CET

Subject Topic Mock Test – 03 Date

CET – 12 – MT
Chemistry Full Length Mock Test – 03
C1220150508

Max. Marks: 60 Duration: 60 minutes

This paper is formatted as follows:

1. 60 Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1
mark. No Negative marks.

2. Use of calculators and log tables is prohibited

3. Darken the appropriate bubble using a pen in the OMR sheet provided to you. Once
entered, the answer cannot be changed. Any corrections or modifications will
automatically draw a penalty of 1 mark.

4. No clarification will be entertained during the examination. Doubts in the paper can
be reported to the coordinator after the exam

5. If the details in the OMR Sheet are not filled, If the OMR sheet is mutilated, torn, white
Ink used, the circles filled and scratched, then the OMR sheet will not be graded

All the best!!

Useful Data
At. Wt.:
N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207
Physical Constants:

h = 6.626 × 10−34 Js , Na = 6.022 ×1023 mol-1 , c = 2.998 × 108 m s-1 , me = 9.1× 10−31 kg , R = 0.0821 L-atm/K/mol
 CET

Subject Topic Mock Test – 03 Date

CET – 12 – MT
Chemistry Full Length Mock Test – 03
C1220150508

Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60

1. The mass of 11.2L of ammonia gas at STP is

(a) 8.5g (b) 85g (c) 17g (d) 1.7g

2. Law of multiple proportions is illustrated by one of the following pairs

(a) H 2 S and SO2 (b) NH 3 and NO2 (c) Na2 S and Na2O (d) N 2O and NO

3. How many neutrons are present in tritium nucleus?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 0

4. The electronic configuration of a dipositive ion M 2+ is 2,8,14 and its mass number is 56. The
number of neutrons present in the atom ‘M’ is
(a) 32 (b) 42 (c) 30 (d) 34

5. The element with the electronic configuration as [ Ar ] 3d 10 4 s 2 4 p 3 represents a

(a) metal (b) non – metal

(c) metalloid (d) transition element
6. The element with atomic number 117 if discovered would be placed in
(a) noble gas family (b) alkali family
(c) alkaline earth family (d) halogen family
7. The number of electrons in the valence shell of sulphur in SF6 is

(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 11

8. An atom of an element A has three electrons in its outermost orbit and that of B has six electrons in
its outermost orbit. The formula of the compound between these two will be
(a) A3B6 (b) A2 B3 (c) A3B2 (d) A2 B

9. Which of the following will increase with the increase in temperature?

(a) surface tension (b) viscosity
(c) molality (d) vapour pressure
10. If volume of gas is compressed to half, how many moles of gas remained in the vessel?
(a) just double (b) just half
(c) same (d) more than double
11. Which of the following is an intensive property?
(a) volume (b) enthalpy (c) surface tension (d) free energy

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 CET

Subject Topic Mock Test – 03 Date

CET – 12 – MT
Chemistry Full Length Mock Test – 03
C1220150508

12. A gas can expand from 100 mL to 250 mL under a constant pressure of 2 atm. The work done by gas
is
(a) 30.28J (b) 25J (c) 5 J (d) 16J
13. Which of the following is a wrong statement about equilibrium state?
(a) Rate of forward reaction = Rate of backward reaction
(b) Equilibrium is dynamic
(c) Catalysts increase value of equilibrium constant
(d) Free energy change is zero
14. A + B ⇌ C + D . In a one litre vessel initially moles of A and B are equal. At equilibrium, moles of
C are three times that of A . The equilibrium constant of the reaction will be
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 9
15. The oxidation state of Fe in Fe3O4 is

8
(a) +3 (b) + (c) +6 (d) +2
3

16. In the reaction, SO2 + 2 H 2 S → 3S + 2 H 2O, the substance oxidised is

(a) H 2 S (b) SO2 (c) S (d) H 2O

17. In which of the following reactions, H 2O2 is acting as a reducing agent?

(a) SO2 + H 2O2 → H 2 SO4 (b) 2 KI + H 2O2 → 2 KOH + I 2

(c) PbS + 4 H 2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H 2O (d) Ag2O + H 2O2 → 2 Ag + H 2O + O2

18. The oxidation number of oxygen in hydrogen peroxide is

(a) +1 (b) −1 (c) +2 (d) −2
19. The element which on burning in air gives peroxide is
(a) lithium (b) sodium (c) rubidium (d) caesium
20. The most electropositive element in alkali metals, is
(a) Na (b) K (c) Rb (d) Cs
21. Boron halides behave as Lewis acids because of their ________ nature.
(a) proton donor (b) covalent
(c) electron deficient (d) electron pair donor
22. Boron cannot form which one of the following anions?
−
(a) BF63− (b) BH 4− (c) B (OH )4 (d) BO2−

23. The IUPAC name of CH 3 − CH 2 − CHO

(a) propanal-1 (b) 2-methylbutanal-1 (c) butanal-1 (d) pentanal-1

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 CET

Subject Topic Mock Test – 03 Date

CET – 12 – MT
Chemistry Full Length Mock Test – 03
C1220150508

24. The number of secondary hydrogens in 2, 2 - dimethyl butane is

(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2
25. Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium acetate, yields
(a) ethane (b) ethene (c) ethyne (d) propane
26. When ethyl chloride and alcoholic KOH are heated the compound obtained is
(a) C2 H 4 (b) C2 H 2 (c) C6 H 6 (d) C2 H 6

27. When methyl iodide is treated with sodium in ether solution, it gives
(a) methane (b) ethane
(c) methyl sodium iodide (d) sodium methoxide
28. Which compound is mainly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?
(a) CO2 (b) CH 4 (c) CH 3OH (d) CF2Cl2

29. Greenhouse effect is caused by mainly

(a) NO2 (b) CO (c) NO (d) CO2

30. Number of atoms per unit cell of bcc is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 8 (d) 4
31. The axial angles in triclinic crystal system are
(a) α = β = γ = 90° (b) α = γ = 90°, β ≠ 90° (c) α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90° (d) α = β = γ ≠ 90°

32. The sum of mole fractions of A, B and C in an aqueous solution containing 0.2 moles of each A, B
and C is
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.2 (c) 1.0 (d) 1.2
33. How many grams of sulphuric acid is to be dissolved to prepare 200 mL of 1 M aqueous solution?

(a) 4.9 g (b) 19.6 g (c) 9.8 g (d) 0.98 g

34. Out of following which one is not an example of a solution?

(a) Air (b) Brass
(c) Amalgam (d) Benzene in water
35. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50Ω. The specific conductance of the solution is

1.3Sm −1. If resistance of the 0.4 M solution of the same electrolyte is 260Ω, its molar conductivity is

(a) 6250 Sm 2 mol −1 (b) 625 Sm 2 mol −1

(c) 625 × 10−4 Sm 2 mol −1 (d) 62.5 Sm 2 mol −1

36. Which of the following electrolytic solutions has the least specific conductance?
(a) 0.02 N (b) 0.2 N (c) 2 N (d) 0.002 N

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 CET

Subject Topic Mock Test – 03 Date

CET – 12 – MT
Chemistry Full Length Mock Test – 03
C1220150508

37. During rusting, oxidation of iron takes place, i.e., it acts as anode. Hence, coating/connecting iron
with metal of lower reduction potential (in comparison to iron) is the best way to prevent it from
rusting. The suitable metal for protection of Iron is
(a) Ag (b) An (c) Zn (d) Co

38. For the reaction, N 2 + 3H 2 ⇌ 2 NH 3 The rate of change of concentration for hydrogen is

−0.3 × 10−4 Ms −1 . The rate of change of concentration of ammonia is

(a) 0.15 × 10−4 (b) 0.2 × 10−4 (c) 0.1 × 10−4 (d) 0.3 × 10−4
39. Animal charcoal is used in decolourising colour of liquids because it is a good
(a) adsorbate (b) adsorbent (c) oxidising agent (d) reducing agent
40. Catalyst in a reaction
(a) lowers the activation energy (b) increase the rate of reaction
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) initiates the reaction
41. The atomicity of phosphorus is X and the PPP bond angle in the molecule is Y . What are X and
Y?
(a) X = 4, Y = 90° (b) X = 4, Y = 60° (c) X = 3, Y = 120° (d) X = 2, Y = 180°

42. Which of the following is not oxidised by O3 ?

(a) KI (b) FeSO4 (c) KMnO4 (d) K 2 MnO4

43. Which one of the following has lowest bond dissociation energy?
(a) Cl − Cl (b) F − F (c) Br − Br (d) I − I
44. Which of the following noble gases is most reactive?
(a) He (b) Ne (c) Ar (d) Xe
45. The bonds present in the structure of dichromate ion are
(a) four Cr − O bonds only
(b) six Cr − O bonds and one O − O bond
(c) six Cr − O bonds and one Cr − Cr bond
(d) six Cr − O bonds and one Cr − O − Cr bond

46. The spin only magnetic moment of Fe2+ ion (in BM) is approximately
(a) 3.9 (b) 7 (c) 4.9 (d) 6
2−
47. The oxidation state and effective atomic number (EAN) of cobalt [CoF6 ] are respectively

(a) 3 and 36 (b) 4 and 35 (c) 4 and 37 (d) 2 and 35

48. The tetrahedral complexes have coordination number
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 8

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 CET

Subject Topic Mock Test – 03 Date

CET – 12 – MT
Chemistry Full Length Mock Test – 03
C1220150508

49. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is, by treating the alcohol
with
(a) PCl3

(b) PCl5

(c) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine

(d) dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2

50. Number of monochloro derivatives obtained when neo -pentane is chlorinated, is

(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
51. The enzymes which are used to convert starch into ethyl alcohol are
(a) maltase, diastase (b) diastase, maltase, zymase
(c) invertase, zymase (d) invertase, diastase, maltase
52. Grignard reagent reacts with HCHO to produce
(a) secondary alcohol (b) anhydride (c) acid (d) primary alcohol
53. The reagent used in Gattermann-Koch aldehyde synthesis is
(a) Pb / BaSO4 (b) alkaline KMnO4 (c) acidic KMnO4 (d) CO + HCl

54. Hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride in presence of Pd on BaSO4 gives

(a) benzyl alcohol (b) benzaldehyde (c) propanal (d) pheny lmethanal
55. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) primary amines show intermolecular hydrogen bonds
(b) tertiary butylamine is a primary amine
(c) tertiary amines do not show intermolecular hydrogen bonds
(d) amines have higher boiling points as compared to those of alcohols of comparable molecular
mass
56. Consider the following reaction,
Sn / HCl
6 5 C H COCl
C6 H 5 NO2 
→ X → Y + HCl What is Y ?

(a) Acetanilide (b) Benzanilide (c) Azobenzene (d) Hydrazobenzene

57. What is difference between glucose and fructose?
(a) functional group (b) molecular formula
(c) number of carbon atoms (d) nature of saccharide
58. The two functional groups present in a typical carbohydrate are
(a) −OH and −COOH (b) −CHO and −COOH
(c) > C = O and −OH (d) −OH and −COOR

6
 CET

Subject Topic Mock Test – 03 Date

CET – 12 – MT
Chemistry Full Length Mock Test – 03
C1220150508

59. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?

(a) Cellulose (b) PVC (c) Nylon – 6, 6 (d) Polythene
60. The drug used to bring down fever are known as
(a) analgesic (b) antibiotic (c) antipyretic (d) sulpha drugs