ADMINSTRATION

VOLUME 2

1. In which form should oral evidence given before the board of enquiry be? : Under oath.
2. What forms shall be used for board of inquiry? : Form 10.
3. When obtaining opinions from members of the board, with who shall the president of the board begin
with? : The junior member.
4. What procedure should be adopted where there is loss of state money or force money? : Relevant
treasury instruction.
5. Who estimates the value of stolen property? : Kewprov.
6. What shall the SSO (Q) do after receipt of a signal that there is loss of state property? : Shall advise
the appropriate authority.
7. Who convenes the board of enquiry? : The propol.
8. For how long shall the propol enter the matter of the loss of state property to be held in obeyance? :
1 month.
9. How shall propol distribute forms 321 posted to him? : Original copy to SSO (Q) and will retain the
other, two to dispol and Kewprov.
10. What shall the propol do if the estimated value is less than $200.00? : May dispense with the B.O.I.
11. Who authorises the writing off of the damaged property? : SSO (Q).
12. Where is the loss register report? : At PGHQ.
13. How many times are stores and department checked? : At least once each financial year (APC).
14. Who check specialized CIO signal equipment? : OIC of the appropriate section.
15. What shall OIC required to complete for inspection from the beginning of the month to date of
inspection? : Supply account, arms and ammunition returns and petrol, oil and lubrication returns.
16. What shall Kewprov do when he finds a deficiency in excess of $200.00? : Report to PGHQ.
17. How does propol distribute reports of APC? : One copy to SSO (Q), one to dispol, one to OIC via
dispol.
18. After how many days shall OIC report progress on the issuing into deficiency to dispol? : 10 days.
19. Who make a follow up of deficiencies after APC? : Dispol.
20. What shall the OIC do after the discovery of deficiencies after APC? : Sent a signal to dispol,
Kewprov, propol.
21. What shall the propol do if the deficiency is not located within 30 days after the date when enquiries
were initiated and value does not exceed $200.00? : Shall convene a board of enquiry.
22. What form is needed for the routine repairs? : Inter departmental requisition.
23. Who authorises the issue of full rations? : SSO (Q).
24. On which order shall distinctive badges not be worn? : Grey shirt and riot trousers (fatigue/ sunhat).
25. What badge shall be worn by ZRP construction? : Hummer and pincer.
26. Who shall wear marksman badge? : C/Inspector and below who have qualified during the previous
12 months.
27. On which side shall marksman badge be worn? : Left side of the sleeve whipcord uniform.
28. How and where shall members entitled to wear St. Johns badge wear kit? : Left sleeve of terighene
suit only.

1
29. Which awards shall take precedence over others? : Zim awards shall take precedence over foreign
awards.
30. In which background shall commissioner special commendation be? : Silver.
31. In which background shall commissioner commendation be? : Bronze.
32. What is the length of commissioner commendation? : 12 months.
33. Who may authorise wearing of foreign orders and whose consent? ; President.
34. When do you need to carry a firearm on duty? : During camp patrol duties, stock theft duties, anti
poaching duties, roadblocks and musketry training and range firing.
35. Who issues and authorises possession of firearm for a period of 3 months? : SSO (Q).
36. How many times should OIC check firearms? : At least once a month (monthly).
37. Who approves the issue of fuel to army vehicles? : Staff officer transport.
38. Who can check fuel consumption randomly? : OIC or Dispol.
39. Which items are required on station G and T? : Bicycles, handcuffs, refrigerators, deep freezers.
40. Where can you get spare parts for bicycles? : Gvt central stores.
41. Who examines a police vehicle after an accident? : VID.
42. Who authorises repair of gvt vehicle by pvt garage? : Transport officer.
43. Can you issue 10 people warrants when they are travelling on the same class? : Yes.
44. Can you issue one warrant to a member travelling with a prisoner? : No separate warrants should be
issued for each.
45. When no longer proceeding with journey by rail, within what period shall the reserved seat be
cancelled? : At least 24 hrs before the intended journey time. A report to be made to Finpol via
dispol.
46. When shall OIC check rail warrants? : Once a week.
47. How shall the goods be stored in a store room? : Must not touch ceiling but must be 1m from it.
48. Which rank shall not be issued with route instructions? : Inspector and above.
49. How long shall the route instruction be retained? : 12 months from the date of issue.
50. When shall members not issued with route instructions? : When member is carrying out duties which
need him to enter another police station without notice.
51. How do you request potage stamps? : Tradesman requestion and should not exceed $2.00.
52. How do you send mail which goes outside the country? : Via dispol.
53. Where do you impress an official date stamp on an envelop? : Bottom left hand corner of an
envelop.
54. How should carbon stencil, shorthand notes relating to classified documents be treated? : Treat with
some degree of security and if no longer required, destroy by fire.
55. Which document shall not be entered into station register book? : Restricted documents.
56. When a classified document has been sent by hand other than by “restricted documents”, the receipt
must be returned to the station of origin within how many days? : 14 days.
57. Who authorises the distribution of classified documents other than restricted? : Supt and above.
58. What are filing classes of classified documents? : Confidential – X, secret – Y, and top secret – Z.
59. What shall be done when consigned did not arrive in time? : Enquire from the local state forwarding
agent if there is one or local railway station master.

2
60. What shall the consigner do if still there are no goods? : Sent signal to consigner requiring proof of
delivery.
61. Where are the documents sent when one’s goods are missing? : SSO (Q) for onward transmission to
the accountant of the min of transport.
62. Within what period shall the consigner report damaged goods which have been received to the
appropriate authority? : 24 hrs.
63. How do you make note of the damaged goods received by rail or road haulage? : Consignment or
advice note.
64. On what circumstances may you sent the requestion direct to the supplier without going through
Kewprov? : a) Tradesman requestion when requesting rations and consumable stores and services by
local contractors. B) Inter departmental requestion when requesting maintenance by the ministry of
works, c) ordinance when requesting types and adding machines only.
65. What is the maximum period for which stores may be requisitioned? : Not exceeding 6 months.
66. How many times may you request consumable stores? : Twice a yr.
67. DPS mean: Dept of printing and stationery.
68. How long shall tradesman req be valid? : Three months from date of issue.
69. Where do you sent pink copy of form 227? : Station file.
70. Where do you sent yellow copy of form 227? : The requesting officer via the Kewprov who ensures
that the relevant station is issued.
71. Where do you sent the blue copy? : To requesting station and will be checked against the receiving
stores and signed and returned immediately to the ordinance stores concerned.
72. What is the procedure where 227 is cancelled? : You file the copy in the station file.
73. What is the station G and T used for? : Purchasing of consumable stores i.e. those that are not
obtained either at police ordinance or gvt central stores.

UNCODED RULES

1. Whose duty is it to withdraw officers’ gvt ID cards on termination to gvt service? : Propol.
2. What is the solvent for removing ball point ink from Terylene suit? : Spirit of camphor.
3. Who is responsible for repair of typewriters and non electrical adding machines held by the force? :
The dept of printing and stationery.
4. Where should authority for repair of electric calculators and photographing machines be sought after
obtaining an estimate of cost? : SSO (Q) via the prov. quartermaster.
5. The onus of locating station kit and equipment rests upon whom? : OIC/ MIC.
6. How often shall the OIC/ MIC check office equipment/assets against the copy inventory at the back
of each office door? : At least once every month.
7. What is regarded as fuel drawing authority? : Log book.
8. What happens if the petrol attendant is satisfied with the log book? : He will rubber stamp the log
book opposite the appropriate date.
9. When shall force members who are pregnant stop wearing uniforms? : 3 months.
10. When it is considered necessary for a new police station to be provided, whose responsibility is it to
prepare and submit to PGHQ a detailed report setting out the need? : OC province.

3
11. The site for a new station should permit the development of 3 main zones within the station area.
What are these 3 zones? : Administration, recreation and residential/accommodation.
12. What is the life span for all requisitions issued by force? : 3 months from the date of issue.
13. Who is accountable for loaned property according to A/S circular 21/81 dated 11/13/81? : The
person who loans the equipment.
14. Under the police act, who shall decide whether the offence may competently be tried under the act
or by a magistrate court? : AG in consultation with staff officer (legal services).
15. Members of the rank of sgt must not be tried by Supt who has less than how many years service
with the rank? : 2 yrs.
16. Who has power to stop proceedings in the trial at any stage? : AG.
17. What class is prepared Indian hemp? : Part 2 drug.
18. On completion of trial, fingerprints focus will be certified with the result and returned to CCB without
awaiting the outcome of any appeal or receive if there is any subsequent alteration on the
fringement. How will CCB be notified? : By radio.
19. Whose ultimate responsibility is it for the recording of fingerprints? : OIC station/section.
20. When a station criminal bureau docket (CBD) is required in respect of such local criminal, the OIC
station will ask who to provide what in respect of such criminal? : Criminal history sheet.
21. What must be quoted by stations when requesting criminal history sheet? : The relevant supplement
or CBD reference.
22. Local authority under the traditional beer act 1984 issue employers’ permits which permit the holder
to: brew and sell traditional beer and sell traditional beer to employees, their families and bona fide
guests and visitors for consumption by them.
23. What are the operating times of the following outlets, bar clubs and beer halls? : Club and beer hall
> 1030am – 2300hrs; night club > 2000hrs – 0300hrs; bottle liquor > 0800 – 2000hrs; restaurant
(ordinary) > 1100hrs – 1500hrs (close 2 hrs) 1800 – 2300hrs; restaurant (special) > any day from
2300hrs – 1500hrs and 1600hrs -2330hrs; hotel liquor licence > 1030hrs – 2300hrs (or 1030 – 2230
on Sundays).
24. No exhibits are disposed of except/unless? : The case has been finalized or the disposal of exhibits
has been authorised by any officer of the rank of Supt or above.
25. A bottle containing blood sample should be correctly labeled to indicate clearly what? : Full names of
the accused.
26. Who authorises persons of or above the rank of inspector to operate a breath analyzing
instrument? : Commissioner of police.
27. An authorised person operating the breath analyzing instrument shall give to the person whose
breath has been analysed by a statement in writing specifying what? : The concentration of alcohol
indicated as being present in the blood of the accused by the breath analyzing instrument and the
date and time of such breath analysis.
28. When shall the breath analyzing instrument calibration be checked? : Every 3 months.
29. How much notice shall be given to the accused for the intended production of the certification at the
trial? : 3 days.
30. A police officer shall arrest without a warrant of arrest who? : Every person who commits an offence
in his presence, every person whom he has reasonable grounds to suspect of having contravened

4
 any of the offences mentioned in the 1st schedule and every person whom he finds attempting to
commit an offence or clearly manifesting an intention to do so.
31. Investigations are supposed to be cleared according to the following procedures: accused in
custody, accused remanded on bail and lastly accused to be served with summons.
32. Where shall process be served to members of parliament as a general rule? : At the member’s place
of residence and not at parliament.
33. Any policeman may remove any member of parliament from the house on whose orders? : The
speaker.
34. When is the radio massage each yr giving closing number of road traffic accident book register? :
Not later than 3rd of January.
35. What is the colour of the diplomatic corporation identification cards? : Blue.
36. What is the colour of ID cards of supporting staff of diplomatic corporation? : Yellow.
37. Consular corporations? : Green.
38. Supporting staff of consular corporations? : Pink.
39. What is the size of an airstrip? : 800m.
40. Who shall approve the appointment to ZRP neighbourhood watch scheme? : Commissioner of police.
41. Members of NWC may only use the police powers conferred upon them on being placed on duty by
whom? : OIC station.
42. Members of the NWC shall be attested to which branch of the police constabulary? : C branch.
43. Under the state service disability benefit act, claims for compensation will be considered unless a
written notice of death is lodged with the social welfare pension officer within what period? : 12
months after the date of the death.
44. Which members shall be paid plain clothes allowances? : Members attached to CID, CPU and PISI
duties.
45. Plain clothes allowance forms will be kept for how long? : 36 months.
46. What is the maximum number of days which can be paid for any month (plain clothes allowances)? :
30 days.
47. What is the minimum number of days per person which may be encashed in any financial yr? : 30
days.
48. What is the rate of encashment? : At the salary received on the day the leave commences.
49. Application may be made to spread tax on the cash in line for how long? : 3 yrs.
50. Encashment of leave should reach SSB within what period before the commencement of leave? : At
least 8 weeks.
51. Officer commanding province may authorise acting allowances for not more than what period? : 184
days.
52. How often shall the remittance register be examined by the head office in terms of the treasury
instruction 0409? : Once a week.
53. Benevolent fund loans are repayable over what period? : 21 months.
54. Who should be present when a member is advised of his shortcomings? : Not more than at least
one or two members of a more senior rank.
55. Who should be present when member is praised? : One or two members of any rank.

5
56. When is the removal contractor responsible for the storage and carriage of furniture be responsible
for damages? : Between the time of loading and unloading at the destination.
57. How much is the transit insurance cover for damages to furniture and effects during removal on
transfer? : $ 10 000.
58. Any claims for loss or damage must be made in writing to the contractor or sub contractor within
what period of discovering such a loss or damage? : 72 hrs.
59. The contractor shall not be liable for damages incurred by what? : By delay through mechanical
breakdown, by accident and by circumstances beyond his control.
60. How much period shall be authorised for the storage of member’s furniture on effects of transfer not
at his own request by the SSO? : Not exceeding 2 months.
61. Where the storage has been authorised, all storage charges must be paid in by whom? : By member
who then submit claim for reimbursement on forms Z853 T accompanied by the relevant receipts.
62. Who recommends the retirement of member at own request? : Propol.
63. Who shall sign the certificate of service? : Propol [if one did not reach reasonable service otherwise
it is signed by the commissioner]
64. Who shall be issued with a specially printed certificate of service signed by the commissioner? : A
member who retires on pension after 20 yrs of service or more.
65. The contractor limits his liability for the total loss of any one container packed by the owner to how
much unless a detailed inventory is provided prior to the removal? : $100, 00.
66. What is the actual rate of sergeant [former PO] and above for the first 5 yrs for vacation leave? :
1/9 and 1/8 thereafter.
67. Any member who wishes to marry in uniform must obtain prior permission from whom? : Propol.
68. If the marriage is to take place outside Zim, prior permission is obtained from whom? :
Commissioner.
69. What shall be the dress order when permission is granted? : The same as for ceremonial parades.
70. A member who wishes to have a police guard of honour at his wedding must obtain prior permission
of whom? : Propol.
71. What shall not be permitted at his marriage? : A mounted or motorcycle escorts outriders etc.
72. The gvt will only pay for medical treatment in respect of dependants of members of the rank of sgt
and below attended by private medical practitioner when this is given or authorised by whom? : Gvt
medical officer.
73. Dental treatment of dependants of members shall not exceed how much without prior authority? :
$100.
74. Who may authorise for payments from gvt funds for specialist foods stuffs required for those who
are suffering from some allege where a certificate is issued by a specialist? : The secretary for
healthy.
75. Members stationed in any place where no gvt dental surgeon is available, and require urgent dental
treatment may be treated by pvt dentists: Nearest gvt medical officer.
76. What action is taken against police woman who fell pregnant whilst undergoing recruit training? :
Discharged from the force.
77. A depended may not visit a dentist at gvt expense within what period unless the matter is one of
urgency: Within 6 months.

6
78. Who is the chairman of ZPR board of trustees? : The deputy commissioner (Admin).
79. How often do members of the board of trustees meet? : Quarterly or every 3 months.
80. The board of trustee may delegate the day to day administration of its affairs to a sub committee
appointed from members of the local board to be known as what? : Management sub committee.
81. Who is the chairman of the management sub committee? : The chief staff officer (Admin).
82. When shall members of the management sub committee meet? : As often as may be required.
83. How many signatories may be required on behalf of the board of trustees on any document whether
in the form of contract or receipt of monies or other property received? : At least 2 members.
84. Audits of provincial funds are carried out by whom on annual basis? : Force funds auditors.
85. A person who is not a member of the force shall be a member of any police recreation club on
whose approval? : Propol.
86. Serving a civil process by members of the force shall be in cases of special urgency and only with
the approval of whom? : Minister of home affairs.
87. Each station must retain 12 copies of map sheet of what state that cover the station area for the
immediate use of security force patrols? : 1: 50 000.

TRADESMAN REQUISTIONS
They are supplied in books of 50 on security forms reg from gvt printing and stationery and a
register of all issues to be maintained.
1. How are tradesman requisitions forms completed and distributed? : 3 forms; original and first copy
are given to the supplier of goods/ services, 2 nd copy remains in book.
2. What amount can PSO use to purchase goods locally? : Maximum of $5 00, 00, anything above
needs SSO (Q) authority.
3. List persons who are not entitled to use bus warrants: police travelling on leave, sports including
police uncounted sports, excess luggage, discharged member and other gvt employees.
4. Name two instances whereby the period of vocational leave shall not be included, counted or
accrued: Study leave and maternity leave.
5. By what means may the president signify his confirmation of death sentence? : By telegraph.
6. Who is charged with the duty of counseling in terms of the police regs? : Propol.
7. Who shall undertake protective survey of police establishments? : State protective security officers.
8. When shall OIC report to the dispol progress on the inquiries into deficiencies? : 10 days after the
enquiries were initiated.
9. When shall arms and ammunition returns be compiled? : On the 1st working day of each month.
10. When are the ammunitions returns expected to reach the provincial armourers? : Not later than the
7th of each month.
11. When shall the supply account certificate reach the SSO (Finance)? : Not later than the 15th of the
month.
12. Items issued on the issue voucher shall be checked how often to ensure its continued existence? :
At least once in 12 months.
13. Who shall certify that goods which were requisitioned were received in good order? : A member
other than the member who originally signed as the requisitionist.

7
14. What some of money is allocated to individual stations for the purchase of consumable stores that
are not obtainable from either police ordinance stores or gvt central stores? : Station and technical
stores allocation.
15. When shall the requisition reach the ordinance stores prior to the collection date? : At least one
week.
16. Articles shall not be accepted for exchange if returned after how long from receipt? : 14 days.
17. How many explosives may be kept/ stored at any one time? : 2kgs of explosives and 100
detonators.
18. How often shall warrants be checked by the OIC? : At least once per week.
19. Privately owned vehicles involved in an accident with a police vehicle, where there is no VID, who
shall examine the vehicle, listing particulars of the damage? : Investigating officer.
20. To whom shall you report the damaged official telephone? : Local PTC engineer.
21. How often are visits by dispol to the stations? : Not less than once in each ¼ year.
22. How often shall fire drills be practiced? : Once a month.
23. How shall all urgent correspondences be identified? : Marked with a red officed to the top left
corner.
24. What should be used to destroy classified documents? : Fire or shredding machine.
25. When shall miscellaneous receipt books be destroyed? : One year after audit.
26. When shall deposit fine books be destroyed? : 3 yrs after audit.
27. Living out allowances shall not be paid for a period of? : Less than 7 days.
28. Who shall authorise the payment of any allowance in the police force? : The commissioner.
29. What shall be included in the police certificate of service? : Length of service of member and rank
at date of retirement, resignation or discharge of member.
30. When shall special duty allowances cease to be paid to a male inspector? : From the time he attains
the final step in the appropriate salary scale.
31. How many times shall uniform allowances be paid to a member? : Not more than once to a
member every month.
32. Who shall appoint the medical board at the request of the commissioner? : Secretary for health.
33. Who shall authorise medical treatment of a member outside Zimbabwe at gvt expense? : Secretary
of health.
34. Who shall in special cases authorise a member stationed within Zim to obtain special advice or
treatment outside Zim at gvt expenses? : The minister.
35. How many journeys shall be paid for dental treatment in any one period of 12 months? : 2 return
journeys.
36. What is the maximum period for a station visit? : 2 days.
37. To who shall the general central and management of the day to day business of the police
association vested? : force executive committee.
38. Within what period shall notice of injury or death be lodged with the pensions officer in terms of
state service (disability benefit)? : 12 months.
39. A person appointed to the disability benefit board shall hold office for how long under the state
disability benefit act? : 2 yrs.
40. When shall a person appeal against a decision of the disability board? : Within 6 months.

8
41. A distress signal will consist of a white panel at least 2m x 1m painted in what colour on both
sides? : White.
42. All points of reference in security schemes will be supported by map reference of what grid? : Using
the Mercator grid.
43. What is key point? : An installation of national importance to Zim that its destruction or damage
would adversely affect the due functioning of the Zim gvt.
44. What is a vital point? : An installation of local importance that its destruction or damage would
affect the essential services to industry, health, economy and the life of the local community in
general e.g. hospital, sewage etc.
45. What is a vulnerable point? : Is part of key point which has vital contribution to the functioning of
the installation e.g. water works are key points and the pumps are vulnerable points.
46. Who is responsible for guarding all points? : Protective security officer.
47. What is the procedure when a two way radio communication is not established to attract the
aircraft’s attention? : Smoke fire or use mirror as heliograph.
48. When the aircraft flies low over the patrol in the opposite direction of the patrol at the same time
wigging its wings? : Hold on to your position until further instructions.
49. What about if the aircraft dives towards the ground? : Quarry/ enemy position.
50. When one man lies on the ground in a straight position at the rear of the vehicle and the head
towards the back of the vehicle: Radio completely unserviceable.
51. If a man is as above but in a spread eagle position: Transmission not serviceable.
52. If a man lies in front of a vehicle with head towards front of the vehicle? : Vehicle unserviceable.
53. How can a pilot indicate that he has finished dropping? : By deliberately flying across the dropping
zone at right angles to his dropping centre.
54. When shall the JOC be established? : Whenever 2 or more services are jointly engaged in any
COIN operation.
55. How often shall members of the JOC meet? : At least once daily.
56. What is a CRYPTO GUARD? : An agency responsible for deciphoning messages on behalf of any
addressee who does not have such facility.
57. Which fund is administered from PGHQ which provide members who perform duties in an
operational area with amenities? : Operation Amenities fund.

FINANCIAL HANDBOOK
1. Why is an imprest account established? : To ensure that members are paid promptly after their
return from patrol.
2. When are OICs to claim imprest from their financial clerks? : When their imprest accounts fall to
approximately 50% of their authorised float.
3. The finance clerk should be consulted to increase temporarily to station from his contingency
accounts, who should be advised? : Propol and no reference need to be made to PGHQ.
4. Within what period should imprest refund cheques reach station from DHQ? : 10 days.
5. How many times are stations expected to turn over their float? : Twice a month.
6. What shall happen if the delay of 10 days in refunds is found? : Finance clerk should be told to
stop payment on the cheque at once.

9
7. The contingency account must be checked by the officer commanding responsible and the 1 st
copy submitted to PGHQ. When is it submitted? : By the 10th of the month.
8. What are temporary deposits in terms of the contingency account? : Moneys which do not form
part of the authorised contingency float e.g. salaries of members banked pending the members’
return from patrol or leave.
9. Name security items which are themselves receipts? : Miscellaneous receipt book, tradesman’s
requisition book and Z69J deposit book.
10. Who issues security items? : Comptroller and auditor general.
11. What action should be taken when it is found that receipts are missing from miscellaneous
receipts book? : Full fact must be forwarded to PGHQ immediately and an investigation carried
out forthwith.
12. Every big station must maintain a receipt book register (RBR). What about smaller stations? :
They use general record book (GRB) for this purpose.
13. If any receipt book is transferred to another station from whose authority must be sought prior to
the movement of the book? : PGHQ.
14. Which books are considered as receipt books? : Miscellaneous receipt book, Z69J (deposit fine
book), force funds receipt book, cheque book, bus and rail warrants and tradesman requisition
book.
15. Where shall the remittance dispatch advice be maintained? : At every police station.
16. When shall the RDA be used? : Whenever cash, cheque, postal orders or money orders (Zim or
foreign) are dispatched.
17. How could contents dispatched be verified? : A witness should be present at the time the
envelope is sealed.
18. Within what period if the RDA has no clearance receipts posted shall the matter be investigated? :
Within 21 days.
19. What is the maximum number of hours for duty performed by members of “A” branch police
constable during one month? : 16 hours.
20. “B” branch members may be employed (too) for a period not exceeding 10 days in one calendar
month only on whose authority? : Propol.
21. What about in excess of 10 days, whose authority is required? : PGHQ.
22. When shall the cost of call (private) be ascertained at the local exchange? : Immediately after the
call has taken place.
23. How much snacks shall be consumed? : Shall not exceed 2% of the gross sales or $2, 00 a week.
24. What is the smallest period in which pensionable service is counted? : 1 month (page 6 police
regs).
25. Where a pensioner cedes his pension, the pension may entirely be discounted or at least
suspended for the time being. Who has the power to do this? : The president.
26. A member is discharged from the force on medical grounds after 5 yrs service. The member later
dies. What proportion of his pension is payable to his widow? : 50% (page v 34(a))
27. Who shall decide what pension or gratituity should be paid to a member who is dismissed from
the force? : The president.

10
28. As the president shall make some urgent regulations, which of the regs shall the president not
provide? : Authorising withdrawal of money from the consolidated revenue fund; condoning
unauthorized expenditure from the consolidated revenue fund and amending, adding or repealing
any of the provisions of the constitution.

POLICE ASSOCIATION REGS.

1. Who may suspend a member of the force executive committee on approval of Compol? : Force
executive committee may suspend him for 30 days pending inquiry.
2. The general central and management of the day to day business of the association shall be
vested on whom? : Force executive committee.
3. What shall be the quorum of the force executive committee? : 5 members.

MEDICAL AND MENTAL

4. Who may authorise special dental treatment to a dependant of a member? : Chief Gvt dental
surgeon.
5. Whose duty is it to withdraw police identity cards on retirement of members? : Propol.
6. For how many journeys shall each treatment be authorised? : Not more than two return journeys
to dental treatment in any one period of 12 months.
7. Who authorises the cost of approval retraction and other specialist ocular examination and
attention in respect of a member and his dependants in case of a member is carried out by
optician or the aplithalomogist? : On recommendation of GMO.
8. What about in case of dependant? : GMO or pvt practitioners.
9. On dependant travelling to receive ocular exams on attention at places specified by the secretary,
who shall meet the travelling expenses? : Gvt shall not be responsible.
10. Who bears the cost of spectacles? : Not gvt responsibility but may in special circumstances on
authority of secretary authorise a grant not exceeding $15, 00 towards the cost.
11. When shall police identity cards be checked? : Inspected by OIC/ MIC on pay parades and other
suitable occasions, on arrival at a station on transfer, on return from vacational leave, and on
inspection by officer during inspection visits to stations.
12. What shall be the procedure when fuel is issued in containers? : a) Log book for the vehicle to be
produced for stamping, b) interdepartmental requisition to be signed by driver’s head of dept, c)
reason why issuing in containers to be stated on requisition and d), interdepartmental requisition
number to be quoted on the log sheet.
13. On the above subject what shall be the responsibility of the OIC? : Audit all fuel issue form S20
and certify correct, prepare monthly reconciliation on form S20 which must be signed and
certified correct, and a detailed explanation of causer of all deficiencies and surplus must
accompany the S21 form which is submitted to the director of CMED monthly.
14. When shall police Q/rep audit fuel returns? : At least once every month.
15. What shall be the responsibility of the driver? ; To provide log book or interdepartmental
requisition and to complete form S20.

11
 PETROL PUMPS
16. What does the tape meter in a pump indicate? : Amount of fuel issued and it is the flow meter.
17. What do the bottom little figures which increase with any issue indicate? : Pump accounting
meter.
18. What shall be the procedure where the two meters do not work simultaneously? : a) Immediate
signal to Kewpol, Transport and Kewprov, b) Kewprov to approach local CMED with
interdepartmental requisition for the meter to be repaired, c) where CMED can not repair or
cause meter to be repaired, advise Kewpol and Transport without delay.
19. What do we call the police filling system? : Functional filling.
20. According to section 9/89, at what interest rate shall members pay when given financial
assistance to by cycles for official duties? : 9, 2% interest, paid over 12 months.
21. Name 5 activity groupings/ divisions which are identified? : Crime, personnel, Q/master, finance
and general administration.
22. What shall be the size of an ideal police station? : 9 ha in extent, on piece of land not crossed by
roads, allow room for expansion, be sq in shape, have a maximum of 2 vehicle access points,
should not have entrance direct to the road, availability of services such as power and sewage,
and avoid wet or stone ground, to face north, administration block, recreation facilities and
residential accommodation.
23. According to section 60/83 on national housing funds, how are these houses issued? : As
temporary accommodation for gvt employees while they secure alternative accommodation.
24. For how long are these houses occupied? : 12 months, no extension or renewal.
25. Within how long shall a person taking over station be required to physically check all the
property/ items not accounted for? : Within 6 months period of taking over.
26. After how long shall equipment issued on a semi- permanent basis be checked? : At least once a
yr (for its continued existence).
27. Equipment should not be issued on loan for longer than what period without checks or voucher
update or fresh voucher issued? : 3 months.
28. Issue of equipment should be made on issue voucher. What about issue if firearms to p/cst on
semi permanent basis? : Record on police forms PR9.

TRIALS AND BOARDS

29. What dress order is expected of a defaulting member appearing before a board of officers? :
Number 2 with leather or Sam brown belt as the case maybe.
30. Recording of proceedings is effected in one of the 3 ways: Mechanical, shorthand writer or by
trial officer or junior board member in a long hand.
31. Arrangement of accused: a) accused is marched in by the PP or interpreter, b) accused salutes
the court wearing head gear and removes it thereafter for the period of proceedings, c)trial
officer to ensure the member referred to in the charge sheet is the actual accused, d) charge is
then put to the accused through the interpreter where necessary, e) postponement of case not to
exceed 14 days without the consent of the accused.
32. Is the typewriter used during the proceedings? : No.

12
33. When to be recorded by hand, what type of paper is used? : Bench paper is used with 4cm
margin.
34. For how long should a member continue to receive living out allowances if same retains the
accommodation in respect of which the allowance is paid when performing duty necessitating
temporary occupation of another accommodation? : Not in excess of 184 days.
35. The minister in terms of the Prevention of corruption act shall revoke a declaration of a specified
person within a certain period after a final report from the investigator. What is the period? : 14
days.
36. In principle, equipment should not be issued “on loan” for longer than what period? : 3 months
without being physically checked and the voucher updated.

GENERAL QUESTIONS
1. Divide means: The line along a range of hills forming a source where water flows towards the
opposite directions.
2. What is the order of 1st mvt in button shield drill? : Stand at ease, attention, marching at
attention, march at ease.
3. What is the procedure when commanding grenade throwing? : Grenade, prepare to throw,
throw, stop, replace grenade, carry on throwing.
4. How many points is a campus as police always use it during COIN patrols and map reading? :
32.
5. Cetris paribus means: Other things being equal.
6. What does “insitu” means? : At that same place or as it is.
7. How often is the OIC to defrost the station refrigerator? : Weekly.
8. How often do police visit retired horses and dogs kept by those entrusted with them? : Yearly/
annually.
9. When do you destroy miscellaneous receipts? : 1 yr after audit.
10. When can police call a doctor to examine a prisoner? : When s/he has head injuries, when police
are in doubts about accused’s condition, and when prisoner appears intoxicated but claiming
that s/he is not.
11. What is the maximum of property of a married member on transfer allowed? : 37 cubic metres.
12. What else besides the handover certificate is signed by the parties on handover take over? :
Station inventory.
13. A member who wants to represent another member on disciplinary trial will do so unless? : If
denied by the officer commanding district, s/he can not be released from duty.
14. How many members of the provident fund may request for a meeting besides a general
meeting? : 10 members.
15. How many committee members may call for a meeting other than those meetings scheduled? : 2
members.
16. What code alarm do civil administrators use in Zimbabwe? : Single coded word.
17. Light house radio title is used to refer to whom? : Local gvt or internal affair.
18. Who may qualify to wear crossed riffles badge in the terelyne uniform? ; Inspector and below.
19. Fuel in tanks or pumps should not be allowed to drop to below what level? : 1/3.

13
20. In escort of a prisoner, which classes are boarded in rail transport? : Not better than 2nd and not
lower than 3rd (2nd and 3rd classes).
21. A) PCG means: Police cross gallery.
b) PDC means: Police decoration for gallery.
c) PCD means: Police cross for distinguished meritorious.
d) PEE means: Police medal for emortorial.
22. Who does state mail returns and how often? : OIC and every 3 years.
23. For how long are cottages over the school holiday? : 7 days.
24. When is the public prosecutor supposed to give the legal representative a copy of the warned
and cautioned statement? : At least 2 days before court date.
25. Where are the results of a short board sent to? : Propol.
26. When do you destroy any book in the force? : 3 yrs from the date of the last entry.
27. What type of licence is one to have if he wants to supply traditional beer for free? : General
dealer.
28. What if he intends to establish a traditional beer selling mole? : Traditional beer permit.
29. Which of the following are high frequency radios? : PRM 4454, TR 15B and PRM 4051.
30. Sometimes just before annual inspection and after doing crime statistical form, where do you
send one copy other than those sent through usual channels? : Local CID station for onward
transmission to PCIO.
31. Compol has decentralized to whom the authority of marriage of sgts and csts? : Propol.
32. To who are claims by pvt persons directed in instances of road accidents btwn such pvt persons’
vehicles and police vehicles? : Secretary for ministry of Home affairs.
33. How often is OIC/MIC to check the remittance received register? : At least once a week.
34. Liquor licence allows sale of bread, ice cream wise waters except? : Sadza.
35. The police force is made up of: Regular police, police constabulary, special constabulary
auxiliary, and support unit.
36. Under the liquor act, who does not need to produce and submit plans to authorise if required,
his liquor licence. Which is this licence? : Agent liquor licence.
37. Who may administer an oath being taken by a witness in court? : Magistrate, prosecutor, clerk of
court or interpreter.
38. Who may buy traditional beer from the holder of an exporters’ licence? : The holder of exporter’s
licence for traditional beer too.
39. Whose authority is required to prosecute any person charged under the DD act? : AG.
40. Indexing CR page: 7 days/weekly.
41. Indexing company with more than 50 employees: 14 days.
42. Certain particulars of the director of a company must be included in a register. If the company
demands them from the director, he commits an offence if he does not furnish the company
with particulars within what period? : 7 days (so are the secretaries).
43. The court under the exchange control act may adjourn to ascertain certain issues. What is the
period? : 3 months.
44. If the company is wound up and its books send to the high court, when can these books be
destroyed? : Kept for 8 yrs unless the court directs otherwise.

14
45. How often is a station sgt to check all subordinates’ kit? : Not less than once in every 3 months.
46. The state has to supply furniture to the mess. If television, radio etc were not supplied, which
funds are to provide for that instead? : Provincial funds or central amenities.
47. Before cleaning a respirator, what do you remove? : The filter container.
48. Who is the minister under the traditional beer act? : Min of local gvt.
49. Who advertises a vacant house in Depot? : SSO (Q) in a signal addressed to all stns class “H”.
50. No property is given to individuals on loan from ordinance stores. However, state depts. May
apply to whom? : SSO (Q).

REQUISITIONS

51. Maintenance of office equipment: MAW 5

52. Station stores: S01.
53. Security items like deposit fines (Z69J), tradesman, and warrants: PS02.
54. Special printed work and rubber stamps: S011.
55. Gvt publications: SO12.
56. Where is the police museum? : In Morris depot.

FORMULARS FOR ESTIMATING CROWDS

57. A) Crowd standing packed tightly: 610 x 74.
b) Crowd packed standing loosely: 180 x 25.
c) Crowd sitting packed tightly: 350 x 30.
d) Crowd sitting packed loosely: 120 x 12.
e) Crowd lying down: 100 x 10.
58. What do you check if you find a revolver at a scene of crime? : Safety catch and spent cartridges
in the cylinder.
59. Under what circumstances are names of witnesses not released to interested parties? : a)
contrary to public policy, b) privilege from identifying informer, c) witness objects to the
disclosure.
60. What else is required when handing over an exhibit vehicle to the complainant? : Receipt stating
the condition of the vehicle.
61. How far are you to clear bushes at a basecamp? : Within hearing distance.
62. What is a quantum? : Amount of evidence.
63. Any convener wishing to have a meeting should notify the police/regulatory authority how many
days before? : 4 days.
64. Who should be notified in the case of an aircraft accident? : Dept of civil aviation via their flight
information centre; Compol; Propol and dispol.
65. Who should be notified in the case of an industrial accident? : Dept of occupational safety.
66. Whose responsibility is it to report mine accident and to who? : Mine manager to the mining
inspector.
67. What are five types of rural patrols? : Farming area patrols, communal land patrol, saturation
patrols, road patrol and night patrol.

15
 68. What is a beat? A patrol of a given area usually urban either on foot or bicycle with check points
made at intervals.
69.

Codification and reform Act Chapter 09:23

1. The following statutes were outlawed except? : The harmful liquids act.
2. The decision to prosecute a child is in practical reserved for the AG. Who then approves the
granting of the authority to prosecute? : AG
3. A criminal conduct consists of? : An act or omission.
4. X is liable criminally if he or she has substantially contributed to the commission of a crime. To
prove this a state considers? : The real risk possibility.
5. What is the formality in remanding accused person for a crime against the state? : Leave of the
AG is not required for remand purposes.
6. Y incites x to kill her newly born baby citing difficulties in the proper upkeep of the child. X
eventually killed the baby. X was charged with infanticide. What charge would apply to y? :
Murder.
7. X was found masturbating Z, aged 24 years with his consent. What crime did X commit? :
Sodomy.
8. Peter poured 10ml of vodka into a coca cola drink that belonged to Susan. Susan unknowingly
drank the laced drink and fell unconscious. What crime, if any did Peter commit? : Assault.
9. According to the concealment of births and exposure of infants, still born in relation to a child
means? : Child which did not at any time after being expelled from its mother breath or shows any
sign of life.
10. Sandra withdrew $54 000 from john’s bank account using a Zimswitch card. What crime can
Sandra be charged of? : Theft.
11. Anesu entered a garden which had Takudzwa’s cattle with the intention of stealing a bull.
Takudzwa unceremoniously appeared before Anesu had driven the bull. What crime did Anesu
committed? : attempted stock theft.
12. Which of the following is not a premise in relation to crimes involving entering or being on land? :
A cave.
13. X deposited a body of the deceased at his son- in law’s house pending the payment of the bride
wealthy (lobola). The son in law failed to raise the required herd of 20 cattle. What crime did X
commit? ; Attempted extortion.
14. X forged a $10.00 Zimbabwean note. What crime did X commit? : Forgery.
15. X destroyed some wild goose eggs in a forest land through a veld fire. What crime did X commit? :
No offence.
16. X an employee of the state was found in possession of a tear smoke canister aboard an Air
Zimbabwe plane. X was on course of duty. What offence did X commit? : No offence.
17. Medicinal opium is? : Opium which has undergone the process necessary to adapt it for medicinal
use.

16
18. Of the following, who is not licenced to use\posses or deal in dangerous drugs? : An agronomist.
19. X obstructed sgt Tom who was investigating the commission of a crime. What charge is
appropriate for X? : Defeating/ obstructing the course of justice.
20. X attempted to commit treason and was caught at the preparatory stages. What charge would
suffice for X? : Treason.
21. The following are defences except: entrapment.
22. The defence of provocation is a mitigatory factor to some other crimes. Which crime can it save as
a partial defence? :
23. Who requests in writing for the taking of an appropriate sample from an accused person for the
purpose of sexual offences? : A/I or above.
24. Whenever the custodian police officer is prevented by illness or other reasonable cause from
discharching his duties in respect of dangerous drugs act, such functions shall be discharged by? :
The custodian police officer.
25. In terms of unlawful entry into premises, all the following are premises: Boat, shed, outbuilding,
caravan, tent for human habitation.
26. Which of the following does not constitute law enforcement agency? : The defence force.
27. In terms of the public order, public gathering means? : Public demonstration and public meeting.
28. What competent charge can be instituted against X where physical contact on indecent intent is
absent in the crime of indecent assault? : Attempted indecent assault.
29. What offence is committed by X, a male person who knowingly has anal sexual intercourse with Y,
a female person and at the time of the intercourse, X realizes that there was real risk or possibility
that Y may not have consented to it? : Rape.
30. What offence is committed by X being a female person has sexual intercourse with Y, a male
person with indecent and knowing that Y may not have consented to it? : Aggravated indecent
assault.
31. What defence can X, charged for malicious damage of property raise where he burns down his
matrimonial home after a hearted argument with Y, his spouse? : No defence.
32. A parent/ guardian or spouse can give consent on behalf of a person who is incapable in law of
giving consent in the following instances except? : Lack of education.
33. Who shall authorise prosecution in cases of rape, indecent assault or aggravated indecent assault
committed by a male person to his spouse? : Attorney general.
34. In terms of criminal law (codification and reform) act chapter 9:23, fifth schedule (sections 281
and 284 (2), correspondence of common law crimes with codified crimes is now known as:
Unlawful entry into premises.
35. Any medical practitioner or designated person shall, if so required in writing by a particular officer,
take an appropriate sample from the accused person for the purpose of ascertaining whether or
not he or she is infected with HIV and may use such force as is necessary to take the sample from
the accused. Which is his particular rank of office? : A police officer of the rank of constable.
36. How long is the sample or samples taken from an accused person in relation to sexual offences
stored? : Until the conclusion of the trial.
37. Where realization of real risk or possibility is an element of a crime, the test is subjective and
consist of the following two components: awareness and recklessness.

17
38. Who authorises prosecution of cases for crimes against the state under chapter 111 of the criminal
law codification and reform act chapter 9:23? : AG.
39. According to the criminal law codification act, sexual crimes and crimes against morality, “young
person” means? : A boy or girl under the age of 16 yrs.
40. The competent charge against a person who has sexual intercourse with a female person below
the age of 12 yrs shall be? : Rape.
41. In terms of concealment of births and exposure of infants, an infant means? : A person under the
age of 7 years.
42. According to the CLCR act, a minor is a person under the age of? : 18 yrs.
43. Who shall authorise prosecution instituted against a spouse for stealing or unlawfully borrowing or
using property belonging to the other spouse of that forms part of the spouse’s joint estate? : AG.
44. Who authorises prosecution of children less than 14 yrs of age? : AG.
45. Which of the following is not true about essential services? : Any government service.
46. The following are defences to stock theft, theft or unlawful borrowing except? : Where X knows of
the mistake at the time that he takes the property; and where X deals with the property or uses or
keeps it after becoming aware of the mistake.
47. Which of the following is true regarding the jurisdiction of a court in stock and stock theft case? :
Theft and stock theft are now continuous crimes and the accused may be tried in whatever
magisterial district that he last possessed the stolen property.
48. All the following constitute an enclosure, except: A fence in a state of disrepair, a fence or hedge
that has been overrun by animals, area of land whose perimeter is enclosed by sufficient wall and
a fence or hedge that is continuous.
49. No medical drug should be sold to anyone under the age of? : 18 yrs.
50. School permit is valid for how long? : 1 year.
51. What is theft? : Theft consists of an unlawful contact or action with intent to steal a thing capable
of being stolen.
52. What constitute contact or action? : Removal of a thing is not necessary. A person commits theft
merely by assuming control over something. Its removal from premises is not necessary.
53. A mere touching of a thing is not enough unless it amounts to assumption of control. X is guilty of
attempt if he puts his hand into Y’s pockets intending to steal but is theft when X has taken
control of the wallet.
54. What will be case if X innocently buys stolen goods and later discovers that they were stolen and
retain them? What offence can X be charged of? : Theft.
55. What would be the case if the accused’s agent handles a thing without accused handling it or
being present? : Theft.
56. What will be the case if X steals 5 cents? : May not be guilty of theft because the value is so
negligible or circumstances may make the taking so trivial.
57. Where X stands by and does nothing whilst Y was being murdered. Can X be charged of any
offence? : No, there is an act of pure omission but this does not constitute an overt act in violation
of the law UNLESS of course there is some legal duty upon X to act.
58. Promulgation of a new statute: Is by publication in the gvt gazette.
59. A civil wrong is also known as? : A delict or tort in English law.

18
60. X steals a car from Y intending to give it to Y but had not told him when he stole it. What offence
did X commit? : No offence.
61. Give 3 cases where consent is of no effect: Where consent is not legally recognized (e.g. consent
by minors/ insane), where consent is given as a result of mistake (mistake as to accused’s
identity), where consent is induced by force or threats or by fraud.
62. Which aspects of intention are relevant to theft? : Intention to deprive permanently, and any
absence of claim of right.
63. Which aspects are not relevant? : Intention to prejudice and intention to gain.
64. What crime is committed by X when he takes Y’s car intending to return it but leaves it after being
involved in an accident? : Theft.
65. Which case would be committed by X if he steals money and uses it thinking that he will return
it? : Theft (in all cases where accused fails to replaces what he could have stolen).
66. What will X who is OIC be charged of if he sells gvt scrap metals to provide certain facilities for his
man without the quartermaster’s authority? : Theft, regardless of his motive.
67. X, a gvt employee uses $1700, 00 cash from an official’s safe and replaces it by a cheque of the
same amount. What crime did X commit after the cheque was dishonored on presentation? :
Theft.
68. X left his carton at NRZ. When he went to collect it an official refused and X surreptiously went on
to take it. What crime did X commit? : Theft.
69. What will be done to an accused found in possession of property which was stolen in another
province in theft as a continuous crime? : He will be prosecuted where he was found no matter
where he stole the property.
70. What if the property was stolen from another country? : He will be prosecuted after proving that:
a) theft is recognized as an offence in that country, b) that an act which constitutes the offence
(theft) in that country.
71. Under theft what does incopored property mean? : Intangible property e.g. design or idea.
72. Under how many categories can properties incapable of being stolen can be divided? : 2,
absolutely incapable e.g. building and relatively incapable property abandoned by owner or wild
animals.
73. In the doctrine of recent possession, which are 3 essential requirements? : a), that the goods were
stolen, b), that the goods were recently stolen, c), that X has failed to give an innocent
explanation.
74. Which questions are asked by the court to determine whether the property was stolen? : a),
whether the goods similar to these found in X’s possession were stolen from anyone, b), the
degree of similarity in the nature and quality between the missed and the found goods, c),
whether X’s position in life and way of life are consistent with his possession of the goods, e)
whether goods such as these found with X are readily and innocently obtainable by the public or
by X.
75. In kidnapping, consent by minor is not a defence except if? : The minor has no lawful guardian.

19
 ROBBERY
1. What is robbery? : It consists of theft of property by intentionally using violence to induce
submission to the taking of it from another.
2. Which cases are both a crime and a delict? : Assault and rape.
3. What is the basic source of our law? : Roman-Dutch law.
4. A judicial decision given in a case is thereafter decepted by the courts as a binding authority or
rule to be applied in future, in similar cases. What is this called? : Precedent.
5. The right of prosecution for a particular crime has been barred by lapse of time. What is it
called? : Prescription.
6. Which cases never become prescribed? : Murder and theft under certain circumstances.
7. Common law crimes, except murder become prescribed after how long? : 20 yrs.
8. When does prescription begin to run in theft cases? : The time the thief is no longer in
possession/ control of the stolen vehicle/ property.
9. What must be proved to decide whether a criminal law has been abrogated by disuse? : a) that
the law has been enforced for a long time/ period, b), that during this period circumstances
frequently arose which would have called for enforcements had it still been accepted as law.
10. The onus or burden of proof in criminal proceedings rests upon? : The state/ prosecution.
11. What is the other name for legal intention? : Constructive intention.
12. X intends to kill Y but the bullet misses Y and kills Z. what type of intention is this? : Legal
intention.
13. X throws a petrol bomb into a crowd. What kind of intention is this? : General intention.
14. B, intending to kill C misses (for the blow is deflected) and kills D. what offence is convicted of B
on C? : Attempted murder.
15. What offence is B charged on D, on the above example? : Murder.
16. Which crimes have no attempt? : Treason and fraud, since potential prejudice is sufficient.
17. What are the defences under the criminal law amendment act chapter 58 section 3? : a) the girl
at the time of commission was a prostitute, b) the accused was under 16 yrs, c) the accused had
remarkable cause to believe the girl was 16 yrs.
18. What shall be the defence for having canal knowledge with an imbecile or idiot? : The accused
should satisfy the court that he did not know such a woman was imbecile.
19. What are special defences under criminal deformation? : Truth and public benefit, fair comment
and privilege.
20. What is an officer under the censorship and entertainment control amendment act6/83? : Police
officer, probation officer, an officer as defined in section 2 of the postal and telecommunication
services act chapter 250 or section 2 of the customs and excise act chapter 177.
21. Where is authority, in writing, sought to institute prosecution for an offence under the above
act? : AG or his deputy.
22. What consists of the judicial service commission in terms of the constitution of Zim amendment
Act 4/84? : A chief justice, the chairman of the PSC, the AG, not less than 2 or more than 3
other members appointed.
23. Who shall appoint embudsman? : The president.

20
24. What do you call someone who associates himself with theft? : Socius crimins and not accessory
after the fact.
25. Two classes of Socius crimins are: Principal offender and aider of better.
26. What are the species of automatism? : Non sane automatism and sane automatism.
27. Under the criminal law amm. Act 2/92, when shall high court not pass death sentence to an
offender? : If a pregnant woman, or a person below the age of 7 yrs, or any person who, at the
time of offence was below 18 yrs.
28. What is an infant under the public health amm. Act 5/85? : A child under the age of 7 yrs.
29. What is the penalty for an offence on the above act? : $2000. 00 or 2 yrs or both.
30. Who shall appoint the commissioner under the parks and wildlife amm. Act 35/85? : The
minister of environment and tourism.

REVISED EDITION NOTES 1996

1. Define premises in terms of the act? : Include an addition to any land building on structure, any
vehicle, conveyance, ship or boat.
2. The magistrate shall not without whose consent admit a person to bail or alter a person’s
condition of bail in respect of an offence specified in the 3 rd schedule? : AG.
3. Where shall the AG appeal? : To Supreme Court or to a judge.
4. Admission to bail by police shall be done by whom? : A/I or above or any other police officer of
whatever rank in charge of a police station or post or base.
5. Which offence shall police not admit to bail? : 3rd schedule offences.
6. High court indictments shall be signed by whom? : AG or by any legal practitioner in AG’s office.
7. When shall a case be deemed to be pending in the high court? : As soon as indictment in any
case brought in the high court has been duly lodged with the register of that court.
8. How may service of summons be proved? : By testimony on oath of the person effecting the
service or by his affidavit or by due return of service under his hands.
9. In all summary trials in a magistrate court without summons, the charge shall be entered upon
a form called what? : Charge sheet.
10. Any person brought for trial before the high court shall be dismissed after expiry of what
period from the date of his committal? : 6 months.
11. When there is a change of place of trial and the prisoner is removed, he shall not be tried in
less than what period after his arrival at the prison except with his consent? : 10 days.
12. Any person to be presented on a criminal charge in a magistrate court, when shall he or she be
brought for trial? : At the next possible court day.
13. Two or more pleas may be pleaded with any other plea to the same charge? : Plea of guilty.
14. Who applies for a warrant of apprehension or warrant for further detention (WFD)? : AG, local
PP, A/Insp and above or MIC in charge of a station.
15. When shall a warrant of arrest be issued? : On any day including a Sunday.
16. When shall a person so arrested be brought before a judicial officer? : As soon as possible.
17. Who is authorised to execute a warrant? : Any police officer/ peace officer.
18. Detention on telegraphic warrant? : Not more than 14 days.
19. A judge may authorise further detention of? : Not more than 28 days.

21
20. When shall a peace officer arrest without a warrant? : If any person commits an offence in his
presence, or when a person commit a 1st schedule offence, or when he finds a person
attempting to commit any offence or clearly manifesting an intention to do so.
21. People who refuse to furnish police with his particulars shall be detained for a period not
exceeding? : 12 hrs.
22. Who request for the testing of blood in writing? : Supt and above.
23. When shall finger prints on accused be destroyed? : If he is found not guilty, or if his conviction
is set aside by a Supreme Court, or if the AG declines to prosecute or if the charge is withdrawn
against him.
24. Who applies for a warrant of search and to whom? : The OIC, in an affidavit sworn before the
magistrate/ judge.
25. What time shall the warrant be executed? : During the day unless stated in the warrant.
26. Who has powers to examine any books, documents or records for the purpose of investigating
or detecting an offence? : Detective inspector and above.
27. Who may grant persons to bail? : A/I and above or MIC of station of any rank.

SECTION 43/92 (AMM CRIMINAL PROCEDURE AND EVIDENCE ACT

28. Which offences AG’s consent to admit to bail? : Rape, robbery, unlawful entry and theft, car
theft.
29. Which categories of robbery require AG’s consent before a magistrate may accept a bail? :
Robbery involving value exceeding $5 000, 00, armed robbery involving the use of (threats and
or actual) a firearm or knife or other lethal weapon, robbery committed by 2 or more persons
acting together where no weapons are used but the degree of force used is substantial.
30. What is unlawful entry? : Entry into business or commercial premises to steal, whether or not
any property was actually stolen or entry into residential premises where value stolen exceeds
$5 000, 00.
31. Where the value of precious metal currency does not exceeds $6 000, 00, a prosecutor has the
authority of? : the AG to agree to bail at the pp’s decision.
32. Boys under the age of 18 yrs may be given corporal punishment in court of how many strokes?
: Not exceeding 6 strokes.

CRIME STATISTICS (AS C/R 45/92)

33. When are crime registers closed? : Not to be closed before 2359 hrs on December 31 st.
34. When must form 6 reach PGHQ? : Not later than 12th January.
35. When is PGHQ advised of the last TAB {Traffic Accident Book} register number? : As soon as
sending forms 65 to PGHQ will on Jan 2 send radio to Compol stats advising last number in the
TAB register.
36. When should the forms 65 reach PGHQ? : Not later than the 12th January.
37. Give ex-officio commissioners’ of oath for districts? : Senator, MP, legal practitioner, magistrate,
DA, GMO, Insp and above, district social welfare officer, senior immigration officer, registered
land surveyor, supt of prisons and chief vehicle inspector.

22
38. Defamation of character: a) Libel- a written statement against a person, b) slender- a verbal
statement against a person.
39. X whose duty is to watch the water level in a mine and control it by operating electrical pump,
fails to go on duty and the shaft is flooded. X intended to flood the mine so as to fix the mine
management who had failed to raise his pay. Can X escape conviction of MDP? : a) X can
escape conviction of lack of intent, b) X can escape conviction because of no essential element
of MIP is missing.
40. Which of the following case study can X be said to have committed attempted forgery? : Where
X forged a cheque belonging to Y but the cheque is not auctioned because Y has no money in
the bank, or where X is caught when not yet made the false document or where forgery is so
clumsy that it could not have deceived an ordinary man provided it has not actually prejudiced
someone.
41. The title of the act refers to both codification and reform of the criminal law. Culpable homicide
has been extended to cover situations where there was “conscious negligence” Inciting or
assisting suicide is a new crime under the codification and reform act. There is also a provision
which allows the high court to order the taking off of a person off life supporting system and on
application from a person such as spouse or close relative.
42. The high court can do so on the basis of whose evidence? : Medical practitioner other than the
patient’s doctor that: a) the patient is unconscious and there is no reasonable prospect of that
person regaining consciousness and b) although the person’s brain functions may not have
entirely ceased to, that person’s life is being artificially sustained by the life support system and
there is no reasonable prospects that the patient will ever be able to survive without being on
the life support system.
43. The crime of the rape was extended to cover a situation where a man has non-lon sexual and
intercourse with a female? : The new crime of Aggravated indecent adult covers where a male
or female commits an indecent assault including non-consensual penetration with indecent
intent of any part of the body of the victim or penetrator (more serious than indecent assault).
44. Sodomy now covers any act including physical act contact between males that would be
regarded by a reasonable person as an incident act? : Incent now accommodates customary
law nations of incent.
45. Assault :- all assaults except incident assaults now fall under single crime of assault will be a
matter sentence .Administration of a noxiary substance will no longer be a separate offence but
will be simply be treated as a species of assault: Negligent assault: - now crime of “negligently
causing serious bodily harm” in causing such harm.
46. Theft by false pretences:-this crime was abolished and it is now treated as fraud
47. Continuing nature of theft and stock theft: It was drastically changed to provide that theft or
stock theft continues to be committed regardless of weather he or she has lost possession of
the property .A thief may be tried in whichever Magisterial district he or she lost possessed the
property
48. Making of without payment: - new crime covers situations where ‘services “rather than goods
are stolen. Also within the scope of this crime is the consumption of goods for which payment
after consumption is required but not been made.

23
49. Uttering: is now treated as fraud .Home breaking: was changed to unlawful entry into premises.
Malicious damage to property: - now merges together the common law crimes of arson and
malicious injury to property .It is aggravated if: the damage was caused by the use of fire or
explosives or involved injury or the risk of injury to persons.
50. Commending upon pending case now defeating /obstructing the course of justice and not
contempt? : Previously x would have been guilty of contempt of court where he or she
commented upon a case which is pending before a court intending the statement to prejudice
the trial of the case .Perjury: - Giving false testimony.
51. A child below the age of 7 yrs cannot be tried for a criminal offence as he is irrebuttably
deemed to lack criminal capacity. In deciding whether the child was sufficiently mature to have
the required understanding and capacity , the court must take into consideration all relevant
factors including the following: nature of crime with which the child is charged, the child’s
general maturity and family background, the child’s knowledge, education and experience, the
child’s behavior before, during and after the conduct which forms the basis of the charge.
52. Where a child of 7 yrs or above but below the age of 14 yrs engages in conduct in the presence
of an older person whom the child would be expected to obey because that person is so placed
as to be able to control the child: it will be presumed until contrary is proved that the child
acted under the compulsion of the older person.
53. All crimes except strict liability crimes require: proof of some mental ingredient.
54. A strict liability crime is one: where X is liable even though X acted neither intentionally or
negligently.
55. The following are essential services: any service relating to the generation, supply or
distribution of electricity. Any fire brigade or fire service, any health, hospital or ambulance
service, any service relating to the production, supply, delivery or distribution of fuel. Any
service relating to the supply and distribution of water, any communication service, any
transport service. Any other service or occupation whose interruption would endanger the life,
health or safety of the whole or part of the population and which the minister may declare by
notice in a statutory instrument to be an essential service.
56. The following are offensive materials: Any inflammable, dangerous, noxious, or deleterious
substance material or thing capable of killing or injuring persons, including: Low or high
explosive and the ingredients thereof, all types of fuel used in the ignition of explosives,
detonators, timing devices, especially time pencils, wire cutters, concentrated or other harmful
acids, biological or chemical warfare agents. Any other substances, material or thing declared
by the minister, by notice in a statutory instrument, to be an offensive material for the purpose
of this definition.
57. Offensive weapon means: Any weaponry or offensive material or any object made or adopted
to be used for causing injury to the persons or any stone.

58. The following are law enforcement agencies: The police force (including members of the police
constabulary as defined in section 2 of the police act), an intelligent service maintained by the
gvt; or any agency assigned by an enactment to maintain and enforce the law.

24
59. An official is? : A member of any law enforcement agency, an ancillary member of the police
force as defined in section 2 of the police act. A member of the defence forces, a provincial or
district administrator or an assistant provincial or district administrator or any other employee of
the state acting in that capacity.
60. What is a statement? : Any expression of fact or opinion, whether made orally, writing,
electronically or by visual images.
61. Weapons means: Any of the following kinds of offensive material: artillery of all kinds, a firearm
or other apparatus for the discharge of bullets or other kinds of projectiles which are designed
to be lethal whether solid, explosive or gas diffusing, a flame thrower, high or low explosive,
whether or not manufactured as a bomb, grenade or similar missile or device and whether
capable of use with a firearm or not, including a fuse, detonator or timing device thereof,
biological or chemical warfare agents, any other offensive material declared by the minister in
the statutory instrument to be an offensive material for the purpose of this definition.
62. Competent verdicts for treason are: Attempted murder, concealing treason, subverting
constitutional gvt, insurgency, banditry, sabotage or terrorism, possessing weapons for
insurgency, banditry, sabotage or terrorism, any crime of which a person can be convicted if
s/he were charged with any of the crimes above.
63. A person will be deemed to be acting in pursuance of lawful authority only if the person is:
acting in his/her capacity as a police officer; a member of the defence forces or an employee of
the state or a local authority.
64. A person inciting/assisting a mother to kill her own child can be found guilty of: murder even
when the mother herself is only guilty of infanticide.
65. Infanticide can only be committed by the mother of who causes the death of: her own child
within 6 months of giving birth to the child.
66. Mercy killing in murder: e.g. a) an elderly couple decided to commit suicide because they felt
that they were destitute. X the husband killed his wife and tried to kill himself. He survived but
blinded himself in the suicide attempt. He was found guilty of murder but the circumstances
were taken into account in mitigation b) a doctor ended the life of his terminally ill father who
had pleaded for him to do so. He was found guilty of murder but the circumstances were taken
into account for the purposes of sentence.
67. Mistaking the identity of the victim is no defence to: a charge of murder. In addition, this
defence will not avoid against a charge of infanticide or culpable homicide
68. Joining in attack after fatal blow is inflicted: If the intervention of the accused accelerated the
death of the victim, the competent charge would (according to the circumstances of the case
and the state of mind of the accused) be murder, infanticide or culpable homicide, even if the
accused did not strike the initial fatal blow.
69. Abortion is replaced by: unlawful termination of pregnancy
70. Boys and girls under the age of 12 yrs are: presumed to be incapable of neither sexual
intercourse nor consent to sexual intercourse. They are also irrebuttably presumed to be
incapable of giving consent to sexual acts unless the contrary is proved.
71. A female who assists a man to rape another woman is: guilty of rape as an accomplice.

25
72. Having sex with a girl of 12 to 16 yrs of age gives out a charge of: having sexual
intercourse/performing indecent acts with a young person.
73. A young person is: a boy or girl below the age of 16 yrs.
74. It is no defence to a charge of committing indecent assault/having sexual intercourse with a
young person that: the victim consented.
75. Girls below the age of 12 yrs cannot: consent to sex.
76. Sodomy: Is committed by consenting adult males to have anal sexual intercourse. Any act
involving physical contact other than anal sexual intercourse that would be regarded by a
reasonable person to be an indecent act such as masturbation of one male by another.
77. X detains another person with the intention that another person will commit one of these
crimes of rape and others related to sexual offences upon the detained person: X will be
charged as an accomplice or accessory to the commission of the crime concerned, or with
kidnapping or both.
78. If X actually engages in the sexual conduct, having induced the complainant to engage in the
conduct by threatening or drugging that person, X should be charged with: rape or whatever
other specific sexual crime that has been committed with inducing the conduct by threat or by
administering drugs.
79. Kidnapping or unlawful detention: X deprives an adult of freedom of bodily movement intending
to do so or realizing there is a real risk of doing so.
80. Irrelevant factors on the charge of kidnapping or unlawful detention: Whatever the manner in
which X deprived the adult of his/her freedom of bodily movement, whether by use of force or
threats or by the use of fraudulent misrepresentation or otherwise. Whatever the duration of
the deprivation of freedom of movement i.e. the period of deprivation can be short.
81. Under the concealment of birth, a child means: A foetus which has reached a stage of
development which makes it capable of being born alive, irrespective of duration of pregnancy.
82. Stock theft: Now encompasses the theft of livestock or its produce knowing it to have been
stolen and the unlawful possession or acquisition of livestock in the circumstances presently set
out.
83. Premises means: Any movable or immovable building or structure which is used for human
habitation or for storage and includes an outbuilding, a shed, a caravan, a boat or a tent.
84. Enter means: To insert any part of one’s body or an instrument into the premises, to open or to
break open a door, window or gate or otherwise to remove an obstacle to entry into the
premises; to enter the premises without having removed an obstacle, as when entry is effected
through an open door, window or gate.
85. Lawful occupier means: Any person who has lawful authority to control entry into the premises.
86. Unfinalised crimes are: Threats, incitement, conspiracy and attempt.
87. Conspiracy: X enters into an agreement with or more other persons for the commission of a
crime, whether in terms of this code or any other enactment. The drafter of the code originally
proposed that if it could be proved that X intended to commit a crime he would be guilty of
attempt even if he had taken a preparatory step towards the implementation of his criminal
purpose, provided it could be proved that he took that step seriously intending to carry out his
criminal purpose. Where a crime such as treason is committed by attempt, X will be guilty of

26
 the completed crime and not merely for attempted.. X is not guilty of attempting to commit a
crime if before the commencement of the execution of the intended crime X changes his/her
mind and voluntarily desists from proceeding further with the crime.
88. With continuing crimes of theft, the person assisting may be a: perpetrator rather than an
accomplice.
89. No traffic ticket shall go for more than: 3 months without being paid for or the culprit arrested.
90. A grade “A” call is to be attended within: 10 mins in urban areas and within 2 hrs in rural areas.
91. Grade “B” calls are to be attended to within: 3 hrs in urban areas and within 48 hrs in rural
areas.
92. A service plan: Is a short term plan covering one yr. it is also called operational plan.

Codification Question papers

1. The high court may, on application, order that a person be removed from life support
system in order to relieve pain or suffering. For how long shall the order cease to be valid?
: 18 months.
2. X, a boy aged 12 yrs enters into a supermarket. He walks to the dairy products section and
takes an ice cream. He then walks out unnoticed by a security guard. What offence did X
commit? : No offence, he is incapable of committing a crime.
3. In the crime of unlawful entry into premises, enter does include: insert any part of one’s
body into the premises, break open a door, and insert an instrument into the premises.
4. Where a person consumes another person’s property intending to return identical property
to the other person, he shall be deemed to: have deprived the owner permanently of his
property.
5. Property capable of being stolen does not include: water in a public stream.
6. X keeps a vicious dog in his home yard. The dog is always tied to a tree so that it does not
bite people. One day X forgot to tie the dog and as a result it bit and seriously injured Y,
who was passing by. What offence did X commit? : Negligently causing serious bodily
harm.
7. Z approached X, an owner of a cottage, with 5 million dollars and asked him to let him
rape his (X’s) maid. X for the love of money agreed and Z had sexual intercourse with the
maid without her consent. What crime did X commit if any? : Accomplice to rape.
8. According to the criminal law code, to whom does the burden of proof of any particular fact
or circumstance upon a person charged with a crime rest? : The accused.
9. If a crime of which the realization of real risk or possibility is an element so defined in the
code or any other enactment that the words describing the component of awareness are
omitted, the component of awareness shall be implicit in the word: knowledge.
10. Which of the states of mind are tested subjectively? : ………..
11. A person shall not be guilty or liable to be punished for a crime unless: the crime is defined
in the code.
12. Which of the following is not an aggravating circumstance in the crime of public violence? :
Bodily injury.

27
13. What competent charge can be instituted against X where physical contact on indecent
intent is absent in the crime of indecent assault? : Criminal insult.
14. What defence can be raised by a man for malicious damage to property after burning down
his matrimonial home after a heated argument with his spouse/wife? : No defence.
15. A parent or guardian or spouse can give consent on behalf of a person who is incapable in
law of giving consent in the following circumstances except: Lack of education.
16. Who authorises prosecution of children over the age of 14 yrs? : AG.
17. Crimes where the state does not need to prove any mental element are known as: Strict
liability crimes.
18. When a passport is surrendered on bail, who should keep it? : Clerk of court.
19. When 20 rounds went missing, what should be done? : A board of enquiry is convened.
20. Who should be called last to the scene of crime? : A CID detail.
21. A woman prisoner may be detained at a prison due to lack of cell accommodation at the
police cell block by a warrant signed by the MIC in the absence of a magistrate or a police
Supt or above. For how long is such a warrant be valid? : Till the sitting of the next court.
22. In the instance of death on the operation table, who shall obtain reports from the doctors
and surgeons? : Medical Supt.
23. Emergency travel documents are issued only by: Passport officer and DA.
24. Whose authority is required before dyes are used for trapping purposes? : CID Supt and
above.
25. Which of the following symptoms may indicate rabies in a dog: Loss of appetite, inclined to
wander and fear of water.
26. Which is the first action that should be taken after fingerprints checks and preservation of
an exhibit, in the instance of the receipt of an anonymous letter? : Make a copy of it.
27. Who is not a potential informer? : Prison officer.
28. You come across a butcher with rotten meat, what evidence can you bring to court? :
Evidence of strict liability.
29. After how long of detention can a person be advised of his/her reason for arrest? : 7 days
of detention.
30. Sales tax is paid into what? : Consolidated revenue fund.
31. Where the territorial is not known who approves where the trial should take place? : AG.
32. A person presiding over the case chooses his own: assessors/assessor.
33. Who authorises a watchman? : Supt and above.
34. Where a PO calls for the production of a proof of/identity from a driver and the driver fails,
what should de done? : Impound the vehicle for 24 hrs.
35. A driver who hit and kill an animal should report to: A sgt at the nearest police station
within 24 hrs.
36. Flashes of a beacon on a car fitted with such a facility should be of what rate? : 60 and not
more than 150 flashes per minute.
37. Under the drugs act, what is a PO? : Sgt and above.
38. What amount of alcohol should be taken for test? : ½ a litre.
39. How many grams of soil should be taken for test? : 125 grams.

28
40. When should you carry out an ID parade with photographs? : Where an accused can not
be physically located and cannot be present in person.
41. Part 1 drugs means: Unprocessed drugs. Part two drugs means: processed drugs.
42. In what order would you deal with the following at the scene of fire? : Call the fire brigade,
see to the safety of the inmates, take steps to remove or protect movable property, and
ascertain the whereabouts of the owner or occupier at that time, search for the cause of
fire.
43. Under what circumstances will the names of witnesses not be revealed to interested parties
requesting same? : Where the witness objects to such disclosure or where such disclosure
would be contrary to the police and where the identity of an informer may be revealed.
44. How often should a crime register be indexed? : Once a week.
45. The following are principles one should bear in mind when preparing for a patrol or
convoy: Stationary vehicles are death traps; dominating ground; be constantly alert; drive
through a killing ground or stop short; engage the enemy with fire immediately.
46. The following are circumstances, in which a police officer may use his firearm acting on his
own initiative, when he is not under direct order of a member of a superior rank? : To
prevent a prisoner from escaping, to defend himself or his party from death or serious
injury, to defend another person or persons unlawfully attacked from death or serious
injury.
47. What competent charges can be raised against Y, a male person who is performs anal
sexual intercourse with a young male person who is of or above the age of twelve yrs, but
below the age of 16 yrs and without the consent of such young person? : Indecent assault
or aggravated indecent assault.
48. A parent/guardian or spouse can give consent on behalf of a person who is incapable of
giving consent in all cases except: Lack of education.
49. X a citizen of Zim and has knowledge that some of the opposition party intends to
overthrow the gvt, within what period should X report to an official? : 72 hrs.
50. Who is the chairman of the outpost committee? : Chief staff officer (admin).
51. X a police officer arrests Y, a Nigerian national who is resident in the United Kingdom and
South Africa before. How many copies of fingerprints can X take from Y? : 6 copies.
52. Fingerprints are prima face evidence provided they have been certified by? : A magistrate.
53. X takes two bulls from Y who owes him some money and after some time he sells the
bulls. What offence if any can X be charged with? : Unlawful borrowing.
54. A statement is made under oath to a policeman. Why? : To ensure that a witness does not
deviate from the facts he has stated when in court.
55. You have conveyed the body of the deceased to the mortuary so that a post mortem exam
may be carried out. For identification purposes, the body should be labeled. What
information must appear on the label? : Date, time and place of death, name rank and
number of IO, full name and CR particulars of deceased and name of identifying witnesses.
56. At a trial pending before an inferior court, without the consent of the accused, the trial
shall not be postponed or adjourned for periods longer than? : 14 days.

29
57. When a report is received of a crime that occurred in another police station, what action
must be taken by the station receiving the report? : Make a CR entry, investigate the
matter as far as possible and forward the docket to the station in whose area the offence
was committed.
58. A report of murder is received at your station. It is obvious from the onset that death was
caused by criminal action and a murder docket is opened. What instructions are laid down
regarding advising the magistrate of the death? : A copy of a summary of sudden death
docket form must be forwarded to the local magistrate within 30 days of the report of the
death.
59. On issuing a court witness with a rail warrant, what specific instructions must be given to
him? : To exchange the warrant for a ticket before the journey.
60. Where a classified document other than a restricted document is delivered by hand, the
receipt must be returned to the station of origin within a certain period otherwise enquiries
must be instituted as to its whereabouts. What is this period? : 14 days.
61. If a member admits responsibility in writing for the loss or damage of state or force
property and agrees to pay the full cost of such loss or damage, a board of inquiry may be
dispersed with. However a board of inquiry might? : Disclose some administrative defects
and assist the member in any way.
62. You have been instructed to serve a summon on an accused for him to appear before the
local magistrates’ court. How many clear days, excluding Sundays and public holidays,
must be between the date of service and appearance in court? : 2 days.
63. In terms of the mental health act, no person shall be detained under urgency application
for longer than: 14 days.
64. In terms of the mental health act, no person shall be received under any urgency
application unless he has been examined by a medical practitioner within the prior period
for: 48 hrs.
65. In terms of the trapping of animal control act, any person who uses a class (iii) trap
without a permit commits an offence. However such a person shall not be convicted for
this offence if he proves that: The trap was used for trapping house hold pests within a
building.
66. What is the maximum period of sick leave on full pay that may be recommended by a gvt
medical officer? : 90 days.
67. Special duty allowances may continue to be paid during a period of absence from duty but
not in excess of: 42 days.
68. If you receive a post dated cheque for payment to a gvt account, dated the 15 th of the
following month, when should a receipt be issued? : On the date for which the cheque fall
due for payment.
69. On what stage may police release the identity of a deceased person to the press where
next of kin has been informed? : On the mere dispatch of a telegram to the next of kin.
70.

30
1. Shock: is a condition arising from a lack of blood supply and resulting in lessening of the activities
of the vital functions of the body.
2. Asphyxia is: a dangerous condition resulting from the lack of oxygen.
3. Varicose vein is: one vein which is so dilated that the valves do not close to prevent backward
flow of blood.
4. Veins are: blood vessels that transport blood to the heart. The walls of veins are thinner than
those of the arteries but they have the same 3 layers of tissue.
5. A member who is pregnant shall proceed on maternity leave up to: 120 days and will be
receiving 75% of her salary including any pensionable allowances.
6. If a member wishes to marry a minor (below the age of 18 yrs), the notification must be
accompanied by a written statement signed by such minor’s parents or legal guardians, giving
their consent to the marriage.
7. When should a sick parade be contacted? : If the number of members reporting sick at any time
warrant it and is done to facilitate control.

1. How many ways/methods of charging a battery are there in practice? : 2 (charging through an
audio socket while the battery is connected to the set and charging the battery when it is
removed from the set.
2. After how long shall a discharged battery be completely recharged? : 16 hrs.
3. What does compuction mean? : Regret.
4. What does causal fatoitas mean? : Unavoidable accident.
5. Where do you expect to find parex type glass? : Kitchen bousers and sealed beam head lamps.

31
6. Where do we refer for repair the photocopying and electronic machines of the police force? :
Housing agency.
7. What type of oil is used by diesel engines? : SAE40.
8. What type of oil is used by petrol engines? : SAE30.
9. How many marks is one to score to be styled a full maximum? : 260 or more. NB 1st class
maximum 230 or more, 2nd class maximum 200 or more, 3rd class maximum 200 or less.
10. What is a watershed? : A ridge separating river bands or river basins.
11. An insolvent is required in writing by creditors for meeting which are very important and not
expected to miss. Which are these meetings? : 1st and 2nd.
12. FN automatic riffle 7, 62mm what are the individual features? : Easy handling, easy maintenance,
and perfect safety in functioning.
13. With FN the breach block is mechanically locked before firing can take place and it will only
unlock when? : When the bullet has left the barrel.
14. What happens to the breach block when the magazine gets empty whilst firing? : It is held to the
rear and in this position the trigger will not operate.
15. When stripping FN riffle no tools are used but it may be necessary to use what? ; The nose of the
bullet/cartridge.
16. Where in stripping is the above applicable? : In removing the gas plug (1/4 turn clockwise)
17. What is the weight of an FN rifle with an empty magazine? : 9 LB or 4,250kgs.
18. How big is the flannelette (size) used as a pull through in FN riffle? : 4 x 2 inches.
19. How big is the flannelette for oiling FN riffle? : 4 x 1, 5 inches.
20. What do you use to clean the chamber? : Chamber stick and flannelette.
21. What is the length of the flannelette for cleaning the gas cylinder and with what other
instruments? : 18 inches and a revolver cleaning rod.
22. What methods are suitable for removing carbon deposits from the gas plug and piston? : Vinegar,
moistened match head, fine wire wool and mixture of vim and brasso.
23. John fired blank rounds and later cleaned the riffle as is usual after firing. He later tried to fire live
rounds but there were stoppages. Why? : John did not pay attention to cleaning the chamber as
laquer and red paint from the nose of the blank rounds became lodged in the chamber causing
stoppages.
24. When firing blank cartridges, how would you ensure automatic reloading of the riffle? : Fit the
riffle with blank firing attachment at the muzzle.
25. What is ideal gas regulator setting when using the 7, 62mm blank cartridge with the base stamp
FN? : 1 or 2.
26. What is the ideal gas regulator when using the 7, 62mm blank cartridge with the base stamp
ASC? : 6 or 7.
27. What does MIP mean? : Mean point of Impact.
28. What do you do when FN fails to feed or eject/hold open device due to insufficient gas? : Adjust
the gas regulator sleeve to a lower number.
29. Failure to feed may also be caused by too much gas. How is this problem corrected? : Adjust to a
higher number the gas regulator sleeve (by increasing it to increase gas exhaust).

32
 P1 9mm SELF LOADING PISTOL.
30. When the signal pin of the pistol projects, what does it mean? : There is a round in the chamber.
31. What is the magazine capacity of a) FN riffle: 20 rounds
b) P1 pistol: 8 rounds (magazine has 7 holes showing
rounds from outside).
32. How often is a P1 cleaned for occasional maintenance? : Weekly or once a week.

SHOTGUN BROWNING
33. What is the magazine capacity for shot gun browning for it to be said it is fully loaded? : 5 (one in
chamber + 4 in magazine)
34. Where is the safety catch of this shotgun? : Behind the trigger guard.
35. With shotgun browning, when you are said to charge magazine, how many rounds will you
load? : 4 (one in the chamber)
36. You have cocked the shotgun browning and on inspecting the breach face you see a protruding
firing pin, what would you do? : Will not use the weapon but dispatch it to the nearest armourer.

POLICE GREENER GUN

37. Which weapon from the following is a police greener gun? : MKIII or MKIII/12.
38. Which one of the two above riffles has metal case cartridges? : MKIII (normally issued to the
prison service)
39. The safety catch and cocking indicator of this greener gun are on which same side of the
weapon? : Right hand.
40. How do you clean the police greener gun? : You pull through using a brush and 8 x 4inches
flannelette.
41. Why is it discouraged to keep/store the greener gun cocked? : This weakens trigger spring (may
cause accidental discharges)

RIOT GUN
42. How many back sights is this gun? : 3 (for 50 yards, 75yards and 100yards)
43. For maximum range the sights are not used, then how is it fired? : The gun must be fired at an
angle of between 37 and 45 degrees.
44. What is the overall length and caliber? : 8 inches and 1,5inches respectively.
45. Where was the riot gun made? : USA.
46. How many types of ammunition are fired by this riot gun? : 6.
47. For how long do LR and SR shell emit clear smoke? : For 1, 5 minutes.
48. Before loading the riot gun, what do you have to do first? : Turn half right.
49. With which hand do you place the shell in the chamber? : Left hand (even closing)

ROCKET PARACHUTE
50. What is its weight? : 14 015
51. A rocket fires a flare which descends by a parachute and gives off light for how long? : 30
seconds.

33
52. What weapon do you use to fire this flare? : Only by hand.
53. This rocket is to be fired at what angle? : Not less than 45 degrees from the vertical.

TEARSMOKE AND GREENADES

54. A tearsmoke grenade which gives CS type of smoke does so for how long? : 30 to 40 seconds.
55. A tearsmoke grenade which gives CN type of smoke does so for how long? : 1, 5 minutes.
56. Which type of smoke between CS and CN is a stronger irritant? : CS type.
57. 36 grenade is painted in what colour? : Bronze.
58. How often will support unit undergo COIN training? : At intervals of not less than once per ¼
year periods of not les than 7 continuous days.
59. How often are all members of the SU to qualify in the use of an FN riffle? : Annually (once in each
calendar year)
60. How often will members undergoing COIN training be exercised in the machine carbine? : Twice a
yr.
61. The CN and CS can be fired with what weapons if any? : Riot guns and pistols respectively.
62. Relate the lateral speed of tearsmoke to the distance travelled? : 1/5 of the distance travelled.
63. Big crowds can be attacked from 2 sides to split it how? : 1st party downwind and 2nd party
simultaneously on the flank. When parties make contact, 1 st party turns to the right and 2nd party
half left.
64. Which case is use of tearsmoke inside a building justifiable? : When used in prisoner riots.

RESPIRATORS
65. What are you to remove first before you clean a respirator? : The filter container (not masked).
66. When washing the face piece, what do you use? : Weak solution of dettol and water.
67. When not in use, respirators are to be tested at what intervals? : Not more than 2 months.
68. A haversack contains how many tearsmoke grenades? : 6.
69. A button section consists of how many men? : 7.
70. Practically to be effective, how many separate button sections are necessary? : At least 3.
71. With armed reconnaissance patrols, what is the best patrolling speed? : 2 km/hr
72. What should the finder of the landmine do? : Notify his companions who should move back at
least 2m.
73. With a vehicle mine, a carrying handle is not to be lifted. The finder should only unfurl the
rope/cord attached to the grapnel. To what distance is he to retire? : 50m.
74. Upon sensing a vehicle mine, the vehicle has to reverse for how long? : 100m.
75. What do these abbreviations mean? : a) FLOT: forward line of own troop, b) GAC: ground/air
controller.
76. Who is the captain of the aircraft when either moving or stationery? : Pilot.
77. What is the position of the section commander in the aircraft? : Immediately behind the pilot.
78. What is a normal operational stick to be carried in an aircraft? : 5 men.
79. How many stretcher patients can a helicopter carry at a time? : 2.
80. A 6 x 6 red flag will be flown from the flag pole situated in the centre and on the top of the stop
butts. At least how long prior to the commencement of shooting? : At least 30 minutes.

34
81. Which 3 types of person are only allowed during firing? : Firers, coaches and supervising
personnel.
82. In the inter provincial shooting competitions, what is given to a winning team? : Boodle cup and a
spoon each to the individuals.
83. What is a combat floating trophy? : Given to the individual member making the highest score in
the inter provincial competitions.
84. When will trained men’s musketry card (form 37) be produced? : Weapons qualifying course and
arms inspections.
85. What are 3 common faults in crawling? ; Lifting head to check direction, posteriors stuck in the
air and heels lifted too high.

CAMOURFLAGE AND CONCEALMENT

Concealment: to defeat the enemy’s observation. Be able to see and not be seen and to hear
and not to be heard. As a memory aid on this subject we use what is known as the 5 “S”’s and
1”M”
S – Shape
S – Shadow
S – Silhouette
S – Surface
S – Spacing
M – Movement
1. Name two patrol formations which can be used in rural operations: Open formation and single
file formation.
2. Under map reading, what is a basin? : Area of fairly level ground surrounded by its tributaries.
3. Crest: Highest part of a hill or mountain range.
4. Divide: The line along the range of hills from which the falls are in opposite directions.
5. Give two types of police road blocks: Routine and security road blocks (single and double block)
6. What is the nature of the ground at the actual site of the road block? : Culverts and drifts,
cuttings and embarkment, stretches flanked by ditches, banks or rocky and broken ground.
7. What is the calibre of UZI sub machine gun? : 9mm parabellum.
8. Weigh of UZI without magazine: 3, 750kgs
9. Weight of UZI with a magazine: 4, 070kgs
10. Magazine capacity of UZI: 25 or 32 rounds
11. State when should an FN be cleaned? : Daily cleaning, cleaning before and after firing, cleaning
for abnormal conditions and cleaning during firing.
12. Give 3 types of firing used in a battle: Deliberate firing, snap shooting and rapid firing.
13. When operating under COIN what is the meaning of the word SMEAC?
S – Situation
M – Mission
E – Execution
A – Administration and Logistics

35
 C – Command and Signals
14. What are the two fundamental principles in ambush? : An approach must be covered and the
ambush must have depth.
15. What are two types of ambush? : Limited ambush and Area ambush.
16. Name 3 basic drills which may be employed in coin: The freeze, immediate assault and frontal
assault.
17. When should you apply the above? : FREEZE- when a patrol sees the enemy before he is seen
by the enemy where contact will not take place. It is applied to minimize mvt which will lead to
the detection of the patrol; IMMEDIATE ASSAULT- is a drill employed when is in ambush, and
is in the killing zone and fire from ambush. Close range of 5 to 10 m. there will be no acceptable
alternative because any hesitation is disastrous; and FRONTAL ASSAULT-is used when an
enemy/sentry and the police meets at very close range and sees each other simultaneously.
18. What is VOICE PROCEDURE? : A set of rules designed to provide security, accuracy and
discipline in police radio communication systems.
19. What are the two types of information which may be obtained by the enemy after intercepting
police radio transmissions? : Long term info and short term information.
20. Readability strength:
Strength 1- Unreadable
2- Very faint
3- Readable but with difficulties
4- Readable
5- Loud and clear or perfectly readable
21. What are the two types of calls under radio communication systems? : Single call, multiple call
and all stations call.
22. What are the two ways of classifying radio messages? : Security classification and Priority
classification.
23. Under radio message classification, how would you identify confidential radio messages and
secret radio messages? : Confidential – Blue in colour, Secret – Green in colour.
24. What are the four security classification categories? : Restricted, confidential, secret and top
secret.
25. What are the 3 classes under priority classification? : Normal, Urgent and Immediate.
26. Give five marching cordons which can be applied by Police: route lining, white tape, escort,
protective and V – formation cordon.
27. What are the four ways of dispersing the crowd? : Persuasions, baton and shield party, dogs and
tearsmoke and call in army.
28. Under crowd control what are the two major types of crowd entry tactics? : Overlap and
snatch.
29. Who is called gold, silver and bronze under public order command structure? : Gold –
strategist, Silver – tactician and Bronze – implementer.
30. What are the two types of deployment? : Deployment formation and extended line.

36
31. What are the golden rules on the use of firearms? : If in doubt do not fire; never use a firearm if
you can achieve your objective by other means; and never use a firearm when you already
achieved your objective.
32. What are the stages in the use of a firearm? : Fire a warning shot; shoot to injure/ to disable;
and shoot to kill.
33. When should a firearm be used without instruction from a senior rank? : When station is under
attack, in defence of valuable property or in self defence from imminent death and in defence of
another person or persons unlawfully attacked from death or serious injury.
34. What are the factors governing the release of tearsmoke? : Direction and force of the wind, the
size and temper of the crowd, the lines of escape open to the crowd, and the
tearsmoke/munition available.
35. What are the golden rules in the use of tearsmoke? : AUK where; A- attack down wind, U-
use sufficient tearsmoke to start with and K- keep up pressure until the crowd is entirely
dispersed.
36. What is the first aid to tearsmoke? : Do not rub eyes, bath with cold water and stand facing
wind.

1. When it is suspected that someone has diluted milk with water for sale, who will be called to
test this? : Public healthy inspector.
2. After an analysis with positive results, the analyst records the exhibits. When are these seals
next broken? : On production in court.
3. Where you suspect that cyanide has been used at the scene of murder or sudden death and is
therefore present in vomit from the deceased, what preservative is used to stop the cyanide
from deteriorating? : rectified spirit.
4. Which of the following symptoms in cattle would indicate that they are suffering arsenical
poisoning? : Thirst, loss of appetite, vomiting, exhaustion.
5. Which of the following symptoms may indicate rabbis in a dog? : inclined to wander.
6. When taking possession of a revolver which has been used in the commission of a crime, which
of the following must be noted? : the position of spent cases and live rounds in the cylinder
with respect to the barrel, the position of the safety catch, if fitted, whether the action was
cocked or not, the number of rounds in the magazine.
7. Besides sucking a snab for a minute or two then drying it, how else can saliva be collected and
treated so that it reaches the laboratory in good condition? : collect plus or minus 1ml of saliva
in a tube and then boil the tube in water for about ten minutes.
8. How do you preserve visible marks on a large section of metal? : By casting in a silicon rubber
compound.

37
9. Liquor sold in terms of a bottle liquor licence shall be delivered in sealed containers of a certain
minimum volume, what is the volume? : 175ml.
10. How does the repeal of an act affect its regulation? : The regulation is also repealed.
11. Which statement is correct about regulations? : A regulation is made by a cabinet minister.
12. Bids fall into the following classes: bids for additions, bids for replacement, and bids for change.
13. The proceedings of a board of enquiry are a nullity unless? : A covering order is attached.
14. Dispols give OICs guidelines on the submissions of estimates during the month of? : December.
15. Subject to the provisions of the parks and wildlife act, the minister may issue hunters licences.
How many types of hunters licences? : 3.
16. The purpose of confirming extra arial statement is to find out whether? : The accused made the
statement freely and voluntarily without being unduly influenced.
17. In terms of the firearms act, whose authority, if any, is required to fit a silencing device or alter
the length or base of any firearm or to destroy any firearm? : Authority must be sought from
the controller of firearms.
18. Mello was arrested and convicted for malicious damage of property. At the time of his arrest no
fingerprints were taken as he was pleading guilty, but his fingerprints must be taken. The
accused is serving 5 yrs in jail. What do you do as IO? : Get permission from the court through
the PP.
19. Whose responsibility is it to ensure that set standards are being met or surpassed? : OIC,
Dispol, and Propol.
20. Where a claim is to be made for compensation against the gvt, who must be consulted where
the validity of such a claim is in doubt? : AG.
21. Who shall be appointed as chairman of the delimitation commission? : The chief justice or some
other judge of the Supreme Court or the high court appointed with the approval of the chief
justice.
22. In a map reading, there are 3 “norths” which are referred to, which are these? : Magnetic
north, grid north and true north.
23. Which of the following persons may divulge to the press matters concerning crimes affecting
the internal security of the country? : Press liaison officer PGHQ.
24. As IO, you wish to preserve fermenting liquor for examination, as it may contain poison. What
must you add to this? : rectified spirit.
25. What is added to liquor just to stop fermenting? : Mercuric chloride.
26. In which of the following instances will all members salute? : At the passing of the field gun of
the artillery at the ceremonial parade, when passing or being passed by the body at a funeral,
when regimental colours pass uncased or when passing the front of the colours.
27. Children may not be competent witnesses because of their? : Mental development.
28. What is circumstantial evidence? : Evidence not of a fact directly in issue but relevant to the
issue.
29. Where stolen property is not recovered, the prosecution will? : Leave it to the court to decide.
30. In terms of the criminal procedure and evidence act (CP&E act), a prosecutor may delate from
a statement made by an accused at any matter which may be prejudicial to the accused and

38
 which is not relevant to the charge. If such a delation is made, then the accused must be
served with a copy of the statement showing the delation at least? : 5 days.
31. What provisions must a person have who is in occupation of a place of public entertainment
make for children and young persons attending a public performance? : Must keep sufficient
attendance to assist in control, must control children who are on the premises, must take all
reasonable precautions for the safety of the children.
32. A police officer may enter and remain at any premises where he believes a seditious statement
may be made, when they are? : 3 or more.
33. In the case of evidence before the court of law, certain affidavits are admissible in evidence in
certain circumstances. How much notice is required of the production of such an affidavit to
both the prosecutor and the accused before such affidavit is admissible? : 3 days.
34. In terms of the CP & E Act, in cases where banker’s books or entry therein or copy may be ad
hocked in evidence, notice shall be given by the party in the proceedings. The party receiving
the notice may, if he wishes, inspect the banker’s books or entry therein provided notice is
given to the bank not less than? : 10 days.
35. What type of passenger may be issued with bedding and meal tickets if necessary,
automatically for the whole of a rail journey? : Persons called up for military duty, an employee
of the national railways of Zim and a person travelling in 2 nd class whilst under escort.
36. In terms of the privileges, immunities and powers of parliament Act, a member may not be
arrested when the house is sitting unless the leave of the House is first obtained from the
President of the senate or the speaker of House though the? : Sgt at arms.
37. In terms of the privileges and immunities act, a police officer may enter consular premises
without first obtaining permission from the head of the consular post or his designee only in
one of the following circumstances: he is in possession of a search warrant, he is in possession
of a written authority from the ministry of foreign affairs, he has to convey a death message, in
case of fire or other disaster requiring prompt protective action.
38. What is a hydro- static test? : A test of live birth of an infant, used by doctors.
39. Blood samples for examination must be in the hands of the analyst within? : 48 hrs.
40. What is the order of the information in the gazette? : SAIMAPC, where,
S…. Special notice.
A…. Apprehension sought.
I…. Information sought.
M…. Missing persons.
A…. Additional information.
P…. Persons in custody who might be wanted elsewhere.
C…. Cancellations.
41. What are dangerous animals? : HELLBROTHERS, where,
H…. Hippopotamus.
E…. Elephant.
L…. Lion.
L…. Leopard.
B…. Buffalo.

39
 R…. Rhinoceros.
OTHERS…. Others.
42. How are witness fees obtained by the policeman giving evidence at a hearing, disposed of? :
Credited via contingency accounts to revenue.
43. What is the arrangement of documents in a docket? : SIWDRO, where,
S…. Summary.
I…. Investigations.
W…. Witness statements.
D…. Documents.
R…. Radios.
O…. Others.
44. Under what circumstances would route instructions not issued to a section when proceeding to
another station? : When on active investigation.
45. Applications for loans of equipment by other gvt depts. will in all cases referred to? : SSO (Q).
46. Acting allowances will be withdrawn from a member receiving it if he is absent/ on leave during
the acting period for a continuous period of? : 42 days or more.
47. When requisitioning replacement items of kit on personal charge, what happens to the blue
copy of the requisition (form 227)? : It will accompany the supplied kit as a packing note and
once checked against the kit supplied, it should be signed and returned to the ordinance stores.
48. Under the definition of minor punishment, what is the maximum period of confinement to
barracks that applies? : 7 days.
49. A member may make representations direct to the commissioner by putting his grievances in
writing and forwarding it to his superior within? : 7 days of becoming of the decision or action
forming the basis of his grievances under the police (Trial and Records) of inquiry regs.
50. Castration of a bull should be done before? : 9 months.
51. Board of trustee sit? : Once every quarter yr.
52. A member can not represent another member if he/ she? : can not be released from his duties
(to attend trial).
53. Which one is not stock as per canteens? : Cash in the till box.
54. Wrong size from ordinance is to be returned to ordinance within? : 14 days.
55. Police radio classification: COSETO, where,
CO….. Confidential.
SE…. Secret.
TO…. Top secret.
56. To whom shall a member appeal against the decision given by a board of members? : Appeals
to the commissioner.
57. What is a safety glass under the RTA? : Glass so manufactured or treated that if fractured it
does not really shatter into fragments capable of causing severe cuts.
58. If, upon being required to do so by a police officer or inspecting officer in terms of subsection
(1), a driver, having failed to produce proof of his identity, : the police officer or inspecting
officer may detain the motor vehicle for a period not exceeding 24 hrs.

40
59. A police officer of or above the rank of: A/I authorises breath analysis of a motor vehicle
driver.
60. Sgt inspects their subordinates’ kits regularly: not less than once every 3 months.
61. Whose authority is needed to detain a breast feeding woman? : OC province.
62. Under whose directions should a trap be conducted? : Senior A/I or above.
63. Who has the ultimate responsibility of ensuring that fingerprints are taken from an accused
person? : OIC/ MIC station.
64. What should be done when opening a new exhibit book? : All the outstanding entries of exhibits
which have not been cleared from an old book should be carried forward into the new exhibit
book, written in red ink. Entries must be numbered consecutively throughout the year
continuing from the last entry of the old exhibit book.
65. What should be done when a sudden death docket is opened? : It must be thoroughly
investigated without delay and should be submitted to the local magistrate court within 30 days
from the report of the death.
66. What are two ways of identifying a dead body? : Identifying of body as being that of a
particular person (usually by someone who knew the deceased well), and identification of body
as being that found at the scene (usually by a police detail who attended the scene).
67. Who has the power to authorise the broadcasting of a missing person on a radio or television? :
Supt or above.
68. Who authorise the specimen of blood be taken from a vehicle driver who has been involved in
an accident? ; A/I or above or such other ranks as may be prescribed, who has reasonable
cause to believe that a person was the driver of the vehicle.

1. How do you preserve fermenting liquor viscera specimen in cyanide poisoning? ; Preserve in
rectified spirit in screw- tap air tight jars with non metallic tops e.g. glass or plastic.
2. How do you preserve acidic vomits? : Only placed in air tight jar (no spirit added)
3. What is the minimum quantity of water for analysis? : 2, 5 litres.
4. Where do you obtain vessels (Winchester quart) for water analysis? : From gvt analysis on loan.
5. At least how many specimens are to be completed by suspect in writing? : 3 different specimen
type written, 3 different specimen hand written, 12 different specimen signatures.
6. What do you send for examination if a human being has been bitten by a rabid animal? : Head
of such animal.
7. A rabies officer may destroy a dog in rabies area if not immunized against rabies from what age
is it to be such dog? : Over 4 months.
8. For ever what period can the accused be charged for the amount of general deficiency? :
Taking of which extended over any space of time.
9. Which plea can not be pleaded with other pleas on the same charge? : Plea of guilty.

41
10. Whose permission must be sought for any accused to be assisting another? : The court.
11. What answers is a witness excused from answering? : Where witness would be exposed to
penalties, degrades his character.
12. On grounds of public policy or public interest evidence may be privileged from disclosure except
when? : Except when it provides the basis and ground for a charge of perjury (it is led).
13. Fingerprints are dispatched to the central criminal bureau (CCB) what for? : For search.
14. Within what period of time shall a copper dealer make entry in the register of a transaction? :
24 hrs.
15. A copper dealer shall not purchase or receive copper at what times? : Btwn 9pm and 7am.
16. How do you handle an exhibit revolver so that you do not damage fingerprints? : By means of
butt swivel and trigger guard.
17. How do you handle self loaders (automatic) weapons? : By forward portion of trigger guard.
18. What type of cases (cartridges) are fired by a revolver? : Rimmed cases.
19. What types of cartridges are fired by self loaders (automatic) weapons? : Semi rimmed and
rimless.
20. What type is fired by riffles? : All 3 types.
21. The amount of blackening on target depends on what? : Length of barrel of weapon, type of
powder and pressure.
22. What is the extreme limit of blackening range? : Within arms length.
23. Pyrex glass can not be identified, however which can be an effective identification? : By way of
physical fit.
24. Who usually deals with samples of adulterated ink? : Public health inspector.
25. Where do police obtain special sample bottles for milk? : From the gvt analyst and already
containing necessary preservatives.
26. What do you add to suspected poisoned milk? : No preservatives are added.
27. What do you add to a pint of milk to avoid coagulation? : 20 drops of strong formalin.
28. What are striation lines? : Marks by which tools used in a crime can be identified and compared
with articles on which they have been used.
29. How long before the trial do you deliver to the accused summons of an inferior court? : At least
2 days (excluding Sundays and public holidays).
30. Within how long a period may accused who received stolen property be said he knew it was
stolen as referred to his previous similar case? : Within 12 months preceding time when
accused was first charged.
31. How long before trial do you serve summons of High court? ; At least 10 days before trial.
32. How do you dispose off counterfeit money produced as evidence in court? : Destroyed before
the magistrate.
33. What if some of the money is valuable. Where is it send? : Is send to the treasury.
34. At least how much a sample of liquor should be collected, if possible? : At least half a litre (one
pint)
35. Fermenting liquor submitted for identification only 2 tablets are added. What type and what
for? : 2 mercuric chloride grain tablets per ½ litre; purpose is to prevent further fermentation.

42
36. What do you add to a liquor sample suspected to contain poison? : Only rectified spirit; ratio
1:3.
37. How do you lift mould marks on counterfeit coins or identifications on blotting carbon paper? :
It is taken using dental wax.
38. If suspects’ clothes have come into contact with some metals, delicate chemicals tests are
available to substantiate this. Which are these metals? : Copper, brass and lead.
39. How do you handle paper exhibits? : Gloves or tweezers.
40. In what containers do you put paper exhibits? : Folder or plastic bag.
41. Does handling with gloves affect fingerprints on paper? : No.
42. How do you handle exhibit paper with bare hands? : Hold it on the very edge with fingernails or
finger tips and inform the IO of such handling.
43. How do you handle glass exhibits when bringing in doors? : Carried by its edge, lean the glass
against the wall.
44. When is the missing person gazzeted? : If disappeared in unusual circumstances or where there
is suspicion of foul play.
45. A person visiting the cells must have another or other members if there are how many accused
persons, at least if he is to open the cells and not inspecting through the pip hole? : More than
two accused held i.e. 3 or more.
46. On review by a judge in the chambers or if the accused appeals successfully and the sentence
is changed, how is the CCB notified of any alteration to the original sentence? : By radio.
47. Police does not issue press identity cards and such members are to identify themselves and
their authority? : Immediately search the accused on being arrested and call the dog section to
the scene of crime.
48. Who authorises none members to join the police recreation club? : OC province.
49. Who may waive need to have recreation club at a particular station? : OC province.
50. The urgency signal shall comprise 3 repetitions of which word? : PAN e.g. Plane engine
producing abnormal smoke.
51. What if the engine then fails completely? : Originate a “DISTRESS CALL”
52. On whose discretion are gazettes compiled? : OC CID.
53. How much blood comparison standard a medical practitioner is to collect from a suspect/victim?
: 5 cubic ml of blood.
54. Additional to other information what do you write/label on each vial with samples? : Donor’s
name and name of physician.
55. How much blood alcohol is taken and what are the two substances added? : 5ml of blood;
sodium fluoride preservative + anti coagulant.
56. This blood sample is placed in at least 2 bottles obtained from? : Forensic science laboratory.
57. In arson debris, what type of device used may necessitate the dusting of glass fragments for
fingerprinting? : Molotov cocktail type device.
58. How much suspected flammable liquids can be collected as regard fire? : Place 1 ounce if
possible (or whatever quantity)
59. What do you do if sample is sharp to piece the container? : Use metal container.

43
60. In explosion after locating a blast site, how do you collect sample? : Remove first ½ of soil or
debris from crater.
61. What quantity of suspected explosive is put and referred to FSLO? : 1/8 of TSP.
62. What do you know about latent fingerprints on non porous materials? : Deteriorate rapidly of
high temperature and humidity (if exposed for long).
63. How do you take fingerprints taken on hard surface? : Using lifting tape.
64. How do you remove gun shot residue on the back of hands of suspect? : using adhesive tape
(1-2cms) NB this is also a good collector of hairs and fibres.
65. Where do you place adhesive tape and what of lifting tape? : On wooden spatula or glass slide
II cord which contrast in colour with powder used.
66. What method of recovering serial number of weapon is not allowed to members in a case? :
Recovering number by acid etch solution.
67. Where the object is too bulk to be referred to FSL examination, what is done before a required
portion is removed? : Photographed.
68. For samples, how much do you collect if it is alcohol, gasoline or viscous substance? : 1 pint (at
least ½ litre of alcohol)
69. How do you hold containers of liquids? : Cloth and glasses used.
70. What can you say about the collection of fillings? : Use non metallic device.
71. What can you say about the collection of fragments? : Packed with padding if unimpeded / if
embedded, package as much solid matter holding fragments.
72. How do you preserve visible marks on large sections like safe doors which are too bulky to
remove? : By vesting a silicon rubber compound, thereafter cast as footprints but do not put
arrow direction.
73. How do you pack charred and crumpled documents? : Put between layers of cotton in a crush
proof container and write fragile if through posting.
74. Paint fragments are not to be packed in what? : Cotton/to touch adhesive.
75. Dry soil is not to be put where? : In envelopes/glass containers.
76. What comparison standard of cigarette material is collected? : No need to be collected.
77. Where serological testing is it to be done, what do you do? : Collect saliva standards from both
victim and suspect.
78. What verifies the presence of blood in other body fluids and as that of animals or humans? :
Kastle meger reagent.
79. How do you handle jewellery? : Tweezers or gloves.
80. In magnetic tape recording, of what thickness is polyester or Mylar backed tape used? : 1.0 ml.
81. What is anti serum test? ; It is test which determines secretor’s blood group from non blood
fluids.
82. What is gress test and what does it determines? : Is test used to obtain gunshot powder
patterns and it permits determination of the distance of the gun muzzle from the bullet when
weapon is fired.
83. What is the purpose of Neutron activation analysis and atomic absorption? : For showing or
disproving common origin or composition (by comparing bullet lead/ by comparing trace
material with that found on impression)

44
 84. Name 2 tests used to recover obliterated serial number/stamped impression? : Acid etch or x
ray.
85. With a suspect weapon held, how can you determine if the case was fired by that weapon? :
Microscopically.
86. Grease, glue and oils are vicious how? : Atomic absorption, X ray diffraction emission
spectrograph.
87. What if glue samples are dry, how do you analysis for polymeric elementary composition? :
Pyrolysis gas chromatography.
88. What methods analysis liquid sample of writing ink? : Thin layer chromatography, infrared
visible or ultra violet spectophotometry.
89. What if ink samples are dry and removed from paper, how are analyses? : Thin layer
chromatography infrared and ultra violet florescence techniques.
90. How do you filter out substantial background noise from tapes? : Use sophisticated electronic
filtering equipment.
91. For a comparison standard with point chips and smears, how much sample at least can you
take? : At least 1, 5 cubic cm.
92. Where do you seek authority to radio/television broadcast the missing person reported? : Supt
and above.
93. What is dermal nitrate test/paraffin wax test? : It is a cordite residue test on skin/hands of
suspect in cases involving firearms.
94. What is endorsed on the reverse of the third copy of form 265? : Details of the offence and
names and addresses of witnesses.
95. In issuing form 265, how many days do you give the accused to pay or appear in court? : 7
days in which to pay and another 7 days before the court date.
96. To what scenes do you take a camera with you? : Sudden death, murder and any serious
crimes.
97. Who is responsible for the court attendance of the accused on remand? : The courts/prison
staff.
98. Within how long before the court date are High court summons served on the accused? : At
least 10 days.
99. Which copy of summons is handed to the accused? : Carbon copy.

1. Subpoena received from another province for service must be served when after receiving? : As
soon as possible.
2. Who may order the payment of witness money as allowances for attending court? :
Court/magistrate.
3. A person who supply to a police officer false information i.e. name and address should be detained
for how long or what intervals of times? : 12 hrs /period not exceeding 12 hrs.
4. Who opposes bail applied for by the accused? : Public prosecutor.

45
5. Suspect in armed robbery incident has been apprehended too late that on hands gunshot residue
test can’t do, what can you do? : Collect clothing samples as gunshot residue test can do here
though too late.
6. Investigating procedure and documentation of robbery/assault is the same except? : Obtaining
particulars of stolen property and its value in robbery.
7. Why do you have to attend all scenes whether there is likelihood of gaining anything of evidential
value or not? : To foster good public/police relations
8. Loading and unloading of the film is only done where? : In the shade.
9. Before you alter the position of an object at the scene you must never until? : Photographed, noted
for plan and examined for fingerprints.
10. When using 100 ASA film with shutter speed as 1/125, please note: a) Bright/hazy sun {distinct
shadow} >F16, b) Weak/hazy sun {soft shadow} > F11, c) Cloudy bright {no shadow} > F8, d)
Heavy overcast > F5, 6 and e) Open shade > F5, 6.
11. It is ideal when cleaning a lens of a camera not to use a handkerchief but use what? : A soft tissue.
12. Lost or stolen property is carded on form 169. Where are they sent to? : Criminal Record Office at
CID HQ.
13. A police officer who requires a person to submit to a breath analysis should be of what rank? : Of
or above A/I.
14. Upon written request of what rank may a doctor take a blood sample? : Supt and above (for as
long as it is not under the RTA)
15. When is a person regarded incapable of having proper control of a vehicle? : When blood
concentration was not less than100ml/150mg at a time of offence proved even within 2 hrs after
the offence.
16. Give 3 situations which necessitate informal identification? : Insufficient ground, where there is a
clue but not individual suspect and when it is undesirable to approach the suspect.
17. Who can apply for a warrant for further detention? : AG, local PP, Police Insp and above, A/I in
charge of a station.
18. Who may issue a warrant for further detention? : Judge, magistrate and justice of peace.
19. Police giving evidence in court must not refer to his notebook without whose authority? :
Magistrate.
20. Warrants of arrest have how many copies and explain their distribution? : Made in duplicate: both
copies remain in the docket.
21. How do you mark trap money? : If notes; record the denomination and serial numbers, If coins;
mark initials of the officer dealing with the case or figures representing the date on which trap is
effected in the least obvious but most crowded point on the coin.
22. The marking on the coin should be rubbed with the finger until all the signs of interference have
been removed. How then can these markings be detected after the mission? : By use of magnifying
glass.
23. Who searches the trap? : MIC of the proceedings/senior A/I.
24. Next of kin of deceased who does not reside in Zim is notified by PGHQ. How do you inform the
PGHQ yourself? : By a SITREP.

46
25. In accepting deposit fines, cash is normally accepted but a cheque may also be accepted: a) If
made out to the MIC, b) If made out to the DA or magistrate, c) at the discretion of the MIC and d)
after checking with the accused’s bank that funds are available.
26. A police docket is not always filed at the station of origin. When may this happen? : When
investigations have been completed at another station or when accused has been taken for trial at
another centre or when the docket has been investigated and finished by CID or in cases when
retained and filed at the AG’s office.
27. Who, in the instance of death on the operation table, shall obtain reports from the doctors and
surgeons? : Medical Supt.
28. In certain circumstances and for conveniences, a copy of a plan may be supplied to an accused by
the prosecutor before the court hearing, free of charge. Under what circumstances? : If sufficient
spare copies of the plan are available.
29. A woman prisoner may be detained at a prison due to lack of accommodation at the police cell
block by a warrant signed by the MIC in the absence of a magistrate or a police Supt or above. For
how long is such a warrant valid? : Till the next sitting of the court or the availability of police cell
accommodation whichever is sooner.
30. When deporting prisoners in batches, how many are permitted in any one group of deportees at a
time? : 6.
31. Emergency travel documents (ETDs) are issued only by? : Passport officer.
32. What are the 2 methods of identifying the deceased persons? : Identification of body as that of a
particular person by witness who last saw her alive and identification of body by police as that
found at the scene.
33. Whose authority is required before dyes are used for trapping purposes? : A CID Supt and above.
34. In trapping, what happens to the liquor brought by a trap from the dealer? : Allow the accused to
taste same if he wishes and label in his presence and the seal must not be broken until the court
date in court.
35. Which of the following symptoms may indicate rabies in a dog? : Loss of appetite, inclined to
wander and fear of water.
36. Which is the first action that should be taken after fingerprints checks and preservation of an
exhibit, in the instance of the receipt of an anonymous letter? : Make a copy of it.
37. How do you preserve a cut wire of fence? : Use grease or oil and where IO makes another but
genuine cut bend the wire at this point and mark.
38. Normal solution prepared in emergency: 1 teaspoon full to ¾ full litre.
39. A member holding a n advanced or intermediate grade classification and not being actively
engaged on patrol car driving has to do what to retain his classification? : Pass a driving test at a
police driving school once a yr.
40. When absolutely necessary, civilian witnesses can be called to testify in police trials which. Which
forms are used to claim their T &S from PGHQ? : Z852 (T) or Z852 (T) to staff officer finance. NB
urgent payment may be effected through contigence or imprest accounts and supporting vouchers
submitted for refund in the usual manner.

47
41. He earns cash, he is absent to receive his salary on due date. Details of the salary due to the
member must be transferred to what? : A short receipt (form Z274 T) and a note that this has been
done on relevant entry on payment. NB Original pay sheet not to be shown on short receipt.
42. When can a short board be convened? : When there is a docket with full account on full
circumstances of the case.
43. The OC province has the power to suspend member of up to what rank when facing criminal
charges? : C/Insp and below.
44. How many deceased patience cards should be filled in accurately? : 2.
45. Account for the distribution of the above deceased patient cards: 1 card is secured to the body and
the second card is sent to the administrator’s office.
46. How often is the administrator to ensure the inspection of the mortuary for taking the inventory
and action on unclaimed bodies? : At least 2 times a week.
47. No burial order or death certificate for fetuses of what age? : Less than 28 weeks (incinerated
within 24 hrs of delivery).
48. What about if it is a body of which relatives have to be followed up? : 15 days.
49. Dockets classification: Petty – 21 days; Moderate – 30 days and Serious – 60 days.
50. For how long should cash as found property be kept and destroyed? : Kept for a period of not
exceeding 1 month and if not claimed will be banked in the consolidated revenue fund.
51. How is lost or strayed stock treated? : It is not entered into the lost property book but is
investigated as stolen.
52. How is a completed Z69J distributed? : 1st copy – clerk of court with money, 2nd copy – given to
accused, 3rd copy – statistical purposes and 4th copy – retained in book for audit purposes.
53. Prisoners are allowed to communicate with their legal representatives within? : Sight but out of
hearing of the police officer.
54. When should used up notebooks or notebooks withdrawn from transferred members be destroyed?
: After 1 yr of the last entry.
55. How often should a notebook be inspected and by who? : Once every month by OIC/MIC.
56. On the use of a notebook, what does the word ELBOWS mean? :
E – Erasures, not permitted
L – Leaves/pages, should not be plugged out
B – Blank spaces, not to be left
O – Omissions, not allowed
W – Writing should be neat and legible.
S – Substitutions, not allowed.
57. Under scene attendance the following word is a brief explanation of what you should do when
attending a scene. What is the meaning of each letter in the word STAIRS? :
S – Summary of case
T – Time, record accurate dates and times
A – Action, at the scene
I – Information from witnesses/complainants
R – Report, to OIC/MIC as soon as possible
S – Station, ensure that all the station records are updated after attending the scene.

48
58. What are the five rural patrols? : Farming area patrol, communal land patrol, saturation patrol, road
patrols and night patrol.
59. What is a beat patrol?: a patrol of a given area usually urban area either on foot or bicycle with
check points being made at intervals.
60. In scene attendance what should you do before you alter the position of exhibits?: Take note in
your notebook.
61. How should officers walk to the scene? In a single file.
62. How should you examine a scene? Start from centre going outwards or from the bottom upwards.
63. All sadden death reports will be attended by the police except the following: where a doctor has
issued a death certificate to the effect that death was as a result of natural causes and no foul play
is suspected, where there is clear evidence of long illness whether treated by a doctor or not and
no foul play is suspected.
64. What should you do where a doctor refuses ti issue a death certificate? : Open a sadden death
docket.
65. In a death where there has been a complication, how long should the docket be kept? A period not
shorter than 20 years.
66. In a death where no foul play is suspected, how long should the docket be kept? Retained for a
period not longer than 3 years.
67.What is the order of calling experts to a scene of crime? :DOPHOFIFO
DO- Dogs, PHO- Photographer, FI- Fingerprint FO- Forensic scientists
68. Who should you call to a scene where weapons and cartridges have to be examined? : Ballistic
experts/specialists.
69. Where handwriting is in dispute, how many samples should be collected? : 3 samples.
70. Where a signature is in dispute, how many samples should be collected? : 12 samples.
71. How best should you preserve prints on a glass? : Preserve the glass indoor, leaned against the
wall and hold the glass with the very edge.
72. How best should you handle paper exhibits? : Handle using glass or tweezers and place into a
folder or plastic bag.
73. When should experts only be called to testify orally in court? : When absolutely necessary.
74. Where should you get glass jars to store exhibits? : From the medical stores.
75. Where a person is suspected of being poisoned, how should you preserve the specimen collected? :
Preserve using rectified spirits except vomit which should not be preserved.
76. On whose discretion are gazettes compiled? : OC CID.
77. Define Evidence Alluende? Evidence from another source.
78. Who should conduct an identification parade? : Senior member in charge of the case.
79. How best should you preserve wet seminal deposits? : Wipe up with absorbent cloth and then dry
in shade.
80. What is the information published in the gazettes? :
 Special notices – unusual matters
 Apprehension sought
 Information sought
 Missing persons

49
  Additional information – adding information
 Persons in custody wanted elsewhere.
81. What is carding? : The process of completing forms to ensure that information is published in the
gazette.
82. How many people should make up an identification parade where there is only one suspect? : 8 or
more.
83. How many people should be on the identification parade where more than one suspect is
present? : 12 or more.
84. Is a suspect compelled to take part in the parade? : Not compelled.
85. What then should be done if the suspect refuses to take part in the parade? : Nothing is done but
this should be brought to the attention of the PP.
86. How many photographs should you have when trying to identify a suspect by means of
photographs? : 12.
87. What are the two types of identification parades? : Formal ID parade and informal ID parade.
88. Who is to determine whether it is possible to have a dog at the scene? : Dog handler.
89. What are the three forms of evidence? : Documentary evidence, real evidence and oral evidence.
90. What are the six types of evidence? : Best evidence, direct evidence/ oral/documentary evidence,
hearsay/original evidence, condusive evidence and prima face evidence.
91. What should be done if a person is having more liquor than for consumption? : have a signpost
showing that he was licenced and had premises fitted like a bar.
92. Pointers: are objects seen common to the place in which they are found.

Search warrants and seizure of property

Statements: when compiling statements ensure that identities are firmly established that the days
and dates and times are possibly correct. Write what the witness is saying and not what you want
him to say. Don’t include hearsay, a person can only attest to something he heard or saw himself.
Statements from juveniles should be taken with their parents or guardians present.
Trapping: Authority for trapping must be obtained from an officer of or above the rank of Supt in
writing and should be conducted under the direction of a senior A/I or above. No traps to be set for
gold and precious stones cases.
Warrants of arrest: any judge, magistrate or justice may issue a warrant of arrest of any person
or for the further detention of a person arrested without a warrant on written application
subscribed by the AG or by the local public prosecutor or a police officer who is of above the rank
of inspector or police officer in charge of a police station who is of rank of above A/I.
Procedure of warrant application: an A/I or inspector applies to a supt or above, who is a
justice of peace for the warrant. The warrant is to be made out in duplicate. There is a tendency
for a person of a lesser rank than inspector to make out and sign the application for the warrant.
This is incorrect unless he is an A/I in charge of a station.
Warrants for further detention
Procedure: an inspector or A/I in charge of a station applies to a supt or above who is a justice of
peace for a warrant for further detention. The warrant is to be made in duplicate. One is the

50
warrant for further detention file. The detention book is to be endorsed with the date and time of
the warrant.

Industrial accidents
All accidents which occur within factory premises, on structural work (buildings, bridges, dams,
scaffolding etc and boilers, including farm boilers) must be notified to the dept of occupational
safety who will investigate and prepare a report if prosecution is warranted.
Mining accidents
It is the responsibility of the mine manager to report all accidents to the mining inspector who will
carry out the necessary investigations. The police are only responsible for the presentation of the
docket to the prosecutor if prosecution is there and in the case of a fatality the presentation of a
sudden death docket to the magistrate. The police will not go underground in connection with the
investigations without specific instructions from an officer of or above the rank of supt, acting on
the advice of the mine inspector.
Bail
The purpose of bail is to secure the accused’s appearance at court. If the accused fail to report to
the court on the date and time stated, the bail money will be forfeited to the state and a warrant
for his arrest issued.

CIVIL MATTERS AND TRIVIAL REPORTS

Death: All sudden death scenes must be attended except where there is clear evidence upon the
death of a person e.g. death certified by a doctor or after long illness.
Burial order: it is obtained by the relatives of the deceased from the registrar of birth and deaths
or the local DA.
Passing death message: not to be passed through the phone and also do not usually make
people to give them bad news.
Detention of accused: Purpose of police detention is to secure the accused’s presence at court
and not to punish him/her.
Interviews with prisoners: Prisoners are allowed to communicate with their friends and
relatives, provided this can be done without prejudice to any pending prosecution. The interview
must be done in the presence and hearing of a policeman. A legal adviser or lawyer interviewing an
accused (his customer) should do so in the sight of the policeman but out of hearing of the
policeman.
Perishable exhibits: can be destroyed on the authority of an officer of or above the rank of supt.
Petrol, oil and lubricant returns (petrol pumps): the top meter indicates the amount of
petrol/diesel issued and is called the flow meter. The bottom little figures which increases with any
issue make the pump accounting meter.
Dress order: no civilian cloth to be mixed with police uniform. Batons and firearms shall be worn
or carried as when ordered. Medals shall be worn at funerals and at parades when ordered. When

51
putting on FD suit and performing administration duties and out of public view, may remove the
jacket, FD whipcord and wear badges of rank, slip on, with the shirt drab.
Force number: all embers of the ZRP of the rank of inspector and below will wear a badge on
which is displayed their force number and that each member is to be issued with two of these
badges.
Headgear when driving: the driver and the front seat passenger only may remove such
headgear in vehicle where there is insufficient headroom for it to be worn in comfort and safety.
Wearing of uniform by pregnant police women: a woman should start putting on
civilian/plain clothes at the third month of the pregnancy or earlier if the fact she is pregnant is
evident or obvious.
Flags: (hoisting, flying and lowering): flags are hoisted at 0600 hrs daily except on Sundays
and public holidays where they should be hoisted at 0630 hrs. Flags are lowered at 1730 hrs.
Scientific aids: In arson investigation, the main objective is to determine the point where the fire
started. In an armed assault the recovery of the weapon that was used particularly if it was a
firearm is the primary concern. A firearm may show fingerprints or have some uniqueness because
of the presence of a serial number, scratches or other unusual features. Search the area for
projectiles and spent cartridges. Once a projectile is located, try to establish its path or line of fire.
NB use a gunshot residue test at the scene of crime whenever practicable to substantiate whether
a person handled or fired the weapon. Collect clothing samples from a suspect (the gunshot
residue test can be used on his outer clothing even if he is not apprehended soon enough for such
a test to be made on his hands).
Bombing: when there is a bomb threat, the validity of the threat must be determined as quickly as
possible. Call in a team designated for conduct bomb searches of a threatened area. If a suspicious
package is located, call in an appropriate bomb disposal team. Do not touch but move people from
the bomb, not to move the bomb away from the people. When bomb threats have been made by
telephone, find out all you can about the caller from the person who received the call. If the threat
was made by letter, carefully collect and preserve the letter so that any fingerprints, typewriting,
hand writing or the paper it can be analysed. In a post blast situation, there should first be a search
conducted by bomb disposal experts to determine if there is a second bmb set as an entrapment
device. Station radio equipment list (ZRP form252): these are to be completed by the
provincial signals office in respect of each station or section holding police radio equipment. Five
copies should be prepared and distributed as follows:
(a) SSO signals
(b)Provincial quartermaster
(c) OIC station/section
(d)Radio workshop
(e) Provincial signal officer

In order that accurate records are available when estimates are being prepared, it is desirable that
fresh forms are submitted during the first five months of the year.

Bigotry: a convener shall not later than 7 days before a public procession or determination is to be
held, give notice to the regulatory authority. During an election period, the period of notice of a

52
public meeting shall be 3 days. Any traditional weapon whatsoever is likely to occasion public
disorder or a breach of the peace, may within that police district be prohibited for a specified period
of time not exceeding 1 month. The prohibition shall not have effect until it is published a) in a
newspaper circulating in the area in which the prohibition applies, b) by notices distributed among
the public buildings in the area, c) by announcement of a police officer broadcast made orally.

Fire: in case of fire, stop the engine and where available use carbon- tera chloride extinguisher. No
smoking or naked lights in alternator house.

Faults: no unauthorized persons to effect repairs on engines. All faults must be reported
immediately to OIC radio workshop.

Do not: a) stop the engine by means of yellow/decompressor lever. b) Stop the engine by closing
the fuel tap or allow the fuel to dry.

Generators: the fuel tank of a generator should be washed after every 2000 hrs of running.

Batteries: a hydrometer is used to measure the specific gravity of the battery. Indicate the state
of charge of the battery stop charging when the specific gravity reaches 1220. The specific gravity
of a fully charged battery is 1220 and fully discharged battery/cell is 1170. The positive terminal is
the larger of the two terminals and is usually painted red whilst the negative terminal is painted
blue. When charging, the red (positive) charger lead should be connected to the positive (red)
terminal and the black lead to the negative (blue terminal). Hydrogen gas is generated during
charging which can be highly explosive. Do not charge batteries in a confined space as the gases
generated are injurious to health. Either choose a well ventilated room or charge in the open air.
Whenever recharging a battery, it should not be connected to a running machine/engine.
Presumptions/ facts requiring no proof:
There is a presumption that a child under the age of 14 yrs cannot commit an offence. There is a
presumption of innocence.
There is a presumption that a child born in wedlock is legitimate is legitimate until the contrary is
proven even if born on the very day of the marriage, is a legitimate child and can only be rebutted
by evidence.
There is presumption that official acts are carried out competently.
There is presumption as to sanity until the contrary is proved.
There is presumption that the possessor of property is the owner thereof. This is applicable to
movable property.
Irrebuttable presumptions of law: A child under the age of 7 yrs cannot commit a
crime/offence.

Security classifications for messages

a) Top secret: Information/material if disclosed would cause grave damage to Zimbabwe.
b) Secret: information/material if disclosed would cause serious damage to the interest of
Zimbabwe.
c) Confidential: information if disclosed will cause prejudicial to the interest of Zimbabwe.

53
 d) Restricted: information other than top secret, secret or confidential which should not be
disclosed to anyone other than a gvt employee.
NB. No classified message to be transmitted in clear language. UHF/ VHF incident codes to be
used in urban areas where speed and brevity, combined with a degree of privacy is required.
Imposition of silence: The station in distress is permitted to impose radio silence on all
stations by using the expression “STOP TRANSMITTING, MAY DAY”. Any station hearing a
station a station transmitting when there is a distress call shall also impose silence by saying
stop transmitting, distress call, followed by its own call sign.
OCC: Operations co-ordinating committee
JOC: Joint operation command
JSB: Joint signal board
NB. Full details of any radio deception should be reported to senior staff officer signals.

INTERFERENCE ON POLICE RADIO CIRCUIT

Man made:

(i) Intentional interference.

This can result from deception or jamming. An unauthorized station transmits on police channels,
purports to be a police station and passes or attempts to pass misleading messages or other information.
It is difficult to deal with without the introduction of authentication procedure.

(ii) Unintentional: this type of interference maybe caused by a radio transmission or other electrical
interference from a non police station being heard on police registered frequencies. The station hearing
the transmission should attempt to identify any call sign used and advise SSO immediately, giving the
call sign frequency and time of transmission. Should anything of security nature be heard the information
should also be reported to CIO HQ? No attempt to communicate with the offending station if it is thought
to be situated outside Zimbabwe.

Ionosphere (conditions of the atmosphere):

When a fade out occurs, the next lowest channel should be tried. In Zimbabwe fade outs are fairly
common during winter. During summer electrical storms can severely disrupt radio communications. The
noise caused by the build up of static electricity prior to a lightning strike can be severe and seriously
affect readability. There is no easy remedy to this problem other than the use of earphones and
concentration by the receiving operators.

ROAD TRAFFIC ACT

54
 It is an act to provide the licencing of motor vehicle; for the issue and recognition of
international driving permits and foreign drivers’ licences; for compulsory insurance against third
party risks arising out of the use of motor vehicles; for traffic signs and police directions; for the
control of certain advertisements; for certain offences connected to the road traffic ; for
prohibition from driving and endorsement of licences and for the powers and duties of various
persons; and to matters incidental with the foregoing.
1. What is advertisement? : Any apparatus or structure erected or intended only for the display of
advertisements but does not include a traffic sign.
2. What is axle load? : The aggregate mass supported by the surface of the road or other base
whereon the vehicle mass or rests, measured at the point of contact between such surface and
the several wheels attached to such axle.
3. What is a construction trailer? : Any trailer used in the construction or maintenance of
boreholes, road, waterworks wells and other civil engineering projects; and declared to be a
construction trailer in terms of subsection 2.
4. What is a construction vehicle? : Is a vehicle used to tow a construction trailer and declared to
be a construction vehicle in terms of sub section 2.
5. What is a heavy vehicle? : Motor vehicle exceeding 2300kgs net mass, but does not include a
passenger motor vehicle having seating accommodation for not more than 7 passengers.
6. What is a motor cycle? : Motor vehicle which has fewer than 4 wheels, and is designed to be
steered by means of handle bars.
7. What is parking? : The standing or waiting in any public place of any vehicle not actually
engaged insetting down or taking up goods or passengers or both.
8. What is a road? : Any highway, street or other road to which the public or any section thereof
has access and includes any bridge, ferry or portion over which a road passes; and any drift in
the line of a road; and any approach, culvert, cutting, dam, ditch, drain, embarkment. Fence,
grid, guard, karb, poropet, subway or other works , anything belonging to or connected with or
forming part of a road; and any public place and for the purposes of sections 51 to 55, 64, 70,
76 and 77, any private car park or private road.
9. What is a tractor? : A motor vehicle, other than a motor vehicle designed to form part of an
articulated vehicle, which is used for the purpose of drawing one or more trailers but which is
not itself designed to carry any load.
10. No person shall drive a motor vehicle on the road unless: he is a holder of a licence issued to
him in respect of motor vehicles of the class concerned; and complies with the conditions, if any,
subject to which the licence referred to in paragraph (a) was issued.
11. No person under the age of: a)16 yrs shall drive on a road any motor vehicle, b) 18 yrs shall
drive on a road a construction vehicle, heavy vehicle or passenger public service vehicle.
12. What is a miner? : A person who is the holder of a registered mining locations.
13. What is a farmer? : A person who is licenced in terms of the farmers licencing and levy act,
chapter 18:10.
14. The holder of a tractor driver’s permit shall not drive a tractor on a road unless? : He has the
tractor driver’s permit on his person or outside the area of the farm or registered mining location
specified in the tractor driver’s permit as the farm or registered mining location.

55
15. A local authority shall place and maintain on or near each road, where such road enters the
urban area under its jurisdiction or any specified part thereof in respect of which a general
maximum speed has been provided of: a) a traffic sign indicating the general maximum speed
provided for in respect of such urban area or such part thereof, as the case maybe; and if
different maximum speeds have been provided for in respect of vehicles of different classes, it
shall not be necessary for a traffic sign placed and maintained in terms of this sub section to
indicate the different maximum speeds so provided for in respect of vehicles of each different
class.
16. Whose authority, thereto in writing, may cause or permit traffic signs to be placed on or near
any road? : Minister of transport or anyone authorized by him.
17. What designs shall be a traffic sign? : Shall be of a prescribed colour, size or type.
18. What period should a police sign remain on display in the same place on the side of the road? :
For a period not exceeding 7 days at any one time.
19. A police sign shall? : override the instruction conveyed by a traffic sign.
20. A driver of a vehicle shall? : obey all instructions given by police whether verbally or by signal.
21. How many days should be given if an affidavit is to be produced in court? : Notice of not less
than 3 days prior to the production should be given.
22. Who gives permission for the display of an advertisement which is visible from a road? : Minister
of Roads.
23. Driving without due care and attention or reasonable consideration for others is an offence? :
Under the RTA.
24. Define circumstances? : Circumstances surrounding the commission of an offence concerned,
but does not include special circumstances peculiar to the offence.
25. What is the concentration of alcohol in the blood prohibited to drive a vehicle? : 50mg/100ml of
blood.
26. If, in any prosecution for an offence in terms of sub section (2), it is proved that the alcohol
concentration in the blood of the accused was not less than a certain number of mgs per 100ml
at any time within a period of two hrs after the alleged offence,: it shall be presumed unless the
contrary is proved, that such concentration was not less than such number of mgs per 100ml at
the time of the alleged offence.
27. If, in any prosecution for an alleged offence in terms of sub section (2), it is proved that the
concentration of alcohol in the blood of the accused was not less than 150mg/100ml at the time
of such offence, it shall be presumed unless the contrary is proved that the accused at such a
time under the influence of alcohol or of a drug, as the case may be to such an extend as to be
incapable of having proper control of the vehicle concerned.
28. A person who discharges a firearm on a road or within a distance of 50m on either sides of the
road: shall be guilty of an offence.
29. What is an animal? : Any ass, cattle, goat, horse, pig, or sheep.
30. If a driver of a vehicle which is involved in or contributes to an accident does not give his name
and address to any person requiring the same in terms of sub paragraph (v) of sub section 2
and having reasonable grounds for so requiring or if no such requirement is made, : he shall
report such an accident at a police station as to a police officer of or above the rank of sgt or

56
 such other ranks as may be prescribed as soon as is reasonably practicable, and in any event
within 24 hrs of the occurrence of such an accident.
31. According to the roads and road traffic (construction, equipment and use) regulations, what is
night? : Means half an hour after sunset until half an hour before sunrise.
32. What is a commercial vehicle? : A lorry, tractor, van, including a vehicle commonly known as a
“pick up”, breakdown van or other like motor vehicles not exceeding 2300kg net mass, but does
not include vehicles commonly known as compe imps or station wagons.
33. Within what distance should a horn be heard? : At a distance of not less than 100m, but does
not include any gong, bell, siren or any other instrument capable of emitting a sound similar to
that of any gong, bell or siren.
34. What is a reflex reflector? : A reflector of glass or other reflective material designed to reflect
light back to the source of such light.
35. What is the width of a vehicle allowed on the road? : 2,5m.
36. What is the maximum height of a vehicle allowed on the road? : 4,6m.
37. What distance should be shown by a light of a cycle during night? :A distance of not less than
3m and not more than 30m ahead of such pedal cycle.
38. How many reversing lights can be fitted on a motor vehicle? : Not less than 2 lamps, illuminating
the road to the rear of or under the vehicle.
39. What power should be the reversing lamp? : Shall not exceed 15 watts.
40. How many trailers should be towed on the road? ; Not more than 3.
41. What is the maximum weight a cyclist should carry on a cycle? : Load/ passenger not exceeding
a mass of 35kg.
42. No person shall drive on any road any motor vehicle towing another vehicle? : if the space
between the vehicles exceeds 4m, and unless the vehicle being towed is so attached to the
towing vehicle as to be under proper control.
43. Summoning of an traffic offender to court is done before? : 14 days.
44. What term refers to anyone arrested for a traffic offence? : Offender.
45. What is the validity of an international driver’s licence? : 3 yrs.
46. How long shall a foreign driver’s licence be valid? : 270 days.
47. What is meant by public vehicle service? : Taxi, emergency taxi or all other vehicles bearing
white registration plates with red numbers.
48. What shall be the duration of a bus or taxi substantive permit? : 5 yrs.
49. What is the duration of a bus temporary road service permit? : 3 yrs.
50. How long shall emergency taxi permit be valid? : 6 months.
51. Where shall the route of an ET be indicated? : On the front mudguard of the vehicle.
52. How long shall public service vehicles and trailers’ certificates of fitness be valid? : 1 yr.
53. On which route shall a bus on private hire permit operate? : Anywhere in Zimbabwe for hiring
purpose only.
54. A horn shall be heard available for? : 100m.
55. Discharging a firearm is an offence if? : on or 50m from the road.
56. How long shall a pvt hire permit be valid? ; 5 yrs, issued same day with substantive.
57. Which vehicles require no safety belts? : Ambulance and fire engine vehicles.

57
58. Who are those people exempted from wearing safety belts? : Drivers when reversing, a person
in driving instructional duties, a vehicle examiner conducting driving tests, a person driving a
delivery van which allows him to drop off the vehicle now and again and the speed limit does not
exceed 30km/hr.
59. In the case of twin rear wheels, where is overlong from? : 10cm from the rear of centre of the
rear articles.
60. What is the maximum length of a vehicle? : 12,5m, and articulated vehicle with trailers, 22m.
61. What is the maximum height of a vehicle? : 4,6m.
62. What is required by the board before the registration of a driving school? : A new floor of at
least 14sq m and have qualified instructors.
63. What are the qualifications of a driving instructor? :
64. How long shall instructors’ certificate be valid? : 2 yrs from the date of issue and 2 yrs on
renewal.
65. How many days shall be given to an instructor before cancellation of his certificate? : 48 hrs for
his vehicle to reach inspection depot from the time of being found unroadworthy. Detention of
vehicles without particulars: 24 hrs and 21 days notice.
66. An instructor facing cancellation of his certificate can appeal to the minister within what period? :
14 days.
67. After how long shall a certificate of road worthiness be submitted to the board? : Every 6
months.
68. What is the board under the RT (driving schools) regs act? : Zimbabwe safety board.
69. What are the other qualifications required to be an instructor? : Defensive driving course, a
member of the institute of advanced motorists.
70. Who may declare certain countries to be designated member states under the road traffic
amendment act 18/90? : President.
71. Who shall be obliged to compensate any person for any loss or damage which that person has
suffered under RT amendment 18/90? : The national bureau of Zim (NBZ).
72. What is an animal under the Hazardous substances and articles regs 1984? : Domestic or wild
animals, birds or fish but does not include….
73. A road tanker means a goods vehicle having any tank with what capacity? : 500 litres or more.
74. When a tanker is used for one load, the operator must make sure that it is provided and displays
what? : 3 hazard warning barrels (one at the rear and one on either side).
75. Who may stop at any time any road tanker on which a hazardous substance is being
conveyed? : Inspector.
76. What is an animal under RTA? : Any ass, cattle, dog, goat, horse, mule, pig, sheep.
77. What does encher point mean? : Safety belt.
78. What does bench seat mean? : Front seat extended continuously from the driving position to the
rear side passenger position.
79. What are minimum requirements for safety kit? : A capped brush threaded and turned out mild
steel installed that it does not pull through or deform the pillar to which it is fitted, thickness of
wall not less than 3mm specially threaded brush with length not less than15mm long, chrome
plated to prevent rusting, and kept in good efficient order.

58
80. Are passengers obliged to wear safety belts? : Yes, whenever occupying front seat and children
under the age of 10 yrs to wear safety device suitable to prevent them in the event of an
accident.
81. Can any one be exempted from wearing safety belts? : Yes, by application to the minister or on
medical grounds such people to produce to the minister proof as he may require for them to be
exempted.
82. When can safety belts be replaced? : When it is stretched in the course of use to more than 8%
of any part of its manufactured length.
83. What is the penalty for not wearing safety belt? : Fine not exceeding $100.00.
84. Who is exempted from wearing safety belts? : Examiner when conducting a road test, any driver
when reversing, and any driver or person while on the course of work which requires him to
alight frequently and where the speed is less than 30km/hr, any person engaged in drivers
instruction while seated on the passenger’s seat.

FORESTRY ACT
85. Who is the minister under this act? : Minister of natural resources and tourism.
86. Who shall be given notice to burn vegetation on his land? : The occupier of all adjoining land.
87. Within what period shall a preliminary notice of the burning be given? : 2 to 8 weeks.
88. What about the final warning? : 6 to 24 hrs.
89. Who shall be handed this notice? : Any person on the land, aged over 16 yrs.
90. What shall be done when the occupier is absent? : A written notice must be fixed in the same
conspicuous place on the land.
91. Within what period shall the owner of the land call upon occupiers of adjoining land to assist in
establishing a fireguard? : 3 weeks.
92. How much should be paid by a person who fails to give such assistance and thereafter fireguard
done by one occupier? : Half the cost necessary for such construction or maintenance.
93. What is sufficient fireguard? : 9m wide on either side of a common boundary.
94. Where disputes of fireguards shall be referred to? : Natural resources board (NRB).
95. Who shall demand licences of / permit or authority required under the forestry act? : Magistrate,
justice of peace, forestry officer and police officer.
96. Who owns any forestry produce? : The commission unless the contrary is proved.
97. What does counter firing mean? : Firing done to prevent injury from an approaching fire.
98. Who shall give orders to occupiers of land not to cut or give methods of cutting indigenous
timber on pvt land? : Minister.
99. Who shall give orders about the size of the fireguard? : The minister in consultation with NRB in
written orders.
100. Who shall give a notice prohibiting entry into part of forest be published? : Gvt gazette.
101. Within what period shall such a notice after publish in the gazette be published in
Newspaper circulating in the district in which the forestry is situated? : 14 days.
102. Where shall a notice prohibiting entry into any pvt forestry be placed? : Displayed at or
near every place where a path or track enters the area concerned.

59
103. How long shall such notice be valid? : 1 yr.
104. Whose authority is sought before any person could plant a non indigenous tree? :
Minister.
105. Within what distance shall a person not be allowed to plant any non indigenous plants
from the Mozambiquean boundary? : 50m.
106. Who appoints forest officers? : Minister.
107. To whom shall damages caused in good faith by any person in charge of operation
lawfully undertaken under the forestry act be reported at the first convenient opportunity? :
Police officer, justice of peace or provincial magistrate of the concerned province.

THE FIREARMS ACT CHAPTER 308

108. What is ammunition? : Means ammunition for any firearm, including grenades, bombs,
and any other like missiles whether capable for use by firearm or not.
109. What is firearm? : Any lethal barreled weapon of any description from which only short
bullets or any other missiles can be discharged or which can be adopted for the charge of any
short bullet or any other missiles, the barrel, belt and chamber or any other essential component
part of such weapon.
110. Who is the minister under this act? : Minister of Home Affairs.
111. Who is exempted from holding a firearm certificate? : A firearm dealer, an auctioneer,
carrier or storage contractor or employees of such persons, holder of slaughtering instrument in
the abattoir, member of riffle club.
112. Which caliber of ammunition requires no firearm certificate? : 5,5mm, known as point 22
(air gun) and air pistol.
113. How long shall a firearm permit obtained by a visitor from customs officer be valid? : 3
months.
114. Within what period shall such holder of permit surrender it to the controller of firearms? :
Within 14 days.
115. Within what period shall a person produce a firearm certificate to the police? : 7 days.
116. Who shall demand a firearm certificate for inspection? : Any police officer.
117. Who shall inspect all stock in hand and register of a firearm dealer? : Any police officer.
118. Who shall, as information given on oath, authorises police to enter at any time and search
the premises for a firearm believed to be unlawfully used and its disposal? : Magistrate or justice
of peace.
119. Who shall authorise any police officer to enter premises and obtain information? : Minister
of Home affairs.
120. Where shall a firearm be manufactured? : In a registered factory.
121. Who may under a written order, grant manufacture of firearm in a factory? : The
controller.

60
122. Within what period shall a person notify the controller of any sell, lets or hire or lends of
firearm? : 7 days from the day of transaction.
123. Where shall a firearm be repaired? : At a firearm dealer.
124. Within what period shall the holder of a firearm certificate notify the controller of change
of address? : Within 21 days.
125. How long shall a firearm certificate by valid? : 3 yrs.
126. When shall a firearm certificate expire? : 31 December of the 3rd year.
127. Which age is prohibited from buying or hiring a firearm? : Any person under 16 yrs.
128. Which age is prohibited from accepting a firearm as a gift? : Any person under the age of
14 yrs.
129. What weight is required to be on the door that closes firearm? ; 50kgs.
130. When shall a lost firearm be reported to the police? : As soon as practicable within 24 hrs.
131. What is meant by sufficient fence? : A fence with not less than 4 wire strands and not less
than 1m high. For plain wire, it must not be less than 5 strands and not less than 1m high.
132. Changing of length or base of riffle or fitting of silencing device requires whose
authority? : Controller.

COPPER CONTROL ACT CHAPTER 281

133. Who issues copper dealers licence? : The minister of mines.
134. How long shall the licence be valid? : 1 yr.
135. How long shall copper register of the transactions be kept? : 3 yrs.
136. Within what period shall entry in the register be made of any transaction? : 24 hrs.
137. Which are hours of business during whish copper may be sold or bought? : Between 0700
hrs and 2100hrs.
138. How long shall the copper be kept before changing its shape to anything or any form? : 4
days.
139. Who can authorise the change of copper to any form before the required 4 days? : A
police officer in writing.
140. How long shall a copper dealer keep his certificate of clearance of documentary evidence
of title to sell copper? : A period of 12 months.
141. Who issues a certificate of clearance? : Police officer of rank of inspector or above.

PROTECTED PLACES AND AREAS ACT CHAPTER 89.

142. Define an officer? ; Any person or police officer performing duties of guard or watchman
in a protected place.
143. Who authorises a person to be an authorised officer? : A commissioned police officer.
144. Define a foreign agent? : Any person who has to be or is reasonably inspected of being or
having been directly or secretly employed by the gvt of a country or a hostile organization for
the purpose of committing in Zimbabwe or elsewhere an act prejudicial to safety or interest of
Zimbabwe.
145. Define a hostile organization? : Any organization operating outside Zimbabwe which is
declared by the President by notice in the Gazette, to be hostile organization on the grounds

61
 that it is furthering or encouraging persons to commit acts prejudicial to the safety or interests
of Zimbabwe.
146. What does munitions of war means? :Any article or material or device or any part thereof
whether actual or proposed, intended or adopted for use in a war or defences of Zimbabwe or
capable of being adopted for such use.
147. A person shall not be deemed to have ceased to be a resident of Zimbabwe by reason
only if his absence thereon if: He retains a home in Zimbabwe, if he is absent from Zim for a
temporary purpose, and if he is domiciled in Zim.
148. What is a police officer under the emergency powers regs 5/458/83? : Any member of the
ZRP, defence forces of Zim and central intelligence organization.
149. Any person found within 100m shall be guilty of? : trespass.

ANIMAL HEALTH ACT

150. For cattle to be said they are tick infested, how many ticks will have been observed? : If
you find 10% of cattle in that herd with 100 or more live ticks, or when 10 or more engaged
ticks on any one of the herd of cattle, or when 5 or more engaged ticks on each of at least 5
herd of cattle in that herd.
151. What shall a police officer who comes across a fatally injured domesticated animal do if
this amount to cruelty to animals, if he leaves it in that state? : A vet surgeon, or shall summon
2 reasonable persons to make a certificate that the animal is fatally injured and therefore shall
be killed using painless methods.
152. Who may authorise that a cruelly treated animal be taken to a safe place? : Magistrate.
153. How old shall a pig be castrated? : 3 months.
154. How old shall a sheep be castrated? : 6 months.
155. How old shall a dog’s tail be cut? : Before its eyes are open.
156. How shall a fatally injured animal be killed? : By a painless method e.g. a firearm or
injection.
157. When shall the injuries to dangerous animals be reported under the parks and wildlife act
14/75? : Not later than 24 hrs.
158. How old shall be a person authorised to castrate? : 16 yrs and above.

EXPLOSIVES REGS SECTION 172/89

159. How many members of a board are needed for quorum at a meeting? : 3.
160. Within which period shall landing of explosives be prohibited? : Between sunset and
sunrise.
161. At what speed shall a vehicle carrying explosives pass at an area of local authority? : At
not more than 50km/hr.
162. At what speed shall an animal drawn vehicle travel when passing through an area of local
authority? : Faster rate than walking pace.
163. What shall be the space between vehicles travelling carrying explosives? : 45m.
164. At what distance shall a vehicle carrying explosives stop from inhabitant place during
thunderstorm? : 500m.

62
165. Vehicles carrying explosives all carry fire extinguishers inspected at intervals of not more
than how many days? : 90 days.
166. What is the expiring period of an explosive licence? : 3 yrs.
167. Vehicles carrying explosives while they are in a dangerous area shall have the right of way
over all other vehicles. At what speed shall they travel? : Not exceeding 35km/hr.
168. Where an explosive licence has been revoked, a person may appeal to the minister within
what period? : 14 days.
169. What is a magazine under the explosives act? : A safe storage of explosives.
170. What distance around an immovable magazine shall be cleared of flammables? : A radius
of 20m.
171. What quality of explosives carried at any one time shall require the driver to have an
assistant and what distance shall be travelled? : If carrying 500kgs of explosives and if distance
to be covered is more than 100km.
172. How long is a portable magazine licence valid? : 1 yr.
173. How long is immovable magazine licence valid? : 5 yrs.
174. When shall primary blasting take place? : At the end of the shift only and this shall take
place once in 24 hrs in any individual shift.
175. After blasting, how many hours shall be taken before going under ground? : 4 hrs.
176. Where do you obtain authority for the explosives to be kept for 2 days underground? :
Mining inspector.
177. How shall explosives be kept? : In regular layers and not more than 2m high.
178. Which are the 5 blasting licences? : Full blasting, coal mine, surface endorsed, mine
blasting licence and restricted blasting licence which is issued by the minister.
179. What shall be the conditions for explosives to be sold? : Date of manufacture must be
stamped on the case, and fuse igniter cord to show limits of burning speed.
180. When can you approach a misfired electrical charge? : 10 minutes after connectors have
been disconnected and made safe.
181. When shall a non electrical charge be approached? : After at least 30 minutes.
182. What are the full qualifications of a full blasting licence? : Not less than 300 shifts
underground mining experience including at least 75 shifts blasting experience under the direct
supervision of the holder of a full blasting licence, and not less than 20 yrs old unless when
having done a course of leadership or recommended by the manager.
183. Name some of the permitted explosives: saxonate, coaltex, Ajax, monobel.
184. How much explosives may be stored at any one time? : 50 explosives and 100 detonators.
185. Where shall explosive factory apply to? : To chief inspector of explosives. [NB booths or
shoes allowing metal to come into contact with floor must be removed].
186. How many people shall count the number of explosives? : 2 of which one shall be a holder
of a blasting licence.
187. Any inspector may grant authority of storage of explosives of how much? : Less than
6kgs.
188. What is an explosion? : It includes a fire caused by the explosion.

63
189. What shall be the distance from a radio installation where it shall be prohibited to carry
out blasting? : No blasting 450m from such radio installation.
190. Whose permission may then be sought to carry out such blasting? : Chief inspector’s
permission in writing.
191. Who issues blasting licence? : Inspector of mining district.
192. What amount shall be paid to a member of the board who is not a civil servant per day? :
$50 per day per duty done. NB Daily paid members shall receive other money lost while
performing such duties of the board.
193. A board consists of how many members? : 5 members, with one chief inspector of
explosive being the chairman and 4 others appointed by the minister.
194. For how long shall members of the board hold office? : Not more than 3 yrs.
195. When shall office be said to be vacant? : One month after a member gives notice, if
adjudged or declared insolvent, if required to do so, if he is absent without permission for 3
consecutive meetings of which he had been informed.
196. How many charges may be put per hole? : 800g per hole.
197. For how long may inspector of explosives cancel licence and then report to the
C/Inspector of explosives? : For 3 months.
198. Who shall issue a restrictive licence? : Inspector.
199. Who may also enter and search for explosives? : A/I and inspector.
200. A driver of a vehicle carrying explosives must be: 18 yrs or above.
201. Define explosive under chapter 307? : Gun cotton detonators, fire.
202.

THE CONSTITUTION OF ZIMBABWE AS AMMENDED ON 1ST AUG 1983

203. Zimbabwe is a: sovereign republic.
204. Who shall keep the seal of Zimbabwe? : The President of Zim.
205. What is shown on the seal of Zim? : The coat of arms with the inscription “Zimbabwe”.
206. Which is the supreme law of Zimbabwe? : The constitution.
207. On which grounds shall a person born outside Zimbabwe on or after the appointed date
be a citizen of Zimbabwe? : a) By descent if his father or in the case of illegitimate child, his
mother is at the time of his birth. b) His birth is registered in terms of the law relating to the
registration of birth.
208. What shall be the citizenship of any person born aboard an aircraft registered of the gvt
of any country? : Shall be deemed to have been born in the country where that aircraft is
registered.
209. When can one be deprived of his life intentionally? : a) On the execution of a court
sentence in case of a convicted prisoner, b) when he dies in justifiable circumstances e.g.
defending one from death or bodily harm, c)To suppress muting or dispersing unlawful
gathering, d) in order to prevent that person from the commission of a crime, e) If he dies
during a war.
210. When can one be protected by law from compensating a person unlawfully arrested or
detained? : a) Judicial officer acting on his judicial capacity reasonably and in good faith, b), any

64
 other public officer or person assisting such officer acting reasonably in good faith without
culpable ignorance or negligence.
211. Where can the claimant of compensation appeal? : Supreme court.
212. When then can the taking of property be compulsorily be lawful? : During the period of
emergency or disaster that thereafter the life of a wellbeing of the community.
213. Where shall the power of exploitation of minerals, precious stones oils and natural gases
be vested? : In the President.
214. What about exploitation of ground water or public water? ; President.
215. What do Agricultural purposes include in this chapter? : Includes forestry, fruits growing
and animal husbandry, including keeping of poultry, bees or fish.
216. What is meant by pension benefits? : Any pensions, gratuity, or other like allowances: a)
payable from consolidated revenue fund, b) for any person IRO his service with employer or any
spouse, child or dependant of such person, c)for any person IRO his ill healthy or injury arising
from course of employment.
217. What is meant by piece of land under this chapter? : Piece of land registered as a
separate entity on the deeds of registry.
218. After how long shall the house of assembly and the senate meet after the occurrence of
the vacancy of President? : After 60 days.
219. In an election for President, each candidate shall be a person qualified in accordance with
schedule 3 for election to the senate and shall be nominated by not less than how many
members of the House of assembly? : Not less than 10 members.
220. What shall be the case when only one candidate is elected? : Shall be declared to be the
dully elected without necessity of a ballot.
221. What shall be case with someone holding public office who is elected to the office of
President? : Shall vacate such public office the day he is so elected.
222. What 4 things may the speaker of house or president of the senate do? : a) shall convene
at the house of assembly the electoral college, b), preside over the electoral college, c) conduct
any drawing of lots or, d), declare successful candidate elected.[ NB the president of Zim make
regulations prescribing the procedure for the nomination of candidates for matters incidental to
an election under this section].
223. How long shall president of Zim hold office? : For 6 yrs and shall be subject for re-
election.
224. When shall the president be illegible for re- election? : If he has held office for two terms.
225. With whom shall the president lodge his resignation in writing? ; The speaker of the
House.
226. From which funds are the president and his deputies’ salaries paid? : The consolidated
revenue fund.
227. What shall parliament of Zim consist of?: Senate and a House of assembly.
228. The senate shall comprise of how many senators? 40.
229. How shall the president of the senate resign? : a) announcing his resignation in person to
the senate or, b), by tendering his resignation by notice in writing to the secretary of parliament.

65
230. Senate legal committee shall consist of how many senators? : Not less than 3 as the
president determine the majority of who shall be legally qualified.
231. How shall senators elected? : 14 shall be elected by the Electoral College, 10 shall be
chiefs.
232. For the purpose of this chapter for one to be said is legally qualified, what qualifications
shall he/ she have? : Has been a judge of supreme/ high court, is or has been for not less than 5
yrs qualified to practice as a legal practitioner in Zim (whether continuously or not), has been a
magistrate in Zim for not les than 3 yrs, posses such legal qualifications and has had a legal
experience as the president considers.
233. What shall be the functions of the senate legal committee? : To examine Bills other than
money Bill, a constitutional Bill or bill.
234. How many members shall make up the House of assembly?: 120 members.
235. Where shall the procedure for nomination of candidates for election be scribed? : In the
electoral law.
236. Who shall the house of assembly elect when it first meets after the dissolution of
parliament and before it proceeds with any business? : A presiding officer to be known as the
speaker of parliament.
237. How is the speaker elected? : In accordance with standing orders from among persons
who are or have been members of the senate or the house, who are not ministers or deputy
ministers.
238. Is staff of parliament part of public service? : On the day of publication in the gazette.
239. When shall the constitutional bill be introduced into the House of assembly or senate? :
Only if the text of the bill has been published in the gazette, not less than 30 days before its
introduction.
240. Who is consulted by PSC before someone is appointed a magistrate? : The judicial service
commission and the AG in the case of any post.
241. Who shall be head of the judicial in Zimbabwe? : Chief justice.
242. Which court is court of superior records in Zim, i.e. a final court of appeal? : The Supreme
Court.
243. How is the Supreme Court constituted? : Chief justice and such other judges of Supreme
Court, being not less than 2 as the President may declare necessary, such other judges as have
been appointed by the chief justice.
244. Who shall appoint the controller and auditor general? : The president in consultation with
PSC.
245. What are the qualifications of AG and chief justice? : If he has held the post of secretary
of or deputy secretary or under secretary in a ministry or post in the public service of a grade
equivalent to or higher than under secretary for periods which the aggregate amount to at least
5 yrs.
246. What meant by public officer? : A paid officer in the service of the state.
247. What does taxi mean under this constitution? : Duty or due.
248. “Open water” in lake kariba in terms of liquor act is that area of water that is? : 100m
from the shores of the main land or any island.

66
249. Who may grant authority for the renewal of part II liquor licence? : The secretary.
250. In relation to murder, what does causation mean? : means for the accused to be
convicted of murder, it must be shown that his conduct caused the death of the deceased.
251. “A’ shares a house with “B” although they are not friends. “A” one evening arrives home
and found the door locked and breaks the door open and later steals “B”’s money and locked the
door and proceeded to spends money on drinking. Can “A” be charged with U/E and theft? : NO,
but theft only because he holds access to the house, hence no unlawful entering.
252. In assault GBH it is not necessary that a person causes bodily harm but must? : Intend to
cause it
253. Which are 4 factors considered in the assault GBH? : The nature of weapon used, the
degree of force applied on wielding the weapon, the position on the body where the injury was
directed and the injury actually sustained.
254. What would be the difference in the public violence? : Compulsion.
255. X in a gang jeers and hooted at two persons who suddenly threw stones. Will the gang be
charged? : No, X will be charged alone as his violence went behind the gang’s common purpose.
256. What factors are considered by the courts under sufficiently serious dimensions in public
violence? : The number of people involved, the duration of disturbances, the nature of incident,
the locality, whether those involved were armed and if so, nature of weapons, whether violence
to property or persons actually occurred, the status of person in authority, the way the violence
came to an end.
257. What offence is committed by X who warns motorists of the presence of speed trap? :
Attempting to defeat or obstructing the course or administration of justice.
258. In abortion, what does therapentic abortion? : Abortion necessary to save a woman’s life
or to preserve her health.
259. What is Eugenic abortion? : Abortion performed to prevent the birth of a child expected to
suffer from serious mental or physical health defects inherited or otherwise.
260. What will X be charged of, if he administers poison into animal’s food? : MIP.

LABOUR RELATIONS ACT 12/92

261. No contract of employment shall be enforceable against a person of which age? : Under
16 yrs.
262. How much notice can be given to terminate employment of a person who has
continuously been employed for a period of 6 months to 2 yrs? : Not less than one week’s
notice.
263. What about a period of 2 yrs or more? : Not less than 1 month’s notice.
264. If the birth is likely to take place within a certain period, female employee shall at her
request be granted maternity leave. What long is the period? : 90 days.
265. If she agrees prior to going on maternity leave to forfeit the leave or vacation days which
she was entitled to accumulate in the previous 6 months, how much percentage is she entitled
of her normal pay? : 75%.

67
266. How much percentage is she entitled to get if she is unwilling or unable to forfeit such
leave or vacation days? : 65%.
267. What is the frequency of paid maternity leave? : Shall not exceed once every 24 months
and 3 times to her total service to any one employee.
268. What is the aggregate maternity which a female worker may take before and after birth of
her child? : 90 days.
269. How much sucking period shall be granted each working day for the purpose of nursing
her child? : One hour or two half-hour periods.
270. What constitutes labour relations board? : Chairman, vice chairman and not less than 3 or
not more than 5 members.
271. Who shall appoint labour relations board members? : The minister.
272. How long shall members of labour board stay in office? : 5 yrs.
273. The office of a member shall become vacant if he is absent. How many times of
consecutive meetings of the board of which he was absent without the permission of the board?
: 3 consecutive meetings.
274. When shall minister require a member to vacate? : If the member of the board has been
guilty of improper conduct as a member or is mentally or physically incapable of efficiently
performing his duties as a member.
275. How many members of the board shall constitute a quorum? : 3 members.
276. To whom shall a person appeal against a decision by the board? : High court.
277. Which shall be the court of records? : Labour relations tribunal.
278. Who shall appoint members of the tribunal? : The president of Zim.
279. To whom shall a person appeal against the decision of the tribunal? : Supreme Court.
280. To whom shall an employee aggrieved by labour practice be referred? : Labour relations.

STATUTE LAW CRUSH PROGRAMME 8/497

281. In the measurement of any distance for the purpose of an enactment, that distance shall
be measured? : In a straight line on a horizontal plane.
282. When the time limited by an enactment falls on a Saturday, Sunday or public holiday,
where does that time shall fall under the interpretation act? : The following Monday provided it
is not also a public holiday.
283. What is the financial year under the interpretation act? : Means the 12 months ending on
the 31 December.
st

284. When may a court change its place of hearing to any other place within its jurisdiction? :
Through inability from illness or other cause of the accused or witness in a criminal case.
285. Magistrates courts have jurisdiction over other offences except? : Murder, treason and
others where the enactment requires the person convicted to be sentenced to death.
286. In the event of a case remitted for trial by the AG and the magistrate requires the trial
shall? : Commence afresh.
287. Which court in terms of the magistrate court act tries an accused in terms of an
enactment which extra territorial operation and an act of omission or event which is an element
of the offence which took place outside Zimbabwe? : Any court.

68
288. Who may grant an order upon application for the examination of any witness in Zim in
connection with proceedings pending in court of competent jurisdiction outside Zim under the
Wit, Comp. attendance Act chapter 55? : High court.
289. When shall the order not issued? : If the criminal proceedings are of a political nature or
the witness is an accused in the proceedings in question.
290. What shall be the sentence under the prevention of corruption act 34/85? : A fine not
exceeding 3 times the value of gift or $5000,00 or 5 years.
291. Who may appoint any member of the public service or any suitable person to be an
investigator? : The minister of Justice.
292. Concealment of a birth of a child is a competent verdict to which common law crimes? :
Murder and culpable homicide.
293. A woman who causes death of a child shortly after giving birth can be assumed to have
been disturbed by imbalance mind at time of birth and therefore shall be charged of infanticide.
What shall be her jail term? : 6 months.
294. What is the actual sentence for infanticide? : 5 years.
295. On whose authority shall prosecution proceed in terms of the official secret act? : AG.
296. When shall the deputy protecting authority advise the protecting authority if he has
exercised his powers during his absence? : 96 hrs.
297. For how long may a protecting authority by order prohibit any person warned in the order
from entering a potion of area as specified in such order? : Not exceeding 3 months.
298. Who shall issue a permit to enter protected places under the emergency regs? : The
protecting authority.
299. When shall a person be advised of his reason for detention? : Not later than 7 days.
300. No person acc. To Emergency regs. without authority shall be within? : 50m from the
dwelling house.
301. Within what period shall a person detained leave the place of detention under the
authority of a protecting authority? : Period not exceeding 24 hrs.
302. No person shall be detained for how long under the regs? : 30 days.
303. Who shall maintain good order and discipline in camps? : Supt appointed by minister.
304. When shall Supt send record of proceedings to a magistrate for review after conviction
under the Emergency regs 1983? : 7 days.
305. What are the security forces under the regs? : Police officer, the defence force and CIO.
306. A person may not be compelled in a court of law to answer questions put to him by an
Inspector/ A/Inspector on what grounds? : Privilege/ public policy.
307. When shall the regulations (regs) be laid before the parliament under the presidential
powers (temporary measures) act 1/86? : Not later than the 8th day on which the house next sits
after the regs were made.
308. Within what period shall the president thereafter make any further regs that are
substantially identical to the regs? : Within 6 months.
309. When shall the regs cease and expire following the date of commencement of the regs? :
181 days.
st

69
310. The OIC of a police station or telegraphic office shall detain any postal article/ telegraphic
on whose request? : A commissioned police officer.
311. Who may enter and search for gold under the gold trade act? : Any police officer of rank
of sgt and above.
312. Within what period should the discovery of precious stones be reported to the mining
commissioner? : Within 10 days.
313. What shall be entered into the copper’s register under the copper control act? : a) The
nature and weight of such copper, b) the date and time of delivery to him and, c) the nature and
address of the person from whom such copper was purchased or acquired.
314. How old shall you be to enter a national park or safari unaccompanied by someone over
18 yrs? : 14 yrs.
315. In terms of section 900/81 of parks and wildlife, no person shall land, take off or fly craft
at what distance above the ground? : 400m.
316. Injured animals are to be reported to the police station or an officer or at the offices of
the local authority for the area concerned within what period? : Within 7 days.
317. Define forest shore in terms of parks and wildlife regs 1990? : Land extending from the
water to a distance of 10m beyond the full supply level.
318. No person shall shoot any animal within what distance of a prescribed road or a
developed area? : At less than 155m.
319. Acquired raw ivory or horn shall within what period be produced to a specified officer for
registration? : Within 24 hrs.
320. Within what period shall imported lorry be produced to a specified officer for
registration? : Within 24 hrs.
321. If it is not provided within what period as to how the ivory horn was obtained shall it be
as state trophy? : Within 6 months.
322. A registered fishing dealer shall retain his register for how long from the date of final
entry? : 3 yrs.
323. In any case of loss process destruction of trophy, who should be advised and in what
period? : Director, within 14 days.
324. What is the sentence for 1st conviction for killing a rhinocerous or any other specially
protected animal under the parks and wildlife amm act 1/90? : 5 yrs to 15 yrs.
325. 2nd conviction, what is the sentence? : 7yrs to 15 yrs or $15000, 00.
326. What is meant by marked ivory section 540/86? : A piece of manufactured ivory which has
been engraved.
327. Which weapons shall not be used for hunting purposes? : a) a riffle firing more than one
cartridge as a result of one’s pressure on the trigger, b) any weapon with a barrel less than 5mm
in length, c) a pistol or revolver or bow and arrow.
328. When shall the licence under the parks and wildlife act expire? : 31 December.
329. When shall a transaction of trophies be entered in register? : Within 5 business hrs.
330. What is an assembly under the harmful liquids act chapter 63? : A gathering of 3 or more
persons (as good as an unlawful gathering)

70
331. Which police officer shall enter premises and land and seize concortions? : Of or above the
rank of A/I.
332. Name harmful liquids in terms of the harmful liquids act amm act 27/83: kachasu, nipa,
qediviki, hopebeer and isikokiyana.
333. What shall be the defence of an accused person found at an assembly? : That he is a
police officer, or an officer in the ministry of which the ministry responsible, or any officer
employed by a local authority established for the area in which the assembly was gathered and
that he was present for the purpose of investigating or detecting a contravention.
334. What shall be produced as evidence under the harmful liquids amm act 27/83? : A sample
of the liquid that forms the basis of the charge.
335. Who is the minister under the liquor act 9/84? : Minister of justice.
336. Define a board under the liquor act? : Liquor licence board.
337. What is the term of office for liquor licence board members? : 2 yrs.
338. Who shall appoint an officer of the public service as secretary to the board? : The PSC.
339. Who may grant authority for the renewal of or may renew a part II licence? : The
secretary.
340. How many temporary retail liquor licences may not be issued in one calendar year? : Not
more than 6.
341. When the OIC station orders closure of the premises, he shall within what period sent to
the minister a copy of such order? : Within 24 hrs.
342. The OIC shall not issue another such order in respect of the same premises within what
period directed by the minister? : 30 days.
343. What is designated as opaque beer under the traditional beer act 25/84? : Means opaque
beer which is manufactured by the holder of a commercial brewers’ permit.
344. Controlled liquor licence is a licence held by a person who is not a local authority and who
employs how many persons on the land? : 50 or more.
345. Money received by an issuing authority for the issue of a part 1 licence shall be paid
where? : Consolidated revenue fund.
346. In terms of section 420/84 traditional beer (General) regs, a local authority intending to
establish a brew premises for consumption within premises situated inside a local gvt shall
consult who? : Propol.
347. In case of premises situated on trade and local gvt areas, what is the position? : Can
establish with a written consent of the Prime minister.
348. Who shall inspect premises under the regs and taking samples of traditional beer? : Any
police officer.
349. A supplier permit shall be valid for a period of not more than? : 12 months.
350. The local authority or the minister may issue an employer’s permit which authorises the
brewing of beer at what time under the traditional beer regs 19/84? : 1030hrs to 2230hrs.
351. What is the maximum quantity of beer which may be sold to any person in a day in terms
of employers’ permit? : 10 litres.
352. The holder of commercial brewer’s permit shall not sale liquid traditional beer at any one
time in any quantity less than what? : 20 litres.

71
353. Beer powder less than what? : 2,6kgs.
354. Name part 1 in terms of the dangerous drugs act 12/02: coca leaves, Indian hemp,
bhang, cambra, dagga, mbanje or intsnga, resins obtained therefrom and all preparations of
which such resins from the base and raw opium.
355. Who shall issue a licence to import or export part 1 drugs? : Minister.
356. Name authorised persons in terms of the dangerous drugs regs act 1975 chapter
111/75? : A medical practitioner, a veterinary surgeon, a pharmacist and a licenced chemist.
357. An application for midwives’ supply order shall be made in writing to whom? : The
secretary.
358. No part 2 drugs or preparation shall be prescribed for more than what period without
reporting the case to the secretary? : More than 4 months.
359. Register kept by supplier shall show: drugs acquired by him, drugs supplied by him and
drugs used by him.
360. Who may revoke a licence or permit at any time under the dangerous drugs act? :
Minister of Healthy.
361. How long shall register, records, books, prescriptions signed and other documents be kept
from the date of last entry? : 2 yrs.
362. When shall the secretary be advised of export or import of any drug? : 7 days.
363. What is a child in terms of the public health act chapter328? : Under 16 yrs.
364. Who shall order the removal of any person suffering from an infectious disease? : Medical
health officer.
365. A body of a person who died of infectious diseases shall not be kept for how long in any
place other than a mortuary? : 24 hrs.
366. A child shall be vaccinated against small pox before he attains a certain age. What is this
age? : 12 yrs.
367. How many persons shall complain of a nuisance for police to take action? : 3 persons.
368. Who shall be requested to furnish a report stating whether the application has any
previous convictions under the shop licence act 40/76? : Dispol.
369. What is an authorised officer under the liquor licence act? : Police officer, a health officer
or a health inspector.
370. What is a sufficient fence under the sock theft act? : A fence of not fewer than 4 strand-
fires and not less than 2m high (if plain wire, not less than 5 strands).
371. Who shall inspect the stock register under stock theft act? : A police officer, district officer
district administrator or owner of stock.
372. For how long shall purchased articles be kept before changing them to any form in terms
of the second hand goods act chapter 293? : 4 days.
373. What is meant by a responsible parent in terms of the citizenship of Zimbabwe act
23/84? : Means the father of the child or the mother of the dead.
374. What is meant by a person of full age? : One who attained the age of 18 years or one
under 18 yrs but married.
375. What is meant by a young person under the legal disability in forms of act 23/84? : A
person who is not of full age or sound mind.

72
376. Who may authorise the registration of a person under the disability as a citizen of
Zimbabwe? : Minister.
377. When shall a citizen of Zimbabwe who acquires by marriage, citizenship of another foreign
country cease to be a citizen of Zimbabwe after the marriage? : 1 yr.
378. What is meant by parental discipline in terms of the Zimbabwean constitution order
1979/1600? : This includes school or the quasi parental discipline.
379. What are disciplined forces in terms of the above order? : A police force, a naval military/
airforce or a prison service.
380. Who is the head of judicial in terms of the constitutional act 2/81? : Chief justice.
381. A person who holds office as a minister for any period of 3 consecutive months without
also being a member of parliament: shall cease to be minister at the end of that period in terms
of amendment No. 3/83.
382. When shall an election take place for the president before the expiry of his term of
office? : Before 90 days.
383. To whom shall the president subscribe the oath of loyalty? : Chief justice.
384. What shall be the term of office for President? : 6 yrs.
385. The president may resign his office by lodging his resignation with whom in terms of act
23/87 of the constitution of Zimbabwe? : Speaker of Zimbabwe.
386. Remuneration for the president shall be charged upon and paid on from where? :
Consolidated revenue fund.
387. Who shall appoint the vice president? : President.
388. To whom shall the vice president subscribe the oath of loyalty? : President.
389. Who shall appoint ministers and their deputies? : President.
390. Vote of no confidence in the gvt shall be supported by what number of MPs in terms of
the constitution of Zim amm act 23/87? : 2/3 of all members of parliament.

PARLIAMENTARY ACT
391. Within what period after receipt of the notice shall an item be debated ion parliament? :
Within 21 days.
392. A notice of 7 days shall be given to the speaker of parliament for vote of no confidence
and the notice shall be signed by not less than what number of MPs? : 1/3 of all members.
393. If the vote of no confidence is passed, what action shall be taken by the president of Zim
within 14 days? : a) dissolve the parliament; b) himself resign office.
394. Who shall appoint commissioner of prisons? : The president after consultation with PSC.
395. Who shall appoint chief justice and other judges of the Supreme Court and high court? :
The president after consultation with the judicial service.
396. Who shall appoint the comptroller and the auditor general? : President after consulting the
PSC.
397. In terms of the constitutional amm act 4/89, AG shall have the right to sit and speak in
parliament but shall not have? : Right to vote.
398. Who shall be the principal advisor to the gvt and whose office shall be on public? : AG.
399. To whom shall the AG subscribe the oath of loyalty? : The president.

73
400. What are the qualifications for one to be a President of Zim? : Citizenship of Zim by birth
or descent; attained the age of 40 yrs and an ordinary resident of Zimbabwe.
401. Who may issue a warrant of arrest to a person judged guilty of contempt of parliament? :
The speaker.
402. Who may verbally order the detention without a warrant for one to be kept in the custody
of an officer of parliament or police officer? : The speaker.
403. What is meant by “agent” of a receiving state in terms of privileges and immunities act
chapter 28? : Includes a reference to any police officer or other person exercising power of entry
into any premises in Zim in terms of any enactment.
404. Define “authority of the receiving state”? : A police officer or other person exercising
power of entry (unit) any premises in Zim in terms of any enactment.
405. Which persons are not covered under the act? : Children under the age of 18 yrs including
a person so entitled.
406. Who shall issue identity cards under the act? : Secretary of foreign affairs.
407. Define head of mission? : Is a person charged by the sending state with the duty of acting
in that capacity.
408. Define a diplomatic agent? : Is a head of mission or a member of the diplomatic staff of
the mission.
409. Define premises of the mission? : Are buildings or pures of buildings and the kind of
ancillary there to irrespective of ownership used for the purpose of the mission including the
residence of the head of the mission.
410. Premises of the mission and other property shall be immune from what? : Search,
requisition, attachment and execution.
411. What shall be inviolable at anytime and whenever they may be? : The archives and
documents of the mission.
412. A diplomatic agent enjoys immunity from the animal fusation of whom? : The receiving
state.
413. Who is not obliged to give evidence as a witness? : A diplomatic agent.
414. Who may have immunity from jurisdiction of diplomatic agent? : Sending state.
415. Immunity of a diplomatic agent does not exempt him from whose jurisdiction? : Sending
state.
416. When shall members of the administrative and technical staff enjoy the privileges and
immunities? : If they are not permanently resident in the receiving state.
417. Private servants of members of the diplomatic mission may enjoy privileges and
immunities to the extent admitted by whom? : Receiving state only.
418. When shall consent to enter consular premises be assumed? : In case of fire or any other
disaster required for prosecutor’s action.
419. Consular officers shall not be liable to arrest or detention pending trial except when? : In
the case of a grave crime persistent to a decision by the competent functional authority.
420. The minister may deprive a person of his citizenship. Which type of citizenship? :
Citizenship by registration.

74
 MINES AND MINERALS ACT
421. Who shall be notified when one discovers precious stones? : The mining commissioner.
422. Within what period shall the commissioner be notified? : 10 days.
423. What is to be done to precious stones belonging to an accused? : Forfeited to the state if
the accused was not in lawful possession of such precious stones.
424. Explain on the telegraphic warrant of arrest? : Any person so arrested shall not be liable
to be detained for the purpose of search only, longer than is reasonably necessary without an
order of the judge of high court.
425. What are the powers of a mining commissioner? : Is empowered to enter any mining
location or premises for the purpose of inspection.
426. Who also is empowered to enter the mining premises? : Director of geographical survey
for the purpose of survey, erecting beacons marks and similar matters.
427. What does the precious stones register contain? : Date, name and address of the other
party, particulars of a certificate of the other party, nature and mass and price if any paid or
received.
428. Who appoint the investigator under the companies act? : Minister of justice, legal and
parliamentary affairs.
429. To whom are books and records of a winding up company surrendered and within what
period? : Master of the high court within ……..
430. What does the commissioner provide for the dead ex-member? : Flag and………
431. Who makes regs under the exchange control act? : The president.
432. What is a court under the companies act? : In relation to a company, it means high court
and in relation to any offence against this act, it includes any magistrate court.
433. General Law means common law and any other enactment but excludes what? :
Customary law.
434. What is an African in terms of the interpretation act? : a) Any member of the aboriginal
tribes or races of Africa and the islands adjacent thereto, including Madagascar and Zanzibar, b)
any person who has blood of such tribe or race who leaves in aboriginal native community.
435. What is a week day? : Day not Saturday or Sunday.
436. How are we to the Greenwich meridian time? : 2 hrs ahead.
437. According to the interpretation act, where do you base your measurement? : Straight line
on a horizontal plane.
438. What notice must be given by a worker employed where wages are not on fixed rate and
the contract is silent about that? : At close of working day without notice.
439. In reference to the above labour act, the following applies too: if monthly paid – 1 month
notice, if weekly paid – 1 week notice.
440. What the accrual rate of vacational leave for sgt and below? : 1/10.
441. What is casual noxous? : Casual connection.

75
442. When signing an indemnity for providing security in social activities, how many witnesses
are required? : At least 2 (including activities during recruitment).
443. How many witnesses are required when signing an indemnity certificate when paying
[someone] a member’s salary in cash? : At least 1.
444. When are bids estimates done? : In August.
445. When are bids done? : In December.
446. Which vehicles in the police force are given civilian number plates? : CID, Ass Comm. and
above, CPU PISI, Highway patrol and licence inspectorate.
447. What is a free weight in railway transport for class 1? : 50kgs.
448. What is a free weight in railway transport for class 2? : 35kgs.
449. Who issued an order to restrict/prohibit mvt of a person convicted for a case of subversive
statement? : The president.
450. Complains about any right is normally referred to where? : Supreme court.
451. What is the maximum period for sick leave that may be granted to a member within two
yrs? : 184 days.
452. How can a dependant benefit from the benevolent fund? : a) if a member retires after 10
yrs of service, b) if member died whilst serving, c) if member was discharged on medical
grounds.
453. Estimates are coordinated by? : Chief staff officer (administration).
454. Form 190 (nominal roll for inspection) is completed in triplicates. Besides number, rank
and name, what other information is written? : Length of service, length of service at station and
nature of duties.
455. What constitute 2nd hand goods? : Second hand clothes including defaced gold, silver
plated or steel-hot goods, or any ferrous metal, copper, aluminum, tin and zinc.
456. Appeal against residence lawfulness is to be done within how long? : 3 days if in Zim at
the time and 10 days if out of Zim at the time of revoke.
457. Who enter an entertainment? : Probation officer, members of the board, and any
committee members with chairman’s written authority.
458. What can the president do on his own/alone? : Declare, freeze of prices (temporary
powers regs act section 3).
459. Los or deficiencies suspected to be attributed to criminal action is reported to police for
investigation via receiver of revenue to? : Comptroller and auditor general.
460. In circumstances where a company is wound up or does not commence it should
suspends its works for what period? : 1 yr running.
461. Nobody to sell registered drugs unless? : Name of drug and number amongst other
information are endorsed.
462. Loss/theft of Amphetamine type of drug is to be reported to police as soon as possible,
however in any case within what period? : 24 hrs.
463. Forged PTC engraved stony after court is disposed how? : Forfeited to the state.
464. Notice of forfeited precious stones is gazzeted. Any one who claims must do so to the
secretary within how long? : 2 months.
465. Before which date is annual inspection to be done? : 30 September.

76
466. Public service medical society can not accept claims if submitted after how long? : At least
6 months.
467. What form is used to purchases of the canteen? : Purchase schedule.

GOLD TRADE ACT

468. Within what period shall transactions be entered into the register? : Within 24 hrs.
469. Classification of licences? : Gold dealing licence, gold discovery works licence and gold
assaying licence.
470. When shall such licences expire? : 31st December.
471. Who may issue a permit authorizing a person to acquire possession or to dispose off gold
and to what quantity? : Any mining commissioner and not exceeding one ounce.
472. Who may enter and search premises? : Any police officer.
473. Who shall be given gold when the owner is unknown? : The secretary and forfeited to the
state.
474. Who has powers to inspect the register on written demand? : Mining commissioner,
inspector of mines and commissioned police officer.
475. Who grants permission to smelt or change the form of any manufactured article
containing gold? : The minister.
476. Who else has the power to order detention of a parcel? : Magistrate, mining commissioner
and commissioned police officer.
477. A person convicted under the gold act shall? : Not within 5 yrs be entitled to obtain any
such licence or within 10km therefrom and if any such licence is issued to him, the said period
shall be void.
478. What are precious stones? : Rough and uncoarted diamonds, faced/rough uncoart
emeralds.

HARMFUL LIQUIDS ACT

479. Assembly means: A gathering of 3 or more people.
480. Local authority means: A municipal area, rural council, district council, provincial authority
and local board.
481. How do you obtain evidence? : There shall be evidence from a reliable witness to the
effect that he is familiar with such concotion and he is satisfied by testing the concotion.
482. Which police officer may enter and search IRO harmful liquids? : A/Insp and above and
seize any concotion.
483. What right does the accused have? : May request the sample to be delivered to an analyst
named by him to examine at the accused’s expense.
484. When is a contract for employment of a child or young person valid? : When entered into
by or with the consent of the parent/ guardian.
485. During which period shall a child or young person not be employed? : During a school
term as affixed in terms of the Education Act.

77
486. What records are to be kept by employer of a child or young person? : The name and age
of child and the name and address of the parent or guardian or social welfare.
487. How long shall the record be kept by employer? : For a period not less than 3 yrs.
488. To whom shall such records be produced on request? : A labour relations officer or a
designated agent of an employment council.
489. Whose authority is required to employ a child during a school term? : The minister.
490. What shall be the sentence for contravening this regs? : A fine not exceeding$2 000, 00 or
12 months in jail or both.
491. Prohibited Employment activities IRO children and young persons includes: Any work
which is likely to jeopardize or interfere with the child’s education, any work involving contact
with any hazardous substances, article or process including ionizing radiation, any work involving
underground mining, any work that exposes a child to electrically powered handtools, cutting or
grinding blades, any work that exposes a child to extremes of heat, colds, noise or whole body
vibrations and any night shift work.
492. What shall CRS do on receipt of the reg duly authorised? : Will action the order and
dispatch; 2 copies of the reg will be returned to the originator whilst one copy will be retained on
the file at stores. NB on receipt of stores form 227 receipted and one copy returned to central
radio stores.
493. What shall be done when radio spares are urgently required and a departure from normal
procedure is justifiable? : Send urgent signal to SSO signal detailing requirements and giving
brief reasons for urgency. If the SSO (S) is contended, he shall send signal immediately, action
and dispatch.
494. Before what time shall an urgent signal be passed? : Before 1130 hrs to allow processing
and dispatch by the CID bag whenever available.

a. SIGNALS
495. In the signals section, whose duty is it to liaise with the post master general? : SSO
(Signals).
496. Who is responsible to the SSO (signals) for all policy matters affecting the signal section? :
Senior member of the signal section in the province.
497. Who is advised immediately of damage to or faulty occurring on any signal equipment? :
Senior member of the signal section in the province.
498. Whose authority must be sought first to install service repair or modify, withdraw already
installed police signals equipment? : Provincial signals officer (and will keep record of privately
owned equipment being used).
499. Who can give a special authority to a mere civilian to operate any police signal
equipment? : SSO (signals).
500. In how many groups are the force communication systems? : 5 systems.
501. What is a hostile organisaton? : Any organisation which is unlawful in terms of unlawful
organisation’ act 11:13 or any other organisation operating outside Zimbabwe which is declared
by the president as being a hostile organisation in the statutory instrument.

78
502. What are munitions of war? : Any article, material or device or part of it which is adopted
for use in war or the defence of Zimbabwe.
503. Under RTA foreign operator’s licence is valid for how long? : 1 yr.
504. Under wildlife act, what is produce? : The whole or any part of any skin, hide, horn or egg
of stock or any wool or mohair.
505. What is stock? : Any horse, mule, ass, bovine, sheep, goat, pig, poultry, pigeon or
chinchilla or any domesticated game or caucus or any portion of a caucus which has been
slaughtered.
506. What is an animal? : Any kind of vertebrate animal other than fish.
507. Who is the minister under forestry and wildlife act? : Minister of Environment and tourism.

79