NEET

SAMPLE PAPER

Max. Marks: 180 Duration: 3 Hrs

This paper consists of Chemistry, Physics and Biology

Chemistry
• Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 1 to 45. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks.
Physics
• Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 46 to 90. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks.
Biology
• Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 91 to 180. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks.

Useful Data
At. Wt.:
N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207
Physical constants:
h = 6.626 10−34 J.sec , Na = 6.022 1023 mol-1 , C = 2.998 108 ms-1 , me = 9.110−31 kg

Chemistry

1. The packing efficiency of the two dimensional square unit cell shown below is
(a) 39.27% (b) 68.02%
(c) 74.05% (d) 78.54%

2. A solution is obtained by dissolving 12 g of urea (mole.wt.60) in a litre of water. Another solution

is obtained by dissolving 68.4 g of cane-sugar (mole.wt.342) in a litre of water at the same
temperature. The lowering of vapour pressure in the first solution is
(a) same as that of 2nd solution (b) nearly one-fifth of the 2nd solution
(c) double that of 2nd solution (d) nearly five times that of 2nd solution

3. The correct order of increasing C − O bond length of CO, CO32−CO2 is

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 (a) CO32−  CO2  CO (b) CO2  CO32−  CO (c) CO  CO32−  CO2 (d) CO  CO2  CO32−

4. The frequency of one of the lines in Paschen series of hydrogen atom is 2.340 1014 Hz. The

(
quantum number n2 which produces this transition is RH = 109737 cm-1 )
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
0.0591
5. EMF of a cell is related to standard EMF, E by the equation E = E − log k . Where k is reaction
n
quotient and n the number of electrons which is correct graphical representation

(a) (b) (c) (d)

6. At identical temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of hydrogen gas is 3 3 times that of a
hydrocarbon having molecular formula Cn H2n−2 . What is the value of n ?

(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 8

22
7. A 0.500 mL sample of an aqueous solution containing 0.48μCi per mL of Na is injected into the

bloodstream of an animal. After allowing sufficient time for complete circulatory mixing, a
22
0.100 mL aliquot of blood is removed and found to have a net activity of 466 dpm of Na . From
this data, calculate the blood volume of the animal
(a) 63 mL (b) 114 mL (c) 681 mL (d) 1247 mL

8. At a constant temperature, the equilibrium constant ( K p ) for the decomposition reaction

2NO2 is expressed by Kp =
( 4 x2 P )
, where P = pressure, x = extent of decomposition.
(1 − x2 )
N2O4

Which one of the following statement is true

(a) K p Increases with increase of P (b) K p increases with increase of x

(c) K p Increases with decrease of x (d) K p remains constant with change in P and x

9. pH of 0.1 M solution of a weak acid ( HA) is 4.50. It is neutralized with NaOH solution to decrease

the acid content to half. pH of the resulting solution is ( antilog of 0.5 = 3.162)

(a) 4.50 (b) 8.00 (c) 7.00 (d) 10.00

10. The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas

from a volume of 10dm3 to a volume of 100dm3 at 27 C is

(a) 38.3Jmol −1K −1 (b) 35.8Jmol −1K −1 (c) 32.3Jmol −1K −1 (d) 42.3Jmol −1K −1

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 1
11. The rate constant k , for the reaction N2O5 ( g ) → 2NO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) is 2.3 10−2 s−1. Which
2
equation given below describes the change of  N2O5  with time?  N2O5 0 and  N2O5 t correspond

to concentration of N2O5 initially and at time t ?

(a)  N2O5 t =  N2O5 0 + kt (b)  N2O5 t =  N2O5 t ekt

 N2O5 0
(c) log10  N2O5 t = log10  N2O5 0 − kt (d) In = kt
 N2O5 t
12. MnO42− (1mole) in neutral aqueous medium is disproportioned to

(a) 2/3 mole of MnO4− and 1/3 mole of MnO2

(b) 1/3 mole of MnO4− and 2/3 mole of MnO2

(c) 1/3 mole of MnO7 and 1/3 mole of MnO2

(d) 2/3 mole of MnO7 and 1/3 mole of MnO2

13. On the basis of the following E values, the strongest oxidizing agent is
4− 3−
 Fe (CN ) 
 6
→  Fe (CN )6  + e−1; E = −0.36V Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e− ; E = −0.77V

3− 4
(a) Fe3+ (b)  Fe ( CN )6  (c)  Fe ( CN )6  (d) Fe2+

14. In the case of small cuts on skin, bleeding is stopped by applying potash alum. Here alum acts as
(a) Fungicide (b) Disinfectant (c) Germicide (d) Coagulating agent
15. Silver obtained from argentiferous lead is purified by
(a) Cupellation (b) Distillation (c) Froth floatation (d) Reacting with KCN
16. The form of BN which is as hard as diamond is
(a) hexagonal form (b) cubic form with ZnS structure
(c) both of these (d) none of these
17. Polyphosphates are used as water softening agents because they
(a) form soluble complexes with anionic species
(b) precipitate anionic species
(c) form soluble complexes with cationic species
(d) precipitate cationic species
18. Which of the silver salts are soluble in water?
(a) Ag2SO4 (b) AgCN (c) AgF (d) Ag2CrO4

19. Which of the following reactions will not produce chlorine gas?
 
(a) K2Cr2O7 + HCl → (b) MnO2 + HCl →
 
(c) KMnO4 + HCl → (d) K2Cr2O7 + H2 SO4 ( conc.) + KCl →

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20. K2 OsCl5 N  is named as ___________ according to IUPAC system.

(a) Potassium pentachloro azo osmate (VI)

(b) Potassium pentachloro nitridoosmate (VI)
(c) Potassium pentachloro azidoosmate (VI)
(d) Potassium pentachloro nitronium osmate (II)
2+
21. NH3 forms complex ion Cu ( NH3 )4  with Cu2+ ion in alkaline solution but not in acidic

solution. This is due to the reason that

(a) In acidic solution hydration protects Cu2+ ions

(b) In acidic solution proton coordinates with ammonia molecules forming NH4+ ions, lone

pair of electrons on NH3 is not available to be donated

(c) In alkaline solution Cu ( OH )2 is precipitated which is soluble in excess of NH3

(d) Cu ( OH )2 is an amphoteric in nature

22. Which of the following statement is correct regarding following reaction?

Cl
NO 2
1
6
2
heat
+ NH 3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
5
3 pressure
4

Cl
(a) No reaction is possible because −Cl is present on benzene ring
(b) A nucleophilic substitution will take place in which both −Cl will be replaced by two
−NH2 groups

(c) A nucleophilic substitution will take place in which only −Cl attached on C1 will be

replaced by −NH2

(d) A nucleophilic substitution will take place in which only −Cl attached on C4 will be

replaced by −NH2

23. Which of the following alcohols is dehydrated most readily with conc. H2 SO4 ?

CHOHCH 3 CHOHCH 3 CHOHCH3 CHOHCH 3

(a) (b) (c) (d)

OCH3 NO2 CI

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 O O

24. The compound having formula, CH3 C CH2 C OC2H5

(a) Forms dioxime (b) Undergoes iodoform test
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Neither of the two
25. Methanoic acid is heated with conc. H2 SO4 , to form

(a) CO (b) CO2 (c) CH4 (d) ( COOH )2

NH O
26. The correct order of increasing basicity is CH3CH2 NH2 CH3CNH 2 CH3C NH2
I II III

(a) II < III < I (b) I  III < II (c) I < II <III (d) III < I < II

27. What will happen when D-(+)-glucose is treated with methanolic –HCI followed by Tollens’
reagent?
(a) A black ppt. will be formed
(b) A red ppt. will be formed
(c) A green colour will appear
(d) No characteristic colour or ppt. will be formed
28. Biological catalysts (enzymes) belong to which class of compounds?
(a) Polysaccharides (b) Synthetic polymers (c) Oils (d) Proteins

29. Buna-S is
(a) Natural polymer (b) Sulphur polymer (c) Synthetic polymer (d) Homopolymer

30. Derivative of Barbituric acid acts as

(a) antibiotic (b) hypnotic (c) analgesic (d) antacid
31. The geometrical structure of CCl 4 molecule is

(a) Square planar (b) Tetrahedral (c) Linear (d) Trigonal

32. At 27 C , the ratio of root mean square velocities of ozone to oxygen is

(a) 3
5
(b) 4
3
(c) 2
3
(d) 0.25

33. Phosphorous forms two chlorides which have different compositions. The oxidation number of
which element remains constant?
(a) neither element (b) both elements (c) phosphorous (d) chlorine

34. Hydrogen is formed according to the equation 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH+ H2 . How many grams of

sodium are required to produce 7.81 g of H2 ?

(a) 79 g (b) 179.6 g (c) 279 g (d) 7.9 g

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35. Which of the following is wrong statement?
(a) PCl5 has trigonal bipyramidal shape (b) PCl3 has trigonal bipyramidal shape

(c) PCl4+ has tetrahedral shape (d) PCl6− has octahedral shape.

36. The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is:
(a) mol dm-3s-1 (b) s-1 (c) dm3 mol-1s-1 (d) dm6 mol-2s-1

37. What is empirical formula of C2H4Cl2 ?

(a) CH4Cl2 (b) C2H4Cl2 (c) C2H4Cl (d) C1H2Cl

38. In the reaction A → B , if concentration of A is increased four times, the rate of reaction is doubled.

The order of that reaction is

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 1/2 (d) 2
39. The change in internal energy of a system depends on
(a) final and initial states of the system (b) the physical state of the reactants

(c) the path (d) the physical state of the products

40. At constant temperature and pressure, which of the following statements is true for the reaction

CO(g ) + O2 (g ) → CO2 (g ) ?
1
2

(a) H = E (b) H  E

(c) H  E (d) H is independent of physical state

41. Which of the following reaction gives the heat of formation of ethyl alcohol ?
(a) 4C(s) + 6H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2C2H5OH(l) (b) 4C(s) + 6H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2C2H5OH(g)

(c) 2C(s) + 3H2 (g) + O2 (g) → C2H5OH(l) (d) 2C(s) + 3H2 (g) + O2 (g) → C2H5OH(g)
1 1
2 2

42. Enthalpy and internal energy are .

(a) Extensive properties (b) intensive property
(c) colligative properties (d) path functions
43. Which of the following represent standard state?
(a) 298K, 1 bar (b) 398K, 1 atm (c) 398K, 2 bar (d) 290K, 2 atm

3 1
44. S + O2 → SO3 + 2 x cal; SO2 + O2 → SO3 + y cal . Find out the heat of formation of SO 2 .
2 2

(a) (2x − y) (b) (2x + y) (c) ( y − 2x ) (d) (2x/y)

45. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is

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 (a) CH2Cl2 (b) NF3 (c) ClO2 (d) BF3

Physics

b
46. The velocity v (in cm/s) of a particle is given in terms of time (t) by the equation: v = at + .
t +c
Dimensions of a, b and c are
a b c

(a) L2 T LT −2

(b) LT −2 LT L

(c) LT −2 L T

(d) L LT T2

47. In a two dimensional motion of particle, the particle moves from

point A , position vector r1 to point B, position vector r2 . If the A

B
magnitudes of these vectors are, respectively, r1 = 3 and r2 = 4 r1
1 r2
and the angles they make with the x − axis are 1 = 75 and
2
1 = 15 , respectively, then find the magnitude of the displacement
vector.

(a) 15 (b) 13

(c) 17 (d) 15

48. If we shift a body in equilibrium from A to C in a gravitational field

A

via path AC or ABC by a force F . Then

(a) The work done by the force F for both paths will be same
(b) WAC  WABC

C
(c) WAC  WABC B

(d) none of these

49. Choose only incorrect statement from the following
(a) The position of the centre of mass of a system of particles at any moment does not depend
upon the internal forces between the particles
(b) The centre of mass of a solid is never lies outside the body of the solid

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 (c) A body tied to a string is whirled in a circle with a uniform speed. If the string is suddenly
cut, the angular momentum of the body will not change from its initial value
(d) The angular momentum of a comet revolving around a massive star remains constant over
the entire orbit
50. The moment of inertia of thin square plate ABCD of uniform
4
thickness about an axis passing through the centre O and 1
A B
perpendicular to the plane of the plate is not equal to (Given
I1 , I2 , I3 and I 4 ,respectively, are the moments of inertia about axes 3

O
1,2,3and 4 which are in the plane of the plate)
(a) I1 + I2 (b) I3 + I4 D C
2

(c) I1 + I3 (d) I1 + I2 + I3 + I 4

51. Water is flowing in streamline motion in the tube as shown in the

figure. Pressure in the tube is A • B •

(a) more at A than at B (b) equal at A and at B

(c) lesser at A than at B (d) normal at A and B
52. A partition divides a container having insulated walls into two
compartments I and II. The same gas fills the two compartments
P ,V , T 2 P , 2V , T
[See Fig]. The ratio of the number of molecules in compartments
I II
I and II is
(a) 1:6 (b) 6:1
(c) 4:1 (d) 1:4
53. V versus T curves at constant pressures P1 and P2 for an

ideal gas are shown in the figure,

(a) P1  P2 (b) P1  P2 P2

(c) P1 = P2 (d) P1  P2 P1

54. A transverse wave is travelling along a string from left to right. The figure below represents the
shape of the string at a given instant. At this instant, among the following, choose the wrong
statement
y
(a) Point D, E, F have upward positive velocity C
B
(b) Points A, B and H have downward negative D
A
E x
velocity
F H
(c) Point C and G have zero velocity G
(d) Points A and E have minimum velocity

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55. Two electric bulbs A and B are rated as 60W and 100W. if they are connected in parallel to the
same source, then
(a) Both the bulbs draw the same current (b) Bulb A draws more current than the bulb B
(c) Bulb B draws more current than the bulb A
(d) Currents drawn by the bulbs are in the ratio of their resistances
56. A wire of length l is bent in the form of a circular loop and is suspended in a region of a uniform
magnetic field B . When a steady current I is passed through the loop, the maximum torque
experienced by it is

Il 2 B BIl 2 I
(a) (b) (c) 42 Il 2 B (d)
 4
4 4Bl 2
57. Two particles Y and Z emitted by a radioactive source at P made tracks in a cold chamber as
illustrated in the figure. A magnetic field acted downward into the
paper. Carful measurements showed that both tracks were circular, the
radius of Y track being half that of the Z track. Which one of the Y
Z
following statements is certainly true?
(a) Both Y and Z particles carried a positive charge.
P
(b) The mass of Z particle was one half that of the Y particle.
(c) The mass of the Z particle was twice that of the Y particle.
(d) The charge of the Z particle was twice that of the Y particle.
58. The coil of a dynamo is rotating in a magnetic field. The developed induced emf changes and the
number of magnetic lines of force also changes. Which of the following conditions is correct?
(a) Lines of force minimum but induced emf is zero.
(b) Lines of force maximum but induced emf is zero.
(c) Lines of force maximum but induced emf is not zero.
(d) Lines of force maximum but induced emf is also maximum.
59. If  0 and 0 represent the permittivity and permeability of vacuum and  and  represent the

permittivity and permeability of medium, the refractive index of the medium is given by

 0 0   0 0
(a) (b) (c) (d)
  0 0 0 0 

60. The least resolvable angle by a telescope using objective of aperture 5m and light of  = 4000Å is
nearly

(a) 1 50 (b) 1.50 minute (c) 1 50s (d) 1 500s

61. A concave mirror of focal length 200cm is used to obtain the image of the sun which subtends an
angle of 30 . Then the diameter of the image of the solar disc is
(a) 13.48cm (b) 1.75cm (c) 9.87cm (d) 20.0cm

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62. What is the relation between refractive indices
1 3
1 , 2 and  3 if the behaviour of light rays is as 2

shown in the figure

(a) 3  2 , 1 = 3 (b) 2  1 , 2 = 3

(c) 3  2  1 (d) 3  2  1

63. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of particle momentum with
associated de Broglie wavelength?
(a) (b)

P
P




(c) (d)

P P

 

64. Suppose two deuterons must get as close as 10−14 m in order for the nuclear force to overcome the
repulsive electrostatic force. The height of the electrostatic barrier is nearest to
(a) 0.14MeV (b) 2.3MeV (c) 1.8  10MeV (d) 0.56MeV
65. The orbital velocity of electron in the ground state is v . If the electron is excited to energy state
−0.54eV , its orbital velocity will be

(a) v (b) v (c) v (d) v

3 5 7

66. When 4 Be9 atom is bombarded with  − particles, one of the products of nuclear transmutation is
1
6C 2 . The other is

(a) −1 e0 (b) 1 H1 (c) 1 D2 (d) 0 n1

67. In a semiconductor diode, p − side is earthed and to n − side is applied a potential of -2V: the

diode shall
(a) conduct (b) not conduct
(c) conduct partially (d) break down
68. A wire has mass 0.3  0.003 g, radius 0.5  0.005 mm and length 6 0.06 cm. The maximum
percentage error in the measurement of its density is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

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69. Two satellites S1 and S 2 revolve round a planet in coplanar circular orbits in the same sense. Their

periods of revolution are 1 hour and 8 hour respectively. The radius of the orbit of S1 is 104 km .

When S 2 is closest to S1 . Find the angular speed of S 2 as actually observed by an astronaut S1

(a) 310−4 rad/sec (b) 4 10−4 rad/sec (c) 5 10−4 rad/sec (d) 6 10−4 rad/sec
70. Integrated chip (IC) is an electronic device that contains
(a) transistors (b) resistors
(c) transistors and resistors (d) transistors, resistors and capacitors

71. A particle is projected from the ground with an initial speed of v at an angle  with the horizontal.
The average velocity of the particle between its point of projection and highest point of trajectory
is
v v v
(a) 1 + cos2  (b) 1 + 2cos2  (c) 1 + 3cos2  (d) v cos
2 2 2
72. A suitcase is gently dropped on a conveyor belt moving at 3 m/s. If the coefficient of friction
between the belt and the suitcase is 0.5, find the displacement of the suitcase relative to conveyor

(
belt before the slipping between the two is stopped g = 10 m / s 2 . )
(a) 2.7 m (b) 1.8 m (c) 0.9 m (d) 1.2 m
73. A mass of 2.9 kg is suspended from a string of length 50 cm and is rest. Another body of mass 100 g

which is moving horizontally with a velocity of 150 m/s strikes it. After striking, the two bodies

combine together. Tension in the string, when it is an angle of 60 with the vertical is g = 10 m / s 2 ( )
(a) 135. N (b) 125 N (c) 140 N (d) 90 N

74. If two spheres A and B each having mass M are moving along same line with same speed in
opposite directions collide head-on elastically, then
(a) velocity of A before collision and after collision is same
(b) velocity of B before collision and after collision is same
(c) after collision the velocities of both A and B are same
(d) after collision the velocities of both A and B are different

75. Maxwell’s modified form of Ampere’s Circuital Law is


(a)  E  dA =  0
(b)  B  dA = O
−d B d E
(c)  E  dl = dt
(d)  B  dl =  i
0 c + 0 0
dt
76. A liquid when heated in a copper vessel and when heated in a silver vessel, the apparent
coefficient of expansion is C and S , respectively. If coefficients of linear expansion of copper is A,
then the coefficient of linear expansion of silver is

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 C + S − 3A C + 3A − S 3A − S − C C + S + 3A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 3
77. Two bodies A and B have thermal emissivities of 0.01 and 0.81 respectively. The outer surface
areas of the two bodies are the same. The two bodies emit total radiant power at the same rate.
The wavelengths  A and B corresponding to maximum spectral radiancy in the radiation from

A and B respectively differ by 1.00 m . If the temperature of A is 5802 K . Find B

(a) 1.5 10−6 m (b) 3.2 10−6 m (c) 5 10−6 m (d) 7.5 10−6 m

78. In a resonance tube experiment, the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column and the
second for 32 cm. The end correction for its apparent is
(a) 0.5 cm (b) 1.0 cm (c) 1.5 cm (d) 2 cm

79. A band playing music at frequency f is moving towards a wall at a speed vb .A motorist is

following the band with a speed vm .If v is the speed of sound, the expression for the band

frequency heard by the motorist is:

v + vm v + vm 2vb ( v + vm ) 2vm ( v + vb )
(a) f (b) f (c) f (d) f
v + vb v − vb v 2
− vb2 v2 − vm
2

80. A hollow charged metal sphere has radius r . If the potential difference between its surface and a
point at distance 3r from the center is V , then the electric field intensity at distance 3r from the
center is

V V V V
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6r 4r 3r 2r
81. In the figure, two cells have equal emf E but internal resistance
are r1 and r2 . If the reading of voltmeter is zero, then the

relation between R, r1 and r2 is

(a) R = r1 − r2 (b) R = r1 + r2

(c) 2R = (r1 − r2 ) (d) R = r1r2

82. The mass of radium (mass number 226, half-life 1600 years) with an activity of one curie is almost?
(a) 1 gram (b) 1.8 gram (c) 2 gram (d) 3.2 gram
83. The range of frequency allotted for FM radio is
(a) 88 to 108 kHz (b) 88 to 108 MHz (c) 88 to 108 GHz (d) 88 to 108 GHz
84. How many meters of a thin wire are required to manufacture a solenoid of length l = 100 cm and
inductance L = 1 mH, if the solenoid’s cross-sectional diameter is considerably less than its length
(a) 1.0 km (b) 0.10 km (c) 0.010 km (d) 10 km

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85. Light of wavelength 500 nm travelling with a speed of 2.0 108 ms−1 in a certain medium enters

another medium of refractive index 5/4 times that of the first medium. What are the wavelength
and speed in the second medium?
Wavelength/nm Speed/m s −1
(a) 400 1.6 108
(b) 400 2.5 108
(c) 500 2.5 108
(d) 625 1.6 108

86. A plano-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 30 cm is silvered at the curved
surface. Now this lens had been used to form the image of an object. At what distance from this
lens an object should be placed in order to have a real image of the size of the object?
(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 80 cm
87. An electron beam accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 5000 V in vacuum is

allowed to impinge on a surface normally. The incident current is 50 10−3 mA and if the electrons
come to rest on striking the surfaces the force on it is

(a) 1.1924 10−8 N (b) 2.110−8 N (c) 1.6 10−8 N (d) 1.6 10−6 N
88. In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(a) the radius of the n th orbit is proportional to n 2

(b) the total energy of the electron in n th orbit is inversely proportional to n

(c) the angular momentum of electron in an n th orbit is an integral multiple of h 2

(d) the magnitude of potential energy of the electron in any orbit is greater than its kinetic
energy

89. Three charges −q1, +q2 and − q3 are placed as shown in the

figure. The x − component of the force on − q1 is proportional to

q2 q3 q2 q3
(a) − cos  (b) + sin 
2 2 2
b a b a2
q2 q3 q2 q3
(b) (c) + cos  (d) − sin 
2 2 2
b a b a2

90. The V − I graph for a conductor at temperature T1 and T2 is shown in

the figure. (T2 − T1 ) is proportional to

(a) cos 2 (b) sin 2

(c) cot 2 (d) tan 2

www.vedantu.com 13
 Biology

91. The common name for plants belonging to division-Psilophyta are

(a) Club mosses (b) Horse tails (c) Whisk ferns (d) Quill worts
92. Which of the following statements about sporophytes of hornworts describes it well?
(a) It is horn-like, contains elators and a foot at the base
(b) Club-like without elators and no setae
(c) Has a long seta, capsule with calyptra and peristome teeth
(d) Sporogonium embedded in the thallus
93. Puffballs, shelf fungi and rusts are members of
(a) Ascomycetes (b) Deuteromycetes (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Phycomycetes
94. Which of the following algae is considered an indirect ancestor of land plants?
(a) Polysiphonia (b) Ulothrix (c) Oedogonia (d) Diatoms
95. Which is not a characteristic of prokaryotes?
(a) Asexual reproduction by fission (b) A single strand of DNA
(c) Sexual reproduction by fusion (d) Lack of nuclear membrane
96. What is the set of rules used to prove that a particular micro-organism is a cause of disease?
(a) International code of Bacteriology (b) Koch’s postulates
(c) Bioremediation (d) Code for Virology
97. Exchange of genetic information within a population can be prevented if
(a) a mutant form flowers at a different time
(b) anatomical features of the flower prevent pollination
(c) sperm is chemically prevented to reach the egg
(d) all the above
98. Which of the following is true about meiosis?
(a) Four haploid cells are produced from one diploid cell
(b) Meiosis takes place in the asexual cycle of organisms
(c) The zygote forms the sporophyte
(d) All the above
99. Which of the following doesn’t occur during light dependent reaction?
(a) Production of ATP molecules (b) Splitting of water molecules
(c) RUBP is formed (d) Oxygen is released
100. Which of the following is not a feature of monocots?
(a) Scattered vascular bundles (b) Seed with a single cotyledon
(c) Have fibrous roots (d) Presence of cambium
101. In Pinus the female gametophyte is present in
(a) Fruit (b) Ovule (c) Pollen chamber (d) Seed

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102. Succession that begins on lava is in an example of
(a) Xerosere (b) Hydrosere
(c) Secondary succession (d) Climax community
103. Identify the correct statements about the family Fabaceae
(i) Fruit is a legume (ii) Placentation is axile
(iii) Papilionaceous corolla (iv) Stipules are absent
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
104. What describes the climate of the tropical rain forests?
(a) High precipitation and low temperature
(b) Precipitation throughout the year
(c) Mediterranean climate
(d) Periods of high precipitation followed by low precipitation

105. In the diagram of the T.S. of a young dicot root below label a, b, c and d in the order

(a) Endodermis, Metaxylem, Phloem, Cortex and Protoxylem

(b) Protoxylem, Metaxylem, Phloem, Cortex and Endodermis
(c) Phloem, metaxylem, cortex, protoxylem and endodermis
(d) Endodermis, protoxylem, phloem, cortex and metaxylem
106. Antisense technology is
(a) Use of complementary RNA to stop expression of specific genes
(b) To produce complementary DNA strand by RNA polymerase
(c) A cell with foreign antigen used to produce antibodies
(d) Production of somaclonal variations
107. Okazaki fragments are produced in DNA replication
(a) Synthesize DNA strand towards fork (b) Synthesize DNA strand away from fork

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 (c) Produce DNA strand during transcription (d) Recognise origin of replication

108. In regulation of gene expression lactose acts as a

(a) Suppressor of gene expression (b) Activator of gene expression
(c) Produces a co-repressor (d) Turns off the operator
109. Plasmids are suitable vectors for cloning
(a) Have their own origin of replication site (b) Can integrate with host chromosome
(c) Has a selectable marker (d) All of these
110. Clot busters from Streptococcus modified by genetic engineering is
(a) Streptokinase (b) Pencillin (c) Cyclosporin A (d) Statins
111. In cloning experiments cDNA can be obtained from mRNA by
(a) Polymerase chain reaction (b) Reverse transcriptase
(c) Ribozyme (d) RNA-DNAhybridization
112. In the diagram given below label a ,b, c, d and e in the order

(a) Sclerenchyma, Parenchyma, phloem, Lysigenous cavity and Xylem

(b) Sclerenchyma, Xylem, parenchyma, Phloem and Lysigenous cavity
(c) Sclerenchyma, Phloem, Xylem, Lysigenous cavity and Parenchyma
(d) Sclerenchyma, Xylem, Lysigenous, Phloem and Parenchyma
113. Gel electrophoresis is used for
(a) Construction of recombinant DNA by vectors
(b) Culturing of host cells in a bioreactor
(c) Separation of DNA fragments
(d) Replication of DNA
114. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to
(a) Reception of pollen to stigma (b) Formation of pollen
(c) Opening of flower bud (d) Development of anther
115. Identify the correct statements

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 (a) Cliestogamy preserves parental characters
(b) Angiospermic embryosac has 8 cells and 7 nuclei
(c) In Cycas pollen grains have wings
(d) Dicot leaf has undifferentiated mesophyll
116. The RNA interference technique was discovered by
(a) Sharp and Roberts (b) Andrew Z. Fire and Craig C. Mello
(c) Smith and Nathen (d) Franklin and Wilkins
117. Which of the following is a measure of environmental forces that can sustain a population for a
long period of time?
(a) Biotic potential (b) Reproductive potential
(c) Carrying capacity (d) Mortality
118. According to Robert Mac Arthur closely related species of warblers avoided competition by
(a) Predation (b) Niche partitioning
(c) Commensalism (d) Symbiosis
119. Match the following
Column I Column II
(a) Chrysophytes p. Paramecium
(b) Dinoflagellates q. Porphyra
(c) Rhodophyceae r. Gymnodinium
(d) Protozoan s. Diatoms
(a) a-s; b-p; c-p; d-q (b) a-s; b-s; c-q; d-p
(c) a-s; b-s; c-p; d-q (d) a-r; b-s; c-q; d-p
120. The event in anaphase that brings about equal distribution of chromosomes in mitosis is
(a) Condensation of chromatin (b) Replication of genetic material
(c) Division of centromere (d) Movement of chromosomes towards the poles
121. In the diagram below a, b, c and d are stages in mitosis,Identify them in the order

(a) Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase and Telophase

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 (b) Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase and Anaphase
(c) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase
(d) Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase and Telophase
122. In case the cell cycle were stopped just after S- phase then the cell would have
(a) Half the chromosome number and duplicated centrioles
(b) Double the number of chromosomes and duplicated centrioles
(c) Half the number of chromosomes and single centriole
(d) Double the number of chromosomes and cell would go to quiescent stage
123. The energy used to produce ATP in the light reactions of photosynthesis comes from
(a) The burning of sugar molecules
(b) Splitting of water molecules
(c) Movement of H+ through a membrane
(d) Carbon fixation
124. Which of the following is not true about oxidative phosphorylation?
(a) It uses oxygen as the ultimate electron acceptor
(b) It involves the redox reaction of the ETS
(c) It involves ATP synthesis in the inner mitochondrial membrane
(d) It produces three ATP,s for every NADH oxidised
125. Identify the correct match in the three columns
Column I Column II Column III
(a) Oxidative phosphorylation Mitochondria Light reaction
(b) Calvin cycle Stroma Dark reaction
(c) Hatch and Slack C4-cycle Most dicots
(d) Photorespiration Peroxisomes C4 Plants

126. Identify the correct match

(a) Oedogonium-Reticulate chloroplast (b) Zygnema-Stellate chloroplast
(c) Ulothrix – discoid chloroplast (d) Spirogyra-Ribbon chloroplast

127. Decomposers play an important role in an ecosystem by

(a) Increasing primary productivity by releasing oxygen
(b) Decreasing primary productivity by consuming oxygen
(c) Returning of nutrients by degradation in an ecosystem
(d) Fixing carbon by chloroplasts
128. Roots are without root cap but having root pockets in
(a) Eichhornia crassipes (b) Brassica campestris
(c) Pisum sativum (d) none of these

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129. Roots are not found in
(a) total stem parasites (b) total root parasites (c) partial stem parasites (d) all of these
130. Lenticels are found in
(a) Ppneumatophores (b) Old dicot roots
(c) Stem after thick secondary growth (d) All of these

Assertion and Reason type questions.

(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
131. Assertion: A haploid parent produces gametes by meiotic division
Reason: Majority of plants and animals possess a haploid body
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
132. Assertion: Lower plants usually reproduce by asexual means
Reason: It helps rapid growth and multiplication in lesser time without involvement of gametes
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

133. Assertion: Restriction endonuclease are referred to as the immune system of prokaryotes.
Reason: These enzymes protect the genetic material of bacteria from “invasion” by foreign DNA
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
134. Assertion: Substitution of a nitrogenous base pair in DNA causes frame-shift mutation
Reason: The replacement of a purine by a pyrimidine is known as transition
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
135. Assertion: The operon is a unit of gene expression
Reason: Regulator is a gene that codes for a repressor protein molecule
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
136. Cells that maintain marrow cells are called :
(a) Osteocytes (b) Osteoclasts (c) Chondrocytes (d) none of these
137. The cloaca in frog is a common chamber for the urinary tract, reproductive tract and :
(a) Alimentary canal (b) Portal system
(c) Lymphatic system (d) Hepatic portal vessels
138. Common Indian bull frog is :
(a) Rana tigrina (b) Rana esculenta
(c) Rana silvatica (d) Rana cyanophylactica
139. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while
swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of :

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 (a) Tongue (b) Epiglottis (c) Diaphragm (d) Neck
140. The haemoglobin of a human foetus :
(a) Has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4.
(b) Has lower affinity for oxygen than that of adult
(c) Has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of adult
(d) Its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult

141. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of human heart is partially non-
functional, what will be the immediate effect?
(a) The flow of blood into pulmonary artery will be reduced
(b) The flow of blood into aorta will be slowed down
(c) The pace maker will stop functioning
(d) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
142. Urea synthesis takes place primarily in liver because :
(a) NH3 and CO2 are present in liver only (b) ADH is found in liver only
(c) Enzyme arginase is present in liver only (d) Kidney is smaller than liver
143. Name the condition when one of the ketone bodies increases in urine :
(a) Acromegaly (b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Diabetes insipidus (d) Cushing’s disease
144. The common structure which appears both in hypothalamus and ovary is :
(a) Corpus callosum (b) Corpus luteum (c) Corpus albicans (d) Corpus milleri
145. The amount of C.S.F in man is roughly.
(a) 550 ml (b) 250 ml (c) 135 ml (d) 60 ml
146. The sense of taste is a function of ______________ nerve.
(a) Facial (b) Hypoglossal (c) Glossopharyngeal (d) Vagus
147. Rods contain rhodopsin (visual purple) and cones contain iodopsin (violet pigment). The
rhodopsin can distinguish the various degrees of light then what is the function of iodopsin?
(a) Distinguish different colours
(b) Distinguish only intensity of red and white colour
(c) Does not distinguish colour but the intensity of light
(d) None of the above

148. Which of the following acts as a shock absorber to cushion the tibia and the femur where they
come together?
(a) Disc (b) Tendon (c) Ligament (d) Cartilage
149. In man there are three ear ossicles. Which one is attached to the tympanic membrane?
(a) Malleus (b) Incus (c) Stapes (d) None of these

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150. Find out wrong statement :
(a) The curvatures of vertebral column keep the body straight and stiff during walking
(b) The curvatures allow bending movements of the body
(c) Curvatures help to balance the body during locomotion
(d) The curvatures give increased flexibility to the body

151. Given below is a pedigree chart showing the inheritance of a certain sex-linked trait in humans
The trait traced in the above pedigree chart is

Generation 1

Generation 2

Generation 3

(a) Dominant X-linked (b) Recessive X-linked

(c) Dominant Y-linked (d) Recessive Y-linked

152. In a dihybrid cross, pure red-long pollen pea plant was crossed with white – short pollen pea
plant. If linkage between the two genes were 66%, then calculate the number of white – long
pollen plant among a total progeny of 1000
(a) 340 (b) 170 (c) 500 (d) 100
153. Recombination frequency between the genes R and P, Q and R, and P and Q are 10%, 21% and
11% respectively. What is the sequence of genes on the chromosome?
(a) P – Q – R (b) Q – P – R (c) R – P – Q (d) Either (2) or (3)
154. A person is suffering from impaired nervous system and madness after prolonged consumption of
polluted water. Which metal is responsible?
(a) Hg (b) Ca (c) Mn (d) Pb
155. Green muffler is used against which type of pollution?
(a) Air (b) Soil (c) Water (d) Noise
156. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of
(a) Industrial wastes poured into water bodies
(b) Extent to which water is polluted with organic compounds
(c) Amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin
(d) Amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night

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157. In fast swimming fishes, propulsion is due to
(a) Pelvic fin (b) Pectoral fin (c) Dorsal fin (d) Caudal fin
158. Ambulacral grooves are absent in the living forms of the class
(a) Crinoidea (b) Asteroidea (c) Ophiuroidea (d) Echinodermata
159. The horns of Rhinoceros are composed of
(a) Chitin (b) Bone (c) Keratin (d) Cartilage
160. Sharpey’s perforating fibres are related with
(a) Muscle contraction (b) Fixing of teeth (c) Heart contraction (d) All of these

161. Sweat glands, in human skin, are located in the

(a) Malphigian layer of epidermis (b) Dermis of skin
(c) Subdermal layer of fat cells (d) Glandular layer of epidermis
162. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a drug and its category?
(a) Amphtamines – stimulant (b) Lysergic acid dimethyl amide – narcotic
(c) Heroin – psychotropic (d) Benzodiazepam – pain killer
163. Electron Beam therapy is a kind of radiation therapy to treat
(a) Enlarged prostate gland (b) Gall bladder stones by breaking them
(c) Certain types of cancer (d) Kidney stones
164. Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal
menstrual cycle?
(a) Release of egg : 5th day
(b) Endometrium regenerates : 5 – 10 days
(c) Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation L 11 – 18 days
(d) Rise in progesterone level : 1 – 15 days
165. Which of the following bone like substance covers the root part of tooth in case of human
dentition?
(a) Gingivae (b) Enamel (c) Cementum (d) Periodontal ligament
166. Parasympathetic activity during micturition causes
(a) Contraction of detrusor muscle and contraction of internal urethral sphincter
(b) Contraction of detrusor muscle and relaxation of internal urethral sphincter
(c) Relaxation of detrusor muscle and relaxation of internal urethral sphincter
(d) Relaxation of detrusor muscle and contraction of internal urethral sphincter
167. The disease sometimes referred to as “Silent STD’ because it is usually asymptomatic in women in
early stage is
(a) Chlamydiasis (b) Gonorrhoea
(c) Syphilis (d) Pelvic inflammatory disease
168. Which of the following statements about Amniocentesis is incorrect?

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 (a) It is the removal of amniotic fluid via needle inserted through the abdomen into the uterus
and amniotic sac
(b) The amniotic fluid contains cells (amniocytes) of the amniotic membrane and some foetal
skin cells
(c) The technique has been developed for detecting foetal abnormalities by analysing
chromosomal defect and metabolic disorders.
(d) It can be performed as early as 8 weeks of pregnancy
169. In a 35 day menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs on day
(a) 17 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 18
170. Which of the psychological disorder is characterized by constant doubts, violence, concern about
infection by germs or dirt
(a) Schizophrenia (b) Anxiety disorder
(c) Obsessive compulsive disorder (d) Attention deficit disorder
171. AIDS is confirmed by
(a) Dick test (b) Schick test (c) ELISA test (d) Western blot
172. Trapezium, trapezoid and capitate are bones related to
(a) Skull (b) Hand (c) Foot (d) Girdle
173. Triceps muscle join ulna with :
(a) Pectoral girdle (b) Pelvic girdle (c) Humerus (d) Radius
174. The figure given below is the diagrammatic representation of the
operation of which type of natural selection?
(a) Directional selection (b) Disruptive selection
(c) Stabilizing selection (d) Random chance

175. Criteria of reproductive isolation for defining a species can’t be

applied to
A. Paraspecies B. Sibling species C. Pseudospecies
(a) Both A and B (b) C only (c) Both A and C (d) Both B and C
176. Gene flow is
(a) Transfer of genes between the populations of different species which are not interbreeding
in nature
(b) Transfer of genes between genetically distinct but interbreeding populations
(c) Transfer of genes between reproductively isolated species
(d) Transfer of genes from sperm to egg

Assertion and Reason type questions.

(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

www.vedantu.com 23
 (B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

177. Assertion: A Cholera patient is given glucose, electrolytes and water.

Reason: These plasmolyse the disease causing germs.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

178. Assertion: Typhoid carriers may be cured by surgical removal of their spleen.
Reason: The disease germs remain concentrated in it.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

179. Assertion: Hepatitis B is also known as ‘Serum hepatitis’ is an acute infection of liver caused by
hepatitis – B – virus.
Reason: HBV virion or the dane particles (42 nm enveloped virus) is RNA virus.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

180. Assertion: The three carp fishes, Catla, Labeo and Cirrhina can be grown together in the same
pond more economically.
Reason: they show commensalism.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Chemistry:
Answer Key:
1. d 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. a
11. d 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. d 20. b
21. b 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. a 26. d 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. b
31. b 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. a 40. b
41. c 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. d

Physics:
Answer Key:
46. c 47. b 48. a 49. b 50. d 51. a 52. d 53. a 54. d 55. c
56. b 57. a 58. b 59. b 60. c 61. b 62. b 63. d 64. a 65. c
66. d 67. a 68. d 69. a 70. d 71. c 72. c 73. a 74. d 75. d

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76. b 77. a 78. b 79. c 80. a 81. a 82. a 83. b 84. b 85. a
86. a 87. a 88. b 89. b 90. c

Biology:
Answer Key:
91. c 92. a 93. c 94. a 95. c 96. b 97. d 98. a 99. c 100. d
101. b 102. a 103. d 104. b 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. b 109. d 110. a
111. b 112. b 113. c 114. c 115. a 116. b 117. c 118. b 119. b 120. c
121. b 122. b 123. c 124. a 125. b 126. c 127. c 128. a 129. d 130. d
131. c 132. a 133. a 134. d 135. b 136. a 137. a 138. a 139. b 140. c
141. a 142. c 143. b 144. c 145. c 146. c 147. a 148. d 149. a 150. a
151. a 152. b 153. a 154. d 155. d 156. b 157. d 158. c 159. c 160. b
161. d 162. a 163. c 164. b 165. c 166. b 167. a 168. d 169. c 170. c
171. d 172. b 173. d 174. b 175. c 176. b 177. c 178. a 179. c 180. c

Chemistry
Solutions:
1. 4R = L 2

so, L = 2 2R

( )
2
Area of square unit cell = 2 2R = 8R2

Area of atoms present in one unit cell

  R2 
=  R2 + 4   = 2 R2
 4 
 
so, packing efficiency

2 R2 
= 100 = 100 = 78.54%
2 4
8R
Mass of urea 1 12 1
2. We know that in the first solution number of the moles of urea =  =  = 0.2 and
m.wt.of urea V 60 1

Massof urea 68.4 1

In second solution the number of moles of cane sugar =   = 0.2
m.wt.of urea 342 1

3. Bond order of CO, CO2 & CO3−2 are 3, 2&1.5 respectively

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 − 1 1 1
4. v= = RH  − 
  n1 n22 
2

1 1 1
= = RH  − 
  3
2
n22 

1 1
 = CRH  2
− 
 3 n22 

1 1
2.340t1014 = 3.2 1015  2 − 2 
 3 n2 
1 1 1 1
0.073 = − 2  = − −0.073 = 0.038
9 n2 n22 9

n2  5

0.0591
5. E=E − log  k 
n
compare with y = mx + c

0.0591
(i) m (slope) = = tan 
n

(ii) c (intercept) = E

1
6. r1
M1

r M2
or 1 =
r2 M1

r M2
Given r1 = 3 3r2  1 = =3 3
r2 M1

M2
or 3 3 =
2
M2
 27 =
2
M2 = 27  2 = 54

Now 12  n + 2n − 2 = 54
14n = 56  n = 4

7. 1 curie = 3.7 1010  60 dpm

0.5 ml sample has 0.5  0.48 10−6 curie

= 0.5  0.48 10−6  3.7 1010  60 dpm

= 5.328 105 dpm

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 5.328 108  0.1
Volume of blood = = 114 ml
466
8. K p (Equilibrium constant) is independent of pressure and concentration.

9. pH = pKa + log
 Salt 
 Acid 
pH = pKa

 H +  = C
 
− log C = 4.5

C = anti log− 4.5 = 3.16 10−5

 = 3.16 10−4
Ka = C 2

= 9.98 10−9 = 10−8

pKa = 8 = pH

V V
10. S = nRIn 2 = 2.303nR log 2
V1 V1

100 = 38.3Jmol −1K −1.

= 2.303  2  8.314  log
10

11. Rate constant = 2.310−2 sec−1

It means it is a first order reaction (because unit of rate constant is sec−1 )

1 a
For first order reaction k = In
t a−x

a  N2O5 0
kt = In = In .
a−x  N2O5 t
2 1
12. MnO42− in neutral aqueous medium is disproportionate to mole of MnO4− and mole of MnO2 .
3 3

13. Strongest oxidising agent means its reduction potential is highest and that is true for Fe3+
14. Alum coagulates blood
15. Silver is obtained from argenteferous lead by cupellation. Lead is removed as leadoxide by hot air
16. The cubic form of BN with ZnS structure is as hard as diamond.

17. 2Ca++ + Na2  Na4 ( PO3 )6  ⎯⎯

→

4Na+ + Na2 Ca2 ( PO3 )6 

water solublecomplex

18. F − ion has quite high heat of hydration.

19. K2Cr2O7 + 6H2 SO4 + 4KCI ⎯⎯
→ 2KHSO4 + 4NaHSO4 + 2CrO2CI2 + 3H2O

20. IUPAC name is Potassium pentachloro nitridoosmate (VI)

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 2+
21. NH3 forms complex ion Cu ( NH3 )4  with Cu2+ ion in alkaline solution but not in acidic

solution. This is due: In acidic solution proton coordinates with ammonia molecules forming NH4+

ions, lone pair of electrons on NH3 is not available to be donated

22. Reactions involving carbocation as intermediate follow E1 path.

Recall that the –CI group present in the o − and p − positions to the electron-withdrawing group is

activated toward nucleophilic substitution, hence only –CI present on the o − and/or p − position

to the −NO2 group will be replaced.

23. The reaction involves the formation of carbocation as intermediate. Hence more the stability of the
carbocation, more will be the rate of reaction. Let us draw the structure of the corresponding
carbocation and observe the relative stability of the four benzyl carbocations.
+ + + +
CHCH3 CHCH3 CHCH3 CHCH3

OCH3 NO2 CI
+ve charge neutralised due
to +M effect of -OCH 3, hence +ve charge intensified due to
Most stable -M effect of -NO 2 and -Ieffect of -CI

The relative stability of the four carbocations is

+ +
CHCH 3 + +
CHCH 3 CHCH 3 CHCH 3

  

OCH3 CI NO 2

24. The – CO part of the -COOC2 H5 does not undergo nucleophilic addition, because it is not electron

deficient.
O O O O−
• • +
CH3 C CH2 C OC2H5 CH3 C CH2 C OC H5
• • •• 2

conc.H2SO4 ,heat
25. H-COOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CO+H2O
( dehydration )
26. II is most basic because delocalization of electron pair leads to negative charge on N making it
electron-rich and hence liable to be attacked by proton very easily. Moreover, the corresponding
protonated species is very much stable because of equivalent contributing structures.

• • −• • +
NH NH + NH NH
H
CH3 C CH3 C CH3 C + CH3 C
+
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2
• •

II

www.vedantu.com 28
 Species III is least basic because of delocalization of electron pair on N, making it less available for
protonation. Species I lies in mid-way, thus
• •
O NH
• • • •
• • NH 2 
CH 3C NH 2  CH 3 CH 2 CH 3C NH 2
III I II

27. Reaction of D-(+)-glucose with methanoic –HCI leads to formation of methyl glucoside

(C1 − OH groupis methylated ) which, being acetal, is not hydrolysable by base, so it will not respond
Tollens’ reagent.
28. Proteins
29. Synthetic polymer
Na
Butacliene + styrene ⎯⎯⎯
→ Buna S

30. Derivative of Barbituric acid is Hypnotic

31.
Cl

C
Cl Cl
Cl 3
sp tetrahedral

3R  300
32. rms velocity of O3 = …….. (1)
48

3R  300
rms velocity of O2 = …….. (2)
32

(1) 
32
=
2
( 2) 48 3

33. For example PCl3 and PCl5

In PCl3 , 3 O Number of P = +3 O Number of Cl = −1

In PCl5 , O Number of P = +5 O Number of Cl = −1

34. 2 Na + 2H 2O ⎯⎯
→ 2 NaOH + H 2
46 gm 2 gm

2 gm H 2 produced by 46 gm of Na

7.81 gm H 2 produced by 179.6 gm of Na

35. PCl3 has pyramidal shape.

36. Rate = K conc.

0

K = mole / L sec−1

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 = mole dm−3 sec−1
37. C1H2Cl1 indicates simplest ratio

38. A ⎯⎯
→B

r1 = k  A
m
…………… (1)

2r1 = k  4 A
m
…………… (2)

( 2)
 2 = 22m
(1)
 2m = 1
1
m =
2
39. E is a state function.
E = Efinal − Einitial

40. H = E + nRT

 1 1
n = 1 − 1 +  = −
 2  2

1
H = E − RT
2
H  E
41. One mole C2 H5OH liquid should be formed from its constituent elements

42. H , E both depend on mass of substance

43. 298K, 1 bar represent standard state
3
44. S + O2 ⎯⎯
→ SO3 H = −2x cal
2
1
SO2 + O2 ⎯⎯
→ SO3 H = − y cal
2
(−)
(−) (−) (−)

S + O2 ⎯⎯
→ SO2 H = y − 2x cal

45.
F

B  = '
F
F
'

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 Physics
Solutions:
b
46. v = at +
t +c

at  = v =  LT −1 

 LT −1 
  =  LT −2 
a = 
  
T 

Dimensions of c = t  = T  ( We can add quantities of same dimensions only.)

 b   −1 
 t + c  = v =  LT 
 

b =  LT −1  T  =  L

47. Angle between r1 and r2 :  = 75 −15 = 60

R = r12 + r22 + 2r1r2 cos (180 − 60) r2

= 32 + 42 − 2  3 4cos60 = 13
r1 180 − ( 1 − 2 )
 AB = 13

48. For the path AC; WAC = Fs cos (90 −  ) A s

F
= mgs sin  = mgh ( F = mg ) F

h
For path AB; WAB = Fa cos90 = 0 F

For path BC; WBC = Ffh cos0 = mgh 

B a C
So that WAB + QBC = mgh = WAC

i.e., WABC = WBC

[NOTE: This shows that in a conservative field, work is path independent. Moreover, work is also
independent of the slope of inclined plane and depends on the height h only]
49. C.M of a body may lies outside also, Example: Ring
I I
50. I1 = I 2 = ; I3 = I 4 =
2 2
1 1
51.  A + VA2 = B + VB2 and AAVA = ABVB
2 2

1   A 2 
 A = B = VB2 1 −  B  
2   AA  
 

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52. n =
PV ( 2P )( 2V ) n 1
Now, n ' = = 4n; =
kT kT n 4
53. PV = nRT
V  nRT  1
=   slope=
T  P  P

dy  dy  dy
54. Particle velocity = −   or = wave velocity x slope of the wave
dt  dx  dt
(a) For upward velocity, VPA = +ve, so slope must be negative which is

at the points. D.E., And F.

(b) For downward velocity, VPA = −ve, so slope must be positive which

is at the points A, B and H

(c) For zero velocity slope must be zero which is at C and G
(d) For maximum magnitude of velocity, | slope | =maximum, which is at A and E. . Hence,

alternative is wrong.
P P
55. i1 = 1 ; i2 = 2
V V
i2  i1

56. The torque experienced by the loop  = BIAsin  . The maximum torque experienced max = BIA

Length of the loop l = 2R  R = Il 2

t 2 l2
Area of the loop A = R2 = =
42 4

BIl 2
Torque, max =
4
57. It is clear from that the right palms rule the charges are positively charged.
mv
As r=
qB '

the radius of path is not the only function of either m or q. For the statements (b) , ( c ) & ( d ) we

cannot make clear statement, but statement a. is certainly true.

58. When the line forces are maximum the change in flux is minimum.

c 1  
59.  = =  =
c 0 0 1 0 0

1.22
60.  =
d

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 =
(
1.22  4000 10−10 ) radian
5

 4 10−7 
1.22 180
=  60' 60''
5 
1
= sec
50
30 1 22
61.  = 30' = =  rad
60 2 7 180
22
= rad
14 180
I O
=
f u

22
I = f =  200cm
14 180
= 1.746cm = 1.75cm
62. The central ray goes undeviated, so,  2 = 1 Also, 3  2

h
63.  =
p

1

p

So graph between  and p is a rectangular hyperbola.

64. Barrier height

1 e2
= (in eV )
4 re

9 102 1.6 10−19

= eV = 1.4 105 eV
10−14
13.6 13.6
65. En = − or n 2 = −
n2 −0.54

or n2 = 25.2 or n=5 ( nearly)

v
No, vn =
5

66. 4 Be9 + 2 He4 → 6 Be12 + 0 n1

67. Diode is in forward bias condition

0V −2V

m m
68.  = =
v  r 2l

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  m r l
 = +2 +
 m r l

  0.003 0.005 0.06 

 100 =  + 2 +  100 = 4%
  0.3 0.5 6 

69. According to Kepler’s law, T 2  r 3

2 3 23
T   r  r T 
  2  =  2  or 2 =  2 
 T1   r1  r1  T1 
23 r2
T 
or r2 = r1  2  v2
 T1  S2 S1 •
r1
23
8
or r2 = (104 )   or r2 = 4 104 km
1 v1

2 r1 2 (10 )
4

 v1 = = = 2 104 km/hour
T1 1

Similarly,

2 r2 2 ( 4 10 ) =  10
4

 v2 = = 4
km/hour
T2 8

Angular speed of S 2 as observed by astronaut in S1

v1 − v2
r =
r2 − r1

v1 − v2 = ( 2 104 −  104 ) km/h

 104 1000
or v1 − v2 = m/s
60  60

3.14 105
or v1 − v2 =
36
= 0.0872 105 = 8.72 103 m/s
r2 − r1 = 3107 m

8.72 103
 r = = 2.9 10−4  310−4 rad/sec
3 107
 r = 3 10−4 rad/sec
70. Integrated chip (IC) is an electronic device that contains transistors, resistors and capacitors

displacement
71. Average velocity =
time

R2
H2 +
vav = 4 …………..(i)
T /2

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 v2 sin 2 
Here, H = max height =
2g

v2 sin 2 2v sin 
R = range = and T = time of flight =
g g

v
vav = 1 + 3cos2 
2
f
72. Acceleration of suitcase till the slipping continues is a = max
m
 mg
a= =  g = 0.5 10 = m / s2
m
Slipping will continue till its velocity also becomes 3 m/s.
Therefore, v = u + at or 3 = 0 + 5t or t = 0.6 s

1 2 1
at =  5  ( 0.6) = 0.9 m and displacement of belt,
2
In this time, displacement of suitcase s1 =
2 2
s2 = vt = 3 0.6 = 1.8 m

Displacement of suitcase with respect to belt s1 − s2 = 0.9 m

73. Applying the law of conservation of linear momentum:

mu 0.1150
mu = ( M + m)V or V = = = 5 m/s
( M + m) ( 0.1 + 2.9)
If V1 is the speed of the combined mass at the instant

when the string makes an angle 60 with the vertical,

then T = ( M + m ) g cos 60 +
( M + m)V12
l

1  3V 2 
= 3 10  +  1  = 15 + 6V12 ………….(i)
2  0.5 

Applying the law of conservation of mechanical energy, we have ( KE )lowest po int = ( KE + PE ) =60

1 1 1 1
or ( m + M )V 2 = ( m + M )V12 + ( m + M ) gh or ( m + M )V 2 = ( m + M )V12 + ( m + M ) gl (1 − cos ) or
2 2 2 2
1 3  1
 3  25 = V12 + 3 10  0.5 1 −  …….….(ii)
2 2  2

Solving for V12 , we get: V12 = 20

Putting this value in Eq. (i), we get: T = 135 N

74. From law of conservation of momentum, after collision both A and B reverses their directions
with same speed.
Speed of A before collision and after collision is same but velocity is not same because velocity is a
vector.

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 Speed of B before collision and after collision is same but velocity is not same because velocity is
a vector.
75. The total current passing through any surface of which is the sum of the conduction current and
the displacement current.
d E
i = ic + id = ic +  0
dt
d E
 B  dl =  i =  i
0 0 c + 0 0
dt
76. According to relation:
Coefficient of apparent expansion = coefficient of real expansion – coefficient of volume expansion
C =  L − 3A ….(i)

S =  L − 3A0 ….(ii)

where, A0 =linear expansion of coefficient of silver.

Subtracting equation (i) from equation (ii)

S − C = −3A0 + 3A

 3A + C − S 
 A0 =  
 3 
77. Given eA = 0.01, eB = 0.81 and TA = 5802K

From Wien’s displacement law

mT = constant  ATA = BTB

Power radiated P = e T 4 A as P1 = P2 and A1 = A2

We have eATA4 = eBTBA

14
e 
14
 0.01 
 TB =  A  TA =    5802
 eB   0.81 
= 1934K
as TB  TA , B  A

 B − A = 1 m (given)

B TA 5802
= = =3 …(i)
A TB 1934
 B = 3A …(ii)

From Eqns. (i) and (ii), B = 1.5 10−6 m

 3
78. 1 +e = or 3 1 + 3e =
4 4
3
Again, 2 + e =
4
 3 1 + 3e = 2 + e or 3 1 − 2 = 0 or 2e = 2 − 3 1

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 1 1
or e= ( 2 −3 1 ) = (32 − 310) = 1 cm
2 2

79. The motorist receives two sound waves: direct one and that
v + vm
reflected from the wall: f ' = f
v + vb

For reflected sound waves:

Frequency of sound waves reflected from the wall
v
f '' = f
v − vb

Frequency of the reflected waves as received by the moving motorist:

v v + vm
f ''' =  f '' = f
v − vb v − vb

v + vm v + vm 2vb ( v + vm )
 Beat frequency = f ''' = f ' = f− f = f
v − vb v + vb v2 − vb2

1 q q  1 3q − q 1 q
80. V = − or V= or V =
4 0  r 3r  4 0 3r 4 0 9r 2

1 q
Again, E =
4 0 9r 2

E 1 3 1 V
=  = or E =
V 9r 2 6r 6r
81. In circuit of voltmeter
V = E − ir1

O = E − ir1

E = ir1

In circuit of resistor
2E − iR − ir1 − ir2 = 0

2ir1 − iR − ir1 − ir2 = 0

 R = r1 − r2

dN dN mN A
82. The general equation representing the rate of decay is  N ; i.e., = N ; N = ,
dt dt M
M = 226 gm

dN
But = 3.7 1010
dt
or m = 1 gm

83. 88 to 108 MHz

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  N
84. Magnetic induction at the center of solenoid is B = 0 I
l0

Then, flux linked with whole solenoid is

0 N 2 r 2 I
 = NBA = a ….(i)
l0

Also,  = LI ….(ii)

 N r 2 2
 L= 0 a
l0

N 2 .4 . r 2
or L = 0
4 l0

N 2 .4 2 . r 2
= 0
4 l0

( N .2 r )2
= 0 .
4 l0

Now, N.2 pr = l = length of the wire used in solenoid

 .l 2
 L= 0
4 l0

4 l0 L
then, l =
0

l = 0.10 km.
85. The refractive index 1 n2 (from medium 1 to medium 2) for two given median 1 and 2 given by

Speed of light in medium1( c1 )

1 n2 =
Speed of light in medium2 (c2 )

Wavelength of light in medium1( λ1 )

=
Wavelength of light in medium2 ( λ2 )

n2 5
Now, 1 n2 = =
n1 4

c1 = 2.0 10−8 ms-1

1 = 500nm

5 2.0 108 500

 = =
4 c2 2
Hence, 2 = 400nm

c2 = 1.6 108 ms-1

86. The effective focal length is given by

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 1 2 1
= +
F f1 f m

1 1 1  1 2 1
But = (1.5 − 1)  −  = or =
f1   30  60 f1 30

Again, R = 30 cm

R
fm = = 15 cm
2
1 1 1 1 1+ 2 3 1
Now, = + or = = = or F = 10 cm
F 30 15 F 30 30 10
To have a real image of the size of the object, the object must be placed at the center of curvature of
the equivalent mirror.
So the required distance is 2 10cm,i.e., 20cm

1 2
87. Energy = mv = 5000eV
2

= 500 1.6 10−19 J

(
mv = 2  5000  1.6 10−19 m ) = 4 10−8  m

Number of electrons striking per second

q It 50 10−6 1
=n= = = = 31.25 1013
e e 1.6 10 −19

Force=change of momentum per second

= n ( mv ) 31.25 1013  4 10−8 m

= 125 105 9.110−31 = 1.1924 10−8 N

88. (a) rn  n2

(b) Total energy of electron = T.E.

−13.6 Z 2
T .E. =
n2
(c) Angular momentum of electron = nh 2

( )
(d) Potential energy of electron = −27.2 n2 eV for hydrogen atom

27.2
 P.E. =
n2
Kinetic energy of electron = 13.6 n2 . It is always positive

 P.E. = 2  K.E.

89. Net force − q1 along the x-axis ( F ) = F13 sin  + F12

q1q3 q1q2
= sin  +
4 0 a 2
4 0b2

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 q1q3  q3 sin  q2  q sin  q2
=  +  F 3 +
4 0  a 2
b 
2
a2 b2
V
90. R = tan  = = R0 (1 + T )
I
[where  is the angle made by V − I graph with I axis]
Hence R = tan  = R0 (1 + aT1 )

R2 = tan (90 −  ) = cot  = R0 (1 + aT2 )

Hence cot  − tan  = R0 a (T2 − T1 )

cos sin 
or − = R0 a (T2 − T1 )
sin  cos

cos2  − sin 2 
or = R0 a (T2 − T1 )
sin  cos
cos 2
or = R a (T − T )
( 2 ) / 2 0 2 1
sin

so (T2 − T1 )  cot 2

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