Professional Documents
Culture Documents
JEE (Main)-2025
TEST DATE: 04-02-2024
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2025 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. All the rods are made of same material and have equal cross-sectional area. Length of rods are
such that L1 = L2 = L4 = L5 L3.
Temperature A = B > C > D > E = F.
Consider the following statements for steady state.
A 4 E
1
C 3 D
2=40°
1=50°
2 5
B F
(i) As 1 2 , power through AC power through DF.
(ii) Power through CD = 2 (power through DF) which of the following is correct –
(A) statement (i) is correct but (ii) is incorrect (B) statement (i) is incorrect but (ii) is correct
(C) both are incorrect (D) both are correct
3. Two thin rings each of radius R are coaxially placed at a distance R. The rings have a uniform
mass distribution and have mass m1 and m2 respectively. Then the work done in moving a mass
m from centre of one ring to that of the other is
Gm (m1 m 2 ) ( 2 1)
(A) zero (B)
2R
Gm ( 2) (m1 m 2 ) Gmm1 ( 2 1)
(C) (D)
R m2 R
4. Mass of moon is 1/81 times that of earth and its radius is 1/4, the earth’s radius. If escape velocity
at surface of earth is 11.2 km/sec, then its value at surface of moon is:
(A) 0.14 km/sec (B) 0.5 km/sec
(C) 2.5 km/sec (D) 5 km/sec
5. In older times, people used to think that the earth was flat. Imagine that the earth is indeed not a
sphere of radius R, but an infinite plate of thickness H. What value of H is needed to allow the
same gravitational acceleration to be experienced as on the surface of the actual earth ?
(Assume that the earth’s density is uniform and equal in the two models
(A) 2R/3 (B) 4R/3
(C) 8R/3 (D) R/3
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6. There is an air bubble of radius R inside a drop of water of radius 3R. Find the
ratio of gauge pressure at point B to that at point A. B
1 1 A
(A) (B)
2 4
1
(C) (D) 1
3
7. A liquid whose coefficient of volume expansion is r , completely fills a sealed metal tank, at
negligible pressure. The coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is , and the compressibility
of the liquid is k. If the temperature of the system is increased by t. The pressure of the liquid will
be
t t
(A) r (B) ( r )
k k
t
(C) tk ( r 3) (D) ( r )
k
8. Work done in splitting a drop of water of 1 mm radius into 64 droplets is (Surface tension of water
is 72 10–3 J/m2)
(A) 2.0 10–6 J (B) 2.7 10–6 J
–6
(C) 4 10 J (D) 5.4 10–6 J
9. A metal wire of length L and radius r is clamped rigidly at one end. A force F is applied at another
end so that its length increases by L. The increase in length of another metal wire of length 2L
and radius 2r, when stretched by a force 2F, will be
(A) 2L (B) L
(C) L/2 (D) L/4
10. A liquid drop at temperature T, isolated from its surroundings, breaks into a number of droplets.
The temperature of the droplets will be
(A) equal to T
(B) greater than T
(C) less than T
(D) either (A), (B) or (C) depending on the surface tension of the liquid
11. The stressstrain graph for two materials is shown in the figure. If the stress
Young’s modulus for two materials are YA and YB then
A
(A) Y A YB
(B) Y A YB B
(C) Y A YB
(D) Can’t be predicted from the graph
strain
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13. A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing SHM of amplitude of 0.1m. When the particle passes
through the mean position, its kinetic energy is 18 × 10–3 J. The equation of motion of this
particle when the initial phase of oscillation is 45° can be given by–
(A) 0.1 cos 6t (B) 0.1 sin 6t
4 4
(C) 0.4 sin t (D) 0.2 sin 2t
4 2
14. A particle executing SHM oscillates between two fixed points separated by 20 cm. If its maximum
velocity be 30 cm/s, find its velocity when its displacement is 5 cm. from its mean position.
(A) 10 3 cm / s (B) 20 3 cm / s
(C) 5 3 cm / s (D) 2 2 cm / s
15. A particle performs S.H.M. on x-axis with amplitude A and time period T. The time taken by the
particle to travel a distance A/5 starting from rest is :
T T 4
(A) (B) cos–1
20 2 5
T 1 T 1
(C) cos–1 (D) sin–1
2 5 2 5
16. A body is executing simple harmonic motion. At a displacement x from mean position, its potential
energy is E1 = 2J and at a displacement y from mean position, its potential energy is E2 = 8J.
The potential energy E at a displacement (x + y) from mean position is –
(A) 10 J (B) 14 J
(C) 18 J (D) 4 J
17. P-T diagram is shown below then choose the corresponding V-T diagram.
P
A C
B D
T
V V
(A) (B)
A D B D
A C
B C T
T
V V
(C) (D)
B C D
B
C
A D A
T T
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(m³)
18. An ideal gas is taken through a cycle ABC A as shown in figure. If
the heat supplied in the cycle is 5J, then work done by the gas in the
2 C B
process C A is–
(A) –5J (B) –10J
(C) –15J (D) –20J
1
A
(Pa)
(0,0) 20
19. Steam at 100ºC is passed into 1.1 kg of water contained in a calorimeter of water equivalent 0.02
kg at 15ºC till the temp. of the calorimeter and its contents rises to 80ºC. What is the mass of
steam condensed? Latent heat of steam = 536 cal/g.
(A) 0.130 kg (B) 1.130 kg
(C) 1.30 kg (D) 5.120 kg
20. A power radiated by a black body is P0 and the wavelength corresponding to the maximum
energy is around 0. On changing the temperature of the black body, it was observed that the
power radiated is increased to (256/81) P0. The shift in the wavelength corresponding to the
maximum energy will be –
(A) + 0/4 (B) + 0/2
(C) – 0/4 (D) – 0/2
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. A satellite of mass m, initially at rest on the earth, is launched into a circular orbit at a height equal
X
to the radius of the earth. The minimum energy required is mgR . Find the value of X.
4
22. Two planets A and B have the same material density. If the radius of A is twice that of B, then the
ratio of the escape velocity VA/VB is –
24. Two opposite forces F1 = 120 N and F2= 80 N act on an elastic plank of modulus of elasticity Y =
21011 N/m2 and length l = 1 m placed over a smooth horizontal surface. The cross-sectional area
of the plank is S = 0.5m2. The change in length of the plank is x 10–11m, then find the value of x
25. A spherical tank of 1.2 m radius is half filled with oil of relative density 0.8 . If the tank is
given a horizontal acceleration of 10 m/s2. The maximum pressure on the tank is 2 P pascal.
Find the value of P.
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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2025 6
26. A cube of side a and mass m just floats on the surface of water as
shown. The surface tension and density of water are S and w
respectively. If angle of contact between cube and water surface is
zero, find the distance h (in m) between the lower face of cube and
surface of the water.
10 2
(Take m = 1 kg, g = 10 m/s2, Sa unit and w a g 10 unit )
4
displacement of springs is only the component of displacements of masses now use energy methodd.
27. Three identical springs each of force constant k have been
joined to the three identical balls (each of mass m), as m
shown in the Fig. which are at the three vertices of an
equilateral triangle. In the shown arrangement, each of the
spring is in its natural length. What all three balls are
simultaneously given small displacements of equal k k
magnitude along the directions as shown in the figure, the
O
oscillation frequency for the blocks will be
1 Xk m m
2 m
300 . Find X
k
28. A point source is emitting sound in all directions. Find the ratio of distance of two points from the
1
point source is , where the difference in loudness levels is 3 dB. (log10 2 = 0.3)
X
29. An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end with the result that the frequency of third harmonic of
the closed pipe is found to be higher by 100 Hz than the fundamental frequency of the open pipe.
The fundamental frequency (in Hz) of the open pipe is
30. The potential energy of a particle executing SHM changes from maximum to minimum in 5s.
Then the time period (in s) of SHM is –
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Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Consider the following diagram regarding the radial distribution function for 2s and 2p orbitals?
Which one of the following statements is a correct conclusion drawn from the diagram given
above?
(A) 2s electrons are less shielded than 2p electrons.
(B) 2p electrons are less shielded than 2s electrons.
(C) 2s and 2p orbitals have equal probability of closer approach to nucleus.
(D) 2s electrons and 2p electrons are equally shielded
(C)
(D)
1.NaH, CS ,Mel
2
2. heat
H
OH
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(A) H (B) H
H
(C) H (D) H
H H
35. A 0.200-g sample containing copper is analyzed iodometrically. Copper(II) is reduced to copper(I)
by iodide; CuI precipitates:
2Cu2 4I 2CuI I2
What is the percent copper in the sample if 20.0 mL of 0.100 M Na2S2O3 is required for titration of
the liberated I2?
(A) 60.5% (B) 7.5%
(C) 42% (D) 63.5%
36. The major products M and N in the following reaction sequence are
O
H3 C H CH3
Li P Ph CH I LiI
2 M
3 N
CH3 PPh2
H3 CO CH2 O
(A) H3 C OLi
H H3 C CH3
N
M= H CO CH3 H
3 PPh2 H3 CO
(B) H3 C OLi
H H3 C H
N
M= H CO CH3 CH3
3 PPh2 H3 CO
(C) H3 C OLi
H H3 C CH3
N
C
M= H CO CH3 H
3 PPh2 H3 CO
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(D) H3 C OLi
H H3 C H
N
C
M= H CO CH3 CH3
3 PPh2 H3 CO
Ph
Ph
NH2 CO2
HN Base
O COOEt
COOEt
O
(A) (B) O
F COOEt
F F OEt
HN
F Me
HO
(C) (D) O
F COOEt
F N
F OH
Me
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K2
A g C g
K3
D g
(A) 0.288 (B) 0.5277
(C) 1.154 (D) none of these
43. Titanium tetrachloride (TiCl4) reacts with THF (C4H8O) to form an octahedral complex X under
inert atmosphere at 25ºC. If 5.0 g of TiCl4 is used and the yield is 80%, the amount of X (in
grams) formed is______
(Use atomic weight Ti = 48, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, C = 12, and H = 1)
TiCl4 2THF TiCl4 THF 2
(A) 5.08 (B) 8.79
(C) 7.03 (D) 8.03
44. Consider the following
1
SO 2 g O2 SO3 g
2
At 298 K, the standard molar Gibbs free energies of formation f G0 , of SO2 (g) and SO3(g) are –
300 and –371 kJ mol–1, respectively. The value of the equilibrium constant, KP, at this
temperature is
x 1010. What is the value of x?
(Given: gas constant R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1)
e29.65 = 753 1010
e28.65 = 277.0 1010
e27.65 = 101.9 1010
(A) 102 (B) 377
(C) 277 (D) 753
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45.
Find the value of rH at 300 K for the following process. X g
Y g ; if van’t Hoff equation
2000
for the same is given as nK p 3 ; (Assume R = 2 cal/mol K)
T
(A) 4 Kcal (B) 2 Kcal
(C) 6 Kcal (D) 3 Kcal
46. Arrange the following hydrogens in the order of their acidic behaviour
H C C H
(ii) N (iii)
N
H
(i)
(A) i > iii > ii (B) ii > iii > i
(C) i > ii > iii (D) iii > ii > i
47. Which of the following representations does not exhibit cis-trans isomerism?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. The product/s obtained on reaction of biphenyl (Ph-Ph) with nitrating mixture (HNO3 + H2SO4)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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49. The following are the concentration vs time plots of the reactants and products represented by
the reaction?
L g 2M g N g 3 O g
The curves that represent M(g) and N(g) qualitatively are respectively.
(A) X, Y (B) Y, U
(C) V, Y (D) U, X
50. Which one of the following does not undergo hydrolysis -
(A) AsCl3 (B) SbCl3
(C) PCl3 (D) NF3
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. Consider the given figure showing molecular orbitals diagram of HF molecule. Identify the total
number of correct statement:
(a) In HF the bonding orbital is more concentrated on the F atom and anti bonding orbital is more
concentrated on the H atom
(b) There are five valence orbitals available for molecular orbital formation and 10 valence
electrons to accommodate into the five molecular orbitals
(c) The 1 bonding orbital is predominantly F2s in character and essentially non bonding
(d) The 2 bonding orbital is more bonding than 1 orbital and has both H1s and F2p character.
(e) The 3 orbital is antibonding and principally F2s in character
(f) The total number of non bonding electron in HOMO (highest occupied molecular orbital) of
HF is 6
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52. The ratio of the number of all possible electrons with ( n = 6, = 4, m = 3) and with (n = 2 = 1,
m = –1) will be
53. For the reaction shown in scheme 1 the concentration profiles of different species follow first
order consecutive reaction
Based on the graph identify the number of correct condition(s) regarding the rate constant
(i) k2 > k4 (ii) k3 > k1
(iii) k2 > k1 (iv) k1 = k2
238 206
54. The number of particles emitted in the nuclear reaction 92 U 82 Pb
55. The longest wavelength of light absorbed by a hydrogen like atom is 2.48 nm. The nuclear charge
(Z) of the atom is __________
56. The number of all possible isomers (excluding stereoisomers) for the molecular formula C6H14 is
57. Number of stereoisomers possible for the major product formed in the reaction
CH2
Ph C
HBr
1 equivalent
H
are_______________
58.
60. H3PO4 is a tri basic acid and one of its salt is NaH2PO4. What volume (in mL) of 1M NaOH
solution should be added to 0.12 g of NaH2PO4 to convert it into Na3PO4?
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Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
63. If a sinx + bcos(C + x) + bcos (C –x) = , then the minimum value of |cosC| is
2 a2 2 a2
(A) (B)
b2 4b 2
2 a2
(C) (D) none of these
16b 2
64. The number of n-digit numbers, no two consecutive digits being the same, is
(A) n! (B) 9!
(C) 9n (D) n9
tan 3 sin 3
65. If 4, then equals
tan sin
(A) 3/5 (B) 4/5
(C) 3/4 (D) none of these
n 2
r 1 2n
66. The value of 4
r 1
C2r 3 is equal to
3 2n 16 C3 1 8n
2n
4 2n 8 2nC3 1 8n
(A) (B)
4 2
4 2n 4 2nC3 1 4n 3 2n 16 2nC3 1 8n
(C) (D)
2 2
68. The number of ways in which 15 boys and 2 girls can sit in a row such that between the girls at
the most 2 boys sit is
12
(A) 17! – (12! 3!) (B) 17! – ( C3 3!)
12
(C) 17! – ( C3 15!) (D) 17! – (91 2! 15!)
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69. Ten different letters of an alphabet are given. Words with five letters are formed from these given
letters. Then the number of words which have at least one letter repeated is
(A) 69,760 (B) 30,240
(C) 99,784 (D) none of these
11
1
70. The sum of coefficients of even powers of x in the expansion of x is
x
11 11
(A) 11 11C5 (B) C6
2
(C) 11 11 C 5 11 C 6 (D) 0
10
x 1 x 1
71. In the expansion of 2/ 3 1/ 3
1/ 2
, the term which does not contain x, is
x x 1 x x
equal to
(A) 10C0 (B) 10C7
(C) 10C4 (D) none of these
4
1
72. The constant term in the expansion of 1 x x 2 is
x
(A) 35 (B) 30
(C) 32 (D) 31
1 1 1 1 1 1
73. The value of the expression 2 1 1 2 +3 2 2 2 + 4 3 3 2 + . . .
1 1
+ (n+1) n n 2 , where is an imaginary cube root of unity, is
(A)
nn 22
(B)
n n2 2
3 3
2
n 2 n 1 4n
(C) (D) none of these
4
4
74. Number of natural numbers < 2 .10 which can be formed with the digits 1, 2, 3 only is equal
to
3 6 2 .3 4 3 3 6 2.3 4 3
(A) (B)
2 2
7
3 1
(C) (D) none of these
2
75. If points corresponding to the complex numbers z1, z2, z3 and z4 are the vertices of a
rhombus, taken in order, then for a non-zero real number k
(A) z1 – z3 = i k( z2 –z4) (B) z1 – z2 = i k( z3 –z4)
(C) z1 + z3 = k( z2 +z4) (D) z1 + z2 = k( z3 +z4)
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1
76. If a = , then for all x ,
5 cos x 2 6 sin x 3
1 1
(A) the least value of a is (B) the greatest value of a is
7 3 7 3
1 1
(C) a , , (D) none of these
7 3 7 3
2
77. In a triangle ABC, angle B is greater than angle A, B –A < . If the values of A and B satisfy the
3
equation 3sinx – 4sin3x - k = 0 (0 < k < 1), then angle C is equal to
(A) (B)
3 6
2
(C) (D) None of these
3
n
2
79. The sum n r r 2 n 2r is equal to
r 0
15 11
cos 2k cos 2k
(A)
k 0 15
(B)
k 0 13
n1 2 k n 2k
i i
(C) e
k 0
n (D)
k 0
en
80. The vertices of a triangle in the argand plane are 3 + 4i, 4+ 3i and 2 6 + i, then distance
between orthocentre and circumcentre of the triangle is equal to,
(A) 137 28 6 (B) 137 28 6
1 1
(C) 137 28 6 (D) 137 28 6 .
2 3
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
82. For a complex number z, the minimum value of |z| + | z - cos - isin| is
83. The value of i log(x – i) + i2 +i3 log(x +i) + i4( 2 tan-1x), x> 0 ( where i = 1 ) is
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ab bc
84. If , b, are in A.P. and , be the roots of equation
1 ab 1 bc
2acx 2 2abcx (a c) 0 then 1 1 is equal to (a, b, c 0)
86. The sum of the factors of 7!, which are odd and are of the form 3t + 1 where t is a whole
number, is
1 i
88. If A iB , then A 2 B2 equals to
1 i
90. The number of divisors of 3630, which have a remainder of 1 when divided by 4, is
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