Professional Documents
Culture Documents
27/01/2024
Evening
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456
Memory Based
Answers & Solutions
Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The maximum marks
are 300.
(3) This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is
Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
(6) Section - A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(7) Section - B (21 – 30) contains 10 Numerical value based questions. The answer to each question
should be rounded off to the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and
–1 mark for wrong answer.
-1-
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
PHYSICS
SECTION - A Sol. • Positive error always subtracted during
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 measurement.
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices • Defect may occur during manufacturing of
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. measuring device.
Choose the correct answer:
4. Find total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen gas at
1. If the work function of a metal is 6.63 eV, then find
25
its threshold frequency for photoelectric effect. 27°C. Take R = J/mol-K
3
(1) 1.9 × 1015 Hz (2) 1.6 × 1015 Hz
(1) 6250 J (2) 3125 J
(3) 2 × 1016 Hz (4) 1.2 × 1015 Hz
(3) 12500 J (4) 625 J
Answer (2) Answer (1)
0 6.63 1.6 10 −19 Sol. (f = 5 for diatomic gas)
Sol. f0 = =
h 6.63 10−34 5 5 25
K= RT = 1 300
= 1.6 × 1015 Hz 2 2 3
= 250 × 25
a
2. If P – (V – b ) = nRT , where P, V, R and T are = 6250 J
V2
pressure, volume, universal gas constant and 5. If a current of 200 A deflects the coil of moving coil
galvanometer through 60°, then the current
a
temperature, then has same dimensional
b2 required to cause deflection through radians is
10
formula as that of
(1) 60 A (2) 50 A
(1) R (2) PV
(3) 20 A (4) 150 A
(3) RT (4) P
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
Sol. i
a
Sol. P ii
V2 = 1
i 2 2
a PV 2
200 A /3
bV =
i / 10
a 200 3
2 [P ] i= A
b 10
3. Statement-I : Positive zero error is added in = 60 A
measurement. 6. Consider the following current carrying structure.
Statement-II : Defect may occurs during Find the magnetic field at the centre. Given that
manufacturing of measuring instruments. r1 = 2 units and r2 = 4 units.
-2-
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
Sol. B = |B1 – B2| l
mg cos = N2 l
2
I I
0 0
2 − 2 1
= mg = N2
4r1 4r2 4
mg
N2 =
0 I 1 4
=
2 4 4 9. If the primary side of a transformer is connected
with 230 V, 50 Hz A.C supply and the ratio of
4
= 10−7 T = 5 10−8 T number of turns of primary to the secondary
8
winding is 10 : 1, load resistance at secondary coil
7. There exists a uniform electric field of 20iˆ N/C. A is 46 then power output of the secondary
dipole of dipole moment p = 15 C-m is placed at windings is
(1) 11.5 watt (2) 13 watt
angle 30° with electric field. Torque on dipole is
(3) 16 watt (4) 15.6 watt
(1) 250 Nm (2) 150 Nm
Answer (1)
(3) 200 Nm (4) 100 Nm
Vi N
Answer (2) Sol. = i = 10
Vo No
Sol. || = P.E sin
Vo = 23 V
= 15 × 20 × sin 30°
V 2 23 23
= 150 Nm Po = o =
R 46
8. A man holding a rod of mass m as shown in figure.
Po = 11.5 W
Find weight of rod experienced by him.
10. Find the power factor of the given A.C circuit
mg mg
(1) (2)
2 4
3mg mg
(3) (4)
2 3 (1) 0.75 (2) 0.5
Answer (2) (3) 1 (4) None of the above
X R 2
specific resistance S1 = , where R is radius
l
and l is length. If length and radius both are
Which is correct truth table for given circuit?
doubled, new specific resistance is :
A B Z A B Z
0 0 1 0 0 0 (1) S1
(1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 1
(2) 2S1
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 0 (3) 4S1
A B Z A B Z S1
(4)
0 0 0 0 0 0 4
(3) 0 1 0 (4) 0 1 1
Answer (1)
1 0 0 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 Sol. Specific resistance is specific to material.
-4-
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
16. In the given reaction, find value of Q value. 18. A pendulum bob is released from angle with the
vertical as shown in the figure. If it’s acceleration at
13
6C ⎯⎯→6 C12 + 0 n 1 + (Q − value) maximum amplitude is same as at mean position,
find
Given : mass of 6 C13 x
mass of 6 C12 y
1
mass of 0n z
1
(1) (y + x – z) C2 (1) tan−1 ( 2) (2) 2 tan−1
5
(2) (y + z – x) C2
1
(3) (y + z + x) C2 (3) 2 tan−1 (4) tan−1(2)
2
(4) (z + x – y) C2
Answer (3)
Answer (2) Sol. At max amplitude
Sol. m = (y + z – x) a1 = gsin
= (y + z – x) C2 v2
a2 =
l
17. Assertion : Angular velocity of moon revolving
about earth is more than angular velocity of earth v 2 = 2gl (1 − cos )
revolving around sun. a2 = 2g(1 – cos)
Reason : Time taken by moon to revolve around gsin = 2g (1 – cos)
earth is less than time taken by earth to revolve
2g sin cos = 2g 2sin2
around sun. 2 2 2
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
cos = 2sin
reason (R) is the correct explanation of 2 2
assertion (A) 1
tan =
2 2
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but
1
reason (R) is not the correct explanation of = 2 tan−1
assertion (A) 2
19. In a single slit diffraction pattern with slit width a and
(3) Assertion (A) is true and reason (R) is false
wavelength of light , find the angular position of
(4) Assertion (A) is false and reason (R) is true first minima if screen distance is D(D >> a)
Answer (1) 2
(1) (2)
a a
Sol. Time period of earth around sun is 365 days
3 3
2 (3) (4)
then 1 = 2a a
365 days
Answer (1)
Time period of moon around earth is 29 days
Sol. For first minima
2
2 = , so 2 > 1 sin = ,
29 days a a
-5-
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
2
(4) 105 V 2v 4
0 – v 02 = 2(– a)
3 100
Answer (2)
5 2 2a
v0 = …(i)
kQ 9 25
Sol. V =
r
4v 02
Also, = 2 a ( p 10 –3 ) …(ii)
9 109 50 1.6 10–19 9
=
9 10–15 5 1000
=
4 25 p
= 8 × 106 V
p = 32
SECTION - B
23. The expression for longest wavelength in Paschen
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
144R
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to series (for H atom) is . Find x. R is Rydberg’s
x
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
constant.
integer.
Answer (7)
21. A uniform ring and uniform solid sphere rolls down
same inclined plane by same distance. If ratio of Sol. Longest wavelength Minimum energy
7 1 1 1
their translational kinetic energies is then x is =R 2 – 2
x 3 4
A
Sol.
t+2
B
Unpolarised light of intensity I0 incident
1 2 Sol.
AP = 8t = 5(3)2 = 45 m
2
I0
= ( sin2 )2
8
For I3 → max
Sol. p1 − p2 =
1
2
(
v 22 − v12 ) 2 = 90°
= 45°
10.5 103 =
1
2
(
103 v 2 − 102 )
27.
21 + 100 = v 2 v = 11 m/s
28.
p1 − p2 = 10.5 103 =
1
2
103 v 22 − v12 29.
1.21 = v2 30.
-7-
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
(1)
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (2)
Answer (3)
Sol. N3 Because, it cannot further reduce itself to 5. Phenolic group can be identified by a positive
-8-
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
Answer (3)
Ag : 4d105s1
(4) CH3CH2CH2 – COOH
10. Compare the stability of resonating structures :
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
(2)
Sol. Resonating structure which does not has any
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – Cl charge is most stable.
-9-
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)- Evening
Ph CH CH2
(1) B2H6 /THF/H2O2 /OH
X(major) Sol. G° = H° – TS°
(2) HBr
(3) Mg, dry ether
(4) HCHO
= 77.2 – 300 × 48 × 10–3
HBr
Ph CH2 CH2 Br (3) Ce3+ has noble gas configuration
Mg
dry ether
Ph CH2 CH2 MgBr (4) Ce has stable configuration
Ph CH2 CH2 CH2 OH
HCHO
Answer (1)
12. The technique used for purification of steam volatile Sol. The E° value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is +1.74 which explains
water immiscible substance is that it is oxidising agent
(1) Fractional distillation 15. Statement I : Oxygen is always present in –2
(2) Distillation under reduced pressure oxidation state.
Answer (3) (1) Both the statements are correct and Statement
II is correct explanation of Statement I
Sol. Substances which are steam volatile and are
immiscible in water are separated by steam (2) Both the statements are correct and Statement
13. If values of H° & S° for a process/reaction are (3) Statement I is correct and II is false
77.2 kJ & 48 J/k respectively. Then find value of (4) Statement II is correct and Statement I is false
1 Answer (4)
log . Given : Temp is 300K
k
1
Sol. Oxygen can show –2, –1, , +1, +2 and 0
(1) 11 2
(2) 5 oxidation state also.
- 10 -
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
16. Consider the following sequence of reactions 22. If 84 g of NaOH (aq) is present in a 3 Molar Solution,
find volume of solution (in mL)
Cl (CH2 )4 Cl
Excess NH3
A
NaOH
B H2O NaCl
Answer (700)
Find B
Sol. As we know
(1) H2N (CH2 )4 OH Moles of NaOH
Molarity
Volume of solution in L
(2) H2N (CH2 )4 NH2
84
3 M
(3) HO (CH2 )4 OH M.W. of NaOH Volume of Solution L
(4) H3 N (CH2 )4 NH3 84
Volume of Solution = L = 0.7 L
40 3
Answer (2) Volume of Solution in mL = 0.7 × 1000 = 700 mL
Sol. 23. Number of non polar molecules given following.
H2O, SO2, BF3, H2, CHCl3
Answer (2)
Sol. Molecules having zero dipole moment ( = 0) are
non polar
17.
18.
19.
20.
SECTION - B
- 11 -
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)- Evening
0.0591
= 2 logH
2
(i)
= 0.0591 × pH
= 0.1773 V
= 17.73 × 10–2 V
(ii)
t = 17.72
18
0 x 1014
x = 16
Sol.
27. A hydrogen electrode is prepared by placing into a
solution of pH = 3. The magnitude of electrode
potential at 25ºC is given by t × 10–2 V. Find out t
(Nearest integer) m = (0.1) × (135)
Answer (18) = 13.5 gm
- 12 -
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
MATHEMATICS
( x 8 x 2 )dx 7 11
(3) (4)
1. The integral 1
is 27
212
( x12 3 x 6 1) tan1 x 3
x3 Answer (2)
equal to Sol. 2tan2 – 5sec – 1 = 0
2(sec2 – 1) – 5sec – 1 = 0
1 1
(1) ln tan1 x 3 c 2sec2 – 5sec – 3 = 0
3 x3
2sec2 – 6sec + sec– 3 = 0
1 (2sec + 1)(sec – 3) = 0
(2) ln tan1 x 3 c
x3 sec = 3
cos = 1/3
1 1
(3) ln tan1 x 3 c 2 solutions in [0, 2]
6 x3
2 solutions in [2, 4]
1 1 2 solutions in [4, 6]
(4) ln tan1 x 3 c
9 x3 13
1 solution in 6 ,
2
Answer (1)
n = 13
1
x2 dx 13
K
x4
Sol. 2 K 12
13
x 3
1 1
1 tan1 x 3
x3 x3 1
1 2 13
213
1
Put x 3 t 13 14 1
x3 =
2 213
2 3
3x 4 dx dt 13 7 91
x 13
2 213
1 dt dy x y 2
3 (t 1) tan1 t
2 3. If
dx
xy
and y (0) 2, find y(2)
(1) 0 (2) 2
Put tan1 t z
(3) e (4) e2
1 Answer (1)
dt dz
1 t 2 Sol. Let X x 1 and Y y 1
1 dz 1 1 X Y
ln tan1 x 3 dY
3 z
c
3 x3 dX X Y
- 13 -
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
Now let Y vX
2
2(1 a2 )sec 2 x
dY
v X
dv I (1 a ) 2 2
sec 2 x 4a2
dx
dX dX 0
dv 1 v
vX 2
2(1 a2 )sec 2 x
dX 1 v I (1 a ) (1 tan
2 2 2
x ) 4a2
dx
(1 v )dv
dX 0
2
(1 v ) X
2
2(1 a2 )sec 2 x
Integration I (tan 2
x )(1 a2 )2 (1 a2 )2
dx
tan –1 v ln 1 v ln | X | c
2 0
2 2
Re-substituting 2 sec x
1 a2
y 1 y 1
2
I 1 a 2
2
dx
tan1 ln 1 ln | ( x 1) | c
0
tan2 x
2
x 1 x 1 1 a
At x = 0, y = 2 Now let tanx = t
sec2xdx = dt
c ln 2
4 2
dt
at x = 2 I
1 a 2
0 2 1 a2
2
t
tan1( y 1) ln 1 ( y 1)2 ln 2 1 a
2
4
y 0, satisfy 2 (1 a 2 )2 a2 )
1 t (1
tan 2
y (2) 0 1 a 2 (1 a 2 )2 (1 a ) 0
dx 2(1 a2 )
4. 1 2a cos x a
0
2
is equal to (1 a2 )2 2
(1 a 2 )
(1 a 2 ) (1 a 2 )
(1) (2) (1 a 2 )2
(1 a 2 )2 (1 a 2 )
5. The 20th term from the end of the progression
2 2
(1 a ) (1 a ) 1 1 3 1
(3) 2
(4) 20, 19 , 18 , 17 , ..., – 129 is
(1 a ) (1 a 2 )2 4 2 4 4
Answer (1) (1) –120 (2) –115
(3) –125 (4) –110
1
Sol. I 1 2(cos x )a a
0
2
dx Answer (2)
–517 3
Sol. 20 (n – 1) –
1 4 4
I 1 2(cos x )a a
0
2
dx
–517 = 80 + (–3n + 3)
–597 = –3n + 3
1 1
2I
0
1 2a cos x a 2
2
1 2a cos x a
dx –600 = –3n
n = 200
nth term from end is (n – r + 1)th
2(1 a 2 )
2I (1 a 2 2
) 4a2 cos2 x
dx 200 – 20 + 1 = 181th term
0 3
a181 = 20 + (181 – 1) –
4
2
2(1 a2 )
2I 2 (1 a )
0
2 2
4a2 cos2 x
dx a181 = 20 – 135
a181 = –115
- 14 -
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
6. An urn contains 6 white and 9 black balls. Two (II) x 0
successive draws of 4 balls are made without
replacement. The probability that the first draw
x 1 1
gives all white balls and second draw gives all black 2x 5 2
balls is 2 x 2 2 x 5
2 1 2 5 (not possible)
(1) (2)
335 495
Domain of f(g(x)) = domain of g(x)
5 3
(3) (4) 5
812 715 Dfog = R
2
Answer (4)
6 8. Considering the principal values of inverse
C4 9 C4
Sol. P 15
trigonometric functions, the positive real values of
C4 11C4
‘x’ satisfying tan–1x + tan–1(2x) = is
15 24 9 8 7 6 24 4
15 14 13 12 24 11 10 9 8 5 1 17 3
1 76 (1) (2)
2 4
13 7 10 11
6 17 3 5 1
(3) (4)
13 10 11 4 2
3 Answer (3)
13 5 11
3 Sol. tan–1x + tan–12x =
4
715
3x
1 5 tan1
7. Let f : R R and g : R R be 1 2x
2
4
2 2
2x 3 | x | 1 3x
defined as f ( x ) and g( x ) then 1
2x 1 2x 5 1 2x 2
the domain of the function f(g(x)) is 2x2 + 3x – 1 = 0
5 3 9 8
(1) R (2) R
2 x 1, x 2 =
4
1 5 1
(3) R , (4) R 3 17
2 2 2 x 1, x 2 =
4
Answer (2)
17 3
Sol. f(g(x)) x1 0
4
1 9. Let R be the interior region between the lines
g(x)
2 3x – y + 1 = 0 and x + 2y – 5 = 0 containing the
| x | 1 1 origin. The set of all values of ‘a’ for which the points
(a2, a + 1) lies in R is
2x 5 2
(I) x0
(1) , 1 (3, )
x 1 1 1
(2) ( 3, 0) , 1
2x 5 2 3
2 x 2 2 x 5 1
(3) ( , 1) 0,
4 x 7 3
7 1
x (Rejected) (4) ( , 2) 0,
4 3
- 15 -
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
Answer (2) For x [1, 2], f(t) = 3 + x
Sol.
- 16 -
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
12. The position vector of vertices A, B, C of are Sol. n(A) = m, then number of subsets of A = 2m
iˆ 2 jˆ 3kˆ , iˆ ˆj 3kˆ , 2 iˆ jˆ 3kˆ respectively. n(B) = n, then number of subsets of B = 2n
Let l is the length of angle bisector of BAC , then given that
the value of l2 is
2m – 2n = 56
(1) 4 2 2 (2) 4 2 2
2m – 2n = 26 – 23
(3) 2 2 2 (4) 2 2 2
From here, m = 6
Answer (2)
Sol. n=3
2m + n = 2 × 6 + 3 = 15
22. If A is a 2 × 2 matrix and I is an identity matrix of
order 2 & A I 0 gives value of as –1 & 3
then trace of A2 is equal to ______
Answer (10)
Sol. Given A I 0
BD 1
DC 2 Value of ‘’ are –1 and 3
2 2 Now value of ‘’ of A2 is equal to 2
D , 1, 3
2 1
Let 1 = (–1)2 = 1
2 2 = (3)2 = 9
2 2
Now AD : l 1 Trace of A2 = 1 + 9 = 10
2 1
Answer is 10
2
1
l2 1 23. The area bounded by 0 y min{2x,6 x x 2 } and
2 1
x-axis is A. Then 12A is
2
2 1 1 Answer (304)
42 2 Sol. min{6 x x 2 , y 2x }
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
6
SECTION - B 1
Area = 4 8 (6 x x 2 )dx
2
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 4
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to 6
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest x3
16 3 x 2
integer. 3
4
21. If for two sets A and B, n(A) = m and n(B) = n and
28
(Number of subsets of A – Number of subsets of B) A 16
3
= 56, then find value of (2m + n).
12 A (12 16 28 4)
Answer (15)
= 304 square unit
- 17 -
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
24. If the line x + y = 0 is tangent to the circle (x – )2 +
2
(y – )2 = 50, then ( + )2 = – 2 – x cos x 02 – – cos x dx
4 0
Answer (100)
Sol. Perpendicular distance from centre = radius
2
–2
4
50
2
2 2
Given that 2
– –2
100 4
- 18 -
AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
And also, Sol. Using expansions,
9
x 2
i
(144)
3
3! 5!
5
2
2!
4
4!
2
2 3
3 x x x ... 1 x x x x x
3
15 lim
x 0 2
x 3 2x 5
3 x
x 2
i 153 15 3 15
1
n
3 x 0 x1 1 x 2
i 1
xi2 144 100 2251
lim 2 2
2
1
x 0
x 2 2x 4 3
2 3 x 2 1
2251 178 2 3 15
Variance
15 15
= –3
2251 178
15( 2 2 ) 15 =1
15 15
1 1
= 2429 1 2
23 3
3 sin x cos x ln(1 x ) 1
28. If lim 2
. = –3
x 0 3 tan x 3
2 – = 2 – (–3) = 5
Then 2 is equal to
29.
Answer (5) 30.
- 19 -