Time : 2 hrs.

Answers & Solutions M.M. : 80

for
GUJCET-2018
(Physics, Chemistry)
Important Instructions :
1. The physics and Chemistry test consists of 80 question. Each question carries 1 marks. For correct response, the
candidate will get 1 marks. For each incorrect response 1/4 mark will be deducted. The maximum marks are 80.
2. This test is of 2 hours duration.
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 PART–A : PHYSICS

1. Three identical charges are placed on three vertices 3. The electric force acting between two point charges
of a square. If the force acting between q1 and q2 is kept at a certain distance in vacuum is 16N. If the
same two charges are kept at the same distance in
F13
F12 and between q1 and q3 is F13 then F = a medium of dielectric constant 8. The electric force
12 acting between them is ____
(A) 16 (B) 128
1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 1024 (D) 2
2
Answer (D)
1
(C)
2
(D) 2 F 16
Sol. In medium F' = 
K 2
Answer (C)
= 8N
4. The unit of polarizabity of the molecule is ___
q1 (A) C–2m1N–1 (B) C–2m1N1

2a q 1= q = q (=q, say) (C) C2m1N–1 (D) C2m–1N–1

2 3
a Answer (C)
Sol. 5. On the axis and on the equator of an electric dipole
q3 for all points ____
F 13
F12 (A) On the axis V = 0 and on equator V  0
(B) On both of them V = 0
kq1q2 kq 2 (C) On both of them V  0
F12  
a2 a2
(D) On the axis V  0 and on equator V = 0
kq1q3 kq 2
F13   Answer (D)
( 2a )2 2a 2
Sol. Potential due to dipole
F13 1
 kp cos 
F12 2 V 
r2
2. When a 10C charge is enclosed by a closed on axis,
surface, the flux passing through the surface is .
Now another 10 C charge is placed inside the =0
closed surface, then the flux passing through the kp
surface is ____  V  2 0 on equator
r
(A) 2 (B)   = 90° V =0
(C) 4 (D) Zero 6. When the temperature of a conductor increases the
Answer (A) ratio of conductivity and resistivity ___
(A) decrease (B) increase
q
Sol.    (C) remain constant (D) increase or decrease
0
Answer (A)
 q
 1
Sol.   2
 ' q ' 20C 
  
 q 10C  increases when temperature is increased. Thus,
the given ratio decreases.
= ' = 2
7. You are given 10 resistors each of resistance 2. Answer (C)
First they are connected to obtain possible minimum
resistance. Then they are connected to obtain 50
Ig R
possible maximum resistance. The ratio of maximum G
and minimum resistance is ___ Sol.
(A) 2.5 (B) 10
100V
(C) 100 (D) 25
Using Ohm's law
Answer (C)
100 = Ig(50 + R)
Sol. Minimum possible resistance is obtained when all
resistors are connected in parallel 100 = 10  10–3 (R + 50)
= R + 50 = 10000
2
Rmin =  0.2
10 = R = 9950
Maximum possible resistance is obtained when all 11. Two parallel very long straight wires carrying current
resistors are connected in series. of 5A each are kept at a separation of 1m. If the
Rmax = 2  10 = 20 currents are in the same direction, the force per unit
8. The dimensional formula of mobility is ___ length between them is ___ N/m. (0 = 4  10–7 SI)
(A) M1L–1T–2A–1 (B) M1L0T–2A–1 (A) 5  10–5, repulsive (B) 5  10–6, attractive
(C) M–1L1T2A1 (D) M–1L0T2A1 (C) 5  10–5, attractive (D) 5  10–6, repulsive
Answer (D) Answer (B)
Vd Sol. Force per unit length is given by
Sol.  
E
o l1l 2 d
[Vd ] [Vd ][q ] F =
[] =  2d
[E ] [F ] F F
4  107  5  5
[LT 1][AT] =
= 2  1
[MLT -2 ] = 5  10–6 N
l1 l2

= [M–1L0T2A] 12. A very long straight wire of radius r carries current I.

9. An electron having mass 9.1  10–31 kg, charge Intensity of magnetic field B at a point, lying at a
1.6  10–19 C and moving with the velocity of 106 m/ perpendicular distance 'a' from the axis is ___ .
s enters a region where magnetic field exists. If it (where a < r)
describes a circle of radius 0.2 m then intensity of
1
magnetic field must be ____  10–5 T. (A) 1a (B)
a2
(A) 2.84 (B) 5.65
(C) a2 (D) a
(C) 14.4 (D) 1.32
Answer (A) Answer (D)
Sol. Magnetic field inside a wire is given by
mv
Sol. r  0 ia
qB B
2r 2
mv 9.1  1031  106
= B   Ba
qr 1.6  1019  0.2
13. A substance is placed in a non uniform magnetic
= 2.84  10–5 T
field. It experience weak force towards the strong
10. A galvanometer of resistance 50 giving full scale
field. The substance is ____ type.
deflection for a current of 10 milliampere is to be
changed into a voltmeter of range 100V. (A) Ferromagnetic (B) Diamagnetic
A resistance of ____  has to be connected in (C) Paramagnetic (D) None of these
series with the galvanometer. Answer (C)
(A) 10000 (B) 10025 Sol. Paramagnetic material is weakly attracted towards
(C) 9950 (D) 9975 strong magnetic field.
14. The relation between Bv, Bh and B is ____ 17. A small angled prism of refractive index 1.6 gives a
deviation of 3.6°. The angle of prism is ___
Bv
(A) B  B (B) B = Bh  Bv (A) 5° (B) 6°
h
(C) 7° (D) 8°
Bh Answer (B)
(C) B  B2h  Bv2 (D) B  B
v Sol.  = ( – 1)A
Answer (C)
 3.6 = (1.6 – 1)A
Sol. From the diagram
 A = 6°
Bv B 18. A plano convex lens is made of material having
refractive index 1.5. The radius of curvature of curved
surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens is
Bh ____ cm
(A) 60 (B) 120
B  Bh2  Bv2 (C) –60 (D) –120
15. Two thin lenses of focal length f 1 and f 2 are in Answer (B)
contact and coaxial. The power of the combination
1 ⎛ 1 1⎞
is ____ Sol. f  (  1) ⎜ R  R ⎟
⎝ 1 2⎠
f1f2 f1  f2
(A) f  f (B) 1 ⎛ 1 1⎞
1 2 2   (1.5  1) ⎜ 
f ⎝ 60  ⎟⎠
1 f1  f2
(C) (D) = f = 120 cm
f1f2 f1f2
19. If the uncertainty in the position of an electron is
Answer (D) 10–10 m, then the value of uncertainty in its momentum
Sol. Power of combination of lenses is given by will be ___ kgms–1. (h = 6.62  10–34 J–s)
1 1 (A) 1.06  10–24 (B) 1.03  10–24
P  P1  P2  
f1 f2 (C) 1.05  10–24 (D) 1.08  10–24
f1  f2 Answer (C)
= P ff
12 Sol. As per principle of uncertainty
16. On decreasing the wavelength of incident light from
h
8000 Å to 4000 Å. the intensity of the scattered light p  x 
in Rayleih scattering will become ____ times the 2
initial scattered intensity.
h 6.626  1034
(A) 16 (B) 4  p  
2x 2  3.14  1010
(C) 2 (D) 8 = 1.05  10–24 kg-m/s
Answer (A) 20. If the energy of photons corresponding to wavelength
Sol. Intensity in raylength scattering depends on of 6000 Å is 3.2  10–19 J. The photon energy for
wavelength as wavelength of 4000 Å will be ___
1 (A) 1.11  10–19 J (B) 2.22  10–19 J
I
4 (C) 4.44  10–19 J (D) 4.80  10–19 J
4
I' ⎛ ⎞ Answer (D)
= ⎜ ⎟
I ⎝  '⎠ hC
Sol. E =
4 
⎛  ⎞
⎜ 8000 A ⎟  16 1
= ⎜ E
 ⎟ 
⎝ 4000 A ⎠
 E2 1 23. A capacitor 'C' is connected across a D.C. source,
 E  the reactance of capacitor will be ___
1 2

E2 (A) LOW (B) HIGH

6000Å
= 
3.2  1019 4000Å (C) ZERO (D) INFINITE

3 Answer (D)
= E2   3.2  1019
2 Sol. For D.C. source
= 4.8  10–19 J  = 0,
21. Two inductors each of inductance L are connected in Capacitive reactance
parallel. One more inductor of value 5 mH is
1
connected in series of this configuration then the XC  
effective inductance is 15 mH. The value of L is ___ C
mH. 24. The dimensional formula of 00 is ___
(A) 2.5 (B) 5.0 (A) M0L1T–1 (B) M0L2T–2
(C) 10 (D) 20 (C) M0L–2T2 (D) M0L–1T1
Answer (D) Answer (C)
L Sol. Speed of light
5mH 1
Sol. c = 0 0
L
1
Equivalent inductance is given by c2 =  
0 0
⎛ L  L⎞
Leq = ⎜⎝  5  15 (in mH) 1
L  L ⎟⎠ = 0 0  2
c
L 1 1
=  10 [ 0 0 ]  
2 
[c] 2
[LT 1]2
= L = 20 mH = [L–2T2] = [M0L–2T2]
22. A lamp consumes only 50% of maximum power in 25. Match Column I and Column II
an A.C. circuit. What is the phase difference
Column I Column II
between the applied voltage and the circuit current?
(i) Interference (P) Coherent sources
 
(A) (B) 1
6 3 (ii) Brewster's Law (Q)  
  sinC
(C) (D)
4 2 (iii) Malus Law (R)   tan  p
Answer (B)
(iv) Total Internal (S) I = I0cos2
Sol. P = VI cos
reflection
Pmax = VI
(A) iQ, iiS, iiiR, ivP
Given
(B) iP, iiR, iiiS, ivQ
P
P  max (C) iP, iiS, iiiR, ivQ
2
(D) iR, iiQ, iiiS, ivP
VI
 VIcos   Answer (B)
2
1 Sol. (i) Interference patterns can be observed only when
 cos   coherent sources are used.
2
 (ii) Brewster's Law gives angle of polarization
  tanp = 
3
 (iii) Malus law gives intensity of light after passing In – - decay (n  p+ + e–) mass number remains
through polarizer same while atomic no. increases by 1.
I = I0 cos2
A   decay A   decay
(iv) Critical angle for total internal reflection is given Z X   Z+1X  
by relation
 decay    decay
1
A
Z+2 X2   ZA  4 X3  A 4
 Z+1 X4
sinC 

30. In CE transistor amplifier, the collector junction has
26. Frequencies of various radiations are given as ____ bias and emitter junction has ____ bias.
fv  Visible light (A) reverse, forward (B) forward, forward
fr  Radio waves (C) reverse, reverse (D) forward, reverse
fUV  Ultra Violet waves Answer (A)
Then which of following is true? Sol. -
(A) fv  fr  fUV (B) fr  fv  fUV 31. When carrier wave of 2.5 MHz frequency is
amplitude modulated, the resulting AM wave has
(C) fUV  fv  fr (D) fUV  fr  fv maximum amplitude of 15 V and minimum
amplitude of 10 V. The modulation index is ____ .
Answer (B)
(A) 10% (B) 20%
Sol. -
(C) 30% (D) 40%
27. Wavelength of characteristic X-ray depends on which
property of target? Answer (B)
(A) A (B) Z Sol. Amax = 15 V
(C) Melting point (D) All of these = Ac + Am = 15 V .... (A)
Answer (B) Amin = 10 V

hC = Ac – Am = 10 V .... (B)
Sol. E 
 from (A) - (B)
E  Z2 2Am = 5
1 from (A) + (B)
  Z2
 2Ac = 25
1
=  modulation index,
Z
28. The energy of the fast neutrons emitted in a nuclear Am 5 1
 = A  25  5
fission reactor is approximately ___ c

(A) 10 MeV (B) 2 KeV

1
(C) 2 MeV (D) 20 MeV =  100%  20%
5
Answer (C)
32. Which of the following is wrong for interference
29. In radioactive reaction fringes?
A A A
ZX Z+1 X1 Z+2 X2 ZA–4 X3 Z+1
A–4
X4 (A) Distance between two consecutive fringes is
constant
(A) –,–,, (B) –,–,,
(B) All bright fringes are equally bright
(C) –,–,–, (D) –,–,,–
(C) Fringes are due to limited portion of wave front
Answer (D)
(D) Fringes are due to the use of coherent sources
Sol. In -decay ( 24 He) mass number decreases by 4 Answer (C)
and atomic no. decreases by 2. Sol. -
33. A ray of light travelling in impure water is incident on Answer (B)
a glass plate immersed in it. When the angle of Sol. (A) Output of AND gate is 0
incidence is 51°, the reflected ray is totally plane
polarized. Given that refractive index of impure water (B) Output of NOR gate is 1
is 1.4. The refractive index of glass should be ____ (C) Output of NAND gate is 0
(tan51° = 1.235) (D) Output of OR gate is 0
(A) 1.53 (B) 1.34 37. The value of  of a transistor is 19. The value of 
(C) 1.64 (D) 1.73 will be ___
Answer (D) (A) 0.99 (B) 0.98
Sol. Using Brewster's law (C) 0.93 (D) 0.95
Answer (D)
2
tanp =  21   51° 1 1 1
1 Sol.  1  1
1   19
2 =  = 0.95
= tan51 
1.4 2 38. If the half-life of a radioactive element is 10 hr, its
= 2 = 1.4  1.235 average life = ____ hr.

= 1.73 (A) 14.4 (B) 6.93

34. A coil having 200 turns has a surface area of 0.15 (C) 1.44 (D) 0.693
m 2. A magnetic field of strength 0.2 T applied Answer (A)
perpendicular to this changes to 0.6 T in 0.4 s, then
Sol. Average life
the induced emf in the coil is ___ V.
t1 2 10
(A) 15 (B) 30  
ln2 0.693
(C) 45 (D) 60
Answer (B)  14.4 hrs.
39. ____ is the wavelength of photon of energy 35 KeV.
 N ( B )A
Sol. E   h = 6.625  10–34 J–2, c = 3  108 m/s,
t t
1 eV = 1.6 x 10–19 J.
200  (0.6  0.2)  0.15
= = 30V (A) 3.5 mm (B) 35 Å
0.4
(C) 35  10–12 mm (D) 3.5 Å
35. A sinusoidal A.C. current flows through a resistor of
resistance 10. If the peak current is 2A flowing Answer (C)
through the resistor then the power dissipated in hc
____ W. Sol. E 

(A) 10 (B) 20 hc 1242 eV  nm
  E 
(C) 30 (D) 40 35  103 eV
Answer (B)
 35  103 nm
2 2
2 ⎛ imax ⎞ ⎛ 2 ⎞
Sol. P  i rms R  ⎜ R= ⎜  10 = 35  10–12 m
⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
40. The band gaps of an insulator, conductor and semi
= 20 W
conductor are respectively Eg1, Eg2 and Eg3. The
36. Which of following gates produces output of 1? relationship between them is given as ___
1 0 (A) Eg1 < Eg2 > Eg3 (B) Eg1 > Eg2 > Eg3
(A) (B) (C) Eg1 > Eg2 < Eg3 (D) Eg1 < Eg2 < Eg3
0 0
1 0 Answer (C)
(C) (D) Sol. Band gap is largest in insulators while it is smallest
1 0
in conductors.
 PART–B : CHEMISTRY

41. If the edge length of a body centred unit cell is 45. Which solution is isotonic with 6% w/v aqueous
400pm, what will be the approximate radius of the solution of urea? [Mole mass of Urea = 60 gm. mol–1]
atom present in it? (in pm) (A) 0.1 M NaCl (B) 0.5 M NaCl
(A) 173 (B) 141 (C) 0.25 M NaCl (D) 1 M NaCl
(C) 200 (D) 924 Answer (B)
Sol. Isotonic solution means (1=2)
Answer (A)
Isotonic presure for 6% w/v aqueous soltuion of area
Sol. a = 400pm (1) = icRT
For Body centered unit cell ; 6 gms of area is present in 100ml solution
6 1000
3a  4r  C= x 1
60 100
3(400)   1 = (1) (1) RT (∵ i of area = 1)
 r r = 173.2 pm  1 = RT
4
 For 0.5 M NaCl solution, i = 2
42. Which of the following is Ferromagnetic? so 2 = (2) (0.5 RT)
(A) MnO (B) CrO2  2 = RT
(C) O2 (D) Fe3O4 46. In which metal container, the aqueous solution of
Answer (B) CuSO4 can be stored?
Sol. Fe, Co, Ni and CrO2 are ferromagnetic in nature E0Cu3  /Cu  0.34V
43. What is the normality of aqueous solution of H2SO4
2   0.44V, E  1.66V
0 0
EFe/Fe Al/ Al3 
having pH = 1.
2   0.25V, E  0.80V
0 0
(A) 0.1 N (B) 0.05 N ENi/Ni Ag / Ag

(C) 1 N (D) 0.5 N (A) Fe (B) Ni

Answer (A) (C) Ag (D) Al
 
Answer (C)
Sol. H2SO4  2H(aq)  SO24(aq)
Sol. Since the SRP value of Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V
For [H+] = 0.1M; the pH = 1  aq solution of CuSO4 can be stored in Ag as
Molarity of H2SO4 = 0.05 M E0Cu2  /Cu  0.34V

 Normality of H2SO4 = MH2SO4 x nf 47. For how much time, 10 ampere electric current
should be passed through a dilute aqueous NiSO4
= 0.05 x 2 solution during electrolysis using inert electrode, in
= 0.1 N order to get 5.85 gm Nickel? [At. mass of Ni =
58.5gm]
44. Which of the following mixture is non-ideal solution?
(A) 1930 sec. (B) 3860 sec.
(A) Chlorobenzene and bromobenzene
(C) 965 sec. (D) 9650 sec.
(B) Benzene and toluene Answer (A)
(C) Chloroform and acetone Sol. By Faraday's Ist law of electrolysis m = zit
(D) Bromoethane and chloroethane E
5.85 = (i)(t)
Answer (C) F

O (∵ E = Equivalent mass of Ni)

Sol. (CHCl3 + H3C – C – CH3) forms a non-ideal solution 58.5 58.5 10
E= 5.85 =  t
showing negative deviation 2 2  96500
 t = 1930 sec.
48. What will be the oxidation potential for the following Answer (B)
hydrogen half cell at 1 bar pressure and 25 oC Sol. 2KMnO4 + 16HCl  2MnCl2+5Cl2 + 2KCl + 8H2O
temperature?
2 moles KMnO4 produces 5 moles of Cl2
Pt H2(g) HCl(aq)pH  3 5
1bar 1 mole of KMnO4 will produce molles of Cl2
2
(A) 0.177 V (B) 0.188 V
31.6 1
(C) 0.059 V (D) 0.000 V  moles of KMnO4 will produce moles of
316 4
Answer (A)
Cl2
Sol. For the half cell; Pt H2(g) HCl(aq)pH  3
71
1bar
 Mass of Cl2 gas = = 17.75 gms.
4
H2(g)  2H+(ag)+2e– by Nernst equation 52. What is the structure of XeOF4?

[H ]2 (A) Pyramidal (B) Trigonal bipyramidal

o
0.0591
Ecell = E – log p (C) Square pyramidal (D) Square bipyramidal
Cell
n H2

Answer (C)
3 2
0.0591 (10 )  3 Sol. XeOF4
Ecell = 0 –
2
log
1 ⎣⎡ [H ]  10 M⎦⎤
1
Hybridisation of Xe = 5 [8  6]
0.0591 2
Ecell = – ( 6) =5+1
2
= sp3d2
Ecell = 0.177 V
49. Which ore does not contain carbonate? Hence by the VSEPR theory, due to 5 bond pair &
(A) Malachite (B) Ciderite 1 lone pair of e–. The shape of XeOF4 is square
pyramidal
(C) Calamine (D) Zincite
Answer (D) 53. Which one is not an allylic halide?
Sol. Zincite is ZnO, so does not contain carbonate (A) 1 – Chloro but – 2 – ene
50. Which is the correct order of metallurgy for the (B) 1 – Chloro but – 1 – ene
extraction of copper metal? (C) 3 – Chloro cyclo hex – 1 – ene
(A) Concentration  roasting  smelting
(D) 3 – Chloro prop – 1 – ene.
 bessimerisation
Answer (B)
(B) Concentration  smelting  roasting 
bessimerisation Sol. 1 – Chloro but – 1 – ene ⇒ HC CH CH2 CH3
(C) Concentration  smelting  bessimerisation Cl
 roasting Hence the above is not an allylic halide but vinylic
(D) Concentration  roasting  bessimerisation  halide
smelting 54. Which is the main organic product obtained by the
Answer (A) reaction of 2, 2, 2 trichloro ethanal with calcium
Sol. In the extraction of copper metal; the correct order hydroxide?
is (A) Chloroform
Concentration  Roasting  Smelting  (B) Carbon tetrachloride
Bessimerisation (C) Methylene chloride
51. How many grams of Cl2 gas will be obtained by the
(D) Trichloro ethane
complete reaction of 31.6 gm of potassium
permanganate with hydrochloric acid? Answer (A)
[Mole mass of KMnO4 = 316 gm/mol] Sol. On reaction of 2,2,2 - trichloro ethanal (Chloral) with
(A) 35.5 (B) 17.75 Ca(OH)2; chloroform (CHCl3) is the main organic
(C) 71 (D) 142 product obtained.
55. Which of the following compound is optically 58. Which is the correct structural formula of Aspirin?
inactive?
OCOCH3 OH
(A) 2 – Hydroxy propanoic acid
COOH COOH3
(B) 2, 3 – Dichloro butane
(A) (B)
(C) 3 – Chloro but – 1 – ene
(D) 2, 2 – Dichloro pentane
Answer (D) OCOCH3 COOCH3

Cl OH COOH
(C) (D)
Sol. 2, 2 – Dichloropentane ⇒ H3C C CH2 CH2 CH3
Cl
 The above compound is optically inactive Answer (A) O
56. Which of the organic products of the following
O C CH3
reactions has the least boiling point?
NaBH4
COOH
(A) CH3  CH2  CHO 
H2 O

Sol. Aspirin :
NaBH4
(B) CH3 – C – CH3 
H2 O

O 59. The units for the rate constant and the rate of
reaction are same for a reaction. What will be the
LiAIH4
(C) CH3  CH2  COOH 
H2 O
order of the reaction?
(A) First (B) Zero
(BH )
(D) CH3  CH  CH2  
3 2
H2 O2 , OH (C) Second (D) Third
Answer (B) Answer (B)
Sol. In the reaction A,C,D the product formed is propan– Sol. Unit of rate constant (k) = (conc)1-n (s)–1
1-ol. whereas in the reaction – B n = order of the reaction
NaBH4 The rate law of the reaction is
H3C C CH3 H3C CH CH3
H2O
Rate = K [Reactant]n
O OH
For unit of Rate = Rate constant (k); n should be
 Due to weaker force of attraction in Propan-2-ol;
equal to 0
it has least boiling point.
57. Which is the final product obtained by the reaction  Order is zero
of a grignard reagent ethyl Magnesium bromide with 60. At 27 o C temperature, time required for 75%
propanone? completion of a first order reaction is 20 seconds.
(A) Pentane – 2 – ol What will be its rate constant?
(B) 2 – Methyl – butane – 2 – ol (A) 0.693 sec–1 (B) 0.0693 sec–1
(C) Pentane –1– ol (C) 0.693 sec–1 mole–1 It (D) 0.0693 sec–1 mole–1 It
(D) 3 – Methyl – butane – 2 – ol Answer (B)
Answer (B) Sol. For 1st order reaction ;

4 ⎛ Ao ⎞
O 3 CH2 CH3 Kt = ln ⎜ A ⎟
⎝ t⎠
Sol. C2H5MgBr + H3C C CH3  H C 2 C OH
⎛ Ao ⎞
3

1 CH3 K (20) = ln ⎜⎝ 0.25A ⎟⎠

o
(Final Product)
K (20) = ln (4)
+ Mg(OH)Br
2ln2 0.693
 Final product formed is 2–Methyl - butan-2-ol K=   0.0693 s–1
20 10
61. Which statement is incorrect for a catalyst? 65. Which of the following mixture can form an alloy?
(A) It decreases the activation energy of a reaction (A) Fe, Mn, Mg
(B) It increases the proportion of products in less
time (B) Cr, Co, Na
(C) It does not affect the equilibrium constant (C) Fe, Ni, Cr
(D) It increases the free energy change for the (D) Ni, Mg, Na
reaction
Answer (C)
Answer (D)
Sol. A Catalyst can, Sol. Alloy is the combination of two or more metals.
(i) Increase the rate of reaction by decreasing the According to Hume-Rothery ratio, metals which have
activation energy
(i) Similar electronic structure in the valence shell
(ii) Also increase the proportion of products per unit
time. (ii) Similar crystal structure and
(iii) Does not alter equilibrium established reaction. (iii) Difference in the radius should be less than 15%
Hence does not alter equilibrium constant. can form alloy.
(iv) Does not alters the valueof  G and  H Hence Fe, Ni, Cr – belongs to 3d – series can form
Hence the correct answer is (D) alloy.
62. During electrophoresis of colloidal sol of Fe(OH)3' the
66. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
colloidal particles
(A) Move towards anode (A) K4 [Ni(CN)4] is square planar while K2[Ni(CN)4] is
(B) Move towards cathode paramagnetic.
(C) Move towards anode and cathode both (B) K2 [Ni(CN)4] is diamagnetic while K2[NiCl4] is
(D) Do not move paramagnetic.
Answer (B)
(C) K4 [Ni(CN)4] and K2[Ni(CN)4] both have same
Sol. Fe(OH)3 is a positively charged colloid. Hence under
magnetic moment
the influence of electricity these particles can migrate
towards cathode. (D) K2 [NiCl4] and K4 [Ni(CN)4] both have same
63. In manufacturing of sulphuric acid in presence of geometrical shapes
platinum catalyst, which metal impurity acts as Answer (A)
catalytic poison?
Sol. Incorrect option is (A) where
(A) Cu (B) Cr
(C) Fe (D) V K4[Ni(CN)4] sp3 Tetrahedran (Diamagnetic)
Answer (A) K2[Ni(CN)4] dsp2 square planar (Diamagnetic)
Sol. In production of sulphuric acid, in the presence of
K2[NiCl4] sp3 Tetrahedran (Paramagnetic)
platinum catalyst, the impurity of copper decreases
the efficiency of the catalyst. It is called catalytic 67. The aqueous solution of which of the following
poison. complex has the leaste conductivity under identical
64. Which ion has the least value of theoretical magnetic conditions.
moment?
(A) Hexa aqua chromium (III) chloride
(A) Ti3+ (B) Co3+
(C) Cr3+ (D) V3+ (B) Tetra aqua dichlorido chromium (III) chloride
Answer (A) (C) Penta aqua chlorido chromium (III) chloride
Sol. Magnatic moment   n(n  2) BM (D) Tri aqua trichlorido chromium (III)
where n = no. of unpaired electrons Answer (D)
As the number of unpaired electrons increases,
magnetic moment also increases. Sol. The complex which produce least number of ions in
In the given options. aqueous solution will show least conductivity.
Ti+3 = [Ar]3d14so; n=1 (A) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 ; 4 ions
Co+3= [Ar]3d64so;n=4
(B) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl ; 2 ions
Cr+3 = [Ar]3d34so;n=3
V+3= [Ar]3d2 4so;n=2 (C) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2; 3 ions
Hence the correct answer is (A)
(D) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3]; No ions.
68. Which complex possess facial isomer? 70. Which is the main functional group in Acrolein?
(A) [Co(NH3)4CO3]Cl (A) Nitrile (B) Alkene
(B) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] (C) Aldehyde (D) Ester
(C) K[Fe(NH3)2(CN)4] Answer (C)
(D) [Ni(H2O)4(NH3)2]SO4 O

Answer (B) Sol. Acrolein H2C=C–C–H Hence the main functional

Sol. Facial and Meridional isomersm shown by the group is aldehyde
complex
71. Which of the following compound upon oxidation
[MA3B3] type gives isophthalic acid?
Ex:- [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] (A) o-Xylene (B) m-Xylene
NO2
(C) p-Xylene (D) m-Cresol
H3N NO2
Co Answer (B)
H3N
NO2
H3N Sol. Isophthalic acid is
69. Which of the following is not a final product obtained COOH
by cross aldol condensation of ethanal and
propanal?
(A) But-2-enal COOH
(B) 2-Methyl-pent-2-enal
CH3 CH3
(C) 3-Methyl-but-2-enal alk.KMnO4
Oxidation
(D) Pent-2-enal
Answer (C) CH3 CH3
m-xylene Isophthalic acid
O O
H3C–CH2–C–H Note :
Sol. H3C–C–H
Ethanal Propanol
COOH
on crossed aldol condensation gives. COOH
COOH
O O

OH
2 H3C–C–H  –
 H3C–CH–CH–C–H but-2-enal COOH
COOH
phthaleic acid COOH
Isophthalic acid
O Terephthalic acid
O H3C–CH2–CH –C–C–H

OH
2 H3C–CH2–C–H   CH3
72. Which is the oxidized product obtained when
2–methylpent-2-enal benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phosphonic
acid in presence of water?
O (A) Benzene (B) Phenol
O
H3C–C–H O (C) Chloro benzene (D) Phosphorus acid
H3C–CH=C–C–H
OH
H3C–CH2–C–H   CH Answer (D)
3
2–methylbut-2-enal Sol.

O N2Cl

O
H3C–CH2–C–H

H3PO2 + H3PO3
OH
H3C–C–H   H3C–CH2–CH=CH–C–H +H2O Phosphorous
O Pent – 2 – enal Benzene acid
Reduced product
73. Which of the following compound is the most basic? Answer (D)
Sol. [Guanine and adenine] are purine bases
NH2 NH2
Cytosine,Uracil,Thymine are pyrimidine bases.

(A) (B) 76. Which of the following amino acid has pH greater
than 7?

OCH3 (A) Glycine

NH2 NH2 (B) Lysine
Cl (C) Glutamic acid
(C) (D)
(D) Alanine
NO2
Answer (B)
Answer (B)
Sol. pH should be more for basic amino acids.
Sol.
Lysine is basic amino acid.
Hence, its pH > 7.
: NH2

is most basic among the following H2N (H2C)3 C COOH

NH2
:O CH3
:

Lysine
because of more pronounced + R effect of
77. Which is the correct structural formula for terylene?
CH3 group.

* Basic strength  EDG. C C O CH2 CH2 O

(A)
74. The number of and  bonds in orange azo dye is O O n
_________ and _____ respectively.
(A) 26 and 7 (B) 24 and 7 C C O CH2 CH2 O
(B)
(C) 27 and 7 (D) 26 and 6 O O n

Answer (A)
C O C CH2 O CH2 O
Sol. Orange dye is (C)
O O n

N=N OH
C C CH2 O CH2 O
It is obtained by the reaction between B.D.C and (D)
O O n
phenol.
Answer (A)
H H H H Sol. Terylene is the co-polymer of terephthalic acid and
H N=N O H Ethylene glycol

H H H H
COOH
Total  bonds = 26
H2C – CH2
Total  bonds = 7
75. Which one is a purine base? OH OH
COOH Ethylene Glycol
(A) Cytosine (B) Thymine Terephthalic Acid
(C) Uracil (D) Guanine
78. Which are the monomers of Buna – N? (A) P  N, Q  O, R  M, S  L
(A) Buta - 1, 3-diene and prop -2-ene-1-nitrile (B) P  N, Q  M, R  O, S  L
(B) Buta - 1, 2-diene and acrylonitrile (C) P  N, Q  O, R  L, S  M
(C) Buta - 1, 3-diene and prop-1-ene-1-nitrile
(D) P  L, Q  O, R  M, S  N
(D) Buta - 1, 2-diene and prop-2-ene-1-nitrile
Answer (A)
Answer (A)
Sol. Artificial sweetner – Alitame
Sol. Buna – N
Food Preservative - Sorbic acid
Butadiene + Prop – 2 – en – 1 – nitrile
Anti oxidant – Ascorbic acid
H2C = CH – CH = CH2 + H2C = CH–C  N
Food Colour – Caramel.
79. Choose the correct option for the suitable match
80. Which of the following drugs gives releif from anxiety
between Column I and Column II
and stress?
Column - I Column - II
(A) Luminal (B) Aspirin
(P) Artificial Sweetner (L) Caramel
(C) Ofloxacin (D) Mestranol
(Q) Food Preservative (M) Ascorbic acid
Answer (A)
(R) Anti Oxidants (N) Alitame
Sol. Barbiturates can release from stress and anxiety.
(S) Food colours