02-Neet-Pt02 C+P+B - Solutions - m2

NEET Section
Subject Topic Part Test – 02 Date

Chemical Equilibrium, Ionic Equilibrium, Chemical bonding and NEET – 12 – CT
molecular structure, Thermal Properties of Matter, Thermodynamics
and KTG, Mechanical Properties of Solids & Fluids, Cell; The Unit of
C+P+B Life, Morphology Of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of Flowering Plants,
26th Mar 2024
N1220240326
Cell; Cycle and Cell Division, Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Body
Fluids and Circulation
Max. Marks: 720 Duration: 3 Hours
1. This paper consists of 200 questions with 3 parts of Chemistry, Physics and Biology
Each Part consists of 2 Sections
• Section – A: 35 Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 4
Marks. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 1 mark.
• Section – B: 15 Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 4
Marks. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 1 mark.
Note: In Part B, Out of 15 questions, Only 10 questions are to be answered. If you answered more
than 10 questions in Part B, the first 10 questions answered will be evaluated.
2. The OMR sheet for 200 questions is to be used
3. Use of calculators and log tables is prohibited
4. Darken the appropriate bubble using a pen in the OMR sheet provided to you. Once entered, the
answer cannot be changed. Any corrections or modifications will automatically draw a penalty of
1 mark
5. No clarification will be entertained during the examination. Doubts in the paper can be reported
to the coordinator after the exam
6. If the details in the OMR Sheet are not filled, If the OMR sheet is mutilated, torn, white Ink used,
the circles filled and scratched, then the OMR sheet will not be graded
All the best!!
Useful Data
At. Wt.:
N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207
Physical Constants:
h = 6.626  10 −34 Js , N a = 6.022  1023 mol-1 , c = 2.998  108 m s-1 , me = 9.110−31 kg , R = 8.314 J mol-1 K -1
NEET Section
N1220240326
Chemistry
Section – A
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 4 marks. A wrong
answer carries a penalty of 1 mark. 35 x 4 = 140
1. Which of the following compounds contain(s) no covalent bond(s)?
KCl , PH 3 , O2 , B2 H 6 , H 2 SO4
(a) KCl , B2 H 6 , PH 3 (b) KCl , H 2 SO4 (c) KCl , O2 (d) KCl
Sol: KCl is an ionic compound and has no covalent bonds

Ans: (d)
2. Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base?
(a) CO (b) BF3 (c) F (d) PF3
Sol: BF3 it is a Lewis acid.
Ans: (b)
3. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment?
(a) NF3 (b) NH 3 (c) CO2 (d) CH 4
Sol: NH 3
Ans: (b)
4. Which one of the following molecules contains no  bond?
(a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) H 2 O (d) NO2
Sol:
O
H H
Ans: (c)
5. Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product ( CO2 )
(a) Ethene (b) Ethanol (c) Ethyne (d) Ethane

Sol: HC  CH and O = C = O both have sp − hybridised carbon
Ans: (c)
6. Predict the correct order of repulsion among the following:
(a) lone pair – lone pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair
(b) lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair
(c) lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
(d) bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair > lona pair – lone pair
Sol: Lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair
Ans: (b)
Deeksha House 2 Rough Work
NEET Section
N1220240326
7. In the reaction A ( s ) + B ( g ) + Heat 2C ( s ) + 2 D ( g ) equilibrium is established. The pressure of B is
tripled to re-establish the equilibrium. The factor by which D is changed is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3
P2
Sol: K = PD2 / pB . When pB is tripled, K = D '
3PB
PD2 PD'2
=  PD = 3 PD
PB 3PB
Ans: (d)
8. Two moles of PCl5 is heated in a closed vessel of 200 ml capacity. At equilibrium 40% PCl5 is dissociated.
The value of equilibrium constant is

(a) 0.267 (b) 53 (c) 2.67 (d) 5.3
Sol:
PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
Initial : 2 0 0
Equilibrium : ( 2 − 0.8 ) 0.8 0.8
 0.8  0.8 
  
Kc = 
0.2  0.2  0.64
= = 2.67
 1.2  0.2  1.2
 
 0.2 
Ans: (c)
9. At a certain temperature and a total pressure of 105 Pa , iodine vapour contain 40% by volume of iodine
atoms  I 2 ( g ) 2 I ( g )  . Calculate K p for the equilibrium

 
(a) 2.67 Pa (b) 0.66 Pa (c) 2.67  104 Pa (d) 2.67  105 Pa
40
Sol: Partial pressure of I atoms ( pI ) =  105 Pa = 0.4  105 Pa
100
Partial pressure of I 2 pI 2 = ( ) 60
100
 105 Pa = 0.60  105 Pa
( )
2
p2 0.4  105
Kp = I = = 2.67  104 Pa
5
pI 2 0.60  10
Ans: (c)

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10. Nitric oxide reacts with bromine and gives nitrosyl bromide as per reaction given below
2 NO ( g ) + Br2 ( g ) 2 NOBr ( g )
When 0.087 mol of NO and 0.0437 mol of Br2 are mixed in a closed container at constant temperature,
0.0518 mol of NOBr is obtained at equilibrium. Calculate equilibrium amount (in mole) of nitric oxide
and bromine respectively
(a) 0.0352, 0.0352 (b) 0.0352, 0.0178 (c) 0.0178, 0.0178 (d) 0.0178, 0.0352
0.0518
Sol: 0.0518 mol of NOBr is formed from 0.0518 mol of NO and = 0.0259 mol of Br2
2
 At equilibrium, amount of NO = 0.087 − 0.0518 = 0.0352 mol
Amount of Br2 = 0.0437 − 0.0259 = 0.0178 mol
Ans: (b)
11. For the reaction H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) 2 HI ( g ) at 721K , the value of equilibrium constant is 50 , when
equilibrium concentration of both is 5M . Value of K P under the same conditions will be
(a) 0.02 (b) 50 (c) 0.2 (d) 50 RT
Sol: H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) 2 HI ( g )
n
K P = KC ( RT ) ; n = 2 − 2 = 0 ;
 K P = KC = 50
Ans: (b)
12. Write the conjugate acids for the bronsted bases: NH 2− , NH 3 and HCOO − respectively
(a) NH 2− , NH 2− , CO22− (b) NH 3 , NH 2− , HCCOH
(c) NH 3 , NH 4+ , HCOOH (d) NH 4+ , NH 2− , COO 2−
Sol: NH 3 , NH 4+ , HCOOH
Ans: (c)
13. The pH of a sample of vinegar is 3.76. Calculate the concentration of hydrogen ion in it
( log174 = 2.24 )
−3 −4 −3 −4
(a) 1.74  10 (b) 1.86  10 (c) 1.58  10 (d) 1.74  10
Sol: pH = − log  H +  or log  H +  = − pH = −3.76 = 4.24

   
  H +  = Antilog4.24 = 1.738  10−4 M = 1.74  10−4 M

 
Ans: (d)

NEET Section
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14. The solubility product constants of Ag 2CrO4 and AgBr are 8.64  10−13 and 4.9  10−13 respectively.
Calculate the ratio of molarities of their saturated solutions

(a) 68.6 (b) 85.7 (c) 82.8 (d) 75.6
Sol: Calculate their solubilities separately and then calculate the ratio
S ( Ag 2CrO4 ) 6  10−5 M
= = 85.7
S ( AgBr ) 7  10−7
Ans: (b)
15. A buffer solution contains 0.40 mol of ammonium hydroxide and 0.50 mol of ammonium chloride to
make a buffer solution of 1L. Calculate the pH of the resulting buffer solution.
( pKb ofNH 4OH = 4.742, log 2 = 0.3010 )

(a) 4.83 (b) 9.16 (c) 5.06 (d) 10.56
Sol: pOH = pKb + log

Salt  = pK + log  NH 4Cl 
 Base b
 NH 4OH 
 NH 4OH  = 0.40 mol L−1
 NH 4Cl  = 0.50 molL−1
( )
pKb = − log Kb = − log 1.81  10−5 = 5 − 0.2577 = 4.7423
0.5
 pOH = 4.742 + log = 4.742 + log1.25 = 4.742 + 0.0969 = 4.8389 4.839
0.4
 pH = 14 − pOH = 14 − 4.839 = 9.161
Ans: (b)
16. Calculate the formal charge on central nitrogen atom in azide ion
(a) +1 (b) 0 (c) −2 (d) −1

Sol:
The Lewis structure of Azide ions is:
N N N
1
The formal charge of the central nitrogen atom = 5 – 0 – (8) = +1
2
1
The formal charge on each of the terminal nitrogen atoms = 5 – 4 – ( 4 ) = –1
2
+
The Lewis structure of azide ion is represented as N N N
Ans: (a)
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N1220240326
17. Total number of lone pairs of electrons are present in a molecule of ClF3 ? [Consider all atoms]
(a) 2 (b) 11 (c) 8 (d) 6

Sol: Two lone pair
Ans: (b)
18. Ammonia has abnormally high boiling point because it has
(a) alkaline nature (b) hydrogen bonding (c) sp3 hybridisation (d) distorted shape
Sol: Because of the presence of H − bonds, higher temperature is required to break them
Ans: (b)
19. Electronic structure of four elements X , Y , Z ,W are given below:
X :1s 2 2 s 2 ; Y :1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 2
Z :1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 4 ; W :1s 2 2 s 2 2 p5
The tendency to form covalent bond is maximum in

(a) W (b) Z (c) Y (d) X
Sol: ' y ' belongs to IV A group. Its electronegativity is neither too high nor too low to form ionic bond. So
it forms covalent bond.

Ans: (c)
20. The correct order of lattice energies is
(a) KI  KBr  KCl  KF (b) KF  KCl  KBr  KI
(c) KF  KCl  KI  KBr (d) KCl  KF  KBr  KI
Sol: KF , KCl  KBr  KI

Ans: (b)
21. The concentration of NaOH solution is 10−8 M . Find out the P H

(a) 7.02 (b) 9.82 (c) 6.98 (d) Unpredictable
Sol: Just greater than 7
Ans: (a)
22. The equilibrium constant for the reaction, N 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) 2 NO ( g ) is 4  10−4 at 2000 K . In presence
of a catalyst, equilibrium is attained ten times faster. Therefore, the equilibrium constant, in presence of
the catalyst, at 2000 K is:
(a) 40  10−4 (b) 4  10−3
(c) 4  10−4 (d) Difficult to compute without more data

Sol: Equilibrium constant is constant at constant temperature
Ans: (c)
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23. If equilibrium constant for reaction 2AB A2 + B2 , is 81 , then the equilibrium constant for reaction
1 1
AB A2 + B2 , will be
2 2
(a) 7 (b) 20 (c) 9 (d) 21
Sol: 2AB A2 + B2 Kc =
 A2  B2 
 AB2
1 1
For reaction AB A2 + B2
2 2
Kc =
 A2 1/2  B2 1/2 ; K  = Kc = 81 = 9 .
 AB  c
Ans: (c)
24. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) pK w increases with increase in temperature
(b) pK w decreases with increase in temperature
(c) pK w = 14 and is independent of temperature
(d) pK w increases at low temperatures but decreases at high temperatures

Sol: K w increases with increase in temperature. pK w ( )
= − log K w will decrease with increase in K w .
Ans: (b)
25. The pH of 0.1M solution of the following salts increases in the order
(a) NaCl  NH 4Cl  NaCN  HCl (b) HCl  NH 4Cl  NaCl  NaCN
(c) NaCN  NH 4Cl  NaCl  HCl (d) HCl  NaCl  NaCN  NH 4Cl
Sol: HCl is the strongest acid. Its pH will be minimum.
NaCl does not hydrolyse in solution. Its pH = 7
NH 4+ in NH 4Cl on hydrolysis produces H + . Hence, its pH will be slightly less than 7.
CN − in NaCN on hydrolysis produces OH − . Hence, its pH will be slightly greater than 7.
Ans: (b)
26. If to 100 mL of 0.1M acetic acid solution, 0.82 g of sodium acetate is added, the pH of the solution
(assume no dilution factor) becomes  pK a = 4.75

(a) 3.75 (b) 4.75 (c) 5.25 (d) 5.75
Sol: M ( CH 3COONa ) = 82 gmol −1

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n ( CH 3COONa ) = m / M = 0.82 g / 82 gmol −1 = 0.01 mol
c ( CH 3COONa ) = n / V = 0.01 mol / 0.1L = 0.1M
( )
pH = pKa + log salt  / acid  = log 1.8  10−5 + log ( 0.1/ 0.1) = 4.75
Ans: (b)
27. A 250C , the dissociation constant of a base BOH is 1.0  10 −12 . The concentration of hydroxyl ions in
0.01M aqueous solution of the base would be
(a) 2.0  10−6 mol/ L−1 (b) 1.0  10−5 mol / L−1 (c) 1.0  10−6 mol / L−1 (d) 10−7 mol / L−1
Sol: BOH B + + OH −
Initial C O O
At eq. C − C C C
c2 a2
Kb = = Ca 2 assuming   1;1 −  = 1
c (1 − a )
10−12 = 10−2  a 2 ; a 2 = 10−10 ; a = 10−5
OH −  = Ca = .01 10−5 = 10−7

 
Ans: (d)
28. At 448C , the equilibrium constant ( K c ) for the reaction H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) 2 HI ( g ) is 5.2 Predict the
direction in which the reaction will proceed to reach equilibrium at 448C , if we start with 2.0  10−2 mol
of HI ,1.0  10−2 molof H 2 , and 3.0  10−2 mol of I 2 in a 2.0L container.
(a) No change of direction (b) Backward

(c) Forward (d) Unpredictable
Sol: The initial concentrations are
2.0  10−2
 HI  = molL−11.0  10−2 molL−1
2
1.0  10−2
H2  = molL−1 = 0.5  10−2 molL2
2
3.0  10−2
 I2  = molL−2molL−1
2
Concentration quotient.
Q=
 HI 2
 H 2  I 2 

NEET Section
N1220240326
(1.0  10−2 molL−1 )

2
= = 1.3
( 0.5 10−2 molL−1 )  (1.5 10−2 molL−1 )
Since Q  K , the reaction will proceed in the forward direction to attain equilibrium so that Q becomes
equal to K.
Ans: (c)
29. The pH of a solution of a salt decreases with increase in the concentration of the salt. The salt may be
(a) ammonium chloride (b) sodium acetate (c) ammonium acetate (d) sodium bicarbonate
Sol: For a salt formed from weak base and strong acid, pH of the solution is given by
1 
pH = pK w − pKb − log ( c ) 
2 
Ans: (a)
30. For the reaction C2 H 6 ( g ) C2 H 4 ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) , the K p = 0.05 atm. The value of G of the reaction at
627C would be ( log 5 = 0.6989 )
(a) 11.19 kJ mol − 1 (b) 22.40 kJ mol − 1 (c) 33.57 kJ mol − 1 (d) 27.98 kJ mol − 1
( )
Sol: G = − RT ln K p = − 8.314 JK −1mol −1 ( 900 K )( 2.303) log ( 0.05) = 22400 J mol −1
Ans: (b)
31. Equimolar concentrations of H 2 and I 2 are heated to equilibrium in a 2 litre flask. At equilibrium, the
forward and the backward rate constants are found to be equal. What percentage of initial concentration
of H 2 has reacted at equilibrium?
(a) 33% (b) 66% (c) 50% (d) 40%

Sol: H2 ( g ) + I2 ( g ) 2 HI ( g )
initial 1 mol 1 mol 0

At eqm. 1− x 1− x 2x
2x
1− x 1− x mol L−1
Molar conc. 2
2 2
=x
x2
K=
1− x 1− x

2 2
4 x2
= =1
(1 − x )2

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N1220240326
 kf 
K = = 1
 kb 
2x 1
 =1 x= = 0.33
1− x 3
Ans: (a)
32. One mole of N 2O4( g ) at 300C is kept in a closed container at 1atm . It is heated to 600K when 20% by
mass of N 2O4 decomposed to NO2( g ) . The resultant pressure is
(a) 1.2 atm (b) 2.0 atm (c) 2.4 atm (d) 2.8 atm
Sol: We will have N 2O4 ( g ) 2 NO2 ( g ); ntotal = 1.2 mol

0.8 mol 20.2 mol
p = (1.2 mol / 1 mol )( 600 K / 300 K )(1 atm ) = 2.4 atm
Ans: (c)
33. Which of the following is most soluble?

(a) CuS K sp(= 8  10−37 ) (
(b) Ag2 S K sp = 6  10−51 )

(c) Bi2 S3 K sp (
= 1  10−70 ) 
(
(d) MnS K sp = 7  10−16 )
1/3 1/5
 6  10−51   10−70 
Sol: CuS  S = 8  10 ( )
−37 1/2
for Ag 2 S , S = 
 4
 for Bi2 S3 , S = 
 108 
for MnS ,
   
( )
1/2
S = 7  10−16
Ans: (d)
34. What type of orbital hybridisation is considered on P in PCl5 ?
(a) sp3d 2 (b) d sp3 (c) sp3d (d) d 2 sp3
1 10
Sol: H = 5 + 5 − 0 + 0 = sp3d
2 2
Ans: (c)
35. Number of  bonds and  bonds in the following structure is
(a) 6, 19 (b) 4, 20 (c) 5, 20 (d) 5, 19

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Sol: The given compound will have the correct structure as

H H
H H
H H
H H
There are 5  -bonds and C − H + 11 C − C  bonds, i.e., 19  bonds.
Ans: (d)
Section – B
answer carries a penalty of 1 mark. Out of 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10
Questions 10 x 4 = 40
36. How many of the following orders are correct with respect to the properties indicated?
(i) HCl  HF Boiling point
(ii) H 2O  NH 3 Dipole moment
(iii) F2  Cl2 Bond energy
(iv) H 2O  OCl2 Bond angle
(v) NaCl  CuCl Covalent character
(vi) SO2  SO3 Acid strength
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 2

Sol: (i),(iii), (iv) ,(v), (vi)
Ans: (c)
37. Correct order of bond order is
(a) N 2  N 2+  N 2−2 (b) N 2+  N 2  N 2−2 (c) N 2−2  N 2  N 2+ (d) N 2  N 2−2  N 2+
Sol: Bond order of N 2 is 3, N 2+ is 2.5 and N 22− is two.
Ans: (a)
38. Choose the molecule in which hybridisation occurs in the ground state?
(a) BCl3 (b) CO2 (c) PCl3 (d) BeF2
3s 3p
Sol: PCl3 =
sp3

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N1220240326
Ground state configuration of P

Ans: (c)
39. Which one of the following statements is true about the structure of CO32− ion?
(a) Out of the three C − O bonds, two are longer and one is shorter.
(b) It has three sigma and three  − bonds.
(c) All three C − O bonds are equal in length with a bond order is between 1 and 2.
(d) It can be explained by considering sp3 hybridization.
Sol: All three C − O bonds are equal in length with a bond order in between 1 and 2 due to resonance.
Ans: (c)
40. Equal volumes of the following Ca 2+ and F − solutions are mixed. In which of the solutions will
precipitation occur? ( Ksp of CaF2 = 1.7  10−10 )
(1) 10−2 M Ca 2+ + 10−5 MF − (2) 10−3 M Ca 2+ + 10−2 MF −
(3) 10−4 M Ca 2+ + 10−2 MF − (4) 10−2 M Ca 2+ + 10−3 MF −
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 (c) 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
2
Sol: Ionic product of CaF2 = Ca 2 +   F −  . Concentration of ions will be halved after mixing. Thus,
ionic products will be

2
10−2  10−5  1 −12
(1)   = 10
2  2  8
2
10−3  10−2  1 −7
(2)   =  10
2  2  8
2 2
10−4  10−2  1 −8 10−2  10−3  1 −8
(3)   = 10 (4)   = 10
2  2  8 2  2  8
In (2),(3) and (4) ionic product  K sp .
Hence, precipitation will occur in (2), (3) and (4).

Ans: (c)
41. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4, and 5 are mixed in vessel. What will be the H + ion
concentration in the mixture

−3 −3 −4 −4
(a) 1.7  10 M (b) 1.11 10 M (c) 1.11 10 M (d) 3.7  10 M

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N1220240326
−3
10 x + 10−4 x + 10−5 x
Sol:  H +  =
  mix 3x
=
3
(
1 −3
)
10 + 10−4 + 10−5 = 37 10−5
= 3.7  10−4
Ans: (d)
42. What is the maximum concentration of equimolar solutions of ferrous sulphate and sodium sulphide so
that when mixed in equal volumes, there is no precipitation of iron sulphide? For iron sulphide,
K sp = 6.3  10−18
(a) 5.65  10−8 M (b) 6.05  10−8 M (c) 5.35  10−9 M (d) 5.02  10−9 M
Sol: Suppose the concentration of each of FeSO4 and Na2 S is x mol L−1 . Then after mixing equal
volumes,
x x
 FeSO4  =  Na2S  = M , i.e.,  Fe2+  =  S 2−  = M
2     2
K sp for FeS =  Fe2+   S 2−  , i.e., 6.3  10−18 =  or x 2 = 25.2  10−18 , or x = 5.02  10−9 M
x x
   2 2
Ans: (d)
43. Highest pH is given by
(a) 0.1M H 2 SO4 (b) 0.1M NaOH (c) 1N NaOH (d) 1N HCl
Sol: 1N NaOH solutions have highest p H
OH −  = 1; pOH − 0; p H + pOH = 14

 
p H = 14 − 0 = 14
Ans: (c)
(
44. The pH of 1 dm 3 solution of 0.5M acetic acid K a = 1.8  10−5 is 2.52. ) If this solution is diluted 4
times, its pH will change by ( log15 = 1.176 )
(a) +0.30 (b) +0.60 (c) +0.90 (d) −1.2

Sol: Solution concentration becomes 0.125 M
Ka 1.8  10−5 M

= = = 0.012; H + = c = ( 0.125M )( 0.012 ) = 0.0015M
c 0.125M
pH = − log ( 0.0015) = 2.82; pH = 2.82 − 2.52 = 0.30
Ans: (a)

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45. The equilibrium constant ( K c ) for the reaction A2 ( g ) + B2 ( g ) 2 AB ( g ) is 50. If 1 mol of A2 and
2 mol of B2 are mixed, the amount of AB at equilibrium would be ( 4100 = 64.03 )

(a) 0.934 mol (b) 0.467 mol (c) 1.866 mol (d) 1.401 mol
Sol: A2 ( g ) + B2 ( g ) 2 AB ( g )
1 mol − x 2 mol − x 2x
Since  g = 0, we will have K c = K p = K n
( 2 x )2 ( 2 x )2
Kn = that is = 50
(1 mol − x )( 2 − x ) (1 mol − x )( 2 − x )
Solving for x, we get x = 0.933 mol
Amount of AB = 2 x = 1.866 mol
Ans: (c)
46. At 700 K, equilibrium constant for the reaction H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) 2 HI ( g ) is 54.8. If 0.5 mol L−1 of HI ( g )
is present at equilibrium at 700 K, what are the concentrations of H 2 ( g ) and I 2 ( g ) assuming that we
initially started with HI ( g ) and allowed it to reach equilibrium at 700 K[ 7.4 = 54.8]
2
(a) 0.068 M (b) 0.475 M (c) 0.086 M (d) 0.584 M

1
Sol: 2 HI ( g ) H2 ( g ) + I2 ( g ), K =
54.8
x x 1
At equilibrium,  HI  = 0.5 molL−1,  H 2  =  I 2  = x molL−1  K = =
( 0.5) 2 54.8
This gives x = 0.068 , i.e.,  H 2  =  I 2  = 0.068 mol L−1
Ans: (a)
47. For the decomposition reaction NH 2COONH 4( s ) 2 NH 3( g ) + CO2( g ) , the K p = 2.9  10−5 atm3. The total
pressure of gases at equilibrium when 1.0 mol of NH 2COONH 4( s ) was taken to start with would be
(1.943 = 7.25)
(a) 0.0194 atm (b) 0.0388 atm (c) 0.0582 atm (d) 0.0776 atm
Sol: NH 2 COONH 4 (s) 2 NH 3 ( g )+ CO2 ( g )

1.0 mol − x 2p p
i.e. 2.9  10−5 atm3 = ( 2 p ) p

2
K p = p NH
2
p
3 CO 2

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1/3
 2.9  10−5 atm 
This gives p =   = 0.0194 atm and ptotal = 2 p + p = 3 p = 3  0.0194 atm = 0.0582 atm
 4
 
Ans: (c)
48. A 0.1N solution of an acid at room temperature has a degree of ionisation 0.01 , the concentration of
OH − would be
(a) 10−12 M (b) 10−11 M (c) 10−9 M (d) 10−2 M
Sol:  H +  = C   = 0.1 0.01 = 10−3 M

 
10−14
= OH −  = = 10−11
  10−3
Ans: (b)
49. For reaction, 2 A( g ) 3C ( g ) + 2 D( g ) , the value of K c will be equal to
KP
(a) K p ( RT ) (b) K p / RT (c) (d) None of these
( RT )3
Sol: 2 A( g ) 3C ( g ) + 2 D( g )
For this reaction, ng = 3 + 2 − 2 = 3
Kp Kp
 K p = Kc  RT  or
3
= ( RT ) 3 or Kc =
Kc ( RT )3
Ans: (c)
50. If a mixture of 3 mol of H 2 and 1 mole of N 2 is completely converted into NH 3 , what would be the
ratio of the initial and final volume at same temperature and pressure?
1 1
(a) (b) 4 (c) 2 (d)
4 2
Sol:
N 2 + 3H 2 2 NH 3
Initial moles 1 3 0 ( complete conversion)
Final moles 0 0 2
Initial moles
 Ratio of initial and final volumes =
Final moles
=4/ 2=2 ( V  n , if P and T are constant)
Ans: (c)

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Physics
Section – A
51. A particle of mass m is released from and follows a parabolic path as shown. Assuming that the
displacement of the mass from the origin is small, which graph correctly depicts the position of the
particle as a function of time?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol: The given velocity-position graph depicts that the motion of the particle is SHM.
In SHM, at t = 0, v = 0 and x = xmax .
So, option (d) is correct.

Ans: (d)

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52. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents SHM
(I) y = sin t − cos t (II) y = sin 3 t
 3 
(III) y = 5cos  − 3t  (IV) y = 1 + t +  2t 2
 4 
(a) only (IV) does not represent SHM (b) (I) and (III)
(c) (I) and (II) (d) only (I)
d2y  3 
Sol: For a simple harmonic motion  − y Hence, equation y = sin t − cos t and y = 5cos  − 3t 
dt 2  4 
satisfy this condition anc equation y = 1 + t +  2t 2 is not periodic and y = sin 3 t is periodic but not
SHM.
Option (c) is correct.
Ans: (b)
53. Two particles are oscillating along two close parallel straight lines side by side, with the same frequency
and amplitudes. They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when their displacement is half of
the amplitude. The mean position of the two particles lie on a straight line perpendicular to the paths of
the two particles. The phase difference is
2 
(a) zero (b) (c)  (d)
3 6
Sol: Equation of SHM is given by
x = Asin (t +  )
( t =  ) is called phase.
A
when x = , then
2
1 
sin (t +  ) =  t +  =
2 6

or 1 =
6
 5
For second particle, 2 =  − =
6 6
 = 2 − 1
4 2
= =
6 3
Ans: (b)

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54. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the velocity. The units of the constant of
proportionality are
(a) kgs (b) kgms −1 (c) kgms −2 (d) kgs −1
Sol: Given, damping force  velocity

F
F = kv  k =
v
unit of F kg − ms−2
Unit of k = = = kgs−1
unit of v −1
ms
Ans: (a)

55. The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by y = 3sin ( 50t − x ) , where x and y are in metres
2
and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave velocity is
3 2
(a) 2 (b)  (c) 3 (d) 
2 3
Sol: We now that vmax = a and v = n
v a a ( 2 n ) 2 a
 max = = =
v n n 
2 a  3
= = ka =  3 =
2 / k 2 2
Ans: (b)
56. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation, X = Acos (t )
where X = displacement at time t = frequence of oscillation Which one of the following graphs shows
correctly the variation a with t ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

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Here a = acceleration at time tT = time period

Sol:
Displacement, x = Acos (t ) (given)
dx
Velocity, v = = − Asin (t )
dt
dv
Acceleration, a = = − A 2 cos (t )
dt
Hence graph (c) correctly depicts the variation of a with t .
Ans: (c)
57. When two displacements represented by y1 = asin (t ) and y2 = bcos (t ) are superimposed the motion
is
a
(a) Not a simple harmonic (b) Simple harmonic with amplitude
b
a 2 + b2
(a + b)
(c) Simple harmonic with amplitude (d) Simple harmonic with amplitude
2
 
Sol: The two displacement equations are y1 = asin (t ) and y2 = bcos (t ) = bsin  t + 
 2
yeq = y1 + y2
= asint + bcost
 
= asint + bsin  t + 
 2
Since the frequencies for both SHMs are same, resultant motion will be SHM.

Now Aeq = a 2 + b2 + 2abcos
2
 Aeq = a 2 + b2
Ans: (c)

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58. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distance x1 and x2 from the mean
position are V1 and V2 respectively. Its time period is
x12 + x22 x22 − x12 V12 + V22 V12 − V22

(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) 2
V12 + V22 V12 − V22 x12 + x22 x12 − x22
Sol: As we know, for particle undergoing SHM,
V =  A2 − X 2
( )
V12 =  2 A2 − x12 and V22 =  2 A2 − x22 ( )
On subtracting the relations
(
V12 − V22 =  2 x22 − x12 )
V12 − V22
=
x22 − x12
x22 − x12
T = 2
V12 − V22
Ans: (b)
59. A simple pendulum hangs from the ceiling of a car. If the car accelerates with a uniform acceleration, the
frequency of the simple pendulum will
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) becomes infinite (d) remain constant
1 g 2 + a2
Sol: In this case frequency of oscillation is given by n = , where a is the acceleration of car.
2 l
If a increases then n also increases.
Ans: (a)
60. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion of angular
frequency  . The amplitude of oscillation is gradually increased. The coin will leave contact with the
platform for the first time
(a) at the mean position of the platform (b) for an amplitude of g 2 /  2
(c) for an amplitude of g /  2 (d) at the highest position of the platform
Sol: The net effect of these two forces must be towards mean position.
At the mean position, there is no net force and hence normal reaction equals mg . Above mean position,
normal reaction is less than mg and below mean position, normal reaction is greater than mg .

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At the top extreme:
N is minimum at the top extreme.
Net force towards mean position = ma = m 2 A
 mg − Nt = m 2 A
Nt = N min = mg − m 2 A
For loosing contact with the platform, N = 0
So, A = g /  2
Ans: (c)
61. The function sin 2 ( t ) represents
(a) a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion with a period 2 / 

(b) a simple harmonic motion with a period 2 / 
(c) a simple harmonic motion with a period  / 
(d) a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion with a period  / 

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Sol: Here, y = sin 2 t
dy
= 2sintcost = sin2t
dt
d2y
= 2 2 cos2t
2
dt
d2y
For SHM,  −y
dt 2
Hence, function is not SHM, but periodic.

From the y − t graph, time period is t =

Ans: (d)
 x
62. The equation of a wave is represented by y = 10−4 sin 100t −  . The velocity of the wave will be
 10 
(a) 100m / s (b) 250m / s (c) 750m / s (d) 1000m / s
 100
Sol: v = = = 1000m / s
k 1/ 10
Ans: (d)
63. A string of 7m length has a mass of 0.035kg . If tension in the string is 60.5N , then speed of a wave on
the string is
(a) 77m / s (b) 102m / s (c) 110m / s (d) 165m / s
T 60.5
Sol: v = v= = 110m / s
m ( 0.035 / 7 )
Ans: (c)

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64. If the tension and diameter of a sonometer wire of fundamental frequency n are doubled and density is
halved then its fundamental frequency will become
n n
(a) (b) 2n (c) n (d)
4 2
Sol:
1 T T
n = 
2l  r 
2
r2
2
n1  T  r    
 =  1  2   2 
n2  T2  r1   1 
2
 1  2   1 
=      = 1
 2  1   2 
 n1 = n2
Ans: (c)
65. A source and an observer move away from each other with a velocity of 10m / s with respect to ground
to ground. If the observer finds the frequency of sound coming from the source as 1950Hz , then actual
frequency of the source is (velocity of sound in air = 340m / s )
(a) 1950Hz (b) 2068Hz (c) 2132Hz (d) 2486Hz
Sol:
 v − vO   340 − 10 
n = n   = n  = 1950
 v + vS   340 + 10 
 n = 2068Hz
Ans: (b)
66. A wave travelling in positive X -direction with A = 0.2m has a velocity of 360m / sec . If  = 60m , then
correct expression for the wave is
  x    x 
(a) y = 0.2sin  2  6t +   (b) y = 0.2sin   6t +  
  60     60  
  x    x 
(c) y = 0.2sin  2  6t −   (d) y = 0.2sin   6t −  
  60     60  
2
Sol: A wave travelling in positive x -direction may be represented as y = Asin ( vt − x ) . On putting

2  x 
values y = 0.2sin ( 360t − x )  y = 0.2sin2  6t − 
60  60 
Ans: (c)

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67. A whistle revolves in a circle with an angular speed of 20rad / sec using a string of length 50cm . If the
frequency of sound from the whistle is 385Hz , then what is the minimum frequency heard by an
observer, which is far away from the centre in the same plane? ( v = 340m / s )
(a) 333Hz (b) 374Hz (c) 385Hz (d) 394Hz

Sol: Minimum frequency will be heard, when whistle moves away from the listener.
 v 
nmin = n  
 v + vs 
where v = r = 0.5  10 = 1m / s
 340 
 nmin = 385   = 374Hz
 340 + 10 
Ans: (b)
68. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed 1 / 5 th of the speed of sound. The
wavelength and frequency of the source emitted are  and f respectively.
The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the observer are respectively
(a) 1.2 F ,  (b) f ,1.2 (c) 0.8 f , 0.8 (d) 1.2 f ,1.2
v + v0 v+v/5 6
Sol: n = ,n = , f = f = 1.2 f and since the source is stationary, so wave length remains un-
v v 5
changed for observer.
Ans: (a)
69. A car is moving towards a high cliff. The car driver sounds a horn of frequency f . The reflected sound
heard by the driver has a frequency 2 f . If v be the velocity of sound, then the velocity of the car, in the
same velocity units, will be:

v v v v
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 4 2
Sol: When the sound is reflected from the cliff, it ap- proaches the driver of the car. Therefore, the driver
acts as an observer and both the source (car) and observer are moving.
Hence, apparent frequency heard by the observer (driver) is given by
 v + v0 
f= f  
 v − v0 

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where v = velocity of sound, v0 = velocity of car = vs
Frequency of reflected sound heard by driver
 v + v0 
n = n  
 v − vS 
It is given that n = 2n
 v + vcar 
Hence, 2n = n    vcar = v / 3
 v − vcar 
Ans: (b)
70. The phase difference between two waves, represented by
y1 = 10−6 sin 100t + ( x / 50 ) + 0.5 m
y2 = 10−6 cos 100t + ( x / 50 )  m where x is expressed in metres and t is expressed in seconds, is
approximately:
(a) 1.07rad (b) 2.07rad (c) 0.5rad (d) 1.5rad
Sol: The given waves are
y1 = 10−6 sin 100t + ( x / 50 ) + 0.5 m

and y2 = 10−6 cos 100t + ( x / 50 )  m
 
 y2 = 10−6 sin 100t + ( x / 50 ) +  m
 2
   
 sin  2 +   = cos 
   
Hence, the phase difference between the waves is
   3.14 
 =  − 0.5  rad =  − 0.5  rad
2   2 
= (1.57 − 0.5 ) rad = (1.07 ) rad
Ans: (a)

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71. Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given by y1 = 4sin500 t and y2 = 2sin506 t .
Number of beats produced per minute is:

(a) 360 (b) 180 (c) 3 (d) 60
Sol: To reach the solution the given wave equations must be compared with standard equation of
progressive wave.
So,
y1 = 4sin500 t
y2 = 2sin506 t
’omparing Eqs. (i) and (ii) with

y = asin t
Ve have, 1 = 500
500
 f1 = = 250 beats / s
2
and 2 = 506
506
 f2 = = 253 beats / s
2
Thus, number of beats produced

= f 2 − f1 − 253 − 250 − 3 beat / s
= 3  60 beats / min = 180 beats / min
Ans: (b)
72. A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two points P and Q
are at distance of 2m and 3m respectively from the source. The ratio of the intensities of the waves at P
and Q is :
(a) 9 : 4 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3: 2 (d) 4 : 9

P
Sol: Intensity of sound I =
4 r 2
2
1 I r 
or 1  or 1 =  2 
2 I 2  r1 
r
Here, r1 = 2m, r2 = 3m
2
I 3 9
Substituting the values, we have 1 =   =
I2  2  4
Ans: (a)

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73. Which one of the following statements is true?

(a) Both light and sound waves in air are transverse
(b) The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse
(c) Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal
(d) Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum
Sol: In a longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium oscillate about their mean or equilibrium
position along the direction of propagation of the wave itself. Sound waves are longitudinal in nature. In
transverse wave, the particles of the medium oscillate about their mean or equilibrium position at right
angles to the direction of propagation of wave itself. Light waves be- ing electromagnetic are transverse
waves.
Ans: (b)
 
74. A transverse wave propagating along x -axis is represented by: y ( x, t ) = 8.0sin  0.5 x − 4 t −  Where
 4
x is in metres and t is in seconds. The speed of the wave is:


(a) 4 m / s (b) 0.5 m / s (c) m/s (d) 8m / s
4
Sol: The standard transverse wave propagating along x - axis can be written as
y = asin ( kx − t +  )
The given equation is
 
y ( x, t ) = 8.0sin  0.5 x − 4 t − 
 4
The standard wave equation can be written as,
y = asin ( kx − t +  )
Where a is amplitude, k the propagation constant and  the angular frequency, comparing the
Eqs. (i) and B) , we have
k = 0.5 ,  = 4
 Speed of transverse wave

 4
v= = = 8m / s
k 0.5
Ans: (d)
75. The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation
of a room, having all the dimensions double of those of room A ?
1
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) (d) 1
2

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Sol: The time of reverberation is defined as the time during which the intensity of sound in an
auditorium becomes one millionth of initial intensity.
Sabine’s formula for reverberation time is
0.16V
T=
 as
Where V is volume of hall in m3

 as = a1s1 + a2 s2 +  =
Total absorption of the hall (room)

Here, s1 , s2 , s3 . and a1 , a2 , a3 coefficients are surface areas of the absorbers are their respective
absorption
T  T  s ( 2)
3
8
=  = = =2
T s V ( 2 ) 2 4
Hence, T  = 2T = 2 1 = 2 s
 v + v0 
2 f = f  
 v − v0 
or 2v − 2v0 = v + v0
or 3v0 = v
v
or v0 =
3
Ans: (a)
76. Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0m and 5.5m respectively, each propagates in a gas with velocity
330m / s . We expect the following number of beats per second:
(a) 12 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 6
Sol: Let 1 = 5.0m, v = 330m / s and 2 = 5.5m
The relation between frequency, wavelength and velocity is given by

v = n

 n=

The frequency corresponding to wavelength 1 ,
v 330
n1 = = = 66Hz
1 5.0
The frequency corresponding to wavelength 2 ,

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N1220240326
v 330
n2 = = = 60Hz
2 5.5
Hence, no. of beats per second

= n1 − n2 = 66 − 60 = 6
Ans: (d)
77. Two points are located at a distance of 10m and 15m from the source of oscillation. The period of
oscillation is 0.05s and the velocity of the wave is 300m / s . What is the phase difference between the
oscillations of two points?
 2 
(a) (b) (c)  (d)
3 3 6
2
Sol: Phase difference =  path difference

Path difference between two points,
x = 15 − 10 = 5m
Time period, T = 0.05s
1 1
 Frequency v = = = 20Hz
T 0.05
Velocity, v = 300m / s
v 300
 Wavelength,  = = = 15m
v 20
Hence, phase difference
2 2 2
 =  x = 5 =
 15 3
Ans: (b)
78. The wave described by y = 0.25sin (10 x − 2 t ) , where x and y are in metre and t in second, is a wave
travelling along the

(a) -ve x -direction with frequency 1Hz
(b) +ve x -direction with frequency  Hz and wave length  = 0.2m
(c) +ve x -direction with frequency 1Hz and wave length  = 0.2m
(d) - ve x -direction with amplitude 0.25m and Wavelength  = 0.2m Therefore, the wave is
travelling along +ve x direction with frequency 1Hz and wavelength 0.2m .
Sol: The given wave equation.
y = 0.25sin (10 x − 2 t )
The minus ( - ) between (10 ) and ( 2 t ) implies that the wave is travelling along positive x direction.

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Now comparing Eq. (i) with standard wave equation
y = asin ( kx − t ) (ii)
We have
a = 0.25m,  = 2 , k = 10 m
2
 = 2  f = 1Hz
T
2 2
Also,  = = 0.2m
k 10
Therefore, the wave is travelling along +ve x -direction with frequency 1Hz and wavelength 0.2m .
Ans: (c)
79. Each of the two strings of length 51.6cm49.1cm are tensioned separately by 20N force. Mass per unit
length of both the strings is the same and equal to 1gm −1 . When both the strings vibrate simultaneously
the number of beats is

(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 3
Sol: The number of beats will be the difference of frequencies of the two strings.
1 T
Frequency of first string f1 =
2l1 m
1 20
= = 137.03Hz
−2
2  51.6 10 10−3
Similarly, frequency of second string
1 20
= = 144.01
−2
2  49.110 10−3
Number of beats = f 2 − f1 = 144 − 137 = 7 beats
Ans: (b)
80. The driver of a car travelling with speed 30ms −1 towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency 600Hz . If the
velocity of sound in air is 330ms −1 , the frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver is
(a) 550Hz (b) 555.5Hz (c) 720Hz (d) 500Hz
Sol: When the sound is reflected from the cliff, it ap- proaches the driver of the car. Therefore, the driver
acts as an observer and both the source (car) and observer are moving.
Hence, apparent frequency heard by the observer (driver) is given by
 v + v0 
f= f  
 v − v0 
where v = velocity of sound,

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v0 = velocity of car = vs
Frequency of reflected sound heard by driver
 v + vO   330 + 30 
f= f   = 600   = 720Hz
 v − vS   330 − 30 
Ans: (c)
81. A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2cm . The wave travels in the +ve direction of x − axis with a
speed of 128ms −1 and it is noted that 5 complete waves fit in 4m length of the string. The equation
describing the waves is
(a) y = ( 0.02 ) msin ( 7.85 x + 1005t ) (b) y = ( 0.02 ) msin (15.7 x − 2010t )
(c) y = ( 0.02 ) msin (15.7 x + 2010t ) (d) y = ( 0.02 ) msin ( 7.85 x − 1005t )
Sol: Find the parameters and put in the general wave equation.
Here, A = 2cm
direction = + ve x -direction
v = 128ms −1 and 5 = 4
2 2  5
Now, k = = = 7.85
 4

and v = = 128ms −1
k
  = v  k = 128  7.85 = 1005
As, y = Asin ( kx − t )
y = 2sin ( 7.85 x − 1005t )

= ( 0.02 ) msin ( 7.85 x − 1005t )
Ans: (d)

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82. A transverse wave is represented by y = Asin (t − kx ) . For what value of the wavelength is the wave
velocity equal to the maximum particle velocity?

(a)  A / 2 (b)  A (c) 2 A (d) A
 
Sol: Wave velocity v = =
T 2
Maximum particle velocity ( vmax )  = A
Given, v = ( vmax ) 

= A   = 2 A
2
Ans: (c)
83. A tuning fork of frequency 512Hz makes 4 beats/s with the vibrating string of a piano.
The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats/s when the tension in the piano string is slightly increased. The
frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was
(a) 510Hz (b) 514 / Hz (c) 516Hz (d) 508Hz
Sol: Suppose n p = frequency of piano = ?
(np  T )
n f = frequency of tuning fork = 512Hz
x = Beat frequency = 4 beats /s , which is decreas- ing ( 4 → 2 ) after changing the tension of pians
wire. Also, tension of piano wire is increasing st n p 
Hence, n p  − n f = x → wrong
n f − n p = x → correct
 n p = n f − x = 512 − 4 = 508Hz
Ans: (d)
84. Two waves are represented by the equations y1 = asin (t = kx + 0.57 ) m and y2 = acos (t + kx ) m where
x is in metre and t in second. The phase difference between them is

(a) 1.25rad (b) 1.57rad (c) 0.57rad (d) 1.0rad
Sol:
y1 = asin (t + kx + 0.57 ) m
and y2 = acos (t + kx ) m
 
or y2 = asin  + t + kx  m
2 

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Phase difference,

 = 2 − 1 = − 0.57
2
= 1.57 − 0.57 = 1rad
Ans: (d)
85. Sound waves travel at 350m / s through a warm air and at 3500m / s through brass. The wavelength of a
700Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air
(a) increases by a factor 20 (b) increases by a factor 10
(c) decreases by a factor 20 (d) decreases by a factor 10
Sol: Velocity of sound v = n
v1 n11 
= (but n1 = n2 
v2 n2 2 
v2
2 = 1 = 1  10
v1
2 = 101
Ans: (b)
Section – B
86. Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600Hz . The
fractional increases in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beat/s when
both the wires oscillate together would be
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.03 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.01
Sol: According to law of tension, the frequency of the string varies directly as the square root of its
tension
n T
n 1 T
= 
n 2 T
T n
or = 2
T n
T 6
= 2 = 0.02
T 600
Ans: (a)

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87. When a string is divided into three segments of length l1 , l2 and l3 , the fundamental frequencies of these
three segments are f1 , f 2 and f 3 respectively. The original fundamental frequency (f) of the string is
1 1 1 1
(a) = + + (b) f = f1 + f2 + f3
f f1 f2 f3
1 1 1 1
(c) f = f1 + f 2 + f3 (d) = + +
f f1 f 2 f3
v
Sol: Fundamental frequency f =
2l
v v v
f1 = ; f2 = and f3 =
2l1 2l2 2l3
1 1 1 1
 = + +
f f1 f 2 f3
Ans: (d)
88. Two sources of sound placed close to each other are emitting progressive waves given by y1 = 4sin600 t
and y2 = 5sin608 t . An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear:
(a) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
(b) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
(c) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
(d) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
I1 ( A1 + A2 )
2
81
Sol: = =
I 2 ( A − A )2 1
1 2
Ans: (a)
89. A train moving at a speed of 220ms −1 towards a stationary object emits a sound of frequency 1000Hz .
Sound of the sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train as echo. The frequency of the echo
as detected by the driver of the train is (speed of sound in air is 330ms −1 )

(a) 3500Hz (b) 4000Hz (c) 5000Hz (d) 3000Hz
Sol: Beat frequency = 304 − 300 = 4Hz .
From Doppler’s shift, we know for this case
 v + vs   330 + 220 
n = n   = 1000  
 v − vs   330 − 220 
 550 
= 1000   = 5000Hz
 110 
Ans: (c)

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90. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at about ends, then the following statement is not true
(a) Open end will be anti-node
(b) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
(c) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
(d) Pressure change will be maximum at both ends
Sol: Statement (d) is not true, because the open ends of the pipe are open to atmosphere hence there will
be no pressure change.
Ans: (d)
91. A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of known frequency
250Hz . The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when
sounded with a source of frequency 513Hz . The unknown frequency is
(a) 254Hz (b) 246Hz (c) 240Hz (d) 260Hz
Sol: We know beat frequency is the difference of the frequencies of the sources.
When unknown source is sounded with known source of frequency 250Hz , it gives 4 beats/s. It means
the frequency of unknown source may be 254Hz or 246 Hz .
Now second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when sounded
with a source of frequency 513Hz . It means the frequency of unknown source may be 518Hz or 508Hz .
518 508
As = 259Hz and = 254Hz Hence unknown frequency is 254Hz
2 2
Ans: (a)
92. A wave travelling in the +vex -direction having displacement along y -direction as 1m , wavelength
1
2 m and frequency of Hz is represented by

(a) y = sin ( x − 2t ) (b) y = sin ( 2 x − 2 t ) (c) y = sin (10 x − 20 t ) (d) y = sin ( 2 x + 2 t )
Sol:
y=a sin ( kx − t )
 2 1 
= sin  x − 2  t  = sin ( x − 2t )
 2  
Ans: (a)
93. If n1 , n2 and n2 are the fundamental frequencies of three segments into which a string is divided, then
the original fundamental frequency n of the string is given by
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) = + + (b) = + +
n n1 n2 n3 n n1 n2 n3
(c) n = n1 + n2 + n3 (d) n = n1 + n2 + n3

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Sol: Total length of string = 1 + 2 + 3 (As string is divided into three segments)
1 T 1 T 1 T
n1 = ; n2 = ; n3 =
2l1  2l2  2l3 
1  1 T 
Hence frequency   n = 
length  2 m 
1 2l 2l 2l 2l 1 1 1
 = = 1 + 2 + 3 = + +
n T T T T n1 n2 n3
   
Ans: (a)
94. The number of possible natural oscillations of air column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85cm
whose frequencies lie below 1250Hz are (velocity of sound = 340ms −1 )

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 6
Sol: For closed organ pipe, possible frequency,
v
f n = ( 2m + 1)
4l
for
n = 0, f 0 = 100Hz
n = 1, f1 = 300Hz
n = 2, f 2 = 500Hz
n = 3, f3 = 700Hz
n = 4, f 4 = 900Hz
n = 5, f5 = 1100Hz
n = 6, f 6 = 1300Hz
Hence possible natural oscillation whose frequencies are less than 1250Hz will be 6 ( n = 0,1, 2,3, 4,5 )
Ans: (d)
95. A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of him. He slows down to 36km / hour. He finds that
traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him at 18km / hour is honking at a frequency of 1392Hz . If
the speed of sound is 343m / s , the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be
(a) 1332Hz (b) 1372Hz (c) 1412Hz (d) 1454Hz
Sol:
v0 = 36km / h = 10m / s
vS = 18km / h = 5m / s

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 v + v0   343 + 10 
f = f   = 1392    Hz
 v + vs  343 + 5 
353
= 1392  Hz = 1412Hz
348
Ans: (c)
96. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length 20cm is equal to the second overtone of an
organ pipe open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at both the ends is
(a) 80cm (b) 100cm (c) 120cm (d) 140cm
Sol: Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe
v
fc =
4lc
Fundamental frequency of open organ pipe

v
f0 =
2l0
Second overtone frequency of open organ pipe

3v
=
2l0
From question,
v 3v
=
4lc 2l0
l0 = 6lc = 6  20 = 120cm
Ans: (c)

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97. A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100Hz and an observer O are located at source
distance from each other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4ms −1 at an angle of 60 with the
source observer line as shown in the figure. The observer is at rest. The apparent frequency observed by
the observer ( velocity of sound in air 330ms −1 ) is
(a) 97Hz (b) 100Hz (c) 103Hz (d) 106Hz

Sol:
Apparent frequency
 V − V0 
f= f   V0 = 0
 V − Vs cos60 
f  = 10.3
Ans: (c)
98. A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75.0cm . It is observed to have resonant
frequencies of 420Hz and 315Hz . There are no other no other resonant frequencies between these two.
The lowest resonant frequency for this string is
(a) 105Hz (b) 155Hz (c) 205Hz (d) 10.5Hz
Sol: Two consecutive resonant frequencies for a string fixed at both ends will be
nv ( n + 1) v
and
2 2
( n + 1) v nv
 − = 420 − 315
2 2
v
 = 105Hz . which is the minimum resonant frequency
2
Ans: (a)
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99. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of
15m / s −1 . Then the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is :
(Take velocity of sound in air = 330ms −1 )

(a) 885Hz (b) 765Hz (c) 800Hz (d) 838Hz
Sol:
Frequency at the wall will be
 v − v0   330 − 0 
f  = f0   = 800  
 v − vs   330 − 15 
 330 
= 800   = 838Hz
 315 
Since the observer and the wall are stationary so frequency of echo observed by the observer will also
be 838Hz .
Ans: (d)
100. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is
attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 1 is produced at the lower end of
the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is 2 . The ratio 2 / 1 is:
m1 m1 + m2 m2 m1 + m2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
m2 m2 m1 m1
Sol:
T1 = m2 g
T2 = ( m1 + m2 ) g
Velocity  T
  T
1 T1
=
2 T2
 m1 + m2
 2 =
1 m2
Ans: (b)

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Biology [Botany]
Section – A
101. Main function of prop roots of Banyan tree is?
(a) Respiration (b) Absorption of water from soil
(c) Providing support to big tree (d) All of the above functions
Sol: Providing support to big tree
Ans: (c)
102. Syncarpous gynoecium has two or more :-
(a) Free carpels (b) Fused carpels (c) Free stamens (d) All
Sol: Fused carpels
Ans: (b)
103. Living cell was first seen and described by
(a) Robert Hooke (b) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(c) Robert Koch (d) Robert Brown
Sol: Anton von Leeuwenhoek
Ans: (b)
104. Permanent tissue, having all cells similar in structure and function is called
(a) Simple tissue (b) Complex tissue (c) Cambium (d) Apical meristem
Sol: Simple tissue
Ans: (a)
105. Which of the following is not related to prokaryotic cell
(a) Have well defined nucleus
(b) Have basically naked genomic material.
(c) In addition to genomic DNA; the extra – genomic DNA is also present known as plasmid.
(d) All of the above
Sol: Have well defined nucleus
Ans: (a)
106. Choose the incorrect statement regarding golgi complex
(a) It has flat disc shaped sacs called cisternae
(b) The cis and the trans faces of the organelle are entirely different and not connected
(c) Golgi is important for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
(d) They are present only in eukaryotic cells

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Sol: The cis and the trans faces of the organelle are entirely different and not connected
Ans: (b)
107. Cuticle is absent in
(a) Roots (b) Dicot Stem (c) Leaves (d) Monocot stem
Sol: Roots
Ans: (a)
108. What is a tonoplast?
(a) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(b) Inner membrane of chloroplast
(c) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells
(d) Cell membrane of a plant cell
Sol: Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells
Ans: (c)
109. Fibrous coir is obtained from which part of the Coconut ?
(a) Epicarp (b) Mesocarp (c) Endocarp (d) Seed coat
Sol: Mesocarp
Ans: (b)
110. Read given statements in context of given figure:
(i) A is xylem and B is phloem

(ii) A is phloem and B is xylem
(iii) Vascular bundle in figure is closed type
(iv) Vascular bundle in figure is open type.
Choose the correct statements
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
Sol: (ii) and (iii)
Ans: (c)

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111. Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton in a cell?

(a) Intracellular transport (b) Maintenance of cell shape and structure
(c) Mechanical support (d) Cell motility
Sol: Intracellular transport
Ans: (a)
112. Location of medullary rays is
(a)Above endodermis (b) Between endodermis and pericycle
(c) Between pericycle and cortex (d) Between vascular bundles
Sol: Between vascular bundles
Ans: (d)
113. Epiblema of roots is equivalent to
(a) Pericycle (b) Endodermis (c) Epidermis (d) Stele
Sol: Epidermis
Ans: (c)
114. In the given diagram of types of chromosomes, identify A-D
(a) A–Telocentric chromosome, B–Acrocentric chromosome, C–Submetacentric chromosome, D–

Metacentric chromosome
(b) A–Acrocentric chromosome, B–Telocentric chromosome, C–Metacentric chromosome, D–
Submetacentric chromosome
(c) A–Submetacentric chromosome, B–Metacentric chromosome, C–Telocentric chromosome, D–
Acrocentric chromosome
(d) A–Metacentric chromosome, B–Submetacentric chromosome, C–Acrocentric chromosome, D–
Telocentric chromosome

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Sol: A–Telocentric chromosome, B–Acrocentric chromosome, C–Submetacentric chromosome,

D– Metacentric chromosome
Ans: (a)
115. Passage cells are found in
(a) Pericycle (b) Xylem element (c) Phloem element (d) Endodermis
Sol: Endodermis
Ans: (d)
116. Hydrolytic enzymes are present in
(a) ribosomes (b) lysosomes (c) chromosomes (d) all of these
Sol: lysosomes
Ans: (b)
117. Read the following four statements and select correct statements
(A) Axillary bud present in axil of leaflets
(B) Opposite phyllotaxy found in calotropis
(C) In Australian acacia the leaves are large and short lived.
(D) Alstonia is an example of whorled phyllotaxy
(a) Statement (A), (B) and (D) (b) Statement (A), (C) and (D)
(c) Statement (B) and (D) (d) Statement (B) and (C)
Sol: Statement (B) and (D)
Ans: (c)
118. A single human cell has approximately ------- i------- long thread of DNA distributed among its ----------- ii
--------------- chromosomes. i and ii are respectively
(a) five metre and twenty three (b) two metre and twenty three
(c) two metre and forty six (d) five metre and forty six
Sol: two metre and forty six
Ans: (c)
119. Conjoint collateral and open vascular bundles with endarch xylem occur in stem of
(a) Dracaena (b) Maize (c) Wheat (d) Helianthes
Sol: Helianthes
Ans: (d)
120. The cells that lack nucleus are
(a) erythrocytes of mammals (b) sieve tube cells of vascular plants
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) All living cells

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Sol: Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (c)
121. Find out the incorrect match.
(a) Sterile stamen – Staminode (b) Stamens attached to petals – Epipetalous
(c) Stamens attached to perianth – Episepalous (d) monodelphous- Hibiscus
Sol: Stamens attached to perianth – Episepalous
Ans: (c)
122. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is:
(a) Cotyledon (b) Endosperm (c) Pericarp (d) Perisperm
Sol: Endosperm
Ans: (b)
123. Amyloplasts store
(a) oils (b) starch (c) fats (d) proteins
Sol: starch
Ans: (b)
124. Find the incorrect statement regarding cilia and flagella from the options
(a) The electron microscopic study of a cilium or the flagellum show that they are covered with
plasma membrane.
(b) Their core called the axoneme, possesses a number of microtubules running horizontally to the
long axis.
(c) The axoneme usually has nine doublets of radially arranged peripheral microtubules, and a pair
of centrally located microtubules
(d) Arrangement of axonemal microtubules is referred to as the 9+2 array
Sol: Their core called the axoneme, possesses a number of microtubules running horizontally to the long
axis.
Ans: (b)
125. Inflorescence is the
(a) Group of leaves (b) Arrangement of flowers
(c) Arrangement of flowers on the floral axis (d) None of the above
Sol: Arrangement of flowers on the floral axis
Ans: (c)
126. The guard cells of the stomata present in the epidermis of grasses are
(a) Dumb-bell shaped (b) Rounded (c) Elliptical (d) Kidney shaped

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Sol: Dumb-bell shaped

Ans: (a)
127. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S type Here S stands for
(a) sedimentation coefficient (b) Measure of density and size
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) precipitation capacity
Sol: Both (a) and (b)
Ans: (c)
128. Parallel venation is found in:
(a) Pea (b) Sarson (c) Wheat (d) Hollyhock
Sol: Wheat
Ans: (c)
129. Major site for synthesis of lipid is
(a) SER (b)RER (c) Golgi (d) Lysosomes
Sol: SER
Ans: (a)
130. Leaf of silk cotton plant
(a) Simple unlobed (b) Pinnately compound
(c) Simple lobed (d) Palmately compound
Sol: Palmately compound
Ans: (d)
131. Out of the following, select the correct match for the label given in the figure
(a) A - Nucleus B--Cell wall C- Vacuole D- Chloroplast

(b) A -Chloroplast B-Cell wall C- Vacuole D- Nucleus
(c) A Vacuole -B- Chloroplast C--Cell wall D- Nucleus
(d) A - Vacuole B- Nucleus C- Chloroplast D--Cell wall

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Sol: A -Chloroplast B-Cell wall C- Vacuole D- Nucleus

Ans: (b)
132. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis is present in:
(a) Dicot stem (b) Monocot stem (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Sol: Monocot stem
Ans: (b)
133. In some __________, the leaf base may become swollen and is called as ________
(a) Monocots, sheathing leaf base (b) Legumes, pulvinus
(c) Legumes, sheathing leaf base (d) Monocots, pulvinus
Sol: Legumes, pulvinus
Ans: (b)
134. Which of the following represents the function of veins in the leaves?
(a) Transport of water and minerals (b) Mechanical support
(c) Transport of organic food material (d) All of these
Sol: All of these
Ans: (d)
135. Starch sheath is seen in
(a) Monocot stem (b) Dicot stem (c) Monocot root (d) Dicot root
Sol: Dicot stem
Ans: (b)
Section – B
136. The organelle that is present only in animal cells is
(a) Mitochondria (b) ribosome (c) chloroplast (d) centriole
Sol: centriole
Ans: (d)
137. Presence of epicalyx is the characteristic feature of flowers belonging to the family
(a) Malvaceae (b) Cruciferaceae (c) Asteraceae (d) Poaceae
Sol: Malvaceae
Ans: (a)
138. Choose the vegetable/s that belong to the family Cruciferae
(a) ladies finger (b) cabbage (c) radish (d) both (b) and (c)

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Sol: both (b) and (c)

Ans: (d)
139. The vascular bundles are arranged in the form a ring in
(a) Monocot stem (b) Dicot stem (c) Monocot root (d) Dicot root
Sol: Dicot stem
Ans: (b)
140. Well developed pith is found in
(a) Monocot root and monocot stem (b) Monocot stem and Dicot root
(c) Monocot root and Dicot stem (d) Dicot root and Dicot stem
Sol: Monocot root and Dicot stem
Ans: (c)
141. In 1831, Robert Brown discovered
(a) Cell (b) Dictyosome (c) Nucleus (d) Nucleolus
Sol: Nucleus
Ans: (c)
142. Mesophyll region containing chloroplasts is made up of
(a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma (c) Sclerenchyma (d) All of these
Sol: Parenchyma
Ans: (a)
143. Arrangement of sepals and petals with respect to each other is
(a) Venation (b) Vernation (c) Aestivation (d) Phyllotaxy
Sol: Aestivation
Ans: (c)
144. Stele includes
(a) Xylem and phloem only (b) Xylem, phloem, pericycle, pith only
(c) Xylem, phloem, pith only (d) Xylem, phloem, endodermis only
Sol: Xylem, phloem, pericycle, pith only
Ans: (b)
145. Racemose type of inflorescence is characterized by
(a) irregular arrangement of flowers (b) indefinite growth of peduncle
(c) basipetal arrangement of flowers (d) limited growth of peduncle
Sol: indefinite growth of peduncle
Ans: (b)

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146. Which is correct option amongst the following statements?

(A) Nuclear membrane, chloroplasts, mitochondria, microtubules and pili are absent in prokaryotic cells
(B) Nuclear membrane, chloroplasts, mitochondria, microtubules and pili are present in eukaryotic cells
(C) Ribosomes are 70S in prokaryotic cells, chloroplasts and mitochondria. They are 80S in animal cells.
(a) A and B are wrong, C is correct
(b) A is correct, B and C are wrong
(c) A and B are correct, C is wrong
(d) A and C are correct, B is wrong
Sol: A and B are wrong, C is correct
Ans: (a)
147. Casparian strips are characteristics of the cells of
(a) Pericycle (b) Endodermis
(c) Xylem tracheid (d) Sieve tubes
Sol: Endodermis
Ans: (b)
148. Status of the ovary in an Epigynous flower
(a) Superior (b) Half superior
(c) Inferior (d) Half inferior
Sol: Inferior
Ans: (c)
149. Bulliform cells are found in the leaves of
(a) Vallisneria (b) Maize (c) Nerium (d) Opuntia
Sol: Maize
Ans: (b)
150. In a monocot root xylem condition is
(a) Monarch (b) Triarch (c) Tetrarch (d) Polyarch
Sol: Polyarch
Ans: (d)

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Biology [Zoology]
Section – A
151. Identify the stage.
(a) Transition to metaphase (b) Anaphase

(c) Metaphase (d) Telophase
Sol: Transition to metaphase
Ans: (a)
152. Diplotene is not characterized by.
(a) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
(b) Tendency of recombined homologous chromosomes of tetrad to separate from each other, except
at sites of crossovers.
(c) Formation of chiasmata
(d) Tendency of recombined non-homologous chromosomes of bivalent to separate from each other,
except at sites of crossovers
Sol: Tendency of recombined non-homologous chromosomes of bivalent to separate from each other,
except at sites of crossovers
Ans: (d)
153. In an organism, if the normal diploid number of chromosomes is 8, how many chromatids are present in
each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16
Sol: 8
Ans: (c)
154. Bacterial cell undergoes division by binary fission per every 20 minutes. After three hours of divisions,
the number of cells produced, and number of spindles formed respectively is
(a) 512 & 511 (b) 512 & 1536 (c) 512 & Zero (d) 512 & 9

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Sol: 512 & Zero

Ans: (c)
155. Bivalent stage is
(a) Complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes
(b) Complex formed by a pair of synapsed non-homologous chromosomes
(c) Complex formed by four pairs of synapsed homologous chromosomes
(d) Complex formed by four pairs of synapsed non-homologous chromosomes
Sol: Complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes
Ans: (a)
156. Which of the following structures are supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings?
(A) Tracheae, (B) 1° bronchi, (C) 2° bronchi, (D) 3° bronchi,
(E) initial bronchioles, (F) terminal bronchioles, (G) ducts of alveoli, (H) alveoli
(a) A, B, C, D and E (b) A, B, C, D, E and F
(c) A, B, C, D, E, F and G (d) A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H
Sol: A, B, C, D and E
Ans: (a)
157. What are the functions of the conducting part of the respiratory system?
(A) Transportation of the atmospheric air to the alveoli
(B) Clears atmospheric air from foreign particles
(C) Humidifies atmospheric air
(D) Brings the atmospheric air to body temperature
(E) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and atmospheric air
(a) A, B, and C only (b) A, B, C and D only
(c) A, B, C, D and E only (d) A, B, C and E only
Sol: A, B, C and D only
Ans: (b)
158. What would happen if human blood becomes acidic
(a) O2 carrying capacity of haemoglobin decreases
(b) O2 carrying capacity of haemoglobin increases
(c) RBC count increases
(d) RBC count decreases
Sol: O2 carrying capacity of haemoglobin decreases
Ans: (a)

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159. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately

(a) 4 ml of CO2 to the tissues (b) 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(c) 5 ml of CO2 to the alveoli (d) 5 ml of CO2 to the tissues
Sol: 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
Ans: (b)
160. If expiratory reserve volume is 1100 ml residual volume is 1200 ml and tidal volume is 500 ml, what shall
be the functional residual capacity?
(a) 1600 ml (b) 2800 ml (c) 2300 ml (d) 1200 ml
Sol: 2300 ml
Ans: (c)
161. Read the following statements.
I. Proteins contribute 6 - 8% of the blood plasma.
II. Plasma contains very high amount of minerals.
Ill. Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum.
IV Glucose, amino acids, lipids, etc., are also present in the plasma as they are always in transit in the
body.
Of the above statements
(a) Only I and II are correct (b) Only II and IV are correct
(c) Only I, III and IV are correct (d) I, II, III and IV are correct
Sol: Only I, III and IV are correct
Ans: (c)
162. During each cardiac cycle, two prominent sounds are produced which can be easily heard through a
stethoscope. The second heart sound is associated with
(a) Closure of the bicuspid valves (b) Closure of the tricuspid valves
(c) Closure of the semilunar valves (d) Opening of the semilunar valves
Sol: Closure of the semilunar valves
Ans: (c)
163. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Heart is endodermal in origin
(b) Human heart is situated in between the two lungs slightly tilted to left
(c) Heart is protected by double-walled membranous pericardium
(d) Human heart has two atria and two ventricles
Sol: Heart is endodermal in origin
Ans: (a)

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164. Heart failure

(i) Same as heart attack
(ii) Heart is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body
(iii) It is often referred to as Atherosclerosis
(iv) It is sometimes called congestive heart failure
(v) It occurs due to conditions that affect the blood flow
(vi) The heart stops beating
Incorrect statements are
(a) i, ii, iii, iv (b) ii, iii, iv, v (c) ii, iii, iv (d) i, iii, v, vi
Sol: i, iii, v, vi
Ans: (d)
165. Bicuspid and tricuspid valves open to allow

(a) Blood from the pulmonary artery and vena cava to flow into the left and right ventricles,
respectively
(b) Blood from the pulmonary vein and vena cava to flow into left and right ventricles, respectively
(c) Blood from the pulmonary vein and vena cava to flow into left and right atrium, respectively
(d) Oxygen from the pulmonary vein and vena cava to flow into left and right atrium, respectively
Sol: Blood from the pulmonary vein and vena cava to flow into left and right ventricles, respectively
Ans: (b)
166. Identify the different stages with respect to the below given features and select the correct option
I. Thin thread like chromosomes with a beaded appearance.
II. Appearance of recombination nodules.
III. Formation of bivalents/tetrads.
IV. Terminalisation of chiasmata.
V. Appearance of chiasmata.
(a) I-Leptotene, II-Zygotene, III-Panchytene, IV-Diplotene, V-Diakinesis
(b) I-Leptotene, II-Zygotene, III-Pachytene, IV-Diakinesis, V-Diplotene
(c) I-Leptotene, II-Pachytene, III-Zygotene, IV-Diakinesis, V-Diplotene
(d) I-Leptotene, II-Pachytene, III-Diplotene, IV-Zygotene, V-Diakinesis
Sol: I-Leptotene, II-Pachytene, III-Zygotene, IV-Diakinesis, V-Diplotene
Ans: (c)

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167. Crossing over takes place between which chromatids and in which stage of the cell cycle?
(a) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I
(b) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I
(c) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I
(d) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I
Sol: Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I
Ans: (b)
168. Meiosis involves
(a) Two nuclear divisions and one chromosomal division
(b) One nuclear division and one chromosomal division
(c) One nuclear division and two chromosomal divisions
(d) Two nuclear divisions and two chromosomal divisions
Sol: Two nuclear divisions and one chromosomal division
Ans: (a)
169. Disjunction is
(a) Chromosome separation during mitosis
(b) Chromosome separation during prophase I
(c) Chromosome separation in anaphase I
(d) Chromosome separation during metaphase I
Sol: Chromosome separation in anaphase I
Ans: (c)
170. Which of the following are not considered as events of prophase-I
(I) Splitting of centromere (II) Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(III) Process of synapsis (IV) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(a) I and II (b) I, II and IV (c) III and IV (d) I, II and III
Sol: I and II
Ans: (a)
171. Expiration occurs when.
(a) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
(b) Intrapulmonary pressure is greater than the atmospheric pressure
(c) Intrapulmonary pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure
(d) None of the above
Sol: Intrapulmonary pressure is greater than the atmospheric pressure
Ans: (b)

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172. In the alveoli, the factors favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin are
A. Low pO2 B. High pO2 C. Low pCO2 D. High pCO2
E. Lower Temperature F. Higher Temperature G. Low pH H. High pH
(a) A, D, F, H (b) B, C, E, G (c) A, D, F, G (d) B, C, E, H
Sol: B, C, E, H
Ans: (d)
173. The partial pressure of oxygen is equal in
(a) Atmospheric air and Alveoli (b) Alveoli and Oxygenated blood
(c) Alveoli and Deoxygenated blood (d) Deoxygenated blood and Tissues
Sol: Deoxygenated blood and Tissues
Ans: (d)
174. Which of the following options correctly represents the lung condition in asthma and emphysema
respectively?
(a) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(b) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
(c) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
(d) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
Sol: Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
Ans: (c)
175. Partial pressures for respiratory gases are given for the different parts. Identify the parts labelled P, Q
and R
(a) P - Oxygenated blood, Q - Deoxygenated blood, R - Tissues

(b) P - Deoxygenated blood, Q - Tissues, R - oxygenated blood
(c) P - Tissues, Q -Oxygenated blood, R - lung alveoli
(d) P - Lung alveoli, Q - deoxygenated blood, R – tissues
Sol: P - Tissues, Q -Oxygenated blood, R - lung alveoli
Ans: (c)

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176. Which of the following is incorrect about the given graph?
(a) Increase in partial pressure of CO2 shift the curve to right

(b) At low temperature the curve shifts to left
(c) Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen shifts the curve to right
(d) At high pH the curve shifts to right
Sol: At high pH the curve shifts to right
Ans: (d)
177. Tetrad consists of:
(a) Four non-homologous chromatids
(b) Four non-homologous chromosomes
(c) Four homologous chromosomes with four chromatids
(d) Two homologous chromosomes with two sister chromatids each
Sol: Two homologous chromosomes with two sister chromatids each
Ans: (d)
178. Zygotene is characterised by
(i) Chromosomes start pairing
(ii) Non-homologous chromosomes paired
(iii) Synapsis occurs between non-homologous chromosomes
(iv) Formation of synaptonemal complex in homologous chromosomes
(v) Formation of synaptonemal complex in non-homologous chromosomes
(a) (i), (ii), (v) (b) (i), (iii), (iv) (c) (i), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
Sol: (i), (iv)
Ans: (c)

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179. Match the following columns

Column I Column II
(Characteristics) (Layers of blood vessels)
(A) Tunica intima (1) Composed of smooth muscle and elastic fibres
(B) Tunica media (2) Composed of fibrous connective tissues with collagen fibre
(C) Tunica externa (3) Composed of squamous endothelium
(a) A-2, B-1, C-3 (b) A-3, B-1, C-2 (c) A-1, B-3, C-2 (d) A-1, B-2, C-3
Sol: A-3, B-1, C-2
Ans: (b)
180. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(a) For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple leads are attached to the chest region.
(b) The end of the P-wave marks the end of systole.
(c) The ventricular contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole.
(d) By counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, one can determine
the heart beat rate of an individual
Sol: The end of the P-wave marks the end of systole
Ans: (b)
181. A sample of blood shows clumping with antiserum A but not with antiserum B. The blood group would
be
(a) O (b) A (c) B (d) AB
Sol: A
Ans: (b)
182. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given
Column I Column II
(A) Eosinophills (1) 0.5–1%
(B) Basophils (2) 2–3%
(C) Neutrophils (3) 6–8%
(D) Lymphocytes (4) 20–25%
(E) Monocytes (5) 60–65%
(a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-5, E-3 (b) A-2, B-1, C-5, D-4, E-3
(c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4, E-5 (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3, E-5
Sol: A-2, B-1, C-5, D-4, E-3
Ans: (b)

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183. Erythroblastosis foetails can be avoided by administering …A… to the …B… immediately after the
delivery of the …C… child
(a) A-Rh antibodies, B-child, C-first (b) A-Rh antibodies, B-mother, C-second
(c) A-anti-Rh antibodies, B-mother, C-second (d) A-anti-Rh antibodies, B-mother, C-first
Sol: A-anti-Rh antibodies, B-mother, C-first
Ans: (d)
184. Which is correct about joint diastole?
(1) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open (2) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are closed
(3) Semilunar valves are open (4) Semilunar valves are closed
(a) (1) and (3) (b) (2) and (4) (c) (1) and (4) (d) (2) and (3)
Sol: (1) and (4)
Ans: (c)
185. The main symptom of congestive heart failure is
(a) Hypertension (b) Impared heart valve
(c) Congestion in lungs (d) Blockage in pulmonary artery
Sol: Congestion in lungs
Ans: (c)
Section – B
186. The two daughter cells formed during mitosis contains
(a) The same amount of DNA but a set of chromosomes different from those of parental cells
(b) The same amount of DNA and the same set of chromosomes as those of the parent cell
(c) Half the amount of DNA and the same set of chromosomes as those of the parent cell
(d) Double the amount of DNA and a set of chromosomes different from those of the parent cell
Sol: The same amount of DNA and the same set of chromosomes as those of the parent cell
Ans: (b)
187. What is vital capacity of our lungs
(a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
(b) Total lung capacity minus residual volume
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(d) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume
Sol: Total lung capacity minus residual volume
Ans: (b)
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188. Carbon dioxide entering erythrocytes reacts with water to form carbonic acid. The enzyme catalysing
this is
(a) Carbonic anhydrase (b) Carboxypeptidase (c) Hydrolase (d) Oxidoreductase
Sol: Carbonic anhydrase
Ans: (a)
189. Which of the following chambers of the heart has the thickest muscular wall?
(a) Left atrium (b) Right atrium (c) Right ventricle (d) Left ventricle
Sol: Left ventricle
Ans: (d)
190. The factor which does not affect the rate of alveolar diffusion is
(a) Solubility (b) Thickness of the membranes
(c) Pressure gradient (d) Reactivity of the gases
Sol: Reactivity of the gases
Ans: (d)
191. During ventricular systole –
(a) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the
pulmonary artery
(b) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood is pumped
into the artery
(c) Oxygenated blood is pumped into aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into pulmonary
vein
(d) Oxygenated blood is pumped into pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is pumped into
pulmonary artery
Sol: Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary
artery
Ans: (a)
192. Angina occurs due to the
(a) Benign growth in heart
(b) Decreased supply of oxygen to heart muscle
(c) The deposition of carbohydrates in artery
(d) Increased blood pressure
Sol: Decreased supply of oxygen to heart muscle
Ans: (b)

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193. Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of

(a) One molecule of O2 (b) Two molecule of O2
(c) Three molecule of CO2 (d) Four molecules of O2
Sol: Four molecules of O2
Ans: (d)
194. Prophase-I is subdivided into five phases based on
(a) Chromosomal movement (b) Chromosomal alignment
(c) Chromosomal behaviour (d) Chromosomal structure
Sol: Chromosomal behaviour
Ans: (c)
195. The number of chromosomes in G1 phase is 36, the number of chromosomes in S phase is
(a) 36 (b) 18 (c) 22 (d) 37
Sol: 36
Ans: (a)
196. Assertion: The final stage of meiotic prophase I is diplotene.
Reason: Diplotene is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
Sol: Both assertion and reason are false
Ans: (d)
197. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery can recognise changes in ______ and ____ conc.
and send necessary signal to _______ for remedial action.
(a) O2, CO2 Pneumothorax (b) CO2 ,H+ , rhythm centre
(c) CO2, H+ apneustic centre (d) O2, H+, Pneumothorax
Sol: CO2 ,H+ , rhythm centre
Ans: (b)
198. QRS complex represents the
(a) Depolarization of ventricles (b) Repolarization of ventricles
(c) Repolarization of atria (d) Depolarization of atria
Sol: Depolarization of ventricles
Ans: (a)

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199. Contraction of diaphragm:

(a) Increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis
(b) Increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis
(c) Decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis
(d) Decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis
Sol: Increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis
Ans: (a)
200. The phase of cell cycle in which the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm?
(a) S-phase (b) G1−phase (c) G2− phase (d) G0 −phase
Sol: S-phase
Ans: (a)

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N1220240326
Key Answers:
1. d 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. b 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. b
11. b 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. b
21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. b 27. d 28. c 29. a 30. b
31. a 32. c 33. d 34. c 35. d 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. c 40. c
41. d 42. d 43. c 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. c 50. c
51. d 52. b 53. b 54. a 55. b 56. c 57. c 58. b 59. a 60. c
61. d 62. d 63. c 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. b 68. a 69. b 70. a
71. b 72. a 73. b 74. d 75. a 76. d 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. c
81. d 82. c 83. d 84. d 85. b 86. a 87. d 88. a 89. c 90. d
91. a 92. a 93. a 94. d 95. c 96. c 97. c 98. a 99. d 100. b
101. c 102. b 103. b 104. a 105. a 106. b 107. a 108. c 109. b 110. c
111. a 112. d 113. c 114. a 115. d 116. b 117. c 118. c 119. d 120. c
121. c 122. b 123. b 124. b 125. c 126. a 127. c 128. c 129. a 130. d
131. b 132. b 133. b 134. d 135. b 136. d 137. a 138. d 139. b 140. c
141. c 142. a 143. c 144. b 145. b 146. a 147. b 148. c 149. b 150. d
151. a 152. d 153. c 154. c 155. a 156. a 157. b 158. a 159. b 160. c
161. c 162. c 163. a 164. d 165. b 166. c 167. b 168. a 169. c 170. a
171. b 172. d 173. d 174. c 175. c 176. d 177. d 178. c 179. b 180. b
181. b 182. b 183. d 184. c 185. c 186. b 187. b 188. a 189. d 190. d
191. a 192. b 193. d 194. c 195. a 196. d 197. b 198. a 199. a 200. a

02-Neet-Pt02 C+P+B - Solutions - m2

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02-Neet-Pt02 C+P+B - Solutions - m2

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NEET Section

Subject Topic Part Test – 02 Date

Max. Marks: 720 Duration: 3 Hours

2. The OMR sheet for 200 questions is to be used

3. Use of calculators and log tables is prohibited

All the best!!

(a) KCl , B2 H 6 , PH 3 (b) KCl , H 2 SO4 (c) KCl , O2 (d) KCl

Sol: KCl is an ionic compound and has no covalent bonds

Sol: BF3 it is a Lewis acid.

(a) Ethene (b) Ethanol (c) Ethyne (d) Ethane

7. In the reaction A ( s ) + B ( g ) + Heat 2C ( s ) + 2 D ( g ) equilibrium is established. The pressure of B is

tripled to re-establish the equilibrium. The factor by which D is changed is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3

The value of equilibrium constant is

atoms  I 2 ( g ) 2 I ( g )  . Calculate K p for the equilibrium

Deeksha House 3 Rough Work

equilibrium concentration of both is 5M . Value of K P under the same conditions will be

(a) 0.02 (b) 50 (c) 0.2 (d) 50 RT

(a) NH 2− , NH 2− , CO22− (b) NH 3 , NH 2− , HCCOH

(c) NH 3 , NH 4+ , HCOOH (d) NH 4+ , NH 2− , COO 2−

Sol: pH = − log  H +  or log  H +  = − pH = −3.76 = 4.24

  H +  = Antilog4.24 = 1.738  10−4 M = 1.74  10−4 M

Deeksha House 4 Rough Work

Calculate the ratio of molarities of their saturated solutions

( pKb ofNH 4OH = 4.742, log 2 = 0.3010 )

Sol: pOH = pKb + log

(a) +1 (b) 0 (c) −2 (d) −1

(a) 2 (b) 11 (c) 8 (d) 6

The tendency to form covalent bond is maximum in

it forms covalent bond.

(c) KF  KCl  KI  KBr (d) KCl  KF  KBr  KI

Sol: KF , KCl  KBr  KI

21. The concentration of NaOH solution is 10−8 M . Find out the P H

(a) 40  10−4 (b) 4  10−3

(c) 4  10−4 (d) Difficult to compute without more data

(a) 7 (b) 20 (c) 9 (d) 21

(a) pK w increases with increase in temperature

(b) pK w decreases with increase in temperature

(c) pK w = 14 and is independent of temperature

(d) pK w increases at low temperatures but decreases at high temperatures

Sol: HCl is the strongest acid. Its pH will be minimum.

NaCl does not hydrolyse in solution. Its pH = 7

NH 4+ in NH 4Cl on hydrolysis produces H + . Hence, its pH will be slightly less than 7.

CN − in NaCN on hydrolysis produces OH − . Hence, its pH will be slightly greater than 7.

(assume no dilution factor) becomes  pK a = 4.75

Sol: M ( CH 3COONa ) = 82 gmol −1

Deeksha House 7 Rough Work

n ( CH 3COONa ) = m / M = 0.82 g / 82 gmol −1 = 0.01 mol

c ( CH 3COONa ) = n / V = 0.01 mol / 0.1L = 0.1M

10−12 = 10−2  a 2 ; a 2 = 10−10 ; a = 10−5

OH −  = Ca = .01 10−5 = 10−7

of HI ,1.0  10−2 molof H 2 , and 3.0  10−2 mol of I 2 in a 2.0L container.

(a) No change of direction (b) Backward

Deeksha House 8 Rough Work

(1.0  10−2 molL−1 )

627C would be ( log 5 = 0.6989 )

(a) 33% (b) 66% (c) 50% (d) 40%

initial 1 mol 1 mol 0

Deeksha House 9 Rough Work

mass of N 2O4 decomposed to NO2( g ) . The resultant pressure is

Sol: We will have N 2O4 ( g ) 2 NO2 ( g ); ntotal = 1.2 mol

p = (1.2 mol / 1 mol )( 600 K / 300 K )(1 atm ) = 2.4 atm

(a) sp3d 2 (b) d sp3 (c) sp3d (d) d 2 sp3