FLIGHT CREW DIVISION 919

A321 ORAL TEST

Questionnaire

REV 00 - DATE DEC 09, 2019

FLIGHT CREW TRAINING PROGRAM

A321 ORAL TEST

Questionnaire

OVERVIEW AND TIMELINE

BASED ON: VAR part 7, CAAV AC 07-005

REF: AC 07-005: STS FLIGHT TESTING

The examiner conducting the skill test is responsible for determining that the applicant meets
the acceptable standards of knowledge and skill of each Task within the appropriate skill test
standard.
Oral questioning, to determine the applicant's knowledge of Tasks and related safety
factors, should be used judiciously at all times, especially during the flight portion of the
skill test.
REF: AC 07-005. 8.4 ORAL QUESTIONING IN-FLIGHT
C. Knowledge elements not evident in the demonstrated skills may be tested by questioning at any
time during the flight event.
Questions may be deferred until after the flight portion of the test is completed.

PERIOD OF QUESTIONING (ORAL TEST)

A. Memory items 0H10
B. Limitations
C. A/c systems

INSTRUCTOR GUIDE

A. MEMORY ITEMS
1. What are the memory items?
1. LOSS OF BRAKING
2. EMER DESCENT
3. STALL RECOVERY
4. STALL WARNING AT LIFT OFF
5. UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION
6. GPWS/EGPWS CAUTIONS
7. GPWS/EGPWS WARNINGS
8. TCAS WARNINGS
9. WINDSHEAR
10. WINDSHEAR AHEAD

2. Abnormal and emergency call outs?

a. GPWS: "PULL UP TOGA"
b. Reactive Windshear: "WINDSHEAR TOGA"
c. Unreliable speed indication: "UNRELIABLE SPEED"
d. TCAS. "TCAS, I have control". “TCAS RA” (For all resolution advisory triggering)
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e. Emergency descent: "EMERGENCY DESCENT"
f. Loss of braking: "LOSS OF BRAKING"
g. Stall Recovery: “STALL, I HAVE CONTROL”
h. Stall warning at liftoff: “TOGA 15 DEGREES”

3. Loss of braking procedure?

4. Emer descent procedure?

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5. Stall recovery procedure?

6. Stall warning at lift off procedure?

7. Unreliable speed indication procedure?

8. GPWS/EGPWS cautions:

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9. GPWS/EGPWS warnings:

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10. TCAS warnings procedure?

11. Windshear procedure?

12. Windshear ahead procedure?

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B. LIMITATIONS
LIM 10 GENERAL LIMITATIONS
1. Flight maneuvering load acceleration limits
a. Clean configuration
–1 g to +2.5 g
b. Slats and flaps extended
0 g to +2 g.
c. Slats extended and flaps retracted
0 g to +2 g.

LIM 12 ENVIRONMENTAL ENVELOPE AND AIRPORT OPERATIONS

2. Maximum Operating Altitude
39,800feet.
3. Runway slope (mean)
±2 %.
4. Runway altitude
9 200 ft.
5. Nominal runway width
45 m.
6. Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing
38 kt (gust included).
7. Maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing
15kt. (10kts landing for some AC)
8. Maximum wind for passenger door operation
65 kt.

LIM 13 SPEED LIMITATIONS

9. Maximum Operating Speed VMO/MMO
350kts/ M0.82.
10. Severe Turbulence Air Penetration Speed Below FL200 maintain
270 knots.
11. Gear Down Speeds.
a. Maximum speed with landing gear extended (VLE)
280 kt /M .67
b. Maximum speed at which the landing gear may be extended (VLO extension)
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250 kt
c. Maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted (VLO retraction)
220 kt
12. Maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended
25 000 ft.
13. Maximum Tire Speed
Ground speed 195kt.
14. Windshield Wipers In Use
230kt.
15. Cockpit Window Open
200kt.

LIM 21 AIR CONDITIONING / PRESSURIZATION / VENTILATION

16. Ram air inlet. Only open if differential pressure is lower than PSI?
1 PSI.
17. Cabin pressure.
a. Maximum positive differential pressure
8.6 PSI.
b. Maximum negative differential pressure
-1 PSI.
c. Maximum cabin altitude selection
14,000ft.
d. Maximum normal cabin altitude
8,000ft
e. Cabin altitude warning
9,550ft (± 350ft)

LIM 22 AUTO FLIGHT

18. Minimum height for use of autopilot on takeoff with SRS mode
100 ft AGL.
19. Minimum height for use of the autopilot in:
a. ILS approach when CAT2 or CAT3 is not displayed on the FMA
160 ft AGL
b. Go-around (AP or FD engagement)
100 ft AGL
c. All other phases
900ft AGL
20. Use of the AP or FD in OPEN DES or DES mode is not permitted in approach, unless the FCU
altitude is set to, or above, MDA (MDH) or______?whichever is the highest.
900ft.
21. If one engine is inoperative, it is not permitted to use the autopilot to perform NPAs in the which
modes?
FINAL APP, NAV V/S, NAV/FPA.
22. If the flight crew performs an automatic approach without auto-land, the autopilot must be
disengaged no later than what altitude?
80 ft AGL
23. Category III fail passive (single) minimum decision height?
50ft.
24. Category III fail operational (dual) alert height?
100ft.
25. CAT III with DH: minimum decision height A321?
22ft
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26. Category III fail operational (dual). CAT III without DH: Minimum Runway Visual Range?
75 m.
27. Engine out. CAT II and CAT III fail passive auto-land are only approved in what configuration?
Config 3 or FULL (A321), Config FULL (A320)
28. Automatic landing is demonstrated:
a. With slope angle within what range?
-2.5 °, -3.15 °
b. For airport elevation at or below altitude?
5750 ft

LIM 24 ELECTRICAL
29. MAX continuous load per generator?
100 % (90 KVA)
30. MAX continuous load per TR (continuous)
200 A.

LIM 27 FLIGHT CONTROLS

31. Flaps and slats. Max operating altitude with slats and/or flaps extended?
20 000 ft.
LIM 29 HYDRAULIC
32. Hydraulic normal operating pressure
3 000 PSI ± 200.

LIM 32 LANDING GEAR

33. Maximum brake temperature for takeoff (brake fans off)
300 °C.
34. Taxi with deflated tires.
a. If one tire is deflated on one or more gears (ie. a maximum of three tires), the speed should be
limited to what speed when turning?
7 kt.
b. If two tires are deflated on the same main gear (the other main gear tires not being deflated),
speed should be limited to what? And the nose wheel steering angle limited to what?
3 kt, 30 °.
35. Nose-wheel steering (NWS).
a. Nose-wheel steering angle is limited to what when using the hand-wheels?
75 °
b. For towing and pushback, the nose-wheel steering angle is limited to?
95 °.

LIM 34 NAVIGATION
36. ISIS. When both PFDs are lost, can the ISIS bugs function be used?
NO

LIM 35 OXYGEN
37. Minimum bottle pressure to take into account:
a. During an emergency descent for all cockpit members for
13 min
b. During cruise at FL 100 for 2 flight crewmembers for
107 min.
c. Protection in case of smoke, with 100 % oxygen for all cockpit members for at a cabin
altitude of 8 000 ft.
15 min
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LIM 49 APU
38. Oil quantity. The APU may be started and operated even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM
advisory is displayed. Maintenance action is required within next how many hours of APU
operation?
10 h.
39. APU starter. After 3 starter motor duty cycles, wait how long before attempting 3 more cycles?
60 min.
40. APU battery restart limit A320?
At or below 25 000 ft.

LIM 70 POWERPLANT
41. Thrust setting/EGT limits. IAE Engines.
a. TOGA EGT limit
650 °C
b. MCT EGT limit
610 °C
c. Starting EGT limit
635 °C

42. Oil temperature. IAE Engines.

a. Minimum prior to exceeding idle
-10 °C
b. Minimum prior to takeoff
50 °C
c. Max continuous temperature
155 °C
d. Max transient temperature (15 min)
165 °C
e. Minimum starting temperature
-40 °C
43. Minimum oil quantity
11 qts + estimated consumption ∼ 0.3 qt/h.
44. Reverse thrust. Maximum reverse should not be used below what speed?
70 kt.
45. Cross wind operation on ground. The IAE Engine is capable of starting in crosswinds up to?
35 kt.

C. A/C SYSTEMS
ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
1. The AC electrical power generation includes which generators?
a. Two engine-driven AC generators.
b. One auxiliary power unit (APU) AC generator.
c. One emergency generator nominal, hydraulically driven by the Ram Air Turbine (RAT),
automatically deployed in case of main generators loss.
2. The DC network supplied via three identical Transformer /Rectifier Units (TRU). Two of them
are normally used (TR1 and TR2). When is the third TR (ESS TR) is used?
In emergency configuration (loss of main AC generators)
In case of TR 1 or TR 2 failure
3. Two batteries, nominal capacity 23Ah each
a. What is their use on ground?
To provide an independent source for APU starting
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b. What is their use in emergency electricity configuration?
To feed some equipment:
i. During RAT deployment
ii. When the emergency generator is not available
iii. When the RAT is no longer efficient:
→ After landing gear extension for A320 with the old electrical configuration
→ On the ground for A321 or A320 with the new electrical configuration
4. What is the purpose of the static inverter?
To provide a source of AC power from the batteries.
5. If the pilot pushes the IDG disconnect, can it be reconnected?
Not in flight.
6. What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?
Avionics smoke detected (also blower and extract FAULT lights would be illuminated).
7. An ECAM procedure directs you to turn the GEN 1 LINE PB to OFF. What is accomplished?
The GEN 1 line contactor opens. The AC BUS 1 channel is supplied from GEN 2 through bus tie
contactors. This is used for smoked drill, when the fuel pumps are connected upstream of the
GEN 1 line connector.
8. Under what conditions will the RAT extends automatically?
If both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the aircraft speed is above 100 kt, the RAT extends
automatically.
9. What is the function of the RAT (Ram air turbine)?
The RAT powers the blue hydraulic system, which drives the emergency generator by means of a
hydraulic motor. This generator supplies the AC ESS BUS, and the DC ESS BUS via the ESS TR.
10. Why some circuit breakers are green, and some are black?
- Monitored (green) When out for more than 1 minute, the C/B TRIPPED warning is triggered on
the ECAM.
- Non-monitored (black).

HYDRAULIC SYSTEM
11. What energizes the blue hydraulic system?
There are two pumps:
1. An electric pump
2. A pump driven by the Ram Air Turbine pressurizes this system in an emergency.
12. When will the PTU operate automatically?
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) will work automatically when the differential pressure between
the green and the yellow system is greater than 500 PSI.
13. When will the Blue Electric Pump work on ground?
If AC power is available, the electric pump operates on then ground when one engine is running,
or if the crew has pressed the BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton on the maintenance panel.
14. ACCU PRESS indicator gets low, how do the crew recharge the brake accumulator during
cockpit preparation? What precaution must be taken?
The ACCU PRESS indication must be in the green band. If required, use the electric pump on the
yellow hydraulic system to recharge brake accumulator. Get ground crew clearance before using
the electric pump.
15. If engine No. 1 is inoperative or Green pump has failed, how is the green system pressurized?
The Green system is pressurized by the reversible Power Transfer Unit (PTU)
16. If engine No. 2 is inoperative or Yellow pump has failed, how is the yellow system pressurized?
The Yellow system is pressurized by the reversible PTU
17. What happens to the RAT in case of dual engine failure or total electrical power loss?
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) will pressurize the Blue system.
18. How would low hydraulic pressure be indicted on the FLT CTL page?
G, B, Y would indicate amber on the FLT CTL page.
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19. The yellow system has an engine driven pump. What other means do we have to pressurize the
yellow system?
Electric pump, PTU, and a handpump for the cargo doors.
20. What does the yellow system hand pump supply pressure for?
Opening the cargo doors.
21. Are hydraulics required to fly he aircraft in mechanical backup?
Yes

FLIGHT CONTROLS
22. Explain the basic principle of the flight control operation on the A321, how are the flight control
surfaces controlled and activated?
The flight control surfaces are all:
- Electrically-controlled, and
- Hydraulically activated.
23. Under Normal Law, what protections are available?
The normal laws protect the aircraft throughout the entire envelope, as follows:
- Load Factor Limitation
- Pitch attitude protection
- High-angle-of-attack (AOA) protection
- High-speed protection
- Bank angle protection
24. How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD? How is the aircraft controlled in
MECHANICAL BACKUP law?
MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY shows in red on the PFD plus the amber x's associated with alternate
law.
Pitch: pilot manually applies trim to the THS to control the aircraft in pitch.
Lateral: pilot uses the rudder pedals as the mechanical backup to laterally control the aircraft.
25. What is the purpose of the two ELACs (Elevator Aileron Computer)?
- Elevators and trimmable horizontal stabilizer for normal pitch control
- Aileron control
26. What is the purpose of the three SECs (Spoiler Elevator Computers)?
- Three computers achieve spoiler control
- Two of them are devoted to standby elevator and stabilizer control
27. What is the purpose of the two FACs (Flight Augmentation Computers)?
- Electrical rudder control (yaw damping, turn coordination of rudder and trim, and Rudder
Travel Limitation)
- Flight envelope function: characteristic speeds computation for display on the PFD, and α floor
function
28. Can the rudder be moved with both FACs inoperative?
Yes. Mechanically.

LANDING GEAR
29. Based on the operating logic of the LGCIU, which LGCIU controls the landing gear primarily?
One LGCIU controls one complete gear cycle, then switches over automatically to the other
LGCIU at the completion of the retraction cycle.
It also switches in case of failure.
30. What happens when the crew turns the landing gear gravity extension crank?
It will:
- Isolate the landing gear hydraulic from the green hydraulic system.
- Unlocks the landing gear doors and the main and nose main gear.
- Allows gravity to drop the gear into the extended position.
31. Under what conditions will the RED ARROW by the L/G lever light up?
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This red arrow lights up if the landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing
configuration, and a red warning appears on the ECAM.
32. During taxi out for departure, when does the crew use brake fan?
If an arc is displayed above the brake temperature on the WHEEL SD page, set the brake fans to
ON.
33. When shall the crew use the brake fan after landing?
When turnaround time is short or if the temperature of any brake is likely to exceed 500⁰C, use
the brake fans without delay.
In other cases, the flight crew should delay brake fans selection to 5 min after landing, or
approaching the gate, whichever occurs first.
34. What is the function of the Braking and Steering Control Unit (BSCU)?
- Normal braking system control
- Anti-skid control (normal and alternate)
- Auto brake function with LO, MED, MAX
- Nosewheel steering command processing
35. The brake pressure indication on Triple Pressure Indicator reads which system pressure?
Yellow system pressure.
36. Below what speed is the antiskid system automatically deactivated?
Below 20kts.
37. How is the gear locked after gravity extension?
Main gear by locking springs, and the nose gear by aerodynamic forces.

FUEL SYSTEM
38. Is refueling possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?
Yes
39. How will the crew be alerted to a fuel imbalance condition?
ECAM page is displayed automatically with fuel quantities pulsing.
40. What is the fuel feed sequence of the Airbus A321?
The wing tanks feed fuel to the engine. The tanks empty in the following sequence:
1. The ACT2: fuel transfers into center tank.
2. The ACT1: fuel transfers into center tank.
3. The center tank: fuel transfers into wing tanks.
4. The wing tanks.
41. What is the function of the Fuel tank inerting system?
The aim of this system is to reduce the flammability of fuel tanks. The fuel center tank is the only
one that has a high flammability exposure, therefore the Fuel inerting system is only installed for
the center tank.
42. What is JET A1 minimum temperature?
-43 degree Celsius
43. What does a FAULT light in one of the engine fuel pumps indicate?
Low pump pressure, and ECAM caution comes on.

ENGINE CONTROLS
44. What are the five positions of the thrust levers?
TOGA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE, MAX REV
45. What is thrust lock?
Thrust lock prevents thrust variations when A/THR fails or disconnects.
46. What is TOGA lock?
After the aircraft leave Alpha Floor conditions, TOGA thrust id frozen and thrust lever movement
has no effect until Auto-thrust is disconnected.
47. What does FADEC mean?
Full Authority Digital Engine Control
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AUXILIARY POWER UNIT

48. If an APU start is initiated on battery power only, is fire protection available?
Yes.
49. If there is an APU fire in flight will the APU automatically shutdown?
No.

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT SYSTEM

50. Name some examples when the autopilot will disengage?
Takeover switch is pressed
The sidestick load is moved beyond the load threshold
The other AP is engaged (except when LOC G/S modes are engaged)
At DA -50ft with APP engaged on RNAV
Moving the THS wheel
51. What would the flashing IR FAULT light indicate?
Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.
52. Are we allowed to pushback during the ADIRS alignment process?
No. Movement will cause the system to fault.
53. With the LDG ELEV selector in Auto, what altitude is used for landing field pressurization
reference?
FMGC database information.
54. What is the priority order of the navigation modes?
The FMGS updates the FM position via the use of radio navaids or GPS, if available. It can use
four different FM navigation modes to make this update.
The decreasing order of priority is:
- IRS-GPS
- IRS-DME/DME
- IRS-VOR/DME
- IRS only.
55. In flight, the “CHECK WEIGHT” message appears on the MCDU, what does this mean? What
procedure will the crew follow?
The “CHECK WEIGHT” message appears on the MCDU when the Gross Weight (GW)
computed by the FMGC and the GW computed by the FAC disagree more than 7 t.
Procedure: refer to FCOM-Auto Flight – Flight Management – Abnormal Operations
- Compare FOB on MCDU FUEL Page to the FOB from the CFP.
- Check ZFW value on the MCDU FUEL Page to the ZFW on the loadsheet.
• If the FMS ZFW on the MCDU is not correct: re-insert ZFW.
• If the FMS ZFW on the MCDU is correct:
Disregard VLS, F, S, GREEN DOT (PFD).
Use QRH operating speeds.
56. When must a complete IRS alignment be performed?
In the following cases:
- Before the first flight of the day, or
- When there is a crew change, or
- When the GPS is not available and the NAVAIDS coverage is poor on the expected route, or
- When the GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more than 3 hours.
57. Crew sees “TOO STEEP PATH” appear between two waypoints on the descent segment. What
does it mean?
A descent segment is called too steep path when the FM predicts that the descent segment
between two constraint waypoints is impossible to fly at the planned descent speed with half
speed brakes extended.
58. Which computer provides the Windshear detection function for the aircraft?
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The windshear detection function is provided by the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) in
take-off and approach phase:
At takeoff, 3 s after liftoff, up to 1300 ft RA.
- At landing, from 1300 ft RA to 50 ft RA.
- With at least CONF 1 selected.
59. What is SRS mode?
In normal engine condition: aircraft maintains a speed target = V2 + 10kt.
In engine failure condition: the speed target becomes the highest of V2 or current speed, limited
by V2+15kt.
60. What guidance does this mode provide if SRS mode is followed?
The SRS guidance law also includes:
- Attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff (in case of windshear)
- Flight path angle protection that ensures a minimum V/S of 120ft/min.
- A speed protection limiting the target speed to V2+15kt.
61. During Managed Descent, the aircraft may deviate from the DES profile under which conditions?
The aircraft may deviate from the DES profile while DES mode is engaged if:
- Unexpected wind conditions are encountered.
- Anti-icing is turned on
- The lateral flight plan is changed.

ENVIRONMENTAL FLIGHT SYSTEM

62. When would the RAM AIR pb be used?
Ventilation and/or smoke removal
63. Under what condition will the ram air door open?
The ram air door opens provided that it is under automatic control and ΔP is less than 1 PSI.
64. What areas of the AC have ventilation systems?
Avionics ventilation
Battery ventilation
Lavatory & galley ventilation
Fwd and Aft cargo compartment ventilation
65. Why must the crew always rely on the CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning to initiate the
Emergency Descent?
Crews must rely on the CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning, even of not confirm on the CAB
PRESS SD page. The CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning can be triggered by a cabin pressure
sensor, different from the one used to control the pressure and display the cabin altitude on the
SD.
66. After both engines shut down at parking, ECAM warning CAB PR EXCESS RESIDUAL PR
comes up, what are the crew’s action?
- Turn off both packs.
- Alert cabin crew.
67. Why do the crew have to set EXTRACT pushbutton to OVRD when heavy rain?
To prevent water from entering the avionics bay.
68. What will happen when the EXTRACT pushbutton is set to OVRD?
The system goes to closed circuit configuration. Air from the air conditioning system is added to
ventilation air.

ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT SYSTEM

69. What is the function of the 3 DMCs?
- Generating images to be displayed on PFD, ND and ECAM DUs
70. What is the function of the 2 SDACs?
- Acquiring systems data for transmission of caution/warnings to FWCs and systems condition to
DMCs
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71. What is the function of the 2 Flight Warning Computers (FWCs)?
- Generating alert messages, aural alerts and procedural messages for display on ECAM
72. What is the difference between a failure that is coded RED, and a failure that is coded AMBER?
Red failure: the configuration or failure requires immediate action.
Amber failure: the flight crew should be aware of the configuration or failure, but need not take
immediate action.
73. What does the abbreviation ECAM stand for?
Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor.
74. What is the normal configuration of the Display Management Computer? Which DMC controls
which DUs?
In normal operations, each DMC drives the following display units:
- DMC 1 drives the CAPT PFD, CAPT ND, and ECAM DUs.
- DMC 2 drives the F/O PFD and F/O ND.
- DMC 3 is on standby, ready to drive any DU.

RADIO MANAGEMENT AND COMMUNICATION

75. If in flight we lost both FMGCs due to internal failure, could we still navigate and complete the
flight in RNAV5 airspace?
Yes, by using the RMP to dial appropriate frequencies.
76. If the CVR GND CTL button was not selected on, how would the system work in automatic
mode?
The CVR is on for 5 minutes after electrical power is first applied, then off until the first engine
starts. It stays on until 5 minutes after the last engine is shutdown.
77. What happens when the EMER pb-sw (guarded) is pushed on the CALLS panel located on the
overhead panel?
When pressed, the following aural and visual alerts will trigger in the cabin:
- Two pink lights flash on all area call panels.
- The “EMERGENCY CALL” message appears on all AIPs.
- A high-low chime sounds 3 times, on all of the loudspeakers.
78. Which RMP's work during an Emergency Electrical Configuration?
RMP 1 only.

FIRE PROTECTION
79. A fire and overheat detection and extinguishing system is installed for what AC systems?
- Each engine
- The APU
80. Smoke detection and fire extinguishing systems are installed for what AC systems?
- The cargo compartments
- The lavatories
- Avionics bay (Smoke detection)
81. Portable fire extinguishers are installed where?
- The cockpit
- The passenger cabin
82. What happens if both fire loops fail simultaneously?
A fire warning is triggered if this occurs within 5 seconds (flame effect)
83. What are the indications in the cockpit when smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation system?
When smoke is detected for more than 5s:
- The Single Chime sounds
- The MASTER CAUTION lights flash
- The ECAM AVIONICS SMOKE alert triggers
- On the EMER ELEC PWR panel, the SMOKE light of the GEN 1 LINE pb-sw comes on.

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- On the VENTILATION panel, the FAULT lights of the BLOWER pb-sw and the EXTRACT pb-
sw come on.
84. What does the amber DISCH light indicate on the fire button?
This indicates the corresponding fire extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.
85. What happens when the engine fire button is pushed?
It will:
- Silences the aural fire warning
- Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
- Closes the low-pressure fuel valve, hydraulic valve, engine bleed valve, pack flow control valve.
- Cuts off FADEC power supply
- Deactivates the IDG
86. What will happen if the APU is operating and an APU fire is detected?
When an APU fire is detected on the ground, the APU automatically shuts down, and the
extinguisher bottle discharges automatically.

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

87. In flight, hot air from the pneumatic system heats flight controls surfaces?
The three outboard slats (3-4-5) of each wing.
88. On ground, the wing anti-ice system is inhibited, except for test purpose. To prevent slat overheat
the test is automatically limited to how long?
30 seconds.
89. Which probes does electrical heating protect?
- Pitot heads
- Static ports
- Angle-Of-Attack probes (AOAs)
- Total Air Temperature (TAT) probes
90. What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light on the anti-ice panel indicate?
An engine anti-ice valve is not in the commanded position
91. What does the wing FAULT light indicate?
The wing anti-ice valve is not in the commanded position or there is low bleed pressure.
92. What is the definition of icing conditions?
Icing conditions exist when OAT (on ground or after takeoff) or the TAT (in flight) is at or below
10⁰C, and visible moisture in any form is present (clouds, fog, rain snow, ice crystal).
93. If the taxi out for departure is conducted under icing conditions, what precaution must the crew
take regarding setting the flap/slat for takeoff?
If taxiing in icing conditions with rain, slush or snow: maintain the flaps retracted until the
aircraft reaches the holding point of the takeoff runway. This action prevents contamination of
the slats/flaps mechanism.

OXYGEN
94. Passenger oxygen is supplied by what?
Chemical generator system
95. The passenger oxygen system will provide a supply of oxygen for approximately how long?
13 minutes
96. Regarding crew’s oxygen mask, what is the difference when the crew select the regulator to
NORMAL, and when the crew select the regulator to 100%?
With regulator set to NORMAL: the user breathes a mixture of cabin air and oxygen. The higher
the cabin altitude, the more oxygen the mask provides, until the mask supplies 100% oxygen.
With regulator set to 100%: the regulator supplies pure oxygen at all cabin altitude.
97. On the ECAM DOOR/OXY page, crew sees an half frame appears around the OXY pressure
indication. What does this mean?
On ground, an amber half frame appears when oxygen pressure is < 1500 PSI.
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LIGHTS
98. What is the use of the Wing switch on the Exterior Light Panel?
These lights provide lighting on the leading edge and on the engine air intake to detect ice
accretion.
99. When will the emergency exit lights come on when the EMER EXIT LT sw is in the ARM
position?
The proximity emergency escape path marking system, overhead emergency lights, exit signs
come on when the normal aircraft electrical power, or DS SHED ESS BUSS is lost.
100. When battery is supplying electrical power, what light is available in the cockpit?
Only the right-hand dome light is on line.

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Revision 00 – Date Dec 09, 2019