: 170. v/kZlw=hfoHkktu ds nkSjku] lgvnZ~/kxq.klw=-------------ds e/;
vyx gks tkrs gSA
(A) Anaphase II (B) Anaphase I (A) i'pkoLFkk II (B) i'pkoLFkk I
(C) The S phase (D) Synapsis (C) S pj.k (D) lw=;qXeu
171. Chromosome number is reduced during meiosis because 171. v/kZlw=hfoHkktu ds nkSjku xq.klw= la[;k de gks tkrh gS
the process consists of: D;ksafd çfØ;k esa---------------lfEefyr gSa&
(A) Two cell divisions without any chromosome replication (A) fdlh Hkh xq.klw= çfr—fr ds fcuk nks dksf'kdk foHkktu
(B) A single cell division without any chromosome (B) fdlh Hkh xq.klw= çfr—fr ds fcuk ,d ,dy dksf'kdk
replication foHkktu
(C) Two cell divisions in which half of the chromosomes (C) nks dksf'kdk foHkktu ftlesa vk/ks xq.klw= u"V gks tkrs
are destroyed gSaA
(D) Two cell divisions and only a single round of (D) nks dksf'kdk foHkktu vkSj dsoy ,d ckj xq.klw=
chromosome replication çfr—frdj.k
172. Which of the following events occur first in Meiosis? 172. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh ?kVuk igyh ckj v/kZlw=.k esa
gksrh gS\
(A) Terminalisation (A) mikarhHkou
(B) Crossing over (B) fofue;
(C) Disjunction (C) fo;kstu
(D) Synapsis (D) lw=;qXeu
173. The centrioles replicate during: 173. rkjddsaæ--------------ds le; çfr—fr djrk gS&
(A) G phase (B) S phase (A) G pj.k (B) S pj.k
(C) G phase (D) Early prophase (C) G pj.k (D) çkjafHkd iwokZoLFkk

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174. The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope 174. ukfHkdh; vkoj.k dk iw.kZ fo?kVu fpfUgr djrk gS&
marks the
(A) Ending of the second phase(stage) of mitosis (A) lelw=.k dh nwljh çkoLFkk dk var
(B) Start of the second phase(stage) of mitosis (B) lelw=.k dh nwljh çkoLFkk dk çkjaHk
(C) Anaphase (C) ,ukQst
(D) Both (B) and (C) (D) (B) & (C) nksuks
175. Which of the following phases is equivalent to Prophase 175. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh çkoLFkk iwokZoLFkk f}rh; pj.k ds
II? lerqY; gS\
(A) Prophase (B) Prophase I (A) iwokZoLFkk (B) iwokZoLFkk I
(C) Metaphase (D) Mitosis (C) e/;koLFkk (D) lelw=h foHkktu
176. After S Phase the number of chromosomes will be 176. S çkoLFkk ds ckn xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k gksxh&
(A) Same as that of G1 (B) Double as that of G2 (A) G1 ds leku (B) G2 dk nksxquk
(C) Half as that of G1 (D) None of these (C) G1 dk vk/kk (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugh
177. Which one is correct about S-phase (synthetic phase)? 177. S&pj.k ¼laf'y"V pj.k½ ds ckjs esa dkSu lk lgh gS\
I. It occurs between G1 and G2 I. ;g G1 vkSj G2 ds chp gksrk gSA
II. It marks the period during which DNA replicates II. ;g ml vof/k dks fpfàr djrk gS ftlds le; Mh,u,
çfr—fr djrk gSA
III. At the end of this phase DNA is doubled but the number III. bl pj.k ds var esa Mh,u, nksxquk gks tkrk gS ysfdu
of chromosomes remains unchanged xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k vifjofrZr jgrh gSA
IV. As the DNA is doubled in this phase number of IV. pwafd bl pj.k esa Mh,u, nksxquk gks tkrk gS blfy,
chromosomes is also doubled xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k Hkh nksxquh gks tkrh gSA
V. Centrioles replicate in this phase V. bl pj.k esa rkjddsaæd çfr—fr djrs gSaA
VI. Amount of DNA changes from 2C to 4C VI. Mh,u, dh ek=k 2C ls 4C esa cny tkrh gSA
VII. It is pre G2 and post G1 phase VII. ;g iwoZ G2 vkSj i'p G1 pj.k gSA
(A) I, II, IV, V, VI, VII are correct (A) I, II, IV, V, VI, VII lgh gSaA
(B) I, II, III, V, VI, VII are correct (B) I, II, III, V, VI, VII lgh gSaA
(C) All are correct (C) lHkh lgh gSaA
(D) Only IV is correct (D) dsoy IV lgh gSA
178. Meiosis produce 178. v)Zlw=h foHkktu cukrk gSa%&
(A) 4 identical cell (B) 2 identical cell (A) 4 leku dksf'kdk (B) 2 leku dksf'kdk
(C) 4 different cell (D) None of these (C) 4 fHkUu dksf'kdk (D) None of these
179. Interphase: 179. varjkoLFkk&
(A) Includes karyokinesis and cytokinesis (A) dsaæd foHkktu vkSj dksf'kdk æO; foHkktu lfEefyr
gksrs gSaA
(B) Some time called resting phase, is the preparatory (B) dqN le; ftls foJke pj.k dgk tkrk gS] foHkktu ds
phase for division in which cell undergoes growth and fy, çkjafHkd pj.k gS ftlesa dksf'kdk esa o`f) vkSj Mh,u,
DNA replication in an order çfr—fr;u gksrk gSA
(C) Is the shortest phase in which biomolecules are (C) lcls NksVk pj.k gS ftlesa tSok.kq cgqr rsth ls la'ysf"kr
synthesised very fast gksrs gSaA
(D) Includes 5% duration of the cell cycle (D) dksf'kdk pØ dh 5% vof/k lfEefyr gksrh gSA

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180. Meiosis I is followed by: 180. v/kZlw=hfoHkktu I ds ckn gksrk gS:


(A) interphase (A) varjkoLFkk
(B) is not followed by any period of rest (B) fojke dh dksbZ Hkh vof/k ugha gksrh gSA
(C) interkinesis (C) varjHkktu
(D) is sometimes followed by meiosis-II (D) dHkh&dHkh meiosis-II ds ckn gksrk gSA
181. Column-I Column-II 181. I II
I. Genome of  174 (A) Ribozyme, RNAase I.  174 thok.kqHkksth dk (A) jkbckstkbe] RNAase
bacteriophage thukse
II. Purine (B) 5386 Nucleotides II. I;wjhu (B) 5386 U;wfDy;ksVkbM
III. Catalytic RNA (C) Adenine and Guanine III. mRçsjdh; RNA (C) ,Msfuu vkSj xqvkfuu
IV. Any chemical change (D) Mutation IV. DNA esa dksbZ (D) mRifjorZu
in DNA jklk;fud ifjorZu
The correct match is: lgh feyku gS&
(A) I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C (A) I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C
(B) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C (B) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C
(C) I - D, II - C, III - A, IV - B (C) I - D, II - C, III - A, IV - B
(D) I - B, II - C, III - A, IV - D (D) I - B, II - C, III - A, IV - D
182. Column-I Column-II 182. I II
I. Operator site (A) Binding site for RNA polymerase I. çpkyd LFky (A) vkj,u, i‚fyejst ds fy, ca/ku LFky
II. Promoter site (B) Binding site for repressor molecule II. mUuk;d LFky (B) neudkjh v.kq ds fy, ca/ku LFky
III. Structural gene (C) Codes for enzyme protein III. lajpukRed thu (C) ,atkbe çksVhu ds fy, dwV
IV. Regulator gene (D) Code for repressor molecules IV. fu;ked thu (D) neudkjh v.kqvksa ds fy, dwV
The correct match is: lgh esy gS&
(A) I - B, II - A, III - C, IV - D (A) I - B, II - A, III - C, IV - D
(B) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C (B) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C
(C) I - D, II - C, III - A, IV - B (C) I - D, II - C, III - A, IV - B
(D) I - B, II - C, III - A, IV - D (D) I - B, II - C, III - A, IV - D
183. Characteristic(s) of most DNA is / are: 183. vf/kdka'k DNA dh fo'ks"krk gS@gSa&
a. A pairs with T by 2 hydrogen bonds. a. 2 gkbMªks tu ca/k ds }kjk T ds lkFk ,d ;qXeA
b. Antipolarity of complementary chains b. iwjd J`a[kykvksa dh çfr/kzqork
c. 20Ao diameter c. 20Ao O;kl
d. 10 bps / turn d. 10 bps / turn
(A) a, c (B) a, b, c, d (C) b, c, d (D) a, b, c (A) a, c (B) a, b, c, d (C) b, c, d (D) a, b, c
184. a. DNA polymorphism plays important role in evolution 184. a. Mh,u, cgq:irk] fodkl vkSj tkfrmn~Hkou esa egRoiw.kZ
and speciation. Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gSA
b. 99.9% nucleotides bases are exactly same in all people b. 99.9% U;wfDy;ksVkbM~l {kkj lHkh yksxksa esa fcYdqy leku gksrs gSa
c. Chromosome 1 has the fewest genes (23) and Y- c. xq.klw= 1 esa U;wure thu ¼23½ vkSj Y&xq.klw= esa
chromosomes has most genes (2968) vf/kdre thu ¼2968½ gksrs gSaA
d. BAC and YAC have been used in Human Genome d. ekuo thukse ifj;kstuk esa BAC vkSj YAC dk mi;ksx
Project. fd;k x;k FkkA
(A) All correct (B) All incorrect (A) lHkh lgh (B) lHkh xyr gSa
(C) a, b, d are correct (D) b, c, d are correct (C) a, b, d lgh gSa (d) b, c, d lgh gS
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185. Which one(s) is / are correct? 185. dkSu lk lgh gS@gSa\


a. In prokaryotes single type of RNA polymerase can a. çkddsaædh esa ,dy çdkj ds RNA i‚fyfejst mRNA,
transcribe mRNA, tRNA and rRNA. tRNA vkSj rRNA dks vuqysf[kr dj ldrs gSaA
b. In eukaryotes RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNA b. lqdUs ædh esa RNA i‚fyfejst rRNA (28s, 18s vkSj 5.8s)
(28s, 18s and 5.8s) whereas RNA pol III is responsible dks vuqyfs [kr djrk gS tcfd RNA iksy III tRNA, 5s rRNA
for transcription of tRNA, 5s rRNA and RNAs. vkSj RNAs ds vuqys[ku ds fy, ftEesnkj gSA
c. RNA pol II transcribes HnRNA in eukaryotes. c. lqdUs ædh esa RNA iksy II] HnRNA dks vuqyfs [kr djrk gSA
d. Ribosomal have two subunit d. jkbckstkse esa nks mibdkbZ;ka gksrh gSA
(A) a, c (B) a, b, c, d (A) a, c (B) a, b, c, d
(C) b, c, d (D) a, b, c (C) b, c, d (D) a, b, c
SECTION-B (Q.186 to 200) SECTION-B (Q.186 to 200)
186. Identify given diagram : 186. ukekafdr fp= dks igpkusa&

(A) Nucleosome (B) Chromosome (A) Nucleosome (B) Chromosome


(C) Centrosome (D) Liposome (C) Centrosome (D) Liposome
187. tRNA have : 187. tRNA esa gksrk gSA%&
(A) Anticodon (B) Codon (A) Anticodon (B) Codon
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
188. The full form of ELSI is: 188. ELSI dk iw.kZ :i gS&
(A) Embedded Low Software Index (A) var% LFkkfir fuEu l‚¶Vos;j rkfydk
(B) Ear Lung Spleen Immunity (B) dku QsQM+s Iyhgk çfrj{kk
(C) Ethical Legal and Social Issue (C) uSfrd dkuwuh o lkekftd eqís
(D) Endonuclease Ligase Surface Immunity (D) ,aMksU;wfDyt ykbxst lrgh çfrj{kk
189. DNA replication in eukaryotes differs from replication in 189. lqdsUædh esa DNA çfr—fr;u cSDVhfj;k esa çfr—fr;u ls
bacteria because: fHkUu gksrk gS D;ksafd&
(A) Synthesis of the new DNA strand is from 3' to 5' in (A) u, DNA jTtqd dk la'ys"k.k lqdsUædh esa 3' ls 5' rd
eukaryotes and from 5' to 3' in bacteria vkSj cSDVhfj;k esa 5' ls 3' rd gksrk gSA
(B) Synthesis of the new DNA strand is from 5' to 3' in (A) u, DNA jTtqd dk la'ys"k.k lqdsUædh esa 5' ls 3' rd
eukaryotes and from 3' to 5' in bacteria vkSj cSDVhfj;k esa 3' ls 5' rd gksrk gSA
(C) There are many ORI in each eukaryotic chromosome (A) çR;sd lqdUs ædh xq.klw= esa dbZ ORI gksrs gSa vkSj thok.kq
and only one in bacterial DNA DNA esa dsoy ,d gh gksrk gSA
(D) Synthesis of the new DNA strand is from 5' to 3' in (D) lqdUs ædh esa u, DNA jTtqd dk la'ys"k.k 5' ls 3' rd
eukaryotes and is random in prokaryotes gS vkSj çksdsfj;ksV esa ;k–fPNd gksrk gSA
190. The force that holds DNA together in a double helix is: 190. f}dqaMyh esa Mh,u, dks ,d lkFk j[kus okyk cy gS&
(A) The force of the twist (A) O;korZ dk cy
(B) Covalent bonds (B) lgla;kstd ca/k
(C) Ionic bonds or ionic interactions (C) vk;fud ca/k ;k vk;fud vU;ksU;fØ;k
(D) Hydrogen bonds (D) gkbMªkstu ca/k

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191. Elution is: 191. fu{kkyu gS%&


(A) Separating the restricted DNA fragments on agarose gel. (A) ,xkjkst tsy ij DNA [k.Mks dks i`Fkd djukA
(B) Staining the separate DNA fragments with ethidium (B) vyx&vyx Mh,u, VqdM+ksa dks ,fFkfM;e czksekbM ls
bromide jaxuk
(C) cutting out gel to separate DNA from the agarose gel (C) ,xjkst tsy dks dkVdj DNA ds VqdM+s fudkyukA
(D) constructing rDNA by joining the purified DNA (D) 'kq) Mh,u, va'kksa dks Dyksfuax osDVj ls tksMd
+ j vkjMh,u,
fragments to the cloning vector. dk fuekZ.k djukA
192. When isolating the pure DNA from a bacterial cell, the 192. thok.kq dksf'kdk ls 'kq) Mh,u, dks vyx djrs le;]
cell should not be treated with: dksf'kdk dk mipkj ugha fd;k tkuk pkfg,&
(A) lysozyme (B) proteases (A) ykblkstkbe (B) çksVht
(C) ribonuclease (D) deoxyribonuclease (C) jkbcksU;wDyht (D) Mhv‚DlhjkbcksU;wfDyt
193. A host cell normally does not take up a foreign DNA until 193. ,d estcku dksf'kdk vke rkSj ij rc rd fons'kh Mh,u,
it has been made competent to do so. This is done by: ugha ysrh gS tc rd mls ,slk djus ds fy, l{ke ugha
cuk;k tkrk gSA bl gsrq vko';d gS&
(A) Ca+2 (B) Cl– (C) Na+ (D) SO42– (A) Ca+2 (B) Cl– (C) Na+ (D) SO42–
194. Which statement regarding restriction endonucleases is 194. çfrca/k ,aMksU;wDykbtsl ds laca/k esa dkSu lk dFku lgh ugha
NOT correct? gS\
(A) They recognize a specific base sequence in the DNA. (A) os Mh,u, esa ,d fof'k"V vk/kkj vuqØe dks igpkurs gSA a
(B) They are produced by bacterial cells (B) os thok.kq dksf'kdkvksa }kjk fufeZr gksrs gSaA
(C) They digest DNA by removing nucleotides from a (C) os eqä 3' fljs ls U;wfDy;ksVkbM dks gVkdj Mh,u, dks
free 3' end. ipkrs gSaA
(D) They often generate stick ends. (D) os vDlj fpifpis fljs mRiUu djrs gSaA
195. Which of the following restriction sites is located within 195. IykfLeM pBR322 esa VsVªklkbfDyu çfrjks/k ds fy, thu ds
the gene for tetracycline resistance in the plasmid pBR322? Hkhrj fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk çfrca/k LFky fLFkr gS\
(A) BamHI (B) Psti (C) Clal (D) Pvull (A) BamHI (B) Psti (C) Clal (D) Pvull
196. The plasmid pBR322 does not contain: 196. IykfLeM pBR322 esa 'kkfey ugha gS&
(A) ORI-C (B) rop (A) ORI-C (B) rop
(C) Gene for Ampicillin and Streptomycin resistance (C) ,Eihflyhu vkSj LVªsIVksekbflu çfrjks/k ds fy, thu
(D) Sites for many restriction enzymes (D) dbZ çfrca/k ,atkbeksa ds fy, lkbVsa
197. volume of bioreactors 197. ck;ksfj,DVj dk vk;ru gksrk gSa%&
(A) 100-1000 ml (B) 100 ml (A) 100-1000 ml (B) 100 ml
(C) 1000 ml (D) 1,00,000 - 10,00,000 ml (C) 1000 ml (D) 1,00,000 - 10,00,000 ml
198. Which of the following is not a component of downstream 198. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk MkmuLVªhe çkslsflax dk ?kVd
processing? ugha gS\
(A) Quality Check (B) Purification (A) xq.koÙkk ijh{k.k (B) 'kqf)dj.k
(C) Preservation (D) Expression (C) laj{k.k (D) vfHkO;fä
199. Which of the following is a endonuclease? 199. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ,aMksU;wfDyt gS\
(A) Protease (B) DNase (A) Protease (B) DNase
(C) RNase (D) Hind II (C) RNase (D) Hind II
200. The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from 200. VSd iksyhejst ,atkbe çkIr gksrk gS
(A) Thiobacillus ferroxidans (B) Bacillus subtilis (A) fFk;kscSflyl QsjksfDlMUl (B) cSflyl lcfVfyl
(C) Pseudomonas subtilis (D) Thermus aquaticus (C) L;wMkseksukl lcfVfyl (D) FkeZl ,DokfVdl
PRE MEDICAL TEST – 2023-24 35

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