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Table of Content
Unit 01: Listening 01 1
Unit 02: Reading 01 7
Unit 03: Listening 02 16
Unit 04: Reading 02 23
Unit 05: Listening 03 32
Unit 06: Reading 03 39
Unit 07: Listening 04 48
Unit 08: Reading 04 56
Unit 09: Listening 05 64

Unit 10: Revision 01 73

Unit 11: Reading 05 79


Unit 12: Listening 06 89
Unit 13: Reading 06 97
Unit 14: Listening 07 107
Unit 15: Reading 07 114
Unit 16: Listening 08 122
Unit 17: Reading 08 129
Unit 18: Listening 09 137
Unit 19: Reading 09 143

Unit 20: Revision 02 152

Companion Exercises 159


Companion Answer Keys 222
Listening 01
Completing a form |
IELTS Listening Test format | Talk about museum, exhibition and photos

Vocabulary
Read the following examples and guess the missing words based on their phonetic
transcription. Then fill in the blanks with the targeted vocabulary.
1 Vinfast is a nationally well-known _________________ /ˈɔː.tə.mə.biːl/ company in Vietnam.
2 Vincent Van Gogh digital art _________________ /ˌek.sɪˈbɪʃ.ən/ have been held in nearly 30 U.S
cities this year.
3 Paying a visit to natural history museums, tourists will have a chance to _________________
/əbˈzɜːv/ diversity of artifacts about ancient plants and animals in the natural world
throughout history.
4 For further information about how to book the tickets to Ho Chi Minh museum, please

_________________ /ˈdaɪ.əl/ our hotline on the website.


5 _________________ /ˌren.əˈveɪ.ʃənz/ have been made to attract more visitors to the national
museum.

In IELTS Listening Test


You will have some time to go through the questions before the recording is played.
You should use this time to predict the type of information that is needed to complete the
gaps. Make sure you follow the correct format and the given word limit as you write down
your answer.

Pre-listening
Read the questions and decide what type of information is needed for each question.

Question Information

The exhibition opens in _____

The length of the exhibition _____

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Some cars are available for observation,
others are only available for _____

Prohibited items in the museum _____

If paid in advance, ticket price is _____

Talk to Box Office Manager, Mark _____

This year, the exhibition is held in a palace named _____

The exhibition is not far from _____

For more information, visit the website: www. _____ .com

Best way to contact _____

Part 1
Questions 1–10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Birmingham Exhibition

Example
Purpose of Calling: purchasing tickets
• Open in: 1 __________________________
• Length of exhibition: 2 __________________________
• A wide range of manufacturers will be showcased
• Some cars are available to observe
The others are for 3 __________________________
• The 4 __________________________ are prohibited to take into the museum
• Every ticket includes one free photo
• Price of ticket: 5 £ __________________________ (in advance)
• Transfer to Mark 6 __________________________ (Box Office Manager)
• Held in the 7 __________________________ Palace this year
• Not far from 8 __________________________
• Website: 9 www. __________________________ .com
• Best way to contact: 10 __________________________

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Vocabulary
Match the word 1-8 to the correct picture a-f.

1 2 3

4 5 6

7 8 9

a alter d disk g out of focus


b attic e folder h restore
c contrast f fragile i touch up

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Part 1
Questions 1–10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Copying photos to digital format

Name of company: Picturerep

Requirements
• Maximum size of photos is 30cm, minimum size 4cm.
• Photos must not be in a 1 _________________ or an album.
Cost
• the cost for 350 is 2 £ _________________ (including one disk).
• Before the completed order is sent, 3 _________________ is required.
Services included in the price
• Photo can be placed in a folder, e.g. with the name 4 _________________ .
• The 5 _________________ and contrast can be improved if necessary.
• Photo which are very fragile will be scanned by 6 _________________ .
Special restore service (costs extra)
• It may be possible to remove an object from a photo, or change the
7 _________________ .
• A photo which is not correctly in 8 _________________ cannot be fixed.
Other information
• Orders are completed within 9 _________________ .
• Send the photos in a box (not 10 _________________ ).

Post-listening
Match the words 1-4 below with the ones with similar meanings.
1 cost (n.) a change (v.)
2 name (n.) 2 correctly (adv.)
3 alter (v.) 3 charge (n.)
4 properly (adv.) 4 be called (v.)

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IELTS Speaking Part 1
Work in pair. Take turn ask and answer the following questions.
1 What type of photos do you like taking?
2 What do you do with the photos you take?
3 When you visit other places, do you take photos or buy postcards? Why/Why not?
4 Do you like people taking photos of you? Why/Why not?

Part 1
Questions 1–10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Accommodation Form: Rental Properties

Example
Name: Jane Ryder
Contact phone number: 1 (0044) _________________
Email address: 2 richard@ _________________ co.uk
Occupation: a local 3 _________________
Type of accommodation: a 2-bedroom apartment wanted
(must have its own 4 _________________ )
no 5 _________________ required
( family bringing theirs)
a 6 _________________ in the kitchen is preferable
Preferred location: near a 7 _________________
Maximum rent: 8 _________________ per month
Other requests: the has to be
9 _________________ in the daytime
How did you first hear about us? through a 10 _________________

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Part 1
Questions 1–10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Job Enquiry

Example
Work at: a restaurant
Type of work: 1 __________________________
Number of hours per week: 12 hours
Would need: work permit
Work in the: 2 __________________________ branch
Nearest bus stop: next to 3 __________________________
Pay: 4 £ __________________________
Extra benefits: a free dinner
extra pay when you work on 5 __________________________
transport home when you work 6 __________________________
Qualities required: 7__________________________
ability to 8 __________________________
Interview arranged for: Thursday 9 __________________________ at 6PM
Bring the names of two referees
Ask for: Samira 10 __________________________

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Reading 01
Matching headings |
Identifying main points | Writing topic sentences

Getting started
Which of the following features do you associate with organic food? Circle the number 1-8.
1 use of pesticides 5 no synthetic chemicals
2 more nutrients 6 use of antibiotics
3 lower chances of having heart disease 7 cheaper than conventional food
4 use of growth hormones 8 bioengineered genes (GMOs)

Pre-reading
Exercise 1
Skim the reading passage Organic food: Why?. What is the main topic of the text?
A The differences between organic farming and conventional farming
B The reasons why people feel the need to eat organic food
C The fact that organic food and farming is not as good as humans think

In IELTS Reading Test


Matching heading questions test your ability to understand the organisation of texts and
identify main idea of each section or paragraph of the reading passage.
Before you read, underline the key points in each of the heading. Then skim each section
to get the gist of it.

Exercise 2
Read the given headings i-ix. What are the main points of each heading?
Underline the words that you find important.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒12 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.
Questions 1̶6
Reading passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A̶G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

List of Headings
i Research into whether organic food is better for us
ii Adding up the cost of organic food
iii The factors that can affect food quality
iv The rich and poor see things differently
v A description of organic farming
vi Testing the taste of organic food
vii Fear of science has created the organic trend
viii The main reason for the popularity of organic food
ix The need to remove hidden dangers from food

Example: Section A viii


1 Section B
2 Section C
3 Section D
4 Section E
5 Section F
6 Section G
Organic food: Why?
Today, many governments are promoting organic or natural farming methods that avoid use of
pesticides and other artificial products. The aim is to show that they care about the environment and
about people’s health. But is this the right approach?
A Europe is now the biggest market for organic food in the world, expanding by 25 per cent
a year over the past 10 years. So what is the attraction of organic food for some people?
The really important thing is that organic sounds more ‘natural’. Eating organic is a way of
defining oneself as natural, good, caring, different from the junk-food-scoffing masses. As
one journalist puts it: It feels closer to the source, the beginning, the start of things.’ The real
desire is to be somehow close to the soil, to Mother Nature.
B Unlike conventional farming, the organic approach means farming with natural, rather than

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man-made, fertilisers and pesticides. Techniques such as crop rotation improve soil quality
and help organic farmers compensate for the absence of man-made chemicals. As a method
of food production, organic is, however, inefficient in its use of labour and land; there are
severe limits to how much food can be produced. Also, the environmental benefits of not
using artificial fertiliser are tiny compared with the amount of carbon dioxide emitted by
transporting food (a great deal of Britain’s organic produce is shipped in from other countries
and transported from shop to home by car).
C Organic farming is often claimed to be safer than conventional farming - for the environment
and for consumers. Yet studies into organic farming worldwide continue to reject this claim.
An extensive review by the UK Food Standards Agency found that there was no statistically
significant difference between organic and conventional crops. Even where results indicated
there was evidence of a difference, the reviewers found no sign that these differences would
have any noticeable effect on health.
D The simplistic claim that organic food is more nutritious than conventional food was always
likely to be misleading. Food is a natural product, and the health value of different foods will
vary for a number of reasons, including freshness, the way the food is cooked, the type of
soil it is grown in, the amount of sunlight and rain crops have received, and so on. Likewise,
the flavour of a carrot has less to do with whether it was fertilised with manure or something
out of a plastic sack than with the variety of carrot and how long ago it was dug up. The
differences created by these things are likely to be greater than any differences brought about
by using an organic or non­organic system of production. Indeed, even some ‘organic’ farms
are quite different from one another.
E The notion that organic food is safer than ‘normal’ food is also contradicted by the fact that
many of our most common foods are full of natural toxins. Parsnips cause blisters on the skin
of agricultural workers. Toasting bread creates carcinogens. As one research expert says:
‘People think that the more natural something is, the better it is for them. That is simply not
the case. In fact, it is the opposite that is true: the closer a plant is to its natural state, the
more likely it is that it will poison you. Naturally, many plants do not want to be eaten, so we
have spent 10,000 years developing agriculture and breeding out harmful traits from crops.’
F Yet educated Europeans are more scared of eating traces of a few, strictly regulated, man-
made chemicals than they are of eating the ones that nature created directly. Surrounded by
plentiful food, it’s not nature they worry about, but technology. Our obsessions with the ethics
and safety of what we eat - concerns about antibiotics in animals, additives in food, GM crops
and so on - are symptomatic of a highly technological society that has little faith in its ability to
use this technology wisely. In this context, the less something is touched by the human hand,
the healthier people assume it must be.

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G Ultimately, the organic farming movement is an expensive luxury for shoppers in well-
manicured Europe. For developing parts of the world, it is irrelevant. To European
environmentalists, the fact that organic methods require more labour and land than
conventional ones to get the same yields is a good thing; to a farmer in rural Africa, it is a
disaster. Here, land tends to be so starved and crop yields so low that there simply is not
enough organic matter to put back into the soil. Perhaps the focus should be on helping these
countries to gain access to the most advanced farming techniques, rather than going back to
basics.

Questions 7 and 8
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO of the following points does the writer mention in connection with organic
farming?
A the occasional use of pesticides
B using the same field for different crops
C testing soil quality
D reducing the number of farm workers
E the production of greenhouse gases

Questions 9 and 10
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
According to the writer, which TWO factors affect the nutritional content of food?
A who prepares the food
B the weather conditions during growth
C where the food has been stored
D when the plants were removed from the earth
E the type of farm the food was grown on

Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO negative aspects of organic farming does the writer mention?
A Consumers complain about the extra cost.
B Organic food may make people ill.
C Farm workers have to be specially trained.
D It requires too much technological expertise.
E It is not possible in some countries.

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Exercise 1
Which topic sentence is the most suitable one for each paragraph?
1 A Organic fruits and vegetables are safer than conventional ones.
B Organic food products are often sold with higher prices.
C It is generally easier to grow conventional crops.

_____ . Since this kind of farming does not permit the use of synthetic fertilizers or
pesticides, organic crops have increased risk of getting damaged by pests and weeds.
Therefore, more labour is required to get rid of those things, which is, as a result, extremely
time and effort-consuming in order just to generate the same yields. Consequently, they
are more expensive than regular crops because it is not easy to grow organic fruits and
vegetables on a commercial basis. To sum up, the quality of organic food justifies their
additional prices.
A It is argued that eating vegetarian food brings noticeable health benefits.
B The reasons why humans should consume meatless food products are justifiable.
C Adopting non-meat diets contributes to longer life expectancy.

_____ . Firstly, it is scientifically proven that adopting vegetarian diets results in lower risks
of developing several chronic illnesses such as heart disease, diabetes, some forms of
cancer and obesity. This is due to the fact that a healthy vegetarian diet is typically low
in fat and high in fiber. Another reason for feeding on meatless meals is associated with
ethical concern. It is believed that animals are just like the human beings, whose lives
should be respected and conserved and that becoming vegetarians is considered to not
violate animal rights to live like humans. In conclusion, I agree that following a vegetarian
diet ensures us a healthier life with a lower possibility of suffering from certain diseases
and enables us to avoid slaughtering animals.

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Exercise 2
Work in groups and write the topic sentence of each paragraph.
1 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Specifically, dangerous levels of pesticides are found in crops grown using the traditional
method. Despite the benefit of increasing yields that using pesticides offers, it also leads to
a variety of diseases. For example, people who consume such foods on a prolonged basis
have an increased risk of developing health problems like cancer. As a result, by switching
to organic foods, people can reduce their risk for cancer and other diseases to a great
extent. In other words, by spending a little bit more today, people can save much more on
their hospital bills in the future. To sum up, limiting the consumption of conventional foods
and increasing the intake of organic ones help us lower the possibility of suffering from
certain diseases and extend our life expectancy.
2 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Specifically, the genetically designed things will later on bring change in the genetic
make-up of the humans, thereby making them vulnerable to many diseases. For
example, the nomad groups of the Indo-Pak subcontinent follow the same principles.
As a consequence, the increased number of cancers in the world tend to be due to the
commercially available artificial feeds. In conclusion, the demerits that technological
improvements bring in food production are undeniable.
3 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
This is because meat-based meals are considered to be richer in protein, which enables
the human body to function properly. Without the intake of protein in daily meals, people
might suffer from a huge shortage of calories to meet their energy needs. As a result, it will
be more challenging for people to work productively, especially those who have to carry
out physically demanding tasks such as athletes. Furthermore, following non-vegetarian
diets with abundant protein is proven to boost the immune system. Therefore, daily
consumption of both meat and veggies can make people less susceptible to common
diseases such as flu or cold. To sum up, meat consumers tend to significantly benefit from
non-vegetarian diets which provide their body adequate nutrients.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14‒26 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.

Questions 14̶20
Reading passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A̶G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

List of Headings
i Different accounts of the same journey
ii Bingham gains support
iii A common belief
iv The aim of the trip
v A dramatic description
vi A new route
vii Bingham publishes his theory
viii Bingham’s lack of enthusiasm

14 Section A
15 Section B
16 Section C
17 Section D
18 Section E
19 Section F
20 Section G

The Lost City


An explorer’s encounter with the ruined city of Machu Picchu, the most famous icon of the Inca civilsation
A When the US explorer and academic Hiram Bingham arrived in South America in 1911,
he was ready for what was to be the greatest achievement of his life: the exploration of
the remote hinterland to the west of Cusco, the old capital of the Inca empire in the Andes
mountains of Peru. His goal was to locate the remains of a city called Vitcos, the last
capital of the Inca civilisation. Cusco lies on a high plateau at an elevation of more than
3,000 metres, and Bingham’s plan was to descend from this plateau along the valley of the

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Urubamba river, which takes a circuitous route down to the Amazon and passes through an
area of dramatic canyons and mountain ranges.
B When Bingham and his team set off down the Urubamba in late July, they had an advantage
over travelers who had preceded them: a track had recently been blasted down the valley
canyon to enable rubber to be brought up by mules from the jungle. Almost all previous
travelers had left the river at Ollantaytambo and taken a high pass across the mountains
to rejoin the river lower down, thereby cutting a substantial corner, but also therefore never
passing through the area around Machu Picchu.
C On 24 July they were a few days into their descent of the valley. The day began slowly, with
Bingham trying to arrange sufficient mules for the next stage of the trek. His companions
showed no interest in accompanying him up the nearby hill to see some ruins that a local
farmer, Melchor Arteaga, had told them about the night before. The morning was dull and
damp, and Bingham also seems to have been less than keen on the prospect of climbing the
hill. In his book Lost City of the Incas, he relates that he made the ascent without having the
least expectation that he would find anything at the top.
D Bingham writes about the approach in vivid style in his book. First, as he climbs up the hill,
he describes the ever-present possibility of deadly snakes, ‘capable of making considerable
springs when in pursuit of their prey’; not that he sees any. Then there’s a sense of mounting
discovery as he comes across great sweeps of terraces, then a mausoleum, followed by
monumental staircases and, finally, the grand ceremonial buildings of Machu Picchu. ‘It
seemed like an unbelievable dream … the sight held me spellbound …’ he wrote.
E We should remember, however, that Lost City of the Incas is a work of hindsight, not written
until 1948, many years after his journey. His journal entries of the time reveal a much more
gradual appreciation of his achievement. He spent the afternoon at the ruins noting down
the dimensions of some of the buildings, then descended and rejoined his companions, to
whom he seems to have said little about his discovery. At this stage, Bingham didn’t realise
the extent or the importance of the site, nor did he realise what use he could make of the
discovery.
F However, soon after returning it occurred to him that he could make a name for himself from
this discovery. When he came to write the National Geographic magazine article that broke
the story to the world in April 1913, he knew he had to produce a big idea. He wondered
whether it could have been the birthplace of the very first Inca, Manco the Great, and whether
it could also have been what chroniclers described as ‘the last city of the Incas’. This term
refers to Vilcabamba, the settlement where the Incas had fled from Spanish invaders in the
1530s. Bingham made desperate attempts to prove this belief for nearly 40 years. Sadly, his
vision of the site as both the beginning and end of the Inca civilisation, while a magnificent

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one, is inaccurate. We now know that Vilcabamba actually lies 65 kilometres away in the
depths of the jungle.
G One question that has perplexed visitors, historians and archaeologists alike ever since
Bingham, is why the site seems to have been abandoned before the Spanish Conquest.
There are no references to it by any of the Spanish chroniclers – and if they had known of its
existence so close to Cusco they would certainly have come in search of gold. An idea which
has gained wide acceptance over the past few years is that Machu Picchu was a moya, a
country estate built by an Inca emperor to escape the cold winters of Cusco, where the elite
could enjoy monumental architecture and spectacular views. Furthermore, the particular
architecture of Machu Picchu suggests that it was constructed at the time of the greatest of
all the Incas, the emperor Pachacuti (c. 1438-71). By custom, Pachacuti’s descendants built
other similar estates for their own use, and so Machu Picchu would have been abandoned
after his death, some 50 years before the Spanish Conquest.

Question 21̶24
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
21 Bingham went to South America in search of an Inca city.
22 Bingham chose a particular route down the Urubamba valley because it was the most
common route used by travellers.
23 Bingham understood the significance of Machu Picchu as soon as he saw it.
24 Bingham returned to Machu Picchu in order to find evidence to support his theory.

Question 25̶26
Complete the sentences below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
25 The track that took Bingham down the Urubamba valley had been created for the
transportation of _________________ .
26 Bingham found out about the ruins of Machu Picchu from a _________________ it the
Urubamba valley.

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Listening 02
Completing a table & Completing sentences |
Talking about vacations

Getting started
Look at the movie posters below. Match the movies to their genres a-f.

1 2 3 4

5 6 7 8

a action c comedy e mystery g science fiction


b animation d documentary f romantic h thriller

Pre-listening
There are several types of presentation materials, each with its own purpose.
Work in groups and discuss the purpose of some materials below. What can be possible
problems when speakers misuse the materials?

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1 visual aids _________________________________________________________________________________
2 speaker notes _____________________________________________________________________________
3 handouts__________________________________________________________________________________

In IELTS Listening Test


A table is a way of summarising information which can be categorised by date, location,
price, time, etc. When completing a table, you should listen for key words to follow the
recording. The answers will be in the same order as the recording but the information in
the table may not.

Part 3 Questions 21‒30


Questions 21–24
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Presentation of film adaptations of Shakespeare’s plays

Stages of presentation Work still to be done

Introduce Giannetti’s book containing a Organise notes


21 ________________ of adaptations

Ask class to suggest the 22 ________________ No further work needed


adaptations

Present Rachel Malchow’s ideas Prepare some 23 ________________

Discuss relationship between adaptations and No further work needed


24 ________________ at the time of making the film

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Questions 25–30
What do the speakers say about each of the following films?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 25-30.

Comments
A clearly shows the historical period
B contains only parts of the play
C is too similar to another kind of film
D turned out to be unpopular with audiences
E presents the play in a different period from the original
F sets the original in a different country
G incorporates a variety of art forms

Films
25 Ran
26 Much Ado About Nothing
27 Romeo & Juliet
28 Hamlet
29 Prospero’s Books
30 Looking for Richard

Part 1 Questions 1‒10


Questions 1–3
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Pre-history of the movie

Name of device Dating from Details

Camera obscura 11th century Originally used to observe solar eclipses.


Later used as a 1 ________________ tool.

Magic Lantern 17th century Ancestor of mordern film projector.


Mainly used for 2 ________________ .

‘Kinetoscope’ 1894 Also known as ‘peep-hole machine’.


Only 3 ________________ could view film.

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Questions 4–7
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Landmarks in cinematography

1985 First 4 ________________ demonstrated in Paris

1903 First Western screened “The Great 5 ________________ ”

1927 “The jazz singer” was the first 6 ________________ film

1932 Technicolor introduced and used in a 7 ________________

Questions 8–10
Complete this list of factors which made California attractive to film makers.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Constant sunshine
8 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
9 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
10 ____________________________________________________________________________________________

Guess the movie


Work in pairs.
Think of your favorite movie, then describe the movie without mentioning any names or
specific details in your description.
Let the class guess the name of the movie that you describe.

IELTS Speaking Part 1


Work in groups. Take turns to ask and answer the following questions.
1 What kinds of movies do you like best?
2 What was the best movie you watched?
3 Would you like to be in a movie?
4 Do you like to watch movies alone or with your friends?

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Part 1 Questions 1‒10
Questions 1–5
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Apartment Facilities Other Information Cost

Rose Garden studio flat Example


Apartments entertainment programme: £219
Greek dancing
Blue Bay large salt-water • just 1 _________________ metres £275
Apartments swimmig pool from beach
• near shops

2 _________________ terrace watersports £490


Apartments

The Grand • Greek paintings • overlooking 4 ________________ 5 £ ______


• 3 ______________ • near a supermarket and a
disco

Questions 6–10
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/ORE A NUMBER for each answer.

Insurance Benefits Maximum Amount

Cancellation 6 £ _________________

£600. Additional benefit allows a 7 _________________ to


Hospital
travel to resort

8 _________________ departure Up to £1000. Depends on reason

Personal belongings Up to £3000; £500 for one 9 _________________

Name of Assistant Manager: Ben 10 _________________


Direct phone line: 081260 543216

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Part 2 Questions 11‒20
Questions 11–14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Matthews Island Holidays
11 According to the speaker, the company
A has been in business for longer than most of its competitors.
B arranges holidays to more destinations than its competitors.
C has more customers than its competitors.
12 Where can customers meet the tour manager before travelling to the Isle of Man?
A Liverpool
B Heysham
C Luton
13 How many lunches are included in the price of the holiday?
A three
B four
C five
14 Customers have to pay extra for
A guaranteeing themselves a larger room.
B booking at short notice.
C transferring to another date.

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Questions 15–20
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND/ORE A NUMBER for each answer.

Timetable for Isle of Man Holiday

Activity Notes

Introduction by manager
Day 1 Arrive Hotel dining has view of the
15 _________________

Tynwald may have been founded in


Day 2 Tynwald Exhibition and Peel
16 _________________ not 979

Travel along promenade in a tram;


Day 3 Trip to Snaefell train to Laxey; train to the
17 _________________ of Snaefell

Company provide a 18 ________________


Day 4 Freeday
for local transport and heritage sites

Free time, then coach to Castletown


Take the 19 _________________ railway
Day 5 - former 20 _________________ has old
train from Douglas to Port Erin
castle

Day 6 Leave Leave the island by ferry or plane

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Reading 02
Completing a summary |
Scanning for specific details | Discussing the impact of child play

Getting started
Match the game names 1-6 to pictures a-f.

1 2 3

4 5 6

1 elastics 3 marbles 5 tag you're it


2 make believe 4 small horses 6 tug of war

Vocabulary
Complete the following sentences with the adjectives in the box.

adaptable intellectual spontatenous


crucial scarce virtuous

1 Chess is the game that is often extolled for being _________________ .


2 During _________________ play, parents should not intervene and should let the child initiate.
3 Hannah is the most _________________ girl, she always asks shy kids to come play during
recess.
4 It is _________________ that children have playdates from a young age since it can underpin
their social skill development.

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5 One repercussion of urbanisation is that the number of playgrounds is becoming

_________________ .
6 Pretend play is highly _________________ because it does not require toys or a certain
number of players.

Pre-reading
Read the pieces of information below and underline the key points. Then scan the reading
passage The Importance of Children's Play. Which paragraphs contain the information?
1 Uses of children's play
2 Recent changes affecting children’s play
3 International policies on children’s play

In IELTS Reading Test


Completing notes, summaries, flow charts or sentences tests your ability to understand
the main ideas in a section of text or to understand details.
Summaries are usually based on a specific section of the text, so you should start with
identifying which paragraphs are summarised. You should also try to predict what kinds of
words the answers are by using your grammar knowledge.

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

THE IMPORTANCE OF CHILDREN’S PLAY


Brick by brick, six-year-old Alice is building a magical kingdom. Imagining fairy-tale turrets and
fire-breathing dragons, wicked witches and gallant heroes, she’s creating an enchanting world.
Although she isn’t aware of it, this fantasy is helping her take her first steps towards her capacity for
creativity and so it will have important repercussions in her adult life.

Minutes later, Alice has abandoned the kingdom in favour of playing schools with her younger
brother. When she bosses him around as his ‘teacher’, she’s practising how to regulate her emotions
through pretence. Later on, when they tire of this and settle down with a board game, she’s learning
about the need to follow rules and take turns with a partner.

24
‘Play in all its rich variety is one of the highest achievements of the human species,’ says Dr David
Whitebread from the Faculty of Education at the University of Cambridge, UK. ‘It underpins how
we develop as intellectual, problem-solving adults and is crucial to our success as a highly adaptable
species.’

Recognizing the importance of play is not new: over two millennia ago, the Greek philosopher Plato
extolled its virtues as a means of developing skills for adult life, and ideas about play-based learning
have been developing since the 19th century.

But we live in changing times, and Whitebread is mindful of a worldwide decline in play, pointing
out that over half the people in the world now live in cities. ‘The opportunities for free play, which I
experienced almost every day of my childhood, are becoming increasingly scarce,’ he says. Outdoor
play is curtailed by perceptions of risk to do with traffic, as well as parents’ increased wish to protect
their children from being the victims of crime, and by the emphasis on ‘earlier is better’ which is
leading to greater competition in academic learning and schools.

International bodies like the United Nations and the European Union have begun to develop policies
concerned with children’s right to play, and to consider implications for leisure facilities and
educational programmes. But what they often lack is the evidence to base policies on.

‘The type of play we are interested in is child-initiated, spontaneous and unpredictable – but, as soon
as you ask a five-year-old “to play”, then you as the researcher have intervened,’ explains Dr Sara
Baker. ‘And we want to know what the long-term impact of play is. It’s a real challenge.’

Dr Jenny Gibson agrees, pointing out that although some of the steps in the puzzle of how and why
play is important have been looked at, there is very little data on the impact it has on the child’s later
life.

Now, thanks to the university’s new Centre for Research on Play in Education, Development and
Learning (PEDAL), Whitebread, Baker, Gibson and a team of researchers hope to provide evidence
on the role played by play in how a child develops.

‘A strong possibility is that play supports the early development of children’s self-control,’ explains
Baker. ‘This is our ability to develop awareness of our own thinking progresses – it influences how
effectively we go about undertaking challenging activities.’

25
In a study carried out by Baker with toddlers and young pre-schoolers, she found that children with
greater self-control solved problems more quickly when exploring an unfamiliar set-up requiring
scientific reasoning. ‘This sort of evidence makes up think that giving children the chance to play
will make them more successful problem-solvers in the long run.’

If playful experiences do facilitate this aspect of development, say the researchers, it could be
extremely significant for educational practices, because the ability to self-regulate has been shown to
be a key predictor of academic performance.

Gibson adds: ‘Playful behavior is also an important indicator of healthy social and emotional
development. In my previous research, I investigated how observing children at play can
give us important clues about their well-being and can even be useful in the diagnosis of
neurodevelopmental disorders like autism.’

Whitebread’s recent research has involved developing a play-based approach to supporting


children’s writing. ‘Many primary school children find writing difficult, but we showed in a previous
study that a playful stimulus was far more effective than an instructional one.’ Children wrote longer
and better-structured stories when they first played with dolls representing characters in the story.
In the latest study, children first created their story with Lego, with similar results. ‘Many teachers
commented that they had always previously had children saying they didn’t know what to write
about. With the Lego building, however, not a single child said this through the whole year of the
project.’

Whitebread, who directs PEDAL, trained as a primary school teacher in the early 1970s, when, as he
describes, ‘the teaching of young children was largely a quiet backwater, untroubled by any serious
intellectual debate or controversy.’ Now, the landscape is very different, with hotly debated topics
such as school starting age.

‘Somehow the importance of play has been lost in recent decades. It’s regarded as something trivial,
or even as something negative that contrasts with “work”. Let’s not lose sight of its benefits, and
the fundamental contributions it makes to human achievements in the arts, sciences and technology.
Let’s make sure children have a rich diet of play experiences.’

26
Questions 1̶8
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Children's play
Uses of children’s play
• building a ‘magical kingdom’ may help develop 1 _________________
• board games involve 2 _________________ and turn-taking
Recent changes affecting children’s play
• population of 3 _________________ have grown
• opportunities for free play are limited due to
‒ fear of 4 _________________
‒ fear of 5 _________________
‒ increased 6 _________________ in schools
International policies on children’s play
• it is difficult to find 7 _________________ to support new policies
• research needs to study the impact of play on the rest of the child’s 8 ________________

Question 9̶13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
9 Children with good self-control are known to be likely to do well at school later on.
10 The way a child plays may provide information about possible medical problems.
11 Playing with dolls was found to benefit girls’ writing more than boys’ writing.
12 Children had problems thinking up ideas when they first created the story with Lego.
13 People nowadays regard children’s play as less significant than they did in the past.

27
IELTS Writing Task 2
In an essay, you need to generate ideas in order to support your opinion.
The examples a-e are from the reading passage The Importance of Children’s Play.
Match them to the statements 1-2 that answer the essay question below.
Is there any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience?

Some people believe that young children should spend most of their time playing
instead of beginning their formal education at very early age.
Do you agree or disagree?

Statements
1 Children should have more playtime for the sake of their social development.______________
2 Playing also can be beneficial for children’s formal education.______________________________

Supporting ideas & Examples


a In a study, primary children who found writing difficult were able to produce longer and
better-structured stories after playing with dolls representing characters in the story.
b Observing children at play can give us important clues about their well-being and can
even be useful in the diagnosis of neurodevelopmental disorders like autism.
c The ability to self-regulate, which has been shown to be a key predictor of academic
performance, can be learn through pretence.
d Playful behavior is an important indicator of healthy social and emotional development.
e When engaging in a board game, children can develop social skills, particularly the need
to follow rules and take turns with a partner.

Other examples from your own knowledge or experience

________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________

28
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

The secret of staying young


Pheidole dentata, a native ant of the south-eastern U.S., isn’t immortal. But scientists have found
that it doesn’t seem to show any signs of aging. Old workers ants can do everything just as well as
the youngsters, and their brains appear just as sharp. ‘We get a picture that these ants really don’t
decline,’ says Ysabel Giraldo, who studies the ants for her doctoral thesis at Boston University.

Such age-defying feats are rare in the animal kingdom. Naked mole rats can live for almost 30
years and stay fit for nearly their entire lives. They can still reproduce even when old, and they
never get cancer. But the vast majority of animals deteriorate with age just like people do. Like
the naked mole rat, ants are social creatures that usually live in highly organised colonies. ‘It’s
this social complexity that makes P. dentata useful for studying aging in people,’ says Giraldo,
now at the California Institute of Technology. Humans are also highly social, a trait that has been
connected to healthier aging. By contrast, most animal studies of aging use mice, worms or fruit
flies, which all lead much more isolated lives.

In the lab, P. dentata worker ants typically live for around 140 days. Giraldo focused on ants at four
age ranges: 20 to 22 days, 45 to 47 days, 95 to 97 days and 120 to 122 days. Unlike all previous
studies, which only estimated how old the ants were, her work tracked the ants from the time the
pupae became adults, so she knew their exact ages. Then she put them through a range of tests.

Giraldo watched how well the ants took care of the young of the colony, recording how often each
ant attended to, carried and fed them. She compared how well 20-day-old and 95-day-old ants
followed the telltale scent that the insects usually leave to mark a trail to food. She tested how ants
responded to light and also measured how active they were by counting how often ants in a small
dish walked across a line. And she experimented with how ants react to live prey: a tethered fruit
fly. Giraldo expected the older ants to perform poorly in all these tasks. But the elderly insects were
all good caretakers and trail-followers – the 95-day-old ants could track the scent even longer than
their younger counterparts. They all responded do light well, and the older ants were more active.
And when it came to reacting to prey, the older ants attacked the poor fruit fly just as aggressively
as the young ones did, flaring their mandibles or pulling at the fly’s legs.

29
Then Giraldo compared the brains of 20-day-old and 95-day-ole ants, identifying any cells that were
close to death. She saw no major differences with age, nor was there any difference in the location
of the dying cells, showing that age didn’t seem to affect specific brain functions. Ants and other
insects have structures in their brains called mushroom bodies, which are important for processing
information, learning and memory. She also wanted to see if aging affects the density of synaptic
complexes within these structures – regions where neurons come together. Again, the answer
was no. what was more, he old ants didn’t experience any drop in the levels of either serotonin or
dopamine – brain chemicals whose decline often coincides with aging. In humans, for example, a
decrease in serotonin has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease.

‘This is the first time anyone has looked at both behavioral and neural changes in these ants
so thoroughly,’ says Giraldo, who recently published the findings in the Proceeding of the Royal
Society B., Scientists have looked at some similar aspects in bees, but the results of recent bee
studies were mixed – some studies showed age-related declines, which biologists call senescence,
and others didn’t. ‘For now, the study raises more questions than it answers,’ Giraldo says,
‘including how P. dentata stays in such good shape.’

Also, if the ants don’t deteriorate with age, why do they die at all? Out in the wild, the ants probably
don’t live for a full 140 days thanks to predators, disease and just being in an environment that’s
much harsher than the comforts of the lab. ‘The lucky ants that do live into old age may suffer a
steep decline just before dying,’ Giraldo says, but she can’t say for sure because her study wasn’t
designed to follow an ant’s final moments.

‘It will be important to extend these findings to other species of social insects,’ says Gene E.
Robinson, an entomologist at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign. This ant might be
unique, or it might represent a broader pattern among other social bugs with possible clues to
the science of aging in larger animals. Either way, it seems that for these ants, age really doesn’t
matter.

30
Questions 1̶8
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Ysabel Giraldo’s research


Focused on a total of 1 _________________ different age groups of ants, analyzing
Behaviour:
• how well ants looked after their 2 _________________
• their ability to locate 3 _________________ using a scent trail
• the effect that 4 _________________ had on them
• how 5 _________________ they attacked prey
Brains:
• comparison between age and the 6 _________________ of dying cells in the brains
of ants
• condition of synaptic complexes (areas in which 7 _________________ meet) in the
brain’s ‘mushroom bodies’
• level of two 8 _________________ in the brain associated with ageing

Question 9̶13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
9 Pheidole dentata ants are the only known animals which remain active for almost their
whole lives.
10 Ysabel Giraldo was the first person to study Pheidole dentata ants using precise data
about the insects’ ages.
11 The ants in Giraldo’s experiments behaved as she had predicted that they would.
12 The recent studies of bees used different methods of measuring age-related decline.
13 Pheidole dentata ants kept in laboratory conditions tend to live longer lives.

31
Listening 03
Completing a flow-chart | Completing a lecture note |
Understanding sequences | Talk about journalism

Vocabulary
What are the meanings of the words in bold? Choose the correct answer, A, B, C or D.
1 There is an assumption that professional journalists do not tell the whole truth.
A belief B opinion C myth D fact
2 The latest article on COVID-19 attracted a lot of attention from the public.
A gained interest C published worldwide
B distracted the public D spreaded uncontrollably
3 What we read plays a major part in shaping our worldview.
A manufacturing B forming C constructing D diminishing
4 The chief editor briefed his employees about the following month's tasks.
A validated B acknowledged C informed D enacted
5 The newspapers took Daniel Craig's quote completely out of context.
A citation B life C meaning D snippet
6 Her writing style were very straightforward and to the point.
A irrelevant B constructive C relevant D useful
7 You should bear in mind that not everything you see on the internet is true.
A forget B concentrate C remember D think
8 One of the biggest cliches in movies is that journalists are hungry for a story.
A truths B stereotypes C lies D new idea
9 The interviews illustrated the Duchess as compassionate and sensitive.
A showed B developed C differentiated D concluded

In IELTS Listening Test


In Part 4, you will listen to a lecture where you are required to take notes.
It is important that you are familiar with languages that signal sequences.

32
Pre-listening
Put the sequencing words and phrases in the correct column of the table.

during initially previously


eventually let me tell you about... prior
finally next start with
first now, in terms of... then
in the end once you are done... simultaniously

Before After At the same time A new stage

Part 4 Questions 31‒40


Questions 31‒35
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
31 Ordinary people can provide a news story, a _________________ or a video when no
professional journalist is present.
32 Amateur journalists often report on subjects which would be of little interest to a large

_________________ .
33 In the past, someone who wanted to express an opiion used to write a _________________ ,
while now they write a blog.
34 An amateur journalist's subject is more likely to be a _________________ rather than national
or international news.
35 Amateur news websites, such as Ohmynews in South Korea, earn money from

_________________ .

33
Questions 36–40
Complete the flow-chart below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
How to write an article

Put the main facts at the beginning to attract attention.

Use a model in the shape of a 36 _________________ to build up details.

Include 37 _________________ from people involved.

Check the accuracy of your 38 _________________ .

Rewrite, making sure paragraphs are short.

Don't write a 39 _________________ .

Add a picture to accompany the article.

Finally, write an attractive 40 _________________ .

IELTS Speaking Part 3


Work in groups. Take turns to ask and answer the following questions.
1 How do most people get their news in your country?
2 How do you think people will get their news in the future?
3 Do you believe everything you read in the newspapers?
4 How has TV changed people’s lives?
5 How has social media changed the way we get and share the news?

34
Vocabulary
Complete the following table below with the correct words.

Noun Adjective Verb

adapt

evolutionary

immigrant

ø find

anatomize

variety / variation

exception

In IELTS Test
When studying vocabulary for the IELTS test, you should learn other forms of the word as
well (adjective, adverb, noun, person, verb).

Part 4 Questions 31‒40


Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Effects of urban environments on animals
Introduction
Recent urban developments represent massive environmental changes. It was
previously thought that only a few animals were suitable for city life, e.g.
• the 31 _________________ – because of its general adaptability
• the pigeon – because walls of city buildings are similar to 32 _________________
In fact, many urban animals are adapting with unusual 33 _________________ .

35
Recent research
• Emilie Snell-Rood studied small urbanised mammal specimens from museums in
Minnesota.
‒ She found the size of their 34 _________________ had increased.
‒ She suggests this may be due to the need to locate new sources of
35 _________________ and to deal with new dangers.
• Catarina Miranda focused on the 36 _________________ of urban and rural blackbirds.
‒ She found urban birds were often braver, but were afraid of situations that were
37 _________________ .
• Jonathan Atwell studies how animals respond to urban environments.
‒ He found that some animals respond to 38 _________________ by producing lower
levels of hormones.
• Sarah Partan’s team found urban squirrels use their 39 _________________ to help them
communicate.
Long-term possibilities
• Species of animals may develop which are unique to cities. However, some changes
may not be 40 _________________ .

Part 3 Questions 21‒30


Questions 21–25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21 Why is Jack interested in investigating seed germination?
A He may do a module on a related topic later on.
B He wants to have a career in plant science.
C He is thinking of choosing this topic for his dissertation.
22 Jack and Emma agree the main advantage of their present experiment is that it can be
A described very easily.
B carried out inside the laboratory.
C completed in the time available.
23 What do they decide to check with their tutor?
A whether their aim is appropriate
B whether anyone else has chosen this topic
C whether the assignment contributes to their final grade

36
24 They agree that Graves’ book on seed germination is disappointing because
A it fails to cover recent advances in seed science.
B the content is irrelevant for them.
C its focus is very theoretical.
25 What does Jack say about the article on seed germination by Lee Hall?
A The diagrams of plant development are useful.
B The analysis of seed germination statistics is thorough.
C The findings on seed germination after fires are surprising.

Questions 26–30
Complete the flow-chart below.
Which FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 26̶30.
A container
B soil
C weight
D condition
E height
F colour
G types
H depths
Stage in the experiment

Select seeds of different 26 __________ and sizes.

Measure and record the 27 __________ and size of each one.

Decide on the 28 __________ to be used.

Use a different 29 __________ for each seed and label it.

After about 3 weeks, record the plant’s 30 __________ .

Investigate the findings.

37
Part 4 Questions 31‒40
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The history of weather forecasting
Ancient cultures
• many cultures believed that floods and other disasters were involved in the creation of
the world
• many cultures invented 31 _________________ and other ceremonies to make the
weather gods friendly
• people needed to observe and interpret the sky to ensure their 32 _________________
• around 650 BC, Babylonians started forecasting, using weather phenomena such as
33 _________________
• by 300 BC, the Chinese had a calendar made up of a number of 34 _________________
connected with the weather
Ancient Greeks
• a more scientific approach
• Aristotle tried to explain the formation of various weather phenomena
• Aristotle also described haloes and 35 _________________
Middle Ages
• Aristotle’s work considered accurate
• many proverbs, e.g. about the significance of the colour of the 36 _________________
passed on accurate information.
15th-19th centuries
• 15th century: scientists recognised value of 37 _________________ for the first time
• Galileo invented the 38 _________________
• Pascal showed relationship between atmospheric pressure and altitude
• from the 17th century, scientists could measure atmospheric pressure and
temperature
• 18th century: Franklin identified the movement of 39 _________________
• 19th century: data from different locations could be sent to the same place by
40 _________________

38
Reading 03
Answering TRUE / FALSE / NOT GIVEN questions |
Discussing about human activities towards the oceans

Pre-reading
Quickly locate the lines in the text which contain the information provided below.
1 Rochman and her colleagues - research - marine debris
2 creatures - in danger - seabirds
3 Rochman - reviewed - studies - bird population - extinct
4 Rochman - analysed - paper - different kinds of danger
5 research - analysed - badly designed
6 one study - mussels - harmed by eating plastic
7 mussels - eat plastic - natural diet

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27‒40 which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Chelsea Rochman, an ecologist at the University of California, Davis, has been trying to answer a
dismal question: Is everything terrible, or are things just very, very bad?

Rochman is a member of the National Center for Ecological Analysis and Synthesis’s marine-debris
working group, a collection of scientists who study, among other things, the growing problem of
marine debris, also known as ocean trash. Plenty of studies have sounded alarm bells about the state
of marine debris; in a recent paper published in the journal Ecology, Rochman and her colleagues set
out to determine how many of those perceived risks are real.

Often, Rochman says, scientists will end a paper by speculating about the broader impacts of what
they’ve found. For example, a study could show that certain seabirds eat plastic bags, and go on to
warn that whole bird populations are at risk of dying out. ‘But the truth was that nobody had yet
tested those perceived threats,’ Rochman says. ‘There wasn’t a lot of information.’

Rochman and her colleagues examined more than a hundred papers on the impacts of marine debris

39
that were published through 2013. Within each paper, they asked what threats scientists had studied
– 366 perceived threats in all – and what they’d actually found.

In 83 percent of cases, the perceived dangers of ocean trash were proven true. In the remaining
cases, the working group found the studies had weaknesses in design and content which affected the
validity of their conclusions – they lacked a control group, for example, or used faulty statistics.

Strikingly, Rochman says, only one well-designed study failed to find the effect it was looking
for, an investigation of mussels ingesting microscopic bits. The plastic moved from the mussels’
stomachs to their bloodstreams, scientists found, and stayed there for weeks – but didn’t seem to
stress out the shellfish.

While mussels may be fine eating trash, though, the analysis also gave a clearer picture of the many
ways that ocean debris is bothersome.

Within the studies they looked at, most of the proven threats came from plastic debris, rather than
other materials like metal or wood. Most of the dangers also involved large pieces of debris –
animals getting entangled in trash, for example, or eating it and severely injuring themselves.

But a lot of ocean debris is ‘microplastic’, or pieces smaller than five millimeters. These may be
ingredients used in cosmetics and toiletries, fibers shed by synthetic clothing in the wash, or eroded
remnants of larger debris. Compared to the number of studies investigating large-scale debris,
Rochman’s group found little research on the effects of these tiny bits. ‘There are a lot of open
questions still for microplastic,’ Rochman says, though she notes that more papers on the subject
have been published since 2013, the cutoff point for the group’s analysis.

There are also, she adds, a lot of open questions about the ways that ocean debris can lead to
sea-creature death. Many studies have looked at how plastic affects an individual animal, or that
animal’s tissues or cells, rather than whole populations. And in the lab, scientists often use higher
concentrations of plastic than what’s really in the ocean. None of that tells us how many birds or
fish or sea turtles could die from plastic pollution – or how deaths in one species could affect that
animal’s predators, or the rest of the ecosystem.

‘We need to be asking more ecologically relevant questions,’ Rochman says. Usually, scientists
don’t know exactly how disasters such as a tanker accidentally spilling its whole cargo of oil and
polluting huge areas of the ocean will affect the environment until after they’ve happened. ‘We don’t

40
ask the right questions early enough,’ she says. But if ecologists can understand how the slow-
moving effect of ocean trash is damaging ecosystems, they might be able to prevent things from
getting worse.

Asking the right questions can help policy makers, and the public, figure out where to focus their
attention. The problems that look or sound most dramatic may not be the best places to start. For
example, the name of the ‘Great Pacific Garbage Patch’ – a collection of marine debris in the
northern Pacific Ocean – might conjure up a vast, floating trash island. In reality though, much of
the debris is tiny or below the surface; a person could sail through the area without seeing any trash
at all. A Dutch group called ‘The Ocean Cleanup’ is currently working on plans to put mechanical
devices in the Pacific Garbage Patch and similar areas to suck up plastic. But a recent paper used
simulations to show that strategically positioning the cleanup devices closer to shore would more
effectively reduce pollution over the long term.

‘I think clearing up some of these misperceptions is really important,’ Rochman says. Among
scientists as well as in the media, she says, ‘A lot of the images about strandings and entanglement
and all of that cause the perception that plastic debris is killing everything in the ocean.’
Interrogating the existing scientific literature can help ecologists figure out which problems really
need addressing, and which ones they’d be better off – like the mussels – absorbing and ignoring.

Question 27̶33
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
27 Rochman and her colleagues were the first people to research the problem of marine
debris.
28 The creatures most in danger from ocean trash are certain seabirds.
29 The studies Rochman has reviewed have already proved that populations of some birds
will soon become extinct.
30 Rochman analysed papers on the different kinds of danger caused by ocean trash.
31 Most of the research analysed by Rochman and her colleagues was badly designed.
32 One study examined by Rochman was expecting to find that mussels were harmed by
eating plastic.
33 Some mussels choose to eat plastic in preference to their natural diet.

41
Question 34̶39
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Findings related to marine debris


Studies of marine debris found the biggest threats were
• plastic (not metal or wood)
• bits of debris that were 34 _________________ (harmful to animals)
There was little research into 35 _________________ e.g. from synthetic fibres.

Drawbacks of the studies examined


• most of them focused on individual animals, not entire 36 _________________
• the 37 _________________ of plastic used in the lab did not always reflect those in
the ocean
• there was insufficient information on
‒ numbers of animals which could be affected
‒ the impact of a reduction in numbers on the 38 _________________ of that
species
‒ the impact on the ecosystem
Rochman says more information is needed on the possible impact of future
39 _________________ (e.g. involving oil).

Questions 40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
40 What would be the best title for this passage?
A Assessing the threat of marine debris
B Marine debris: who is to blame?
C A new solution to the problem of marine debris
D Marine debris: the need for international action

42
Post-reading
Scan the reading passage again to find the vocabulary that matches with the given pictures.
There can be more than one correct answer.

1 ___________________________________________ 2 ___________________________________________

3 ___________________________________________ 4 ___________________________________________

Writing full sentences


Use the words given to make sentences about the effects of some pollutants on the marine
environment and solutions to tackle them.
You may have to change the word forms to make a grammatically correct sentence.
1 chemical waste / industrial activities / discharge / water bodies, / which / damage / aquatic
ecosystems.

____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
2 large piece / plastic debris / could / cause / ocean creatures / entangled / or / severe /
injured.

____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________

43
3 most / visible / impacts / plastic debris / ingestion, / suffocation / entanglement / hundreds
/ marine species

____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
4 one / effective / methods / protect / environment / reduce / use / throw-away plastic / such
/ plastic shopping bags / single-use cups

____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
5 another way / deter / consumers / use / so many / plastic bag / put / high price on them

____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

Is Constant Use of Electronic Media Changing Our Minds?

The power of modern electronic media - the net, mobile phones and video games - to capture the
attention of the human mind, particularly the young mind, and then distract it, has lately become
a subject of concern. We are, say the worriers, losing the ability to apply ourselves properly to a
single task, like reading a book in its entirety or mastering a piece of musk on an instrument, with
the result that our thinking is becoming shallower.

Nicholas Carr, the American science writer, has explored this theme for his new book, The
Shallows, In which he argues that new media are not just changing our habits but our brain too.
It turns out that the mature human brain is not an immutable seat of personality and intellect but
a changeable thing, subject to ‘neuroplasticity’. When our activities alter, so does the architecture
of our brain. ‘I’m not thinking the way I used to think’ writes Carr. ‘l feel it most strongly when I’m
reading.’ Years of Internet use have, he suspects, dented his ability to read deeply, to absorb
himself in books: ‘My brain wasn’t just drifting. It was hungry, it was demanding to be fed the
way the net fed it: He describes getting fidgety when faced with a long text: ‘When we go online,
we enter an environment that promotes cursory reading, hurried and distracted thinking, and
superficial learning.’

44
Carr cites research by Gary Small, a professor of psychiatry at UCLA, who concluded that constant
exposure to modern media strengthens new neural pathways while weakening older ones. Just five
hours of internet use is enough to awaken previously dormant parts of the brain’s prefrontal cortex,
concluded Small. For Carr, this is proof that the net can rewire the mind. He sees dangers. Deep
thought, the ability to immerse oneself in an area of study, to follow a narrative, to understand an
argument and develop a critique, is giving way to skimming. Young users of the Internet are good
at drawing together information for a school project, for example, but that does not mean they have
digested it.

But is a changing mind a more stupid one? Jake Vigdor and Helen Ladd are researchers at Duke
University, North Carolina. In a study spanning five years and involving more than 100,000 children,
they discovered a correlation between declining test scores in both mathematics and reading and
the spread of home computers and broadband. ‘The decline in scores was in the order of one or
two percent but it was statistically significant’, says Vigdor ‘The drop may not be that great but one
can say that the increase in computer use was certainly not positive: The cut-off year for the study
was 2005, when socializing was more primitive. Since then, social networking sites have become
enormously powerful consumers of young people’s time. Vigdor and Ladd concluded that the
educational value of home computing was best realized when youngsters were actively supervised
by parents.

This tendency to skim is compounded by the temptation of new media users to ‘multi-task’. Watch
a youngster on a computer and he could be Facebook-ing while burning a CD or Tweeting on his
mobile phone. Modern management tends to promote multi-tasking as an expression of increased
efficiency. Science, on the other hand, does not. The human brain is, it seems, not at all good at
multitasking - unless it involves a highly developed skill like driving. David Meyer, a neuroscientist
at the University of Michigan, says: ‘The bottom line is that you can’t simultaneously be thinking
about your tax return and reading an essay, just as you can’t talk to yourself about two things at
once. People may think otherwise but it’s a myth. With complicated tasks, you will never, ever be
able to overcome the inherent limitations in the brain’.

Paying attention is the prerequisite of memory: the sharper the attention, the sharper the memory.
Cursory study born of the knowledge that information is easily available online results, say the
worriers, in a failure to digest it. In addition, the brain needs rest and recovery time to consolidate
thoughts. Teenagers who fill every moment with a text or Tweet are not allowing their minds
necessary downtime. All rather worrying, but is it that bad?

45
We have been here before, of course. The Ancient Greeks lamented the replacement of the oral
tradition with written text, and the explosion in book ownership resulting from the printing press
was, for some, a disaster. In the 18th century, a French statesman railed against a new device
that turned people into ‘dispersed’ individuals, isolated in ‘sullen silence’. He was talking about the
newspaper.

The net is supposed to consume the lives of young people, yet the only reliable studies about the
time spent online, collated by the World Health Organization, suggest children spend between
two and four hours in front of screens, including television screens, and not six or seven, as often
suggested. Moreover, there is evidence that youngsters who use social networking sites have more
rewarding offline social lives than those who do not.
A study on children and new technology in the UK included a ‘study of studies’ by Professor David
Buckingham of the University of London’s Institute of Education. He concluded: ‘Broadly speaking,
the evidence about the effects of new media is weak and inconclusive -and this applies to both
positive and negative effects.

Certainly the ‘old’ media don’t seem to be doing that badly. An annual survey shows that sales of
children’s books this year were 4.9 per cent greater than last year, with more than 60 million sold.
The damage, if any, done by excessive computer time may not be so much to do with what is being
done online as what is being missed - time spent with family or playing in trees with friends.

Question 1̶6
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1 Some people believe that modern electronic media only have a negative effect on young
people.
2 Nicholas Carr’s book on the subject is a bestseller.
3 Nicholas Carr believes that electronic media have affected Iris’ enjoyment of reading
books.
4 Gary Small’s research supports Nicholas Carr’s belief.
5 Management beliefs on multitasking are proven correct by scientific research.
6 David Meyer’s views on the limitations of the brain have caused controversy.

46
Question 7̶10
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Vigdor and Ladd’s research


• looked at over 7 _________________
• found that lower 8 _________________ and home computer use were linked
• indicated that the effect of greater home computer use could not be
described as 9 _________________
• concluded that 10 _________________ should be involved in home computer use

Question 11̶13
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
11 Which invention was criticized by an 18th century French politician?
12 According to studies that can be trusted, what is the maximum amount of time per day
that children spend looking at screens?
13 Which products have become more popular recently?

47
Listening 04
Multiple choice questions |
Talking about researches

Pre-listening
Work in groups.
Rearrange steps A-G below into the correct order to conduct a study.
The process of conducting research

Step 1: __________

Step 2: __________

Step 3: __________

Step 4: __________

Step 5: __________

Step 6: __________

Step 7: __________

A Choosing study design (Research Methodology)


B Collecting data
C Writing the report
D Researching and identifying the problem
E Reviewing literature
F Processing and analyzing data
G Setting research questions (or forming hypotheses)

48
In IELTS Listening Test
You will hear about academic discussion, usually about a scientific research.
Therefore, you should be familiar with vocabulary about researches as well as know basic
procedure to conduct a study or write a paper.

Part 3 Questions 21-30


Questions 21–25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Scandinavian Studies
21 James chose to take Scandinavian Studies because when he was a child
A he was often taken to Denmark.
B his mother spoke to him in Danish.
C a number of Danish people visited his family.
22 When he graduates, James would like to
A take a postgraduate course.
B work in the media.
C become a translator.
23 Which course will end this term?
A Swedish cinema
B Danish television programmes
C Scandinavian literature
24 They agree that James’s literature paper this term will be on
A 19th century playwrights
B the Icelandic sagas
C modern Scandinavian novels.
25 Beth recommends that James’s paper should be
A a historical overview of the genre.
B an in-depth analysis of a single writer.
C a study of the social background to the literature.

49
Questions 26–30
Complete the flow-chart below.
Which FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26̶30.
A bullet points
B film
C notes
D structure
E student paper
F textbook
G documentary
How James will write his paper on the Vikings

He’ll read a 26 __________ and choose his topic.

He’ll borrow a 27 __________ from Beth.

He’ll plan the 28 __________ of the paper.

He’ll read some source material and write 29 __________ .

He’ll write the paper using 30 __________ .

He’ll write the complete paper.

50
Part 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21–23
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Paper on Public Libraries
21 What will be the main topic of Trudie and Stewart’s paper?
A how public library services are organised in different countries
B how changes in society are reflected in public libraries
C how the funding of public libraries has changed
22 They agree that one disadvantage of free digitalised books is that
A they may take a long time to read.
B they can be difficult to read.
C they are generally old.
23 Stewart expect that in the future libraries will
A maintain their traditional function.
B become centres for local communities.
C no longer contain any books.

Questions 24–30
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Study of local library: possible questions
• whether it has a 24 _________________ of its own
• its policy regarding noise of various kinds
• how it’s affected by laws regarding all aspects of 25 _________________
• how the design needs to take the 26 _________________ of customers into account
• what 27 _________________ is required in case of accidents
• why a famous person’s 28 _________________ is located in the library
• whether it has a 29 _________________ of local organisations
• how it’s different from a library in a 30 _________________

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Post-listening
Choose the correct answers.
1 To decide whether a source has correct and helpful information for your research topic is
to _____ it.
A citation C evaluate
B claim D inquire
2 If a source has reliable information that we trust is accurate, it is _____ .
A citation C claim
B cite D credible
3 Copying words and ideas from a source and presenting them as your own is called _____ .
A quoting C summarizing
B paraphrasing D plagiarism
4 The Information directly related to the topic is _____ .
A index C reliable
B relevant D glossary
5 An idea or explanation for something that is based on known facts but has not yet been
proved is called a _____ .
A hypothesis C index
B source D glossary

Exercise 1
Work in groups.
Imagine you are experts in a specific field (science, education, marketing, technology, beauty...).
What are possible topics that you would like to conduct research on?

________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
Exercise 2
Work in groups.
Form a hypothesis for your research question.

________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________

52
Part 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21–26
Complete the flow-chart below.
Which SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 21–26.

A patterns C sources E employees G headings


B names D questions F solutions H officials

STAGES IN DOING A TOURISM CASE STUDY

RESEARCH
Locate and read relevant articles, noting key information and also 21 __________
Identify a problem or need
Select interviewees – these may be site 22 __________ , visitors or city 23 __________
Prepare and carry out interviews. If possible, collect statistics.
Check whether 24 __________ of interviewees can be used.

ANALYSIS
Select relevant information and try to identify 25 __________
Decide on the best form of visuals

WRITING THE CASE STUDY


Give some background before writing the main sections
Do NOT end with 26 __________

Questions 27–30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
The Horton Castle site
27 Natalie and Dave agree one reason why so few people visit Horton Castle is that
A the publicity is poor.
B it is difficult to get to.
C there is little there of interest.

53
28 Natalie and Dave agree that the greatest problem with a visitor centre could be
A covering the investment costs.
B finding a big enough space for it.
C dealing with planning restrictions.
29 What does Dave say about conditions in the town of Horton?
A There is a lot of unemployment.
B There are few people of working age.
C There are opportunities for skilled workers.
30 According to Natalie, one way to prevent damage to the castle site would be to
A insist visitors have a guide.
B make visitors keep to the paths.
C limit visitor numbers.

Part 3 Questions 21-30


Questions 21–30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Study on Gender in Physics
21 The students in Akira Miyake’s study were all majoring in
A physics.
B psychology or physics.
C science, technology, engineering or mathematics.
22 The aim of Miyake’s study was to investigate
A what kind of women choose to study physics.
B a way of improving women’s performance in physics.
C whether fewer women than men study physics at college.
23 The female physics students were wrong to believe that
A the teachers marked them in an unfair way.
B the male students expected them to do badly.
C their test results were lower than the male students’.
24 Miyake’s team asked the students to write about
A what they enjoyed about studying physics.
B the successful experiences of other people.
C something that was important to them personally.

54
25 What was the aim of the writing exercise done by the subjects?
A to reduce stress
B to strengthen verbal ability
C to encourage logical thinking
26 What surprised the researchers about the study?
A how few students managed to get A grades
B the positive impact it had on physics results for women
C the difference between male and female performance
27 Greg and Lisa think Miyake’s results could have been affected by
A the length of the writing task.
B the number of students who took part.
C the information the students were given.
28 Greg and Lisa decide that in their own project, they will compare the effects of
A two different writing tasks.
B a writing task with an oral task.
C two different oral tasks.
29 The main finding of Smolinsky’s research was that class teamwork activities
A were most effective when done by all-women groups.
B had no effect on the performance of men or women.
C improved the results of men more than of women.
30 What will Lisa and Greg do next?
A talk to a professor
B observe a science class
C look at the science timetable

55
Reading 04
Matching information |
Indicating causation | Writing sentences

Vocabulary
Work in group.
Find the words highlighted in the text that have the same meaning as the given words below.
1 a lot of _____________________________________________________________________________________
2 benefit ____________________________________________________________________________________
3 difficult ___________________________________________________________________________________
4 encouraged _______________________________________________________________________________
5 from the very beginning ___________________________________________________________________
6 studied ____________________________________________________________________________________
7 treating (a disease) ________________________________________________________________________
8 understanding ____________________________________________________________________________

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14‒26 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.
Saving bugs to find new drugs
Zoologist Ross Piper looks at the potential of insects in pharmaceutical research
A More drugs than you might think are derived from, or inspired by, compounds found in living
things. Looking to nature for the soothing and curing of our ailments is nothing new – we
have been doing it for tens of thousands of years. You only have to look at other primates
– such as the capuchin monkeys who rub themselves with toxin-oozing millipedes to deter
mosquitoes, or the chimpanzees who use noxious forest plants to rid themselves of intestinal
parasites – to realise that our ancient ancestors too probably had a basic grasp of medicine.
B Pharmaceutical science and chemistry built on these ancient foundations and perfected
the extraction, characterization, modification and testing of these natural products. Then,
for a while, modern pharmaceutical science moved its focus away from nature and into the
laboratory, designing chemical compounds from scratch. The main cause of this shift is that
although there are plenty of promising chemical compounds in nature, finding them is far from
easy. Securing sufficient numbers of the organism in question, isolating and characterizing

56
the compounds of interest, and producing large quantities of these compounds are all
significant hurdles.
C Laboratory-based drug discovery has achieved varying levels of success, something which
has now prompted the development of new approaches focusing once again on natural
products. With the ability to mine genomes for useful compounds, it is now evident that we
have barely scratched the surface of nature’s molecular diversity. This realization, together
with several looming health crises, such as antibiotic resistance, has put bioprospecting – the
search for useful compounds in nature – firmly back on the map.
D Insects are the undisputed masters of the terrestrial domain, where the occupy every possible
niche. Consequently, they have a bewildering array of interactions with other organisms,
something which has driven the evolution of an enormous range of very interesting
compounds for defensive and offensive purposes. Their remarkable diversity exceeds that
of every other group of animals on the planet combined. Yet even though insects are far
and away the most diverse animals in existence, their potential as sources of therapeutic
compounds is yet to be realised.
E From the tiny proportion of insects that have been investigated, several promising
compounds have been identified. For example, alloferon, an antimicrobial compound
produced by blow fly larvae, is used as an antiviral and antitumor agent in South Korea
and Russia. The larvae of a few other insect species are being investigated for the potent
antimicrobial compounds they produce. Meanwhile, a compound from the venom of the wasp
Polybia paulista has potential in cancer treatment.
F Why is it that insects have received relatively little attention in bioprospecting? Firstly, there
are so many insects that, without some manner of targeted approach, investigating this
huge variety of species is a daunting task. Secondly, insects are generally very small, and
the glands inside them that secrete potentially useful compounds are smaller still. This can
make it difficult to obtain sufficient quantities of the compound for subsequent testing. Thirdly,
although we consider insects to be everywhere, the reality of this ubiquity is vast numbers of
a few extremely common species. Many insect species are infrequently encountered and very
difficult to rear in captivity, which, again, can leave us with insufficient material to work with.
G My colleagues and I at Aberystwyth University in the UK have developed an approach in
which we use our knowledge of ecology as a guide to target our efforts. The creatures that
particularly interest us are the many insects that secrete powerful poison for subduing prey
and keeping it fresh for future consumption. There are even more insects that are masters of
exploiting filthy habitats, such as faeces and carcasses, where they are regularly challenged
by thousands of micro-organisms. These insects have many antimicrobial compounds for
dealing with pathogenic bacteria and fungi, suggesting that there is certainly potential to find

57
many compounds that can serve as or inspire new antibiotics.
H Although natural history knowledge points us in the right direction, it doesn’t solve the
problems associated with obtaining useful compounds from insects. Fortunately, it is now
possible to snip out the stretches of the insect’s DNA that carry the codes for the interesting
compounds and insert them into cell lines that allow larger quantities to be produced. And
although the road from isolating and characterizing compounds with desirable qualities to
developing a commercial product is very long and full of pitfalls, the variety of successful
animal-derived pharmaceuticals on the market demonstrates there is a precedent here that is
worth exploring.
I With every bit of wilderness that disappears, we deprive ourselves of potential medicines.
As much as I’d love to help develop a groundbreaking insect-derived medicine, my main
motivation for looking at insects in this way is conservation. I sincerely believe that all
species, however small and seemingly insignificant, have a right to exist for their own sake. If
we can shine a light on the darker recesses of nature’s medicine cabinet, exploring the useful
chemistry of the most diverse animals on the planet, I believe we can make people think
differently about the value of nature.

Questions 14̶20
Reading Passage 2 has nine paragraphs, A̶I.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
14 mention of factors driving a renewed interest in natural medicinal compounds.
15 how recent technological advances have made insect research easier
16 examples of animals which use medicinal substances from nature
17 reasons why it is challenging to use insects in drug research
18 reference to how interest in drug research may benefit wildlife
19 a reason why nature-based medicines fell out of favour for a period
20 an example of an insect-derived medicine in use at the moment

Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO of the following make insects interesting for drug research?
A the huge number of individual insects in the world
B the variety of substances insects have developed to protect themselves
C the potential to extract and make use of insects’ genetic codes
D the similarities between different species of insect
E the manageable size of most insects

58
Questions 23̶26
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Research at Aberystwyth University


Ross Piper and fellow zoologists at Aberystwyth University are using their expertise in
23 _________________ when undertaking bioprospecting with insects. They are especially interested
in the compounds that insects produce to overpower and preserve their 24 _________________ .
They are also interested in compounds which insects use to protect themselves from pathogenic
bacteria and fungi found in their 25 _________________ . Piper hopes that these substances will be
useful in the development of drugs such as 26 _________________ .

Exercise 1
According to the information from Paragraph E, how can insects be helpful to humans?

________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________

Exercise 2
Match the causes of environmental problems 1-5 to their effects a-b.
1 deforestation a extreme weather conditions
2 intense exploitation (fishing, hunting,...) b habitat loss
3 oil spill accident c reducing global warming
4 greenhouse effect d some impurities in the oceans
5 limiting fumes from factories e resources’ exhaustion

Exercise 3
Use different expressions lead to, be attributed to, cause, result in, contribute to to make full
sentences from 10 phrases in Exercise 2.
1 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
2 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________

59
3 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
4 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
5 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
6 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
7 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
8 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
9 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
10 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________

Exercise 4
Work in groups. Choose one sentence from Exercise 3 and add more information to support it.
You can answer the questions below:
• How does the cause lead to the result?
• What can be the consequences of the result?

________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________

60
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.
Out of Africa: Saharan Solar Energy
Vivienne Wait reports on how the Sahara Desert could offer a truly green solution
to Europe’s energy problems

A For years, the Sahara has been regarded by many Europeans as a terra incognita* of little
economic value or importance. But this idea may soon change completely. Politicians and
scientists on both sides of the Mediterranean are beginning to focus on the Sahara’s potential
to provide power for Europe in the future. They believe the desert’s true value comes from the
fact that it is dry and empty. Some areas of the Sahara reach 45 degrees centigrade on many
afternoons. It is, in other words, a gigantic natural storehouse of solar energy.
B A few years ago, scientists began to calculate just how much energy the Sahara holds. They
were astonished at the answer. In theory, a 90,600 square kilometre chunk of the Sahara
- smaller than Portugal and a little over 1% of its total area - could yield the same amount
of electricity as all the world’s power plants combined. A smaller square of 15,500 square
kilometres - about the size of Connecticut - could provide electricity for Europe’s 500 million
people.
‘I admit I was sceptical until 1 did the calculations myself,’ says Michael Pawlyn, director of
Exploration Architecture, one of three British environmental companies comprising the Sahara
Forest Project, which is testing solar plants in Oman and the United Arab Emirates. Pawlyn
calls the Sahara’s potential ’staggering’.
C At the moment, no one is proposing the creation of a solar power station the size of a small
country. But a relatively well-developed technology exists, which proponents say could turn
the Sahara’s heat and sunlight into a major source of electricity - Concentrating Solar Power
[CSP], Unlike solar panels, which convert sunlight directly into electricity, CSP utilises mirrors
which focus light on water pipes or boilers to produce very hot steam to operate the turbines
of generators. Small CSP plants have produced power in California’s Mojave Desert since the
1980s. The Sahara Forest Project proposes building CSP plants in areas below sea level (the
Sahara has several such depressions) so that sea water can flow into them. This water would
then be purified and used for powering turbines and washing dust off the mirrors. Waste water
would then supply irrigation to areas around the stations, creating lush oases - hence the
’forest’ in the group’s name.

61
D But producing Significant quantities of electricity means building huge arrays of mirrors
and pipes across hundreds of miles of remote desert, which is expensive. Gerry Wolff, an
engineer who heads DESERTEC, an international consortium of solar-power scientists, says
they have estimated it will cost about $59 billion to begin transmitting power from the Sahara
by 2020.
E Building plants is just part of the challenge. One of the drawbacks to CSP technology is that
it works at maximum efficiency only in sunny, hot climates - and deserts tend to be distant
from population centres. To supply Europe with 20% of its electricity needs, more than
19,300 kilometres of cables would need to be laid under the Mediterranean, says Gunnar
Asplund, head of HVDC research at ABB Power Technologies in Ludvika, Sweden. Indeed,
to use renewable sources of power, including solar, wind and tidal, Europe will need to build
completely new electrical grids. That’s because existing infrastructures, built largely for the
coal- fired plants that supply 80% of Europe’s power, would not be suitable for carrying the
amount of electricity generated by the Sahara. Germany’s government-run Aerospace Centre,
which researches energy, estimates that replacing those lines could raise the cost of building
solar plants in the Sahara and sending significant amounts of power to Europe to about $485
billion over the next 40 years. Generous government subsidies will be needed. ‘Of course it
costs a lot of money,’ says Asplund. ‘It’s a lot cheaper to burn coal than to make solar power
in the Sahara.’
F Meanwhile, some companies are getting started. Seville engineering company Abengoa is
building one solar- thermal plant in Algeria and another in Morocco, while a third is being
built in Egypt by a Spanish-Japanese joint venture. The next step will be to get cables in
place. Although the European Parliament has passed a law that aids investors who help the
continent reach its goal of getting 20% of itg power from renewable energy by 2020, it could
take years to create the necessary infrastructure.
G Nicholas Dunlop, secretary-general of the London-based NGO e-Parliament, thinks
companies should begin transmitting small amounts of solar power as soon as the North
African plants begin operating, by linking a few cable lines under the Med. ‘I call it the Lego
method,’ he says. ‘Build it piece by piece.’ If It can be shown that power from the Sahara can
be produced profitably, he says, companies and governments will soon jump in. If they do,
perhaps airplane passengers flying across the Sahara will one day count the mirrors and
patches of green instead of staring at sand.

62
Questions 1̶5
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A̶G.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
NB You may use any letter more than once.
1 a mention of systems which could not be used
2 estimates of the quantity of power the Sahara could produce
3 a suggestion for how to convince organisations about the Sahara’s potential
4 a short description of the Sahara at present
5 a comparison of the costs of two different energy sources

Questions 6̶9
Look at the following statements (Questions 6-9) and the list of organisations below.
Match each statement with the correct organisation, A‒G.
6 They have set a time for achieving an objective.
7 They believe that successful small-scale projects will demonstrate that larger projects are
possible.
8 They have a number of renewable energy projects under construction.
9 They are already experimenting with solar- energy installations in other parts of the world.

List of Organisations
A Exploration Architecture E Abengoa
B DESERTEC F The European Parliament
C ABB Power Technologies G e-Parliament
D Aerospace Centre

Questions 10̶13
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Concentrating Solar Power (CSP)
Unlike solar panels, CSP concentrates the sun’s rays on boilers by using 10 _________________ .
The resulting heat produces high-temperature 11 _________________ , which in turn moves the
turbines which generate electricity. CSP plants will be situated in 12 _________________ to allow
sea water to run in. This, when purified, can be used to wash the equipment. The resulting dirty
water will be used for 13 _________________ around the power plant, and in this way oases will be
formed.

63
Listening 05
Choosing from a list | Recognising paraphrase |
Outlining body paragraphs - Problem-solution essay

Vocabulary
Exercise 1
Put the verbs in the brackets into the correct form.
1 Exercise helps your muscles _________________ (to absorb) glucose.
2 If you eat many small snacks throughout the day, the calorie count _________________ (to
add up).
3 My coach has me _________________ (to keep track of) my diet to lose weight.
4 The coffee beans _________________ (to grind up) before they are brewed.
5 It _________________ (to take) to burn the calories from that pizza just from brisk walking.
6 Some artificial sweeteners _________________ (to suspect) to lead to obesity.
What _________________ (you - to reckon)?

Exercise 2
Match the words 1-9 to their correct meanings a-i.
1 accurate a correct
2 actually b hard to understand
3 artificial c fairly, impartially, not influenced by feeling or prejudice
4 confusing d manufactured, man-made
5 deliberately e nourishing, healthy
6 likely f on purpose
7 nutritional g probably, might happen or be true
8 nutritious h relating to nutrition
9 objectively i used to emphasize that something done is surprising

In IELTS Listening Test


You will hear about scientific researches or listen to lectures. Therefore, it is important that
you are familiar with the terminology and project procedure.

64
Exercise 3
In the IELTS Listening Test, you may hear a conversation about doing a research.
The terms 1-5 below are often found in the context of science projects.
What is the meanings of the words 1-7? Choose the correct answer, A, B or C.
1 approach (n) A means of arriving B plan and procedure C offer
2 focus (n) A research area B research topic C participant
3 record (n) A history B document, report C maximum
4 subject (n) A research area B research topic C participant
5 reading (n) A examination B literature review C study
6 tutor (n) A coach B instructor C private teacher
7 measure (v) A calculate B divide C guess

Pre-listening
Exercise 4
Underline the key words in sentences 1-5.
1 The results were what he had predicted.
2 The experiment was simple to set up.
3 A large sample of people was tested.
4 The subjects were unaware of what they were drinking.
5 The test was repeated several times for each person.

Exercise 5
In the IELTS Listening test, the words in the recording and those in the questions may not be
the same. Synonyms and paraphrases are often used.
Complete the following sentences with the given words in the box so that they have the same
meanings with the sentences in Exercise 4. The order of the sentences has been changed.

didn't know doing the test organise thought took

1 It took ages to decide how to _________________ the experiment.


2 People _________________ which drink they were given.
3 The researcher had many people _________________ .
4 Each person _________________ several times.
5 The researcher _________________ people would be able to tell the difference, and they
could.

65
Part 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO points does Adam make about his experiment on artificial sweeteners?
A The results were what he had predicted.
B The experiment was simple to set up.
C A large sample of people was tested.
D The subjects were unaware of what they were drinking.
E The test was repeated several times for each person.

Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO problems did Rosie have when measuring the fat content of nuts?
A She used the wrong sort of nuts.
B She used an unsuitable chemical.
C She did not grind the nuts finely enough.
D The information on the nut package was incorrect.
E The weighing scales may have been unsuitable.

Questions 25-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
25 Adam suggests that restaurants could reduce obesity if their menus
A offered fewer options.
B had more low-calorie foods.
C were organised in a particular way.
26 The students agree that food manufacturers deliberately
A make calorie counts hard to understand.
B fail to provide accurate calorie counts.
C use ineffective methods to reduce calories.
27 What does Rosie say about levels of exercise in England?
A The amount recommended is much too low.
B Most people overestimate how much they do.
C Women now exercise more than they used to.

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28 Adam refers to the location and width of stairs in a train station to illustrate
A practical changes that can influence people’s behaviour.
B methods of helping people who have mobility problems.
C ways of preventing accidents by controlling crowd movement.
29 What do the students agree about including reference to exercise in their presentation?
A They should probably leave it out.
B They need to do more research on it.
C They should discuss this with their tutor.
30 What are the students going to do next for their presentation?
A prepare some slides for it
B find out how long they have for it
C decide on its content and organisation

Post-listening
Answer the questions below based on the information from the recording.
1 Can consumer tell real sugar apart from artificial sweetener?

____________________________________________________________________________________________
2 What can restaurants do to decrease health problems?

____________________________________________________________________________________________
3 Why do manufactures put confusing calories count on food packaging?

____________________________________________________________________________________________
4 What is the current recommended amount of exercise for each person?
Do English people follow this guideline?

____________________________________________________________________________________________
5 According to Adam, what is the minor modification in the enviroment that can chang
people's behavior?

____________________________________________________________________________________________

Outlining main ideas


Read the IELTS Writing Task 2 question below. Fill in the following table with the information
provided in the listening task Presentation on Diet & Obesity.
Then, complete the body paragraphs to this questions based on the outline.

67
The number of people who are at risk of serious health problems due to being
overweight is increasing.
What is the reason for the growth in overweight people in society?
How can this problem be solved?

Why are more people What are Positive impact(s) or


overweight? the possible solution? Possible drawback(s)

Idea from listening task: Idea from listening task: Idea from listening task:
people are not following • unconscious process has
the recommended amount long-term influence
of exercise

Other idea: Idea from listening task: Other idea:


restaurant menus be
organised in a particular
way

Idea from listening task: Other idea: Idea from listening task:
• consumers be more
informed and aware

Part 3 Questions 21-30


Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21 What was Jack’s attitude to nutritional food labels before this project?
A He didn’t read everything on them.
B He didn’t think they were important.
C He thought they were too complicated.
22 Alice says that before doing this project,
A she was unaware of what certain foods contained.
B she was too lazy to read food labels.
C she was only interested in the number of calories.

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23 When discussing supermarket brands of pizza, Jack agrees with Alice that
A the list of ingredients is shocking.
B he will hesitate before buying pizza again.
C the nutritional label is misleading.
24 Jack prefers the daily value system to other labelling systems because it ise
A more accessible.
B more logical.
C more comprehensive.
25 What surprised both students about one flavour of crisps?
A The percentage of artificial additives given was incorrect.
B The products did not contain any meat.
C The labels did not list all the ingredients.
26 What do the students think about research into the impact of nutritional food labelling?
A It did not produce clear results.
B It focused on the wrong people.
C It made unrealistic recommendations.

Questions 27 and 28
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things surprised the students about the traffic-light system for nutritional labels?t
A its widespread use
B the fact that it is voluntary for supermarkets
C how little research was done before its introduction
D its unpopularity with food manufacturers
E the way that certain colours are used

Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things are true about the participants in the study on the traffic-light system?
A They had low literacy levels.
B They were regular consumers of packaged food.
C They were selected randomly.
D They were from all socio-economic groups.
E They were interviewed face-to-face.

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Part 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
In which TWO ways is Dan financing the course?
A He is receiving money from the government.
B His family are willing to help him.
C The college is giving him a small grant.
D His local council is supporting him for a limited period.
E A former employers is providing partial funding.

Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO reasons does Jeannie give for deciding to leave some college clubs?
A She is not sufficiently challenged.
B The activity interferes with the studies.
C She does not have enough time.
D The activity is too demanding physically.
E She does not think she is any good at the activity.

Questions 25-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
25 What does Dan say about the seminars on the course ?
A The other students do not give him a chance to speak.
B The seminars make him feel inferior to the other students.
C The preparation for seminars takes too much time.
26 What does Jeannie say about the tutorials on the course?
A They are an inefficient way of providing guidance.
B They are more challenging than she had expected.
C They are helping her to develop her study skills.

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Questions 27-30
Complete the flow chart below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Advice on exam preparation

Make sure you know the exam requirements

Find some past papers

Work out your 27 __________________________ for revision


and write them on a card

Make a 28 __________________________ and keep it in view

Divide revision into 29 __________________________ for each day

Write one 30 __________________________ about each topic

Practise writing some exam answers

Part 3 Questions 21-30


Questions 21 -24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21 The tutor thinks that Sandra’s proposal
A should be re-ordered in some parts.
B needs a contents page.
C ought to include more information.
22 The proposal would be easier to follow if Sandra
A inserted subheadings.
B used more paragraphs.
C shortened her sentence.

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23 What was the problem with the formatting on Sandra’s proposal?
A Separate points were not clearly indentified.
B The headings were not always clear.
C Page numberings was not used in an appropriate way.
24 Sandra became interested in visiting the Navajo National Park through
A articles she read.
B movies she saw as a children.
C photographs she found on the internet.

Questions 25-27
Choose THREE letters, A-G.
Which THREE topics does Sandra agree to include in the proposal?
A climate change
B field trip activities
C geographical features
D impact to ftourism
E my thousand legends
F plant and animal life
G social history

Questions 28-30
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
28 The tribal park covers _________________ hectares.
29 Sandra suggests that they share the _________________ for transport.
30 She says they could also explore the local _________________ .

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Revision 01

Exercise 1
Complete the sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets.
1 The _________________ (dominate) of the car makes cycling and walking increasingly
difficult.
2 Consuming some artificial _________________ (preserve) such as nitrites or nitrates used
in processed meats has been shown to increase our risk of colon cancer and should be
limited in our diets.
3 Since each crop does not have the same nutrient requirements, the crop _________________
(rotate) allows the uptake of the various nutrients from year to year depending on the
crop.
4 _________________ (convene) teaching forces students to demonstrate knowledge and
content mastery via tests which can be jeopardizing their learning because they only have
minimal control over this matter.
5 The world today uses more _________________ (alter) energy than ever before since it
contributes to the preservation of the environment.
6 _________________ (art) ability includes skills and talent to create works of art such as
painting, drawing,and musical composition.
7 The changes in our behavioral patterns and adaptations that are caused by these
technological advances could prove to be the primary driving forces behind the next stage
of _________________ (evolve) for our species.
8 Some people are under the _________________ (assume) that playing with computer games
is useful for children because it has advantages such as preventing them from going
outside and learning bad things.
9 The most known consequence of _________________ (forest) is its threat to biodiversity.
10 While natural ecosystems are essential for plant and animal growth, intense

_________________ (exploit) can lead to severe issues like global warming, food insecurity,
climate change, and mineral depletion.

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Exercise 2
Fill in the blanks with words you have learnt from Unit 01 to Unit 09.
1 When animals become _________________ by litter, they may exhaust themselves and
drown, their ability to move, forage or avoid predators may be impaired and they may get
wounds and infections from the litter.
2 The main purpose of _________________ data is to find meaning in data so that the derived
knowledge can be used to make informed decisions.
3 I have dreamt of working for Toyota Motor Corporation, which is one of the top most

_________________ manufacturing companies in the world.


4 Mass _________________ of some oceanic species tend to be in very shallow areas with gently
sloping, often sandy, seabeds.
5 Opinions are divided on whether the government should forbid outdoor recreation in
natural reserves for the _________________ of wild animals.
6 There is often a _________________ between what politicians say and what they do.
7 _________________ farming is a technique, which involves the cultivation of plants and
rearing of animals in natural ways.
8 The _________________ review surveys scholarly articles, books, and other sources relevant to
a particular area of research.
9 A consumer survey revealed that the perception of healthfulness is a key driver of food
choices. But gauging the health quality of foods can be a daunting challenge—made all
the more difficult by _________________ nutrition labels.
10 He had no money and no rich friends, so he had to build his business from

_________________ .

In IELTS Test
It is highly advised that you learn all the forms of a new vocabulary (adjective, adverb,
noun, person, verb). Then, you should revise your lexical resource using different methods.
The exercises above apply cued and free recall techniques to help refresh your memory.

74
Part 4 Questions 31-40
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The history of coffee


Coffee in the Arab world
• These was small-scale trade in wild coffee from Ethiopia.
• 1522: Coffee was approved in the Ottoman court as a type of medicine.
• 1623: In Constantinople, the ruler ordered the 31 _________________ of every coffee
house.
Coffee arrives in Europe (17th century)
• Coffee shops were compared to 32 _________________ .
• They played an important part in social and 33 _________________ changes.
Coffee and European colonization
• European powers established coffee plantations in their colonies.
• Types of coffee were often named according to the 34 _________________ they
came from.
• In Brazil and the Caribbean, most cultivation depended on 35 _________________ .
• In Java, coffee was used as a form of 36 _________________ .
• Coffee became almost as important as 37 _________________ .
• The move towards the consumption of 38 _________________ in Britain did not also
take place in the USA.
Coffee in the 19th century
• Prices dropped because of improvements in 39 _________________ .
• Industrial workers found coffee helped them to work at 40 _________________ .

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.

Questions 14̶20
Reading passage 2 has six sections, A̶G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

List of Headings
i Getting the finance for production
ii An unexpected benefit
iii From initial inspiration to new product
iv The range of potential customers for the device
v What makes the device different from alternatives
vi Cleaning water from a range of sources
vii Overcoming production difficulties
viii Profit not the primary goal
ix A warm welcome for the device
x The number of people affected by water shortages

14 Section A
15 Section B
16 Section C
17 Section D
18 Section E
19 Section F
20 Section G

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The Desolenator: producing clean water
A Travelling around Thailand in the 1990s, William Janssen was impressed with the basic rooftop
solar heating systems that were on many homes, where energy from the sun was absorbed by
a plate and then used to heat water for domestic use. Two decades later Janssen developed that
basic idea he saw in Southeast Asia into a portable device that uses the power from the sun to
purify water.
B The Desolenator operates as a mobile desalination unit that can take water from different
places, such as the sea, rivers, boreholes and rain, and purify it for human consumption. It is
particularly valuable in regions where natural groundwater reserves have been polluted, or
where seawater is the only water source available.
Janssen saw that there was a need for a sustainable way to clean water is both the developing
and the developed countries when he moved to the United Arab Emirates and saw large-scale
water processing. ‘I was confronted with the enormous carbon footprint that the Gulf nations
have because of all of the desalination that they do,’ he says.
C The Desolenator can produce 15 litres of drinking water per day, enough to sustain a family
for cooking and drinking. Its main selling point is that unlike standard desalination techniques,
it doesn’t require a generated power supply: just sunlight. It measures 120 cm by 90 cm, and
it easy to transport, thanks to its two wheels. Water enters through a pipe, and flows as a thin
film between a sheet of double glazing and the surface of a solar panel, where it is heated by
the sun. the warm water flows into a small boiler (heated by a solar-powered battery) where it
is converted to steam. When the steam cools, it becomes distilled water. The device has a very
simple filter to trap particles, and this can easily be shaken to remove them. There are two tubes
for liquid coming out: one for the waste – salt from seawater, fluoride, etc. – and another for the
distilled water. The performance of the unit is shown on an LCD screen and transmitted to the
company which provides servicing when necessary.
D A recent analysis found that at least two-thirds of the world’s population lives with severe water
scarcity for at least a month every year. Janssen says that be 2030 half of the world’s population
will be living with water stress – where the demand exceeds the supply over a certain period
of time. ‘It is really important that a sustainable solution is brought to the market that is able
to help these people,’ he says. Many countries ‘don’t have the money for desalination plants,
which are very expensive to build. They don’t have the money to operate them, they are very
maintenance intensive, and they don’t have the money to buy the diesel to run the desalination
plants, so it is a really bad situation.’

77
E The device is aimed at a wide variety of users – from homeowners in the developing world
who do not have a constant supply of water to people living off the grid in rural parts of the
US. The first commercial versions of the Desolenator are expected to be in operation in India
early next year, after field tests are carried out. The market for the self-sufficient devices in
developing countries is twofold – those who cannot afford the money for the device outright
and pay through microfinance, and middle-income homes that can lease their own equipment.
‘People in India don’t pay for a fridge outright; they pay for it over six months. They would
put the Desolenator on their roof and hook it up to their municipal supply and they would get
very reliable drinking water on a daily basis,’ Janssen says. In the developed world, it is aimed
at niche markets where tap water is unavailable – for camping, on boats, or for the military, for
instance.
F Prices will vary according to where it is bought. In the developing world, the price will depend
on what deal aid organisations can negotiate. In developed countries, it is likely to come in
at $1,000 (£685) a unit, said Janssen. ‘We are a venture with a social mission. We are aware
that the product we have envisioned is mainly finding application in the developing world and
humanitarian sector and that this is the way we will proceed. We do realise, though, that to be a
viable company there is a bottom line to keep in mind,’ he says.
G The company itself is based at Imperial College London, although Janssen, its chief executive,
still lives in the UAE. It has raised £340,000 in funding so far. Within two years, he says, the
company aims to be selling 1,000 units a month, mainly in the humanitarian field. They are
expected to be sold in areas such as Australia, northern Chile, Peru, Texas and California.

Questions 21-26
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
How the Desolenator works
The energy required to operate the Desolenator comes from sunlight. The device can be used
in different locations, as it has 21 _________________ . Water is fed into a pipe, and a
22 _________________ of water flows over a solar panel. The water then enters a boiler, where it
turns into steam. Any particles in the water are caught in a 23 _________________ . The purified
water comes out through one tube, and all types of 24 _________________ come out through
another. A screen displays the 25 _________________ of the device, and transmits the information
to the company so that they know when the Desolenator requires 26 _________________ .

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Reading 05
Matching sentence endings |
Practice reading efficiently | Practice prediction | Talk about fairy tales

Vocabulary
Choose the the correct meaning of the words in bold.
1 Hansel and Gretel’s mother wanted to dispose of them.
A take care of B help C get rid of D find
2 She played well, but her opponent got the better of her.
A lost B defeated C understood D gave up on
3 She had to alter her clothes after losing weight.
A adjust B replace C narrow D discard
4 The state bank has taken further steps to retain control over the value of the dollar.
A abandon B withdraw C gain D keep
5 Pinocchio’s growing nose can indicate if he is lying.
A show B hide C verify D justify
6 I found the book so gripping that I couldn’t put it down.
A catching B shocking C interesting D fabulous
7 Cinderella story is now still a perennial favorite.
A lasting B short-term C popular D temporary
8 Christianity is central to Hans Andersen’s tales.
A middle B among C crucial D beneficial
9 Magic is a fundamental aspect of a fairy tale.
A basic B key C objective D valuable
10 The lesson of The Princess and The Pea is that only a true princess can notice such a trivial
thing like a tiny pea under the mattress.
A insignificant B informative C silly D worthless

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Pre-reading
Choose the correct answer A-E to complete the sentences 1-5.
1 Hansel and Gretel
2 In Hans Andersen’s original story, the little mermaid
3 In the Brothers Grimm version, Cinderella
4 The Sleeping Beauty in Perrault’s version
5 The initial version of Beauty and the Beast

A got married to the prince and they lived happily ever after.
B gave birth to twins.
C left a breadcrumb trail to find their way back home.
D protested how few rights women had, particularly when it came to marriage.
E sacrificed herself and became sea foam at the end of the story.

In IELTS Reading Test


Answering matching sentence endings is a task that tests your ability to understand the
main idea in a text. The questions are in the same order as the information in the passage.
You should read the sentence beginnings first and predict how each of them will end.
There might be more endings than needed, so to read efficiently, you should not read all
the ending unless you have to.

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27‒40 which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Why fairy tales are really scary tales


Some people think that fairy tales are just stories to amuse children,
but their universal and enduring appeal may be due to more serious reasons

People of every culture tell each other fairy tales but the same story often takes a variety of forms
in different parts of the world. In the story of Little Red Riding Hood that European children are
familiar with, a young girl on the way to see her grandmother meets a wolf and tells him where she
is going. The wolf runs on ahead and disposes of the grandmother, then gets into bed dressed in the
grandmother’s clothes to wait for Little Red Riding Hood. You may think you know the story – but
which version? In some versions, the wolf swallows up the grandmother, while in others it locks

80
her in a cupboard. In some stories Red Riding Hood gets the better of the wolf on her own, while in
others a hunter or a woodcutter hears her cries and comes to her rescue.

The universal appeal of these tales is frequently attributed to the idea that they contain cautionary
messages: in the case of Little Red Riding Hood, to listen to your mother, and avoid talking to
strangers. ‘It might be what we find interesting about this story is that it’s got this survival-relevant
information in it,’ says anthropologist Jamie Tehrani at Durham University in the UK. But his
research suggests otherwise. ‘We have this huge gap in our knowledge about the history and
prehistory of storytelling, despite the fact that we know this genre is an incredibly ancient one,’
he says. That hasn’t stopped anthropologists, folklorists* and other academics devising theories to
explain the importance of fairy tales in human society. Now Tehrani has found a way to test these
ideas, borrowing a technique from evolutionary biologists.

To work out the evolutionary history, development and relationships among groups of organisms,
biologists compare the characteristics of living species in a process called ‘phylogenetic analysis’.
Tehrani has used the same approach to compare related versions of fairy tales to discover how they
have evolved and which elements have survived longest.

Tehrani’s analysis focused on Little Red Riding Hood in its many forms, which include another
Western fairy tale known as The Wolf and the Kids. Checking for variants of these two tales and
similar stories from Africa, East Asia and other regions, he ended up with 58 stories recorded from
oral traditions. Once his phylogenetic analysis had established that they were indeed related, he used
the same methods to explore how they have developed and altered over time.

First he tested some assumptions about which aspects of the story alter least as it evolves, indicating
their importance. Folklorists believe that what happens in a story is more central to the story than
the characters in it – that visiting a relative, only to be met by a scary animal in disguise, is more
fundamental than whether the visitor is a little girl or three siblings, or the animal is a tiger instead
of a wolf.

However, Tehrani found no significant difference in the rate of evolution of incidents compared
with that of characters. ‘Certain episodes are very stable because they are crucial to the story, but
there are lots of other details that can evolve quite freely,’ he says. Neither did his analysis support
the theory that the central section of a story is the most conserved part. He found no significant
difference in the flexibility of events there compared with the beginning or the end.
But the really big surprise came when he looked at the cautionary elements of the story. ‘Studies on

81
hunter-gatherer folk tales suggest that these narratives include really important information about the
environment and the possible dangers that may be faced there – stuff that’s relevant to survival,’ he
says. Yet in his analysis such elements were just as flexible as seemingly trivial details. What, then,
is important enough to be reproduced from generation to generation?

The answer, it would appear, is fear – blood-thirsty and gruesome aspects of the story, such as the
eating of the grandmother by the wolf, turned out to be the best preserved of all. Why are these
details retained by generations of storytellers, when other features are not? Tehrani has an idea: ‘In
an oral context, a story won’t survive because of one great teller. It also needs to be interesting when
it’s told by someone who’s not necessarily a great storyteller.’ Maybe being swallowed whole by a
wolf, then cut out of its stomach alive is so gripping that it helps the story remain popular, no matter
how badly it’s told.

Jack Zipes at the University of Minnesota, Minneapolis, is unconvinced by Tehrani’s views on


fairy tales. ‘Even if they’re gruesome, they won’t stick unless they matter,’ he says. He believes
the perennial theme of women as victims in stories like Little Red Riding Hood explains why they
continue to feel relevant. But Tehrani points out that although this is often the case in Western
versions, it is not always true elsewhere. In Chinese and Japanese versions, often known as The
Tiger Grandmother, the villain is a woman, and in both Iran and Nigeria, the victim is a boy.

Mathias Clasen at Aarhus University in Denmark isn’t surprised by Tehrani’s findings. ‘Habits
and morals change, but the things that scare us, and the fact that we seek out entertainment that’s
designed to scare us – those are constant,’ he says. Clasen believes that scary stories teach us what
it feels like to be afraid without having to experience real danger, and so build up resistance to
negative emotions.

Questions 27̶31
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A̶F below.
27 In fairy tales, details of the plot
28 Tehrani rejects the idea that the useful lessons for life in fairy tales
29 Various theories about the social significance of fairy tales
30 Insights into the development of fairy tales
31 All the fairy tales analysed by Tehrani

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A may be provided through methods used in biological research.
B are the reason for their survival.
C show considerable global variation.
D contain animals which transform to become humans.
E were originally spoken rather than written.
F have been developed without factual basis.

Questions 32̶36
Complete the summary using the list of words A‒I below.
Phylogenetic analysis of Little Red Riding Hood
Tehrani used techniques from evolutionary biology to find out if 32 _________________ existed
among 58 stories from around the world. He also wanted to know which aspects of the stories
had fewest 33 _________________ as he believed these aspects would be the most important
ones. Contrary to other beliefs, he found that some 34 _________________ that were included in
a story tended to change over time, and that the middle of a story seemed no more important
than the other parts. He was also surprised that parts of a story which seemed to provide some
sort of 35 _________________ were unimportant. The aspect that he found most important in a
story’s survival was 36 _________________ .

A ending D links G horror


B events E records H people
C warning F variations I plot

Questions 37̶40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
37 What method did Jamie Tehrani use to test his ideas about fairy tales?
A He compared oral and written forms of the same stories.
B He looked at many different forms of the same basic story.
C He looked at unrelated stories from many different countries.
D He contrasted the development of fairy tales with that of living creatures.
38 When discussing Tehrani’s views, Jack Zipes suggests that
A Tehrani ignores key changes in the role of women.
B stories which are too horrific are not always taken seriously.
C Tehrani overemphasises the importance of violence in stories.
D features of stories only survive if they have a deeper significance.

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39 Why does Tehrani refer to Chinese and Japanese fairy tales?
A to indicate that Jack Zipes’ theory is incorrect
B to suggest that crime is a global problem
C to imply that all fairy tales have a similar meaning
D to add more evidence for Jack Zipes’ ideas
40 What does Mathias Clasen believe about fairy tales?
A They are a safe way of learning to deal with fear.
B They are a type of entertainment that some people avoid.
C They reflect the changing values of our society.
D They reduce our ability to deal with real-world problems.

Post-reading
Scan the reading passage again to find the words that match the definitions below.
1 c _ _ t _ _ _ ary (adj.) serving as a warning.
2 f _ _ _ _ _ _ ists (n.) those who study traditional stories
3 g____ (n.) a category literature
4 g___s___ (adj.) causing great horror
5 m _ _ _l (n.) concerned with the goodness or badness of human character
6 n _ _ _ _ ive (n.) a story
7 ____ (adj.) by word of mouth; spoken rather than written
8 story _ _ _ _ ers (n.) those who deliver a story
9 folk _ _ _ _ (n.) an old story that's been told again and again
10 v______ (n.) the bad guy in a story

IELTS Speaking Part 2


Describe an interesting story you heard when you were a child.
You should say:
• who told you the story
• what was the story
• why you think it was an interesting story
and explain why you still remember this story.

84
READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27‒40 which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Music and the emotions


Neuroscientist Jonah Lehrer considers the emotional power of music

Why does music make us feel? One the one hand, music is a purely abstract art form, devoid of
language or explicit ideas. And yet, even though music says little, it still manages to touch us deeply.
When listening to our favourite songs, our body betrays all the symptoms of emotional arousal. The
pupils in our eyes dilate, our pulse and blood pressure rise, the electrical conductance of our skin is
lowered, and the cerebellum, a brain region associated with bodily movement, becomes strangely
active. Blood is even re-directed to the muscles in our legs. In other words, sound stirs us at our
biological roots.

A recent paper in Nature Neuroscience by a research team in Montreal, Canada, marks an important
step in revealing the precise underpinnings of the potent pleasurable stimulus’ that is music.
Although the study involves plenty of fancy technology, including functional magnetic resonance
imaging (fMRI) and ligand-based positron emission tomography (PET) scanning, the experiment
itself was rather straightforward. After screening 217 individuals who responded to advertisements
requesting people who experience ‘chills’ to instrumental music, the scientists narrowed down
the subject pool to ten. They then asked the subjects to bring in their playlist of favourite songs –
virtually every genre was represented, from techno to tango – and played them the music while
their brain activity was monitored. Because the scientists were combining methodologies (PET and
fMRI), they were able to obtain an impressively exact and detailed portrait of music in the brain.
The first thing they discovered is that music triggers the production of dopamine – a chemical with
a key role in setting people’s moods – by the neurons (nerve cells) in both the dorsal and ventral
regions of the brain. As these two regions have long been linked with the experience of pleasure, this
finding isn’t particularly surprising.

What is rather more significant is the finding that the dopamine neurons in the caudate – a region
of the brain involved in learning stimulus-response associations, and in anticipating food and other
‘reward’ stimuli – were at their most active around 15 seconds before the participants’ favourite
moments in the music. The researchers call this the ‘anticipatory phase’ and argue that the purpose

85
of this activity is to help us predict the arrival of our favourite part. The question, of course, is what
all these dopamine neurons are up to. Why are they so active in the period preceding the acoustic
climax? After all, we typically associate surges of dopamine with pleasure, with the processing of
actual rewards. And yet, this cluster of cells is most active when the ‘chills’ have yet to arrive, when
the melodic pattern is still unresolved.

One way to answer the question is to look at the music and not the neurons. While music can
often seem (at least to the outsider) like a labyrinth of intricate patterns, it turns out that the most
important part of every song or symphony is when the patterns break down, when the sound
becomes unpredictable. If the music is too obvious, it is annoyingly boring, like an alarm clock.
Numerous studies, after all, have demonstrated that dopamine neurons quickly adapt to predictable
rewards. If we know what’s going to happen next, then we don’t get excited. This is why composers
often introduce a key note in the beginning of a song, spend most of the rest of the piece in the
studious avoidance of the pattern, and then finally repeat it only at the end. The longer we are denied
the pattern we expect, the greater the emotional release when the pattern returns, safe and sound.

To demonstrate this psychological principle, the musicologist Leonard Meyer, in his classic book
Emotion and Meaning in Music (1956), analysed the 5th movement of Beethoven’s String Quartet in
C-sharp minor, Op. 131. Meyer wanted to show how music is defined by its flirtation with – but not
submission to – our expectations of order. Meyer dissected 50 measures (bars) of the masterpiece,
showing how Beethoven begins with the clear statement of a rhythmic and harmonic pattern and
then, in an ingenious tonal dance, carefully holds off repeating it. What Beethoven does instead
is suggest variations of the pattern. He wants to preserve an element of uncertainty in his music,
making our brains beg for the one chord he refuses to give us. Beethoven saves that chord for the
end.

According to Meyer, it is the suspenseful tension of music, arising out of our unfulfilled
expectations, that is the source of the music’s feeling. While earlier theories of music focused on
the way a sound can refer to the real world of images and experiences – its ‘connotative’ meaning –
Meyer argued that the emotions we find in music come from the unfolding events of the music itself.
This ‘embodied meaning’ arises from the patterns the symphony invokes and then ignores. It is this
uncertainty that triggers the surge of dopamine in the caudate, as we struggle to figure out what will
happen next. We can predict some of the notes, but we can’t predict them all, and that is what keeps
us listening, waiting expectantly for our reward, for the pattern to be completed.

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Question 27̶31
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

The Montreal Study


Participants, who were recruited for the study through advertisements, had their brain activity
monitored while listening to their favourite music. It was noted that the music stimulated the
brain’s neurons to release a substance called 27 _________________ in two of the parts of the
brain which are associated with feeling 28 _________________ .

Researchers also observed that the neurons in the area of the brain called the
29 _________________ were particularly active just before the participants’ favourite moments
in the music – the period known as the 30 _________________ . Activity in this part of the brain is
associated with the expectation of ‘reward’ stimuli such as 31 _________________ .

Questions 32̶36
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
32 What point does the writer emphasise in the first paragraph?
A how dramatically our reactions to music can vary
B how intense our physical responses to music can be
C how little we know about the way that music affects us
D how much music can tell us about how our brains operate
33 What view of the Montreal study does the writer express in the second paragraph?
A Its aims were innovative.
B The approach was too simplistic.
C It produced some remarkably precise data.
D The technology used was unnecessarily complex.
34 What does the writer find interesting about the results of the Montreal study?
A the timing of participants’ neural responses to the music
B the impact of the music of participants’ emotional state
C the section of participants’ brains which was activated by the music
D the type of music which had the strongest effect on participants’ brains

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35 Why does the writer refer to Meyer’s work on music and emotion?
A to propose an original theory about the subject
B to offer support for the findings of the Montreal study
C to recommend the need for further research into the subject
D to present a view which opposes that of the Montreal researchers
36 According to Leonard Meyer, what causes the listener’s emotional response to music?
A the way that the music evokes poignant memories in the listener
B the association of certain musical chords with certain feelings
C the listener’s sympathy with the composer’s intentions
D the internal structure of the musical composition

Questions 37̶40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A̶F below.
37 The Montreal researchers discovered that
38 Many studies have demonstrated that
39 Meyer’s analysis of Beethoven’s music shows that
40 Earlier theories of music suggested that

A our response to music depends on our initial emotional state.


B neuron activity decreases if outcomes become predictable.
C emotive music can bring to mind actual pictures and events.
D experiences in our past can influence our emotional reaction to music.
E emotive music delays giving listeners what they expect to hear.
F neuron activity increases prior to key points in a musical piece.

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Listening 06
Matching information |
Recognising paraphrases | Recognising distractors

Pre-listening
Read the sentences 1-12. Do they have the same meanings with the phrases A-G?
Put the numbers 1-12 into the correct place on the table.
There is an example that has been done for you.
1 accessible for anyone 7 hard to chat with people
2 any time of the year 8 impossible with snow, ice, wind, rain
3 boring 9 less chance of hurting
4 challenging if not flexible 10 likely to give up
5 encouraging 11 permanent damage
6 fun 12 takes a short period of time

Similar meaning Contrasting meaning

A not dependent on season 2


B enjoyable

C low risk of injury

D fitness level unimportant

E sociable Ø

F fast results Ø

G motivating

In IELTS Listening Test


All answer options are usually mentioned in the recording. They can be paraphrased by
substituting synonyms or changing word form.
However, the details will not match. These are known to be distractors.

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Part 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11-16
What advantage does the speaker mention for each of the following physical activities?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 11-16.

Advantages
A not dependent on season E sociable
B enjoyable F fast results
C low risk of injury G motivating
D fitness level unimportant

Physical activities
11 using a gym
12 running
13 swimming
14 cycling
15 doing yoga
16 training with a personal trainer

Questions 17 and 18
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
For which TWO reasons does the speaker say people give up going to the gym?
A lack of time
B loss of confidence
C too much effort required
D high costs
E feeling less successful than others

Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give for setting goals?
A write goals down
B have achievable aims
C set a time limit
D give yourself rewards
E challenge yourself

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Vocabulary
What are the excursion activities mentioned in the following pictures?
Complete the sentences 1-6 using the given words in the box.

1 2 3

4 5 6

ballroom dance cutlery medieval fair


craft village dip in the ocean observatory

1 We had to book in advance to get a table at the Gusteau's. That restaurant is so high-class,
they even use silver ________________________ .
2 We visited Mauna Kea ________________________ during our trip to America.
3 My family took a short trip to Bat Trang ________________________ and made some ceramics.
4 The ________________________ was amazing, we've got to see jousting, which is a sport where
the riders try to knock their competitor off their horses.
5 The girls are shopping for some gowns to prepare for the ________________________ this
week.
6 When we are staying at our beach house, we always take a ________________________ at
sunrise.

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Part 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11-16
What information does the speaker give about each of the following excursions?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 11-16.

Information
A all downhill E no charge
B suitable for beginners F swimming possible
C only in good weather G fully booked today
D food included H transport not included

Excursions
11 dolphin watching
12 forest walk
13 cycle trip
14 local craft tour
15 observatory trip
16 horse riding

Questions 17 and 18
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things does the speaker say about the attraction called Musical Favourites?
A You pay extra for drinks.
B You must book it in advance.
C You get a reduction if you buy two tickets.
D You can meet the performers.
E You can take part in the show.

Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things does the speaker say about the Castle Feast?
A Visitors can dance after the meal.
B There is a choice of food.
C Visitors wear historical costume.
D Knives and forks are not used.
E The entertainment includes horse races.

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In IELTS Test
In the IELTS test, it is important that you demonstrate critical thinking skills.
One way to achieve this is through discussing two sides of an issue.
You should use or look for constrating conjunctions and adverbs as you take the test.

Contrasting conjunctions and adverbs


The statements 1-5 answers the essay question below.
Fill in the blanks with the correct conjunctions or adverbs from the box.

Some people think that governments should ban dangerous sports, while others think
people should have freedom to do any sports or activity.
Discuss both views and give your own opinion.

although but in contrast to


despite however whereas

1 All physical activities carry a certain degree of risks ________________________ this can be
avoided with proper preparation.
2 ________________________ extreme sports can be hazardous than others, athletes can take
tests to ensure they are physically and mentally capable before participating.
3 ________________________ the possible consequences, extreme sports remain their popularity
among the public.
4 ________________________ general notion, concerns over the safety of extreme sports are
quite irrelevent.
5 Risk factors are present in all sports. ________________________, people should have the
autonomy to play any sports they want.
6 Skydivers are prone to deathly injuries ________________________ football players are likely to
suffer from ankle sprains.

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Part 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11-16
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
11 Annie recommends that when cross-country skiing, the visitors should
A get away from the regular trails.
B stop to enjoy views of the scenery.
C go at a slow speed at the beginning.
12 What does Annie tell the group about this afternoon’s dog-sled trip?
A Those who want to can take part in a race.
B Anyone has the chance to drive a team of dogs.
C One group member will be chosen to lead the trail.
13 What does Annie say about the team relay event?
A All participants receive a medal.
B The course is 4 km long.
C Each team is led by a teacher.
14 On the snow-shoe trip, the visitors will
A visit an old gold mine.
B learn about unusual flowers.
C climb to the top of a mountain.
15 The cost of accommodation in the mountain hut includes
A a supply of drinking water.
B transport of visitors’ luggage.
C cooked meals.
16 If there is a storm while the visitors are in the hut, they should
A contact the bus driver.
B wait until the weather improves.
C use the emergency locator beacon.

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Questions 17 – 20
What information does Annie give about skiing on each of the following mountain trails?
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 17-20.

Information
A It has a good place to stop and rest.
B It is suitable for all abilities.
C It involves crossing a river.
D It demands a lot of skill.
E It may be closed in bad weather.
F It has some very narrow sections.

Mountain trails
17 Highland Trail
18 Pine Trail
19 Stony Trail
20 Loser’s Trail

Part 2 Questions 11-20


Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO activities that volunteers do are mentioned?
A decorating
B cleaning
C delivering meals
D shopping
E childcare

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Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO ways that volunteers can benefit from volunteering are mentioned?
A learning how to be part of a team
B having a sense of purpose
C realising how lucky they are
D improved ability at time management
E boosting their employment prospects

Questions 15-20
What has each of the following volunteers helped someone to do?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 15-20.

What volunteers have helped people to do


A overcome physical difficulties
B rediscover skills not used for a long time
C improve their communication skills
D solve problems independently
E escape isolation
F remember past times
G start a new hobby

Volunteers
15 Habib
16 Consuela
17 Minh
18 Tanya
19 Alexei
20 Juba

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Reading 06
Answering multiple choice questions |
Locating information in a text | Summarising ideas | Talk about occupation

Getting started
Work with a partner. Ask and answer the following questions.
1 What skills do you think are needed to get a good job these days?
2 How has technology changed the way we work?
3 What kinds of jobs are most likely to be taken over by robots?

Vocabulary
Match the words 1-11 to the words a-k to create correct collocations.
1 artificial a changes
2 business b consultancy
3 cognitive c contract
4 fundamental d economy
5 global e instinct
6 human f intelligence
7 knowledge g intelligence
8 labour h market
9 legal i task
10 market j retirement
11 pensioned k workforce

Pre-reading
Exercise 1
Skim the first paragraph of the reading passage The Future of Work.
Summarise the ideas mentioned using your own words. Try not to use the phrases from the
text unless absolutely necessary.

________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________

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Exercise 2
Underline the key words in questions a-c below and use them the scan in the text.
Which paragraphs have the information you need? Answer the questions using bullet points.
1 What is Stella Pachidi’s view of the ‘knowledge economy’?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
2 What did Pachidi observe at the telecommunications company?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
3 What is Ewan McGaughey's main idea in this recently published research?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________

In IELTS Reading Test


Multiple choice questions test your ability to understand the main ideas of certain
paragraphs or your understanding of specific points and details.
You should locate the information in the reading passage by underlining key words in
the questions. You should also paraphrase the piece of information or summarise the
paragraph to correctly identity the answer.

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27‒40 which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.
The future of work
According to a leading business consultancy, 3-14% of the global workforce will need to switch
to a different occupation within the next 10-15 years, and all workers will need to adapt as their
occupations evolve alongside increasingly capable machines. Automation – or ‘embodied artificial
intelligence’ (AI) – is one aspect of the disruptive effects of technology on the labour market.
‘Disembodied AI’, like the algorithms running in our smartphones, is another.

Dr Stella Pachidi from Cambridge Judge Business School believes that some of the most
fundamental changes are happening as a result of the ‘algorithmication’ of jobs that are dependent
on data rather than on production – the so-called knowledge economy. Algorithms are capable of
learning from data to undertake tasks that previously needed human judgement, such as reading
legal contracts, analysing medical scans and gathering market intelligence.

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‘In many cases, they can outperform humans,’ says Pachidi. ‘Organisations are attracted to using
algorithms because they want to make choices based on what they consider is “perfect information”,
as well as to reduce costs and enhance productivity.’

‘But these enhancements are not without consequences,’ says Pachidi. ‘If routine cognitive tasks are
taken over by AI, how do professions develop their future experts?’ she asks. ‘One way of learning
about a job is “legitimate peripheral participation” – a novice stands next to experts and learns by
observation. If this isn’t happening, then you need to find new ways to learn.’

Another issue is the extent to which the technology influences or even controls the workforce. For
over two years, Pachidi monitored a telecommunications company. ‘The way telecoms salespeople
work is through personal and frequent contact with clients, using the benefit of experience to assess
a situation and reach a decision. However, the company had started using a(n) … algorithm that
defined when account managers should contact certain customers about which kinds of campaigns
and what to offer them.’

The algorithm – usually build by external designers – often becomes the keeper of knowledge, she
explains. In cases like this, Pachidi believes, a short-sighted view begins to creep into working
practices whereby workers learn through the ‘algorithm’s eyes’ and become dependent on its
instructions. Alternative explorations – where experimentation and human instinct lead to progress
and new ideas – are effectively discouraged.

Pachidi and colleagues even observed people developing strategies to make the algorithm work to
their own advantage. ‘We are seeing cases where workers feed the algorithm with false data to reach
their targets,’ she reports.

It’s scenarios like these that many researchers are working to avoid. Their objective is to make AI
technologies more trustworthy and transparent, so that organisations and individuals understand how
AI decisions are made. In the meantime, says Pachidi, ‘We need to make sure we fully understand
the dilemmas that this new world raises regarding expertise, occupational boundaries and control.’

Economist Professor Hamish Low believes that the future of work will involve major transitions
across the whole life course for everyone: ‘The traditional trajectory of full-time education followed
by full-time work followed by a pensioned retirement is a thing of the past,’ says Low. Instead, he
envisages a multistage employment life: one where retraining happens across the life course, and
where multiple jobs and no job happen by choice at different stages.

99
On the subject of job losses, Low believes the predictions are founded on a fallacy: ‘It assumes
that the number of jobs is fixed. If in 30 years, half of 100 jobs are being carried out by robots, that
doesn’t mean we are left with just 50 jobs for humans. The number of jobs will increase: we would
expect there to be 150 jobs.’

Dr Ewan McGaughey, at Cambridge’s Centre for Business Research and King’s College London,
agrees that ‘apocalyptic’ views about the future of work are misguided. ‘It’s the laws that restrict the
supply of capital to the job market, not the advent of new technologies that causes unemployment.’

His recently published research answers the question of whether automation, AI and robotics will
mean a ‘jobless future’ by looking at the causes of unemployment. ‘History is clear that change can
mean redundancies. But social policies can tackle this through retraining and redeployment.’

He adds: ‘If there is going to be change to jobs as a result of AI and robotics then I’d like to see
governments seizing the opportunity to improve policy to enforce good job security. We can
“reprogramme” the law to prepare for a fairer future of work and leisure.’ McGaughey’s findings are
a call to arms to leaders of organisations, governments and banks to pre-empt the coming changes
with bold new policies that guarantee full employment, fair incomes and a thriving economic
democracy.

‘The promises of these new technologies are astounding. They deliver humankind the capacity to
live in a way that nobody could have once imagined,’ he adds. ‘Just as the industrial revolution
brought people past subsistence agriculture, and the corporate revolution enabled mass production, a
third revolution has been pronounced. But it will not only be one of technology. The next revolution
will be social.’

Questions 27‒30
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
27 The first paragraph tells us about
A the kinds of jobs that will be most affected by the growth of AI.
B the extent to which AI will alter the nature of the work that people do.
C the proportion of the world’s labour force who will have jobs in AI in the future.
D the difference between ways that embodied and disembodied AI with impact on
workers.

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28 According to the second paragraph, what is Stella Pachidi’s view of the ‘knowledge
economy’?
A It is having an influence on the number of jobs available.
B It is changing people’s attitudes towards their occupations.
C It is the main reason why the production sector is declining.
D It is a key factor driving current developments in the workplace.
29 What did Pachidi observe at the telecommunications company?
A staff disagreeing with the recommendations of AI
B staff feeling resentful about the intrusion of AI in their work
C staff making sure that AI produces the results that they want
D staff allowing AI to carry out tasks they ought to do themselves
30 In his recently published research, Ewan McGaughey
A challenges the idea that redundancy is a negative thing.
B shows the profound effect of mass unemployment on society.
C highlights some differences between past and future job losses.
D illustrates how changes in the job market can be successfully handled.

Questions 31̶34
Complete the summary using the list of words A‒G below.
The ‘algorithmication’ of jobs
Stella Pachidi of Cambridge Judge Business School has been focusing on the ‘algorithmication’
of jobs which rely not on production but on 31 __________ .
While monitoring a telecommunications company, Pachidi observed a growing 32 __________
on the recommendations made by AI, as workers begin to learn through the ‘algorithm’s eyes’.
Meanwhile, staff are deterred from experimenting and using their own 33 __________ , and are
therefore prevented from achieving innovation.
To avoid the kind of situations which Pachidi observed, researchers are trying to make AI’s
decision-making process easier to comprehend, and to increase users’ 34 __________ with
regard to the technology.

A pressure D promotion F confidence


B satisfaction E reliance G information
C intuition

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Questions 35̶40
Look at the following ideas (Questions 35-40) and the list of researchers below.
Match each idea with the correct researcher, A, B or C.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
35 Greater levels of automation will not result in lower employment.
36 There are several reasons why AI is appealing to businesses.
37 AI’s potential to transform people’s lives has parallels with major cultural shifts which
occurred in previous eras.
38 It is important to be aware of the range of problems that AI causes.
39 People are going to follow a less conventional career path than in the past.
40 Authorities should take measures to ensure that there will be adequately paid work for
everyone.

List of people
A Stella Pachidi
B Hamish Low
C Ewan McGaughey

IELTS Writing Task 2


Rewrite the following sentences using your own words.
1 The future of work will involve major transitions across the whole life course for everyone.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
2 It’s the laws that restrict the supply of capital to the job market, not the advent of new
technologies that causes unemployment.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
3 It is important to be aware of the range of problems that AI causes.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
4 Greater levels of automation will not result in lower employment.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
5 Authorities should take measures to ensure that there will be adequately paid work for
everyone.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

102
READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27‒40 which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Environmental practices of big businesses


The environmental practices of big businesses are shaped by a fundamental fact that for many of us
offend our sense of justice. Depending on the circumstances, a business may maximize the amount
of money it makes, at least in the short term, by damaging the environment and hurting people. That
is still the case today for fishermen in an unmanaged fishery without quotas, and for international
logging companies with short-term leases on tropical rainforest land in places with corrupt officials
and unsophisticated landowners. When government regulation is effective, and when the public is
environmentally aware, environmentally clean big businesses may out-compete dirty ones, but the
reverse is likely to be true if government regulation is ineffective and if the public doesn’t care.

It is easy for the rest of us to blame a business for helping itself by hurting other people. But
blaming alone is unlikely to produce change. It ignores the fact that businesses are not charities but
profit-making companies, and that publicly owned companies with shareholders are under obligation
to those shareholders to maximize profits, provided that they do so by legal means. US laws make a
company’s directors legally liable for something termed ‘breach of fiduciary responsibility’ if they
knowingly manage a company in a way that reduces profits. The car manufacturer Henry Ford was
in fact successfully sued by shareholders in 1919 for raising the minimum wage of his workers to $5
per day: the courts declared that, while Ford’s humanitarian sentiments about his employees were
nice, his business existed to make profits for its stockholders.

Our blaming of businesses also ignores the ultimate responsibility of the public for creating the
condition that let a business profit through destructive environmental policies. In the long run, it
is the public, either directly or through its politicians, that has the power to make such destructive
policies unprofitable and illegal, and to make sustainable environmental policies profitable.

The public can do that by suing businesses for harming them, as happened after the Exxon Valdez
disaster, in which over 40,000m3 of oil were spilled off the coast of Alaska. The public may also
make their opinion felt by preferring to buy sustainably harvested products; by making employees
of companies with poor track records feel ashamed of their company and complain to their own

103
management; by preferring their governments to award valuable contracts to businesses with a
good environmental track record; and by pressing their governments to pass and enforce laws and
regulations requiring good environmental practices.

In turn, big businesses can expert powerful pressure on any suppliers that might ignore public
or government pressure. For instance, after the US public became concerned about the spread
of a disease known as BSE, which was transmitted to humans through infected meat, the US
government’s Food and Drug Administration introduced rules demanding that the meat industry
abandon practices associated with the risk of the disease spreading. But for five years the meat
packers refused to follow these, claiming that they would be too expensive to obey. However, when
a major fast-food company then made the same demands after customer purchases of its hamburgers
plummeted, the meat industry complied within weeks. The public’s task is therefore to identify
which links in the supply chain are sensitive to public pressure: for instance, fast-food chains or
jewelry stores, but not meat packers or gold miners.

Some readers may be disappointed or outraged that I place the ultimate responsibility for business
practices harming the public on the public itself. I also believe that the public must accept the
necessity for higher prices for products to cover the added costs, if any, of sound environmental
practices. My views may seem to ignore the belief that businesses should act in accordance with
moral principles even if this leads to a reduction in their profits. But I think we have to recognize
that, throughout human history, in all politically complex human societies, government regulation
has arisen precisely because it was found that not only did moral principles need to be made explicit,
they also needed to be enforced.

To me, the conclusion that the public has the ultimate responsibility for the behavior of even the
biggest businesses is empowering and hopeful, rather than disappointing. My conclusion is not a
moralistic one about who is right or wrong, admirable or selfish, a good guy or a bad guy. In the
past, businesses have changed when the public came to expect and require different behavior, to
reward businesses for behavior that the public wanted, and to make things difficult for businesses
practicing behaviors that the public didn’t want. I predict that in the future, just as in the past,
changes in public attitudes will be essential for changes in businesses’ environmental practices.

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Questions 27̶31
Complete the summary using the list of words A‒J below.
Big businesses
Many big businesses today are prepared to harm people and the environment in order to make
money, and they appear to have no 27 __________ . Lack of 28 __________ by governments and
lack of public 29 __________ can lead to environmental problems such as 30 __________ or the
destruction of 31 __________ .

A funding D moral standards G flooding


B trees E control H overfishing
C rare species F involvement I worker support

Questions 32‒34
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
32 The main idea of the third paragraph is that environmental damage
A requires political action if it is to be stopped.
B is the result of ignorance on the part of the public.
C could be prevented by the action of ordinary people.
D can only be stopped by educating business leaders.
33 In the fourth paragraph, the writer describes ways in which the public can
A reduce their own individual impact on the environment.
B learn more about the impact of business of the environment.
C raise awareness of the effects of specific environmental disasters.
D influence the environmental policies of businesses and governments.
34 What pressure was exerted by big business in the case of the disease BSE?
A Meat packers stopped supplying hamburgers to fast-food chains.
B A fast-food company forced their meat suppliers to follow the law.
C Meat packers persuaded the government to reduce their expenses.
D A fast-food company encouraged the government to introduce legislation.

105
Question 35̶39
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
Write YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
35 The public should be prepared to fund good environmental practices.
36 There is a contrast between the moral principles of different businesses.
37 It is important to make a clear distinction between acceptable and unacceptable
behaviour.
38 The public have successfully influenced businesses in the past.
39 In the future, businesses will show more concern for the environment.

Questions 40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
40 What would be the best subheading for this passage?
A Will the world survive the threat caused by big businesses?
B How can big businesses be encouraged to be less driven by profit?
C What environmental dangers are caused by the greed of businesses?
D Are big businesses to blame for the damage they cause the environment?

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Listening 07
Labeling a map |
Recognising paraphrase | Describing a park

Getting Started
Work in pairs. Take turns to ask and answer the following questions.
1 Would you like to play in a public garden or park?
2 What do you like to do when visiting a park?
3 How have parks changed today compared to the time you were a kid?
4 Would you prefer to play in a private garden or public garden?

Pre-listening
Exercise 1
Look at the map of Croft Valley Park.
Describe the position of the places 1-4 using the given information.
1 adventure playground_____________________________________________________________________
2 old museum_______________________________________________________________________________
3 lake________________________________________________________________________________________
4 glass houses_______________________________________________________________________________

Exercise 2
Match the phrases 1-6 below to the places A-H on the map.
There can be more than one correct answers.
1 near the south gate________________________________________________________________________
2 hidden in the trees ________________________________________________________________________
3 by the glass houses ________________________________________________________________________
4 near the playground _______________________________________________________________________
5 on a bend in the path______________________________________________________________________
6 next to the old museum ___________________________________________________________________
7 in the corner of the map ___________________________________________________________________
8 looking out over the lake __________________________________________________________________
9 south of the adventure playground ________________________________________________________
10 at the end of a path that lead off from the main path ______________________________________

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In IELTS Listening Test
For map completion tasks, you need to familiarise yourself with both the list of options and
the given features before you start. You can do this by describing their positions.
It is also helpful to mark the way directly on the map.

Part 2 Questions 11-20


Questions 11-16
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 11-16.

Croft Valley Park

North Gate

N
B Adventure playground
C
W E

A
S
E
D
Old museum

F
Lake
Glass houses

South Gate

11 café
12 toilets
13 formal gardens
14 outdoor gym
15 skateboard ramp
16 wild flowers

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Questions 17 and 18
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
What does the speakers say about the adventure playground?
A Children must be supervised.
B It costs more in winter.
C Some activities are only for younger children.
D No payment is required.
E It was recently expanded.

Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
A They are closed at weekends.
B Volunteers are needed to work there.
C They were badly damaged by fire.
D More money is needed to repair some of the glass.
E Visitors can see palm trees from tropical regions.

IELTS Writing Task 1


Look at the map below. Describe the location of the places in the town.

1 block of flats
2 bridge
3 car park
4 church
5 hotel
6 market square
7 public park
8 shops
9 supermarket

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Vocabulary
Match pictures 1-6 to the correct machine part a-h.

1 2 3 4

5 6 7 8

a cogwheel c filter e pipe g spring coil


b cooling fan d motor f pump h winder

In IELTS Listening Test


For diagram completion tasks, you may need to listen and label a machine, a device, etc.
Before you listen, take a look at the object and recall the parts that you recorgnise.
Think about how it may work and the order of description.

Pre-listening
Look at the following diagram of The Party Popper Machine.
Which of the verbs below might be used in the recording?
activate force hold push turn
drag generate pop rotate wind
explode hit pull spin wrap

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Questions 1-4
Write the correct letter, A-F next to questions 1-4 below.

Parts
A cooling fan
B storage 4 __________

C detonator
D party starter
E motor
F winder

3 __________
1 __________

2 __________

Part 2 Questions 11-20


Questions 11-16
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Minster Park
11 The park was originally established
A as an amenity provided by the city council.
B as land belonging to a private house.
C as a shared area set up by the local community.
12 Why is there a statue of Diane Gosforth in the park?
A She was a resident who helped to lead a campaign.
B She was a council member responsible for giving the public access.
C She was a senior worker at the park for many years.

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13 During the First World War, the park was mainly used for
A exercises by troops.
B growing vegetables.
C public meetings.
14 When did the physical transformation of the park begin?
A 2013
B 2015
C 2016

Questions 11-16
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-I, next to Questions 15-20.
Minster Park

River

A
B
C

E
West gate East gate
Lily
D pond F

I
H
G

South gate
15 statue of Diane Gosforth
16 wooden sculptures
17 playground
18 maze
19 tennis courts
20 fitness area

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Questions 1-5
Label the diagram below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

1 ________________________ 3 ________________________ 4 ________________________

2 ________________________ 5 ________________________

Questions 6-10
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

• First evidence of trumpet in Ancient Egypt 6 ________________________ ago.


• Became orchestral instrument in early 7 ________________________ century.
• The trumpet often leads the brass section because of its 8 ________________________ sound.
• The trumpet is quite 9 ________________________ compared with other instruments.
• Some trumpeters now play 10 ________________________ instead.

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Reading 07
Completing a diagram | Giving short answer
Describing historical buildings

Vocabulary
Guess the meanings of the words in bold based on the pictures and descriptions below.

1 2 3

4 5

1 To deal with high mountains, Romans dug deep tunnels right through them and shafts in
their roof for ventilation.
2 We are going to excavate here for the foundation of the building.
3 The bus had to deviate from its usual route because of a road closure.
4 The bright sun rays penetrate through fog and forest trees.
5 IKEA has developed an advanced tool that employs artificial intelligence to improve the
accuracy of its demand forecasting.

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In IELTS Reading Test
Charts and diagrams are used to summarise information and at the same time, to show
visual links. You should try thinking about how ideas are connected in a text.
Not every information from the reading passage are shown in the charts or diagrams, and
it might not be illustrated in the same order.

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.
Roman Tunnels
The Romans, who once controlled areas of Europe, North Africa and Asia Minor, adopted the construction
techniques of other civilizations to build tunnels in their territories
The Persians, who lived in present-day Iran, were one of the first civilizations to build tunnels that
provided a reliable supply of water to human settlements in dry areas. In the early first millennium
BCE, they introduced the qanat method of tunnel construction, which consisted of placing posts over
a hill in a straight line, to ensure that the tunnel kept to its route, and then digging vertical shafts
down into the ground at regular intervals. Underground, workers removed the earth from between
the ends of the shafts, creating a tunnel. The excavated soil was taken up to the surface using the
shafts, which also provided ventilation during the work. Once the tunnel was completed, it allowed
water to flow from the top of a hillside down towards a canal, which supplied water for human use.
Remarkably, some qanats built by the Persians 2,700 years ago are still in use today.

They later passed on their knowledge to the Romans, who also used the qanat method to construct
water-supply tunnels for agriculture. Roma qanat tunnels were constructed with vertical shafts dug
at intervals of between 30 and 60 meters. The shafts were equipped with handholds and footholds to
help those climbing in and out of them and were covered with a wooden or stone lid. To ensure that
the shafts were vertical, Romans hung a plumb line from a rod placed across the top of each shaft
and made sure that the weight at the end of it hung in the center of the shaft. Plumb lines were also
used to measure the depth of the shaft and to determine the slope of the tunnel. The 5.6-kilometer-
long Claudius tunnel, built in 41 CE to drain the Fucine Lake in central Italy, had shafts that were up
to 122 meters deep, took 11 years to build and involved approximately 30,000 workers.

By the 6th century BCE, a second method of tunnel construction appeared called the counter-
excavation method, in which the tunnel was constructed from both ends. It was used to cut through
high mountains when the qanat method was not a practical alternative. This method required greater

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planning and advanced knowledge of surveying, mathematics and geometry as both ends of a tunnel
had to meet correctly at the center of the mountain. Adjustments to the direction of the tunnel also
had to be made whenever builders encountered geological problems or when it deviated from its
set path. They constantly checked the tunnel’s advancing direction, for example, by looking back
at the light that penetrated through the tunnel mouth, and made corrections whenever necessary.
Large deviations could happen, and they could result in one end of the tunnel not being usable.
An inscription written on the side of a 428-meter tunnel, built by the Romans as part of the Saldae
aqueduct system in modern-day Algeria, describes how the two teams of builders missed each other
in the mountain and how the later construction of a lateral link between both corridors corrected the
initial error.

The Romans dug tunnels for their roads using the counter-excavation method, whenever they
encountered obstacles such as hills or mountains that were too high for roads to pass over.
An example is the 37-meter-long, 6-meter-high, Furlo Pass Tunnel built in Italy in 69-79 CE.
Remarkably, a modern road still uses this tunnel today. Tunnels were also built for mineral
extraction. Miners would locate a mineral vein and then pursue it with shafts and tunnels
underground. Traces of such tunnels used to mine gold can still be found at the Dolaucothi mines
in Wales. When the sole purpose of a tunnel was mineral extraction, construction required less
planning, as the tunnel route was determined by the mineral vein.

Roman tunnel projects were carefully planned and carried out. The length of time it took to
construct a tunnel depended on the method being used and the type of rock being excavated. The
qanat construction method was usually faster than the counter-excavation method as it was more
straightforward. This was because the mountain could be excavated not only from the tunnel mouths
but also from shafts. The type of rock could also influence construction times. When the rock was
hard, the Romans employed a technique called fire quenching which consisted of heating the rock
with fire, and then suddenly cooling it with cold water so that it would crack. Progress through hard
rock could be very slow, and it was not uncommon for tunnels to take years, if not decades, to be
built. Construction marks left on a Roman tunnel in Bologna show that the rate of advance through
solid rock was 30 centimeters per day. In contrast, the rate of advance of the Claudius tunnel can
be calculated at 1.4 meters per day. Most tunnels had inscriptions showing the names of patrons
who ordered construction and sometimes the name of the architect. For example, the 1.4-kilometer
Çevlik tunnel in Turkey, built to divert the floodwater threatening the harbor of the ancient city of
Seleucia Pieria, had inscriptions on the entrance, still visible today, that also indicate that the tunnel
was started in 69 CE and was completed in 81 CE.

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Questions 1̶6
Label the diagrams below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

The Persian Qanat Method


1 _________________ to direct
the tunnelling water runs into a 2 _________________
used by local people

vertical shafts to remove earth and for 3 _________________

Cross-section of Roman Qanat Shaft


4 _________________ made of wood or stone

rod

5 _________________ attached to the plumb line


handholds and footholds used for 6 _________________

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Question 7̶10
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
7 The counter-excavation method completely replaced the qanat method in the 6th century
BCE.
8 Only experienced builders were employed to construct a tunnel using the counter-
excavation method.
9 The information about a problem that occurred during the construction of the Saldae
aqueduct system was found in an ancient book.
10 The mistake made by the builders of the Saldae aqueduct system was that the two parts
of the tunnel failed to meet.

Question 11̶13
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
11 What type of mineral were the Dolaucothi mines in Wales built to extract?
12 In addition to the patron, whose name might be carved onto a tunnel?
13 What part of Seleucia Pieria was the Çevlik tunnel built to protect?

In IELTS Reading Test


Short-answer question tests your ability to find specific details in a passage.
You should read the question words and think of the form and type of information that is
needed. The questions are usually in the same order as the information in the text.

IELTS Speaking Part 2


Describe a historical building or place in your hometown.
You should say:
• what building or place it is
• what it looks like
• what people do at this place
and explain what you think of this building or place.

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IELTS Speaking Part 3
Work in groups to answer the question below.
Then, share your ideas with the class.
Do you think it’s worth the money to preserve old buildings and historical places, like the
remains of Roman tunnels?

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14‒26 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.
The Falkirk Wheel
A unique engineering achievement

The Falkirk Wheel in Scotland is the world’s first and only rotating boat lift. Opened in 2002, it is
central to the ambitious £84.5m Millennium Link project to restore navigability across Scotland by
reconnecting the historic waterways of the Forth & Clyde and Union Canals.

The major challenge of the project lays in the fact that the Forth & Clyde Canal is situated 35
metres below the level of the Union Canal. Historically, the two canals had been joined near the
town of Falkirk by a sequence of 11 locks – enclosed sections of canal in which the water level
could be raised or lowered – that stepped down across a distance of 1.5 km. This had been
dismantled in 1933, thereby breaking the link. When the project was launched in 1994, the British
Waterways authority were keen to create a dramatic twenty-first-century landmark which would
not only be a fitting commemoration of the Millennium, but also a lasting symbol of the economic
regeneration of the region.

Numerous ideas were submitted for the project, including concepts ranging from rolling eggs to
tilting tanks, from giant seesaws to overhead monorails. The eventual winner was a plan for the
huge rotating steel boat lift which was to become The Falkirk Wheel. The unique shape of the
structure is claimed to have been inspired by various sources, both manmade and natural, most
notably a Celtic double headed axe, but also the vast turning propeller of a ship, the ribcage of a
whale or the spine of a fish.

The various parts of The Falkirk Wheel were all constructed and assembled, like one giant toy
building set, at Butterley Engineering’s Steelworks in Derbyshire, some 400 km from Falkirk. A team

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there carefully assembled the 1,200 tonnes of steel, painstakingly fitting the pieces together to an
accuracy of just 10 mm to ensure a perfect final fit. In the summer of 2001, the structure was then
dismantled and transported on 35 lorries to Falkirk, before all being bolted back together again on
the ground, and finally lifted into position in five large sections by crane. The Wheel would need to
withstand immense and constantly changing stresses as it rotated, so to make the structure more
robust, the steel sections were bolted rather than welded together. Over 45,000 bolt holes were
matched with their bolts, and each bolt was hand-tightened.

The Wheel consists of two sets of opposing axe-shaped arms, attached about 25 metres apart to
a fixed central spine. Two diametrically opposed water-filled ‘gondolas’, each with a capacity of
360,000 litres, are fitted between the ends of the arms. These gondolas always weigh the same,
whether or not they are carrying boats. This is because, according to Archimedes’ principle of
displacement, floating objects displace their own weight in water. So when a boat enters a gondola,
the amount of water leaving the gondola weighs exactly the same as the boat. This keeps the
Wheel balanced and so, despite its enormous mass, it rotates through 180° in five and a half
minutes while using very little power. It takes just 1.5 kilowatt-hours (5.4 MJ) of energy to rotate the
Wheel -roughly the same as boiling eight small domestic kettles of water.

Boats needing to be lifted up enter the canal basin at the level of the Forth & Clyde Canal and
then enter the lower gondola of the Wheel. Two hydraulic steel gates are raised, so as to seal the
gondola off from the water in the canal basin. The water between the gates is then pumped out.
A hydraulic clamp, which prevents the arms of the Wheel moving while the gondola is docked, is
removed, allowing the Wheel to turn. In the central machine room an array of ten hydraulic motors
then begins to rotate the central axle. The axle connects to the outer arms of the Wheel, which
begin to rotate at a speed of 1/8 of a revolution per minute. As the wheel rotates, the gondolas are
kept in the upright position by a simple gearing system. Two eight-metre-wide cogs orbit a fixed
inner cog of the same width, connected by two smaller cogs travelling in the opposite direction to
the outer cogs – so ensuring that the gondolas always remain level. When the gondola reaches the
top, the boat passes straight onto the aqueduct situated 24 metres above the canal basin.

The remaining 11 metres of lift needed to reach the Union Canal is achieved by means of a pair
of locks. The Wheel could not be constructed to elevate boats over the full 35-metre difference
between the two canals, owing to the presence of the historically important Antonine Wall, which
was built by the Romans in the second century AD. Boats travel under this wall via a tunnel, then
through the locks, and finally on to the Union Canal.

120
Question 14̶19
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
14 The Falkirk Wheel has linked the Forth & Clyde Canal with the Union Canal for the first
time in their history.
15 There was some opposition to the design of the Falkirk Wheel at first.
16 The Falkirk Wheel was initially put together at the location where its components were
manufactured.
17 The Falkirk Wheel is the only boat lift in the world which has steel sections bolted together
by hand.
18 The weight of the gondolas varies according to the size of boat being carried.
19 The construction of the Falkirk Wheel site took into account the presence of a nearby
ancient monument.

Questions 20̶26
Label the diagram below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
How a boat is lifted on the Falkirk Wheel
A pair of 20 _________________ are lifted in order to
shut out water from canal basin
A 21 _________________ is taken out,
enabling Wheel to rotate
26 _________________
Hydraulic motors drive 22 _________________
raise boat 11m to
level of Union Canal
Boat is raised, floating

Boat travels through in one of Wheel’s two

tunnel beneath Roman gondolas

25 _________________

Boat reaches top Wheel, then moves A range of different-sized 23 _________________


directly onto 24 _________________ ensures boat keeps upright

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Listening 08
Classification questions |
Understanding agreement | Understanding paragraph structure 

Vocabulary
Form 3 pairs of antonyms from the following words.

differentiate heavy going similarity


domestic international understandable

1 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
2 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
3 ____________________________________________________________________________________________

In IELTS Listening Test


Classification questions often appear in Listening Parts 1 and 3.
In order to reach a decision, you will often hear people discussing a problem, suggesting
solutions and then reaching a decision.

Pre-listening
What is the intention of the phrases below? Write A, B, or C next to Questions 1‒10.

Purpose of the speaker


A make suggestion
B agree to a task
C refuse to do a task

1 Fine by me. 6 I'm not so keen.


2 How about this task? 7 That would do.
3 I honestly don't mind. 8 Unfortunately, I can’t.
4 I suppose it is fine. 9 Shall we do this?
5 I’ll do you a favour. 10 I would if I could.

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Part 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Presentation about refrigeration
21 What did Annie discover from reading about icehouses?
A why they were first created
B how the ice was kept frozen
C where they were located
22 What point does Annie make about refrigeration in ancient Rome?
A It became a commercial business.
B It used snow from nearby.
C It took a long time to become popular.
23 In connection with modern refrigerator, both Annie and Jack are worried about
A the complexity of the technology.
B the fact that some are disposed of irresponsibly.
C the large number that quickly break down.
24 What do Jack and Annie agree regarding domestic fridges?
A They are generally good value for money.
B There are plenty of useful variations.
C They are more useful than other domestic appliances.

Questions 25-30
Who is going to do research into each topic?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 25-30.

People
A Annie
B Jack
C both Annie and Jack

Topics
25 the goods that are refrigerated
26 the effects on health
27 the impact on food producers
28 the impact on cities
29 refrigerated transport
30 domestic fridges

123
Vocabulary
Choose the correct answers.
1 YouTube claimed it would delete misleading videos containing misinformation about
COVID-19 vaccines. misleading means _____ .
A conflicting C overwhelming
B false D scaring
2 I deleted the file by accident. by accident is the opposite of _____ .
A by chance C deliberately
B incidentally D in error
3 I was only trying to explain this game to you; I didn't want to sound patronizing.
patronizing means _____ .
A unintelligent C rude
B unsupported D offensively superior
4 An _____ is a newspaper article that expresses the editor's opinion on a topic at the present
time.
A edition C editorial
B editor D editorialization

Part 3 Questions 21-30


Questions 21-26
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

What Hazel should analyse about items in newspapers:


• what 21 _________________ the item is on
• the 22 _________________ of the item, including the headline
• any 23 _________________ accompanying the item
• the 24 _________________ of the item, e.g. what’s made prominent
• the writer’s main 25 _________________
• the 26 _________________ the writer may make about the reader

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Questions 27-30
What does Hazel decide to do about each of the following types of articles?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 27-30

A She will definitely look for a suitable article.


B She may look for a suitable article.
C She definitely won’t look for an article.

Types of articles
27 national news item
28 editorial
29 human interest
30 arts

IELTS Writing Task 2


Read the essay below.
Write a short paragraph using the suggested outline.

What are the advantages or disadvantages of online newspapers?

Content & Criteria Length

Introduce the main idea of the paragraph 1 sen

Body • Explain idea 1 - clear & logical


1-2 sen
Paragraph • Example (if possible) – reflect components of the main ideas
Structure
• Explain idea 2 - clear & logical
1-2 sen
• Example (if possible) – reflect components of the main ideas

Mini-conclusion - echo the topic sentence 1 sen

________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________

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Part 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO pieces of advice for the first week of an apprenticeship does the manager give?
A get to know colleagues
B learn from any mistakes
C ask lots of questions
D react positively to feedback
E enjoy new challenges

Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things does the manager say mentors can help with?
A confidence-building
B making career plans
C completing difficult tasks
D making a weekly timetable
E reviewing progress

Questions 15-20
What does the manager say about each of the following aspects of the company policy for
apprentices?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 15-20.

A It is encouraged.
B There are some restrictions.
C It is against the rules.

Company policy for apprentices


15 Using the internet
16 Flexible working
17 Booking holidays
18 Working overtime
19 Wearing trainers
20 Bringing food to work

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Part 3 Questions 26-30
Questions 21-25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21 What does Trevor find interesting about the purpose of children’s literature?
A the fact that authors may not realise what values they’re teaching
B the fact that literature can be entertaining and educational at the same time
C the fact that adults expect children to imitate characters in literature
22 Trevor says the module about the purpose of children’s literature made him
A analyse some of the stories that his niece reads.
B wonder how far popularity reflects good qualify.
C decide to start writing some children’s stories.
23 Stephanie is interested in the Pictures module because
A she intends to become an illustrator.
B she can remember beautiful illustrations from her childhood.
C she believes illustrations are more important than words.
24 Trevor and Stephanie agree that comics
A are inferior to books.
B have the potential for being useful.
C discourage children from using their imagination.
25 With regard to books aimed at only boys or only girls, Trevor was surprised
A how long the distinction had gone unquestioned.
B how few books were aimed at both girls and boys.
C how many children enjoyed books intended for the opposite sex.

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Questions 26-30
What comment is made about each of these stories?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30

Comments
A translated into many other languages
B hard to read
C inspired a work in a different area of art
D more popular than the author’s other works
E original title refers to another book
F started a new genre
G unlikely topic

Stories
26 Perrault’s fairy tales
27 The Swiss Family Robinson
28 The Nutcracker and the Mouse King
29 The Lord of the Rings
30 War Horse

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Reading 08
Completing a flow-chart |
Talking about age and aging

Vocabulary
Exercise 1
Match the highlighted words with the suitable meanings.

a to limit c to indicate e the act of causing or


b continuously d to replicate getting a disease

1 Plant-based meats are made entirely from vegetables but mimic the taste and texture of
animal meat.
2 It rained for days on end during our holiday.
3 Rising energy costs are constraining consumer and business spending.
4 Traditionally, weddings signify everlasting loyalty and love.
5 Research has shown that COVID-19 patients who are overweight or obese are more likely
to develop a more severe infection than patients of healthy weight.

Exercise 2
Which word is different from the others?
1 A extend B prolong C retain
2 A replicate B restrict C retard
3 A abundant B deficient C lack
4 A major B merely C only

In IELTS Reading Test


You should skim through the given flow-chart to understand the process.
In order to locate the information, you should look for dates, numbers, proper nouns which
are easy find because they stand out from the text.

129
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.
The Search for the Anti-aging Pill
In government laboratories and elsewhere, scientists are seeking a drug able to prolong life and
youthful vigor. Studies of caloric restriction are showing the way.

As researchers on aging noted recently, no treatment on the market today has been proved to slow
human aging - the build-up of molecular and cellular damage that increases vulnerability to infirmity
as we grow older. But one intervention, consumption of a low-calorie* yet nutritionally balanced
diet, works incredibly well in a broad range of animals, increasing longevity and prolonging good
health. Those findings suggest that caloric restriction could delay aging and increase longevity in
humans, too.
Unfortunately, for maximum benefit, people would probably have to reduce their caloric intake
by roughly thirty per cent, equivalent to dropping from 2,500 calories a day to 1,750. Few mortals
could stick to that harsh a regimen, especially for years on end. But what if someone could create
a pill that mimicked the physiological effects of eating less without actually forcing people to eat
less? Could such a ‘caloric-restriction mimetic’, as we call it, enable people to stay healthy longer,
postponing age-related disorders (such as diabetes, arteriosclerosis, heart disease and cancer) until
very late in life? Scientists first posed this question in the mid-1990s, after researchers came upon
a chemical agent that in rodents seemed to reproduce many of caloric restriction’s benefits. No
compound that would safely achieve the same feat in people has been found yet, but the search
has been informative and has fanned hope that caloric-restriction (CR) mimetics can indeed be
developed eventually.

The benefits of caloric restriction


The hunt for CR mimetics grew out of a desire to better understand caloric restriction’s many effects
on the body. Scientists first recognized the value of the practice more than 60 years ago, when they
found that rats fed a low-calorie diet lived longer on average than free-feeding rats and also had
a reduced incidence of conditions that become increasingly common in old age. What is more,
some of the treated animals survived longer than the oldest-living animals in the control group,
which means that the maximum lifespan (the oldest attainable age), not merely the normal lifespan,
increased. Various interventions, such as infection-fighting drugs, can increase a population’s
average survival time, but only approaches that slow the body’s rate of aging will increase the
maximum lifespan.

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The rat findings have been replicated many times and extended to creatures ranging from yeast to
fruit flies, worms, fish, spiders, mice and hamsters. Until fairly recently, the studies were limited to
short-lived creatures genetically distant from humans. But caloric-restriction projects underway in
two species more closely related to humans - rhesus and squirrel monkeys - have made scientists
optimistic that CR mimetics could help people.
The monkey projects demonstrate that, compared with control animals that eat normally, caloric-
restricted monkeys have lower body temperatures and levels of the pancreatic hormone insulin, and
they retain more youthful levels of certain hormones that tend to fall with age.
The caloric-restricted animals also look better on indicators of risk for age-related diseases. For
example, they have lower blood pressure and triglyceride levels (signifying a decreased likelihood
of heart disease), and they have more normal blood glucose levels (pointing to a reduced risk for
diabetes, which is marked by unusually high blood glucose levels). Further, it has recently been
shown that rhesus monkeys kept on caloric-restricted diets for an extended time (nearly 15 years)
have less chronic disease. They and the other monkeys must be followed still longer, however, to
know whether low-calorie intake can increase both average and maximum lifespans in monkeys.
Unlike the multitude of elixirs being touted as the latest anti-aging cure, CR mimetics would alter
fundamental processes that underlie aging. We aim to develop compounds that fool cells into
activating maintenance and repair.

How a prototype caloric-restriction mimetic works


The best-studied candidate for a caloric-restriction mimetic, 2DG (2-deoxy-D-glucose), works by
interfering with the way cells process glucose. It has proved toxic at some doses in animals and so
cannot be used in humans. But it has demonstrated that chemicals can replicate the effects of caloric
restriction; the trick is finding the right one.
Cells use the glucose from food to generate ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the molecule that powers
many activities in the body. By limiting food intake, caloric restriction minimizes the amount
of glucose entering cells and decreases ATP generation. When 2DG is administered to animals
that eat normally, glucose reaches cells in abundance but the drug prevents most of it from being
processed and thus reduces ATP synthesis. Researchers have proposed several explanations for why
interruption of glucose processing and ATP production might retard aging. One possibility relates
to the ATP-making machinery’s emission of free radicals, which are thought to contribute to aging
and to such age-related diseases as cancer by damaging cells. Reduced operation of the machinery
should limit their production and thereby constrain the damage. Another hypothesis suggests that
decreased processing of glucose could indicate to cells that food is scarce (even if it isn’t) and
induce them to shift into an anti-aging mode that emphasizes preservation of the organism over such
‘luxuries’ as growth and reproduction.

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Question 1̶5
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
Write YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
1 Studies show drugs available today can delay the process of growing old.
2 There is scientific evidence that eating fewer calorics may extend human life.
3 Not many people arc likely to find a caloric-restricted diet attractive.
4 Diet-related diseases arc common in older people.
5 In experiments, rats who ate what they wanted led shorter lives than rats on a low-calorie
diet.

Question 6̶10
Classify the following descriptions as relating to

A caloric-restricted monkeys
B control monkeys
C neither caloric-restricted monkeys nor control monkeys

6 Monkeys were less likely to become diabetic.


7 Monkeys experienced more chronic disease.
8 Monkeys have been shown to experience a longer than average life span.
9 Monkeys enjoyed a reduced chance of heart disease.
10 Monkeys produced greater quantities of insulin.

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Question 11̶13
Complete the flow-chart below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
How a caloric-restriction mimetic works

CR mimetic

less 11 _________________ is processed

production of ATP is decreased

Theory 1 Theory 2
cells less damaged by disease because cells focus on 13 _________________
fewer 12 _________________ are emitted because food is in short supply

Discussion
Work in groups.
Note down ideas to answer the following questions. Then, share your opinion with the class.
1 What do you like/dislike about getting older?
2 What can the younger generation learn from the older generation?

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.
THE DOVER BRONZE-AGE BOAT
A beautifully preserved boat, made around 3,000 years ago and discovered by chance in a muddy hole,
has had a profound impact on archaeological research.
It was 1992. In England, workmen were building a new road through the heart of Dover, to connect
the ancient port and the Channel Tunnel, which, when it opened just two years later, was to be the
first land link between Britain and Europe for over 10,000 years. A small team from the Canterbury
Archaeological Trust (CAT) worked alongside the workmen, recording new discoveries bought to
light by the machines.

At the base of the deep shaft six meters below the modern streets, a wooden structure was revealed.
Cleaning away the waterlogged site overlying the timbers, archaeologists realized its true nature. They
had found a prehistoric boat, preserved by the type of sediment in which it was buried. It was then
named by Dover Bronze- Age Boat.

About nine meters of the boat’s length was recovered; one end lay beyond the excavation and had to
be left. What survived consisted essentially of four intricately carved oak planks: two on the bottom,
joined along a central seam by a complicated system of wedges and stitched to the others. The seams
had been made watertight by pads of moss, fixed by wedges and yew stitches.

The timbers that closed the recovered end of the boat had been removed in antiquity when it was
abandoned, but much about its original shape could be deduced. There was also evidence for missing
upper side planks. The boat was not a wreck, but had been deliberately discarded, dismantled and
broken. Perhaps it had been “ritually killed” at the end of its life, like other Bronze-Age objects.

With hindsight, it was significant that the boat was found and studied by mainstream archaeologists
who naturally focused on its cultural context. At the time, ancient boats were often considered only
from a narrower technological perspective, but news about the Dover boat reached a broad audience. In
2002, on the tenth anniversary of the discovery, the Dover Bronze-Age Boat Trust hosted a conference,
where this meeting of different traditions became apparent. Alongside technical papers about the boat,
other speakers explored its social and economic contexts, and the religious perceptions of boats in
Bronze- Age societies. Many speakers came from overseas, and debate about cultural connections

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was renewed.

Within seven years of excavation, the Dover boat had been conserved and displayed, but it was apparent
that there were issues that could not be resolved simply by studying the old wood. Experimental
archaeology seemed to be the solution: a boat reconstruction, half-scale or full-sized, would permit
assessment of the different hypotheses regarding its build and the missing end. The possibility of
returning to Dover to search for a boat’s unexcavated northern end was explored, but practical and
financial difficulties were insurmountable- and there was no guarantee that the timbers had survived
the previous decade in the changed environment.

Detailed proposals to reconstruct the boat were drawn up in 2004. Archaeological evidence was
beginning to suggest a Bronze- Age community straddling the Channel, brought together by the sea,
rather than separated by it. In a region today divided by languages and borders, archaeologists had a
duty to inform the general public about their common cultural heritage.

The boat project began in England but it was conceived from the start as a European collaboration.
Reconstruction was only part of a scheme that would include a major exhibition and an extensive
educational and outreach programme. Discussions began early in 2005 with archaeological bodies,
universities and heritage organizations either side of the Channel. There was much enthusiasm and
support, and an official launch of the project was held at an international seminar in France in 2007.
Financial support was confirmed in 2008 and the project then named BOAT 1550BC got under way
in June 2011.

A small team began to make the boat at the start of 2012 on the Roman Lawn outside Dover museum.
A full- scale reconstruction of a mid-section had been made in 1996, primarily to see how Bronze- Age
replica tools performed. In 2012, however, the hull shape was at the centre of the work, so modern
power tools were used to carve the oak planks, before turning to prehistoric tools for finishing. It was
decided to make the replica haft-scale for reasons of cost and time, any synthetic materials were used
for the stitching, owing to doubts about the scaling and tight timetable.

Meanwhile, the exhibition was being prepared ready for opening in July 2012 at the Castle Museum in
Boulogne-sur-Mer. Entitled ‘Beyond the Horizon: Societies of the Channel & North Sea 3,500 years
ago’ it brought together for the first time a remarkable collection of Bronze- Age objects, including
many new discoveries for commercial archaeology and some of the great treasure of the past. The
reconstructed boat, as a symbol of the maritime connections that bound together the communities
either side of the Channel, was the centrepiece.

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Question 1̶5
Complete the flow-chart below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Key events

1992 ̶ the boat was discovered during the construction of a 1 _________________

2002 ̶ an international 2 _________________ was held to gather information

2004 ̶ 3 _________________ for the reconstruction were produced

2007 ̶ the 4 _________________ Of BOAT 1550BC took place

2012 ̶ the Bronze-Age 5 _________________ featured the boat and other objects

Question 6̶9
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
6 Archaeologists realized that the boat had been damaged on purpose.
7 Initially, only the technological aspects of the boat were examined.
8 Archaeologists went back to the site to try and find the missing northern.
9 Evidence found in 2004 suggested that the Bronze-Age Boat had been used for trade.

Question 10̶13
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.
10 How far under the ground was the boat found?
11 What natural material had been secured to the boat to prevent water entering?
12 What aspect of the boat was the focus of the 2012 reconstruction?
13 Which two factors influenced the decision not to make a full-scale reconstruction of the
boat?

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Listening 09
Listening revision |
Talking about electronic devices 

Vocabulary
Match the words a-f to the correct pictures 1-6.

1 2 3

4 5 6

a (to) abide by c erosion e pollutant


b drainage system d estuary f wetland

Part 3 Questions 26-30


Questions 21-25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Cities built by the sea
21 Carla and Rob were surprised to learn that coastal cities
A contain nearly half the world’s population.
B include most of the world’s largest cities.
C are growing twice as fast as other cities.

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22 According to Rob, building coastal cities near to rivers
A may bring pollution to the cities.
B may reduce the land available for agriculture.
C may mean the countryside is spoiled by industry.
23 What mistake was made when building water drainage channels in Miami in the 1950s?
A There were not enough for them.
B They were made of unsuitable materials.
C They did not allow for the effects of climate change.
24 What do Rob and Carla think that the authorities in Miami should do immediately?
A take measures to restore ecosystems
B pay for a new flood prevention system
C stop disposing of waste materials into the ocean
25 What do they agree should be the priority for international action?
A greater coordination of activities
B more sharing of information
C agreement on shared policies

Questions 26-30
What decision do the students make about each of the following parts of their presentation?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30

Decisions
A use visuals
B keep it short
C involve other students
D check the information is accurate
E provide a handout
F focus on one example
G do online research

Parts of the presentation


26 Historical background
27 Geographical factors
28 Past mistakes
29 Future risks
30 International implications

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Vocabulary
Complete the sentences below by using the correct form of the words in the box.

derive harness sediment standstill


erratic harvest silt

1 He _________________ great satisfaction from studying thermal energy.


2 To _________________ or _________________ means to collect and control something, for
example energy, so that it can be used effectively.
3 _________________ is sand or soil that is carried along by flowing water and then dropped,
especially at a bend in a river or at a river's opening, while the collection of this material is
called _________________ .
4 The dam construction has come to a _________________ due to bad weather conditions.
5 The electricity supply here is quite _________________ .

Part 4 Questions 31-40


Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Marine renewable energy (ocean energy)
Introduction
More energy required because of growth in population and 31 _________________
What’s needed:
• renewable energy sources
• methods that won’t create pollution
Wave energy
Advantage: waves provide a 32 _________________ source of renewable energy
Electricity can be generated using offshore or onshore systems
Onshore systems may use a reservoir
Problems:
• waves can move in any 33 _________________
• movement of sand, etc. on the 34 _________________ of the ocean may be affected

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Tidal energy
Tides are more 35 _________________ than waves
Planned tidal lagoon in Wales:
• will be created in a 36 _________________ at Swansea
• breakwater (dam) containing 16 turbines
• rising tide forces water through turbines, generating electricity
• stored water is released through 37 _________________ , driving the turbines in the
reverse direction
Advantages:
• not dependent on weather
• no 38 _________________ is required to make it work
• likely to create a number of 39 _________________
Problem:
• may ham fish and birds, e.g. by affecting 40 _________________ and building up silt
Ocean thermal energy conversion
Uses a difference in temperature between the surface and lower levels
Water brought to the surface in a pipe

IELTS Speaking Part 1


Work in groups. Take turns to ask and answer the following questions.
Then, share your ideas with the class.
1 What actions can individuals take to use water more efficiently?
2 What can we do to effectively use electricity economically?

IELTS Speaking Part 2


Describe a piece of electrical equipment that is important in your home.
You should say:
• what it is
• what its components are
• how you learned to use it
• what you used it for
and explain why you find this piece of electronic equipment important.

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Part 3 Questions 26-30
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO benefits of city bike-sharing schemes do the students agree are the most
important?
A reducing noise pollution
B reducing traffic congestion
C improving air quality
D encouraging health and fitness
E making cycling affordable

Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things do the students think are necessary for successful bike-sharing schemes?
A Bikes should have a GPS system.
B The app should be easy to use.
C Public awareness should be raised.
D Only one scheme should be available.
E There should be a large network of cycle lanes.

Questions 25‒30
What is the speakers’ opinion of the bike-sharing schemes in each of the following cities?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 25̶30.

Cities Opinion of bike-sharing scheme


25 Amsterdam A They agree it has been disappointing.
26 Dublin B They think it should be cheaper.
27 London C They are surprised it has been so successful.
28 Buenos Aires D They agree that more investment is required.
29 New York E They think the system has been well designed.
30 Sydney F They disagree about the reasons for its success.
G They think it has expanded too quickly.

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Part 4 Questions 31‒40
Questions 31‒40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The history of weather forecasting
Stoicism is still relevant today because of its 31 _________________ appeal.
Ancient Stoics
• Stoicism was founded over 2,000 years ago in Greece.
• The Stoics’ ideas are surprisingly well known, despite not being intended for
32 _________________ .
Stoic principles
• Happiness could be achieved by leading a virtuous life.
• Controlling emotions was essential.
• Epictetus said that external events cannot be controlled but the 33 _________________
people make in response can be controlled.
• A Stoic is someone who has a different view on experiences which others would
consider as 34 _________________ .
The influence of Stoicism
• George Washington organised a 35 _________________ about Cato to motivate his men.
• The French artist Delacroix was a Stoic.
• Adam Smith’s ideas on 36 _________________ were influenced by Stoicism.
• Some of today’s political leaders are inspired by the Stoics.
• Cognitive Behaviour Therapy (CBT)
‒ the treatment for 37 _________________ is based on ideas from Stoicism
‒ people learn to base their thinking on 38 _________________ .
• In business, people benefit from Stoicism by identifying obstacles as
39 _________________ .
Relevance of Stoicism
• It requires a lot of 40 _________________ but Stoicism can help people to lead a good life.
• It teaches people that having a strong character is more important than anything else.

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Reading 09
Practicing summary completion, matching endings and
matching information questions | Writing a paragraph

Vocabulary
Exercise 1
Form six pairs of synonym from the following word bank.

benchmark indiscriminate mixture threshold


cocktail irresponsible nourish thrive
flourish maintain nurture sustain

1 _________________________________________ 4 _________________________________________
2 _________________________________________ 5 _________________________________________
3 _________________________________________ 6 _________________________________________

Exercise 2
Guess the meanings of the following words based on the given pictures.

1 fertile (adj.) 2 degraded (adj.) 3 to cultivate (v.)

4 on the brink (fig.) 5 drone (n.) 6 to unify (v.)

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.

SAVING THE SOIL


More than a third of the Earth’s top layer is at risk.
Is there hope for our planet’s most precious resource?
A More than a third of the world’s soil is endangered, according to a recent UN report. If
we don’t slow the decline, all farmable soil could be gone in 60 years. Since soil grows
95% of our food, and sustains human life in other more surprising ways, that is a huge
problem.
B Peter Groffman, from the Cary Institute of Ecosystem Studies in New York, points
out that soil scientists have been warning about the degradation of the world’s soil
for decades. At the same time, our understanding of its importance to humans has
grown. A single gram of healthy soil might contain 100 million bacteria, as well as other
microorganisms such as viruses and fungi, living amid decomposing plants and various
minerals.
That means soils do not just grow our food, but are the source of nearly all our existing
antibiotics, and could be our best hope in the fight against antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
Soil is also an ally against climate change: as microorganisms within soil digest dead
animals and plants, they lock in their carbon content, holding three times the amount
of carbon as does the entire atmosphere. Soils also store water, preventing flood
damage: in the UK, damage to buildings, roads and bridges from floods caused by soil
degradation costs £233 million every year.
C If the soil loses its ability to perform these functions, the human race could be in
big trouble. The danger is not that the soil will disappear completely, but that the
microorganisms that give it its special properties will be lost. And once this has
happened, it may take the soil thousands of years to recover.
Agriculture is by far the biggest problem. In the wild, when plants grow they remove
nutrients from the soil, but then when the plants die and decay these nutrients are
returned directly to the soil. Humans tend not to return unused parts of harvested crops
directly to the soil to enrich it, meaning that the soil gradually becomes less fertile. In
the past we developed strategies to get around the problem, such as regularly varying
the types of crops grown, or leaving fields uncultivated for a season.

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D But these practices became inconvenient as populations grew and agriculture had to be
run on more commercial lines. A solution came in the early 20th century with the Haber-
Bosch process for manufacturing ammonium nitrate. Farmers have been putting this
synthetic fertiliser on their fields ever since.
But over the past few decades, it has become clear this wasn’t such a bright idea.
Chemical fertilisers can release polluting nitrous oxide into the atmosphere and excess
is often washed away with the rain, releasing nitrogen into rivers. More recently, we
have found that indiscriminate use of fertilisers hurts the soil itself, turning it acidic and
salty, and degrading the soil they are supposed to nourish.
E One of the people looking for a solution to his problem is Pius Floris, who started out
running a tree-care business in the Netherlands, and now advises some of the world’s
top soil scientists. He came to realise that the best way to ensure his trees flourished
was to take care of the soil, and has developed a cocktail of beneficial bacteria, fungi
and humus* to do this. Researchers at the University of Valladolid in Spain recently
used this cocktail on soils destroyed by years of fertiliser overuse. When they applied
Floris’s mix to the desert-like test plots, a good crop of plants emerged that were not
just healthy at the surface, but had roots strong enough to pierce dirt as hard as rock.
The few plants that grew in the control plots, fed with traditional fertilisers, were small
and weak
F However, measures like this are not enough to solve the global soil degradation
problem. To assess our options on a global scale we first need an accurate picture of
what types of soil are out there, and the problems they face. That’s not easy. For one
thing, there is no agreed international system for classifying soil. In an attempt to unify
the different approaches, the UN has created the Global Soil Map project. Researchers
from nine countries are working together to create a map linked to a database that can
be fed measurements from field surveys, drone surveys, satellite imagery, lad analyses
and so on to provide real-time data on the state of the soil. Within the next four years,
they aim to have mapped soils worldwide to a depth of 100 metres, with the results
freely accessible to all.
G But this is only a first step. We need ways of presenting the problem that bring it
home to governments and the wider public, says Pamela Chasek at the International
Institute for Sustainable Development, in Winnipeg, Canada. ‘Most scientists don’t
speak language that policy-makers can understand, and vice versa.’ Chasek and
her colleagues have proposed a goal of ‘zero net land degradation’. Like the idea of
carbon neutrality, it is an easily understood target that can help shape expectations and
encourage action.

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For soils on the brink, that may be too late. Several researchers are agitating for the
immediate creation of protected zones for endangered soils. One difficulty here is
defining what these areas should conserve: areas where the greatest soil diversity is
present? Or areas of unspoilt soils that could act as a future benchmark of quality?
Whatever we do, if we want our soils to survive, we need to take action now.

Questions 14-17
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.
Why soil degradation could be a disaster for humans
Healthy soil contains a large variety of bacteria and other microorganisms, as well as plant
remains and 14 _________________ It provides us with food and also with antibiotics, and its
function in storing 15 _________________ has a significant effect on the climate. In addition, it
prevents damage to property and infrastructure because it holds 16 _________________ .

If these microorganisms are lost, soil may lose its special properties. The main factor
contributing to soil degradation is the 17 _________________ carried out by humans.

Questions 18-21
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F below.
Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 18-21 on your answer sheet.
18 Nutrients contained in the unused parts of harvested crops
19 Synthetic fertilisers produced with Haber-Bosch process
20 Addition of a mixture developed by Pius Floris to the soil
21 The idea of zero net soil degradation

A may improve the number and quality of plants growing there.


B may contain data from up to nine countries.
C may not be put back into the soil.
D may help governments to be more aware of soil-related issues.
E may cause damage to different aspects of the environment.
F may be better for use at a global level.

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Questions 22-26
Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Which section contains the following information?
NB You may use any letter more than once.
22 a reference to one person’s motivation for a soil-improvement project
23 an explanation of how soil stayed healthy before the development of farming
24 examples of different ways of collecting information on soil degradation
25 a suggestion for a way of keeping some types of soil safe in the near future
26 a reason why it is difficult to provide an overview of soil degradation

IELTS Writing Task 2


Write a short paragraph about the causes OR solutions to soil degradation in your country.
You may resort to information from the text and/or the Internet.

Content & Criteria Length

Introduce the main idea of the paragraph 1 sen

Paragraph • Explanation of the causes of soil degradation or


Outline • Suggstion of the solution to soil degradation - 1-2 sen
Suggestion clear & logical

• Example (if possible) – reflect components of the main ideas 1-2 sen

Mini-conclusion - revisit the main idea 1 sen

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.

HOW BABY TALK GIVES INFANT BRAINS A BOOST

A The typical way of talking to a baby – high-pitched, exaggerated and repetitious – is a


source of fascination for linguists who hope to understand how ‘baby talk’ impacts on
learning. Most babies start developing their hearing while still in the womb, prompting
some hopeful parents to play classical music to their pregnant bellies. Some research
even suggests that infants are listening to adult speech as early as 10 weeks before being
born, gathering the basic building blocks of their family’s native tongue.
B Early language exposure seems to have benefits to the brain – for instance, studies
suggest that babies raised in bilingual homes are better at learning how to mentally
prioritize information. So how does the sweet if sometimes absurd sound of infant-directed
speech influence a baby’s development? Here are some recent studies that explore the
science behind baby talk.
C Fathers don’t use baby talk as often or in the same ways as mothers – and that’s perfectly
OK, according to a new study. Mark VanDam of Washington State University at Spokane
and colleagues equipped parents with recording devices and speech-recognition software
to study the way they interacted with their youngsters during a normal day. ‘We found
that moms do exactly what you’d expect and what’s been described many times over,’
VanDam explains. ‘But we found that dads aren’t doing the same thing. Dads didn’t raise
their pitch or fundamental frequency when they talked to kids.’ Their role may be rooted
in what is called the bridge hypothesis, which dates back to 1975. It suggests that fathers
use less familial language to provide their children with a bridge to the kind of speech
they’ll hear in public. ‘The idea is that a kid gets to practice a certain kind of speech with
mom and another kind of speech with dad, so the kid then has a wider repertoire of kinds
of speech to practice,’ says VanDam.
D Scientists from the University of Washington and the University of Connecticut collected
thousands of 30-second conversations between parents and their babies, fitting 26
children with audio-recording vests that captured language and sound during a typical
eight-hour day. The study found that the more baby talk parents used, the more their
youngsters began to babble. And when researchers saw the same babies at age two,

148
they found that frequent baby talk had dramatically boosted vocabulary, regardless of
socioeconomic status. ‘Those children who listened to a lot of baby talk were talking more
than the babies that listened to more adult talk or standard speech,’ says Nairán Ramirez-
Esparza of the University of Connecticut. ‘We also found that it really matters whether you
use baby talk in a one-on-one context,’ she adds. ‘The more parents use baby talk one-
on-one, the more babies babble, and the more they babble, the more words they produce
later in life.’
E Another study suggests that parents might want to pair their youngsters up so they can
babble more with their own kind. Researchers from McGill University and Université du
Québec à Montréal found that babies seem to like listening to each other rather than
to adults – which may be why baby talk is such a universal tool among parents. They
played repeating vowel sounds made by a special synthesizing device that mimicked
sounds made by either an adult woman or another baby. This way, only the impact of the
auditory cues was observed. The team then measured how long each type of sound held
the infants’ attention. They found that the ‘infant’ sounds held babies’ attention nearly
40 percent longer. The baby noises also induced more reactions in the listening infants,
like smiling or lip moving, which approximates sound making. The team theorizes that
this attraction to other infant sounds could help launch the learning process that leads to
speech. ‘It may be some property of the sound that is just drawing their attention,’ says
study co-author Linda Polka. ‘Or maybe they are really interested in that particular type
of sound because they are starting to focus on their own ability to make sounds. We are
speculating here but it might catch their attention because they recognize it as a sound
they could possibly make.’In a study published in Proceedings of the National Academy
of Sciences, a total of 57 babies from two slightly different age groups – seven months
and eleven and a half months – were played a number of syllables from both their native
language (English) and a non-native tongue (Spanish). The infants were placed in a
brain-activation scanner that recorded activity in a brain region known to guide the motor
movements that produce speech. The results suggest that listening to baby talk prompts
infant brains to start practicing their language skills. ‘Finding activation in motor areas the
baby brain is engaged in trying to talk back right from the start, and suggests that seven-
month-olds’ brains are already trying to figure out how to make interesting finding was that
while the seven-month-olds responded to all speech sounds regardless of language, the
brains of the older infants worked harder at the motor activations of non-native sounds
compared to native sounds. The study may have also uncovered a process by which
babies recognize differences between their native language and other tongues.

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Questions 14̶17
Look at the following ideas (Questions 14-17) and the list of researchers below.
Match each idea with the correct researcher, A, B or C.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
14 the importance of adults giving babies individual attention when talking to them
15 the connection between what babies hear and their own efforts to create speech
16 the advantage for the baby of having two parents each speaking in a different way
17 the connection between the amount of baby talk babies hear and how much vocalising
they do themselves

List of Researchers
A Mark VanDam
B Nairán Ramirez-Esparza
C Patricia Kuhl

Questions 18-23
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Research into how parents talk to babies


Researchers at Washington State University used 18 _________________ , together with
specialised computer programs, to analyse how parents interacted with their babies during a
normal day. The study revealed that 19 _________________ tended not to modify their ordinary
speech patterns when interacting with their babies. According to an idea known as the
20 _________________ , they may use a more adult type of speech to prepare infants for the
language they will hear outside the family home. According to the researchers, hearing baby
talk from one parent and ‘normal’ language from the other expands the baby’s
21 _________________ of types of speech which they can practise.

Meanwhile, another study carried out by scientists from the University of Washington and the
University of Connecticut recorded speech and sound using special 22 _________________ that
the babies were equipped with. When they studies the babies again at age two, the found that
those who had heard a lot of baby talk in infancy had a much larger 23 _________________ than
those who had not.

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Questions 24̶26
Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A̶F.
Which section contains the following information?
NB You may use any letter more than once.
24 a reference to a change which occurs in babies’ brain activity before the end of their first
year
25 an example of what some parents do for their baby’s benefit before birth
26 a mention of babies’ preference for the sounds that other babies make

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Revision 02

Exercise 1
Complete the sentences below by using the correct form of the words in the box.

abundant employ infection signify


deviate fertile sustain understandable

1 Stay on topic! Your presentation outline tends to _________________ from the general theme
of Vietnamese modern literature.
2 Apple Inc. only _________________ the most advanced technology to produce high
performance and user-friendly devices.
3 Without global action, our national efforts at _________________ development could be
meaningless.
4 The surrounding district is well cultivated and produces an _________________ of vegetables.
5 When it comes to _________________ disease, infants and young children are some of the
most vulnerable members of society.
6 Yellow roses are known to _________________ friendship and joy.
7 Rainfall is minimal and the land here is _________________ , marked by erosion and extreme
dryness.
8 Nestlé is the largest food company in the world. Therefore, it’s _________________ that a
certain number of errors will happen, and the occasional scandal will occur.

Exercise 2
Choose the options with the same meaning as the words in bold.
1 The house should be opened for air circulation in all mild weather in winter, and daily
throughout the rest of the year.
A ventilation B escape C blow D conditioner
2 Many international fast food corporations have failed to get into Vietnam’s market because
we have such a diverse culture of street food.
A succeed B transform C penetrate D expand

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3 In our website, study mode is designed to maximize learning by providing feedback, while
certification mode is designed to mimic a certification exam.
A create B innovate C discriminate D imitate
4 People who are living on minimum wage and near the poverty level may need more help
than just some free food.
A threshold B edge C brink D limitation
5 A major goal of the program is to improve and nurture mutual understanding and
appreciation between scholars from different countries.
A raise B breed C cultivate D celebrate
6 Although Edinburgh is a residential rather than a manufacturing or commercial centre,
the industries that it has are flourishing.
A flushing B thriving C declining D vanishing
7 Online communication has helped us reduce time and distance barriers.
A fences B difficult C stumbles D constraints
8 The television programme should be designed to educate and not only to entertain.
A primary B merely C simple D most
9 You can obtain great benefits from a vegan diet.
A thrive B survive C derive D arrive
10 In 2016, 195 countries signed to follow the terms of the Paris Protocol, which was designed
to control the release of greenhouse gases.
A comply B chase after C pursue D abide by

Part 3 Questions 26-30


Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Assignment on sleep and dreams
21 Luke read that one reason why we often forget dreams is that
A our memories cannot cope with too much information.
B we might other wise be confused about what is real.
C we do not think they are important.
22 What do Luke and Susie agree about dreams predicting the future?
A It may just be due to chance.
B It only happens with certain types of event.
C It happens more often than some people think.

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23 Susie says that a study on pre-school children having a short nap in the day
A had controversial results.
B used faulty research methodology.
C failed to reach any clear conclusions.
24 In their last assignment, both students had problems with
A statistical analysis.
B making an action plan.
C self-assessment

Questions 25‒30
Complete the flow chart below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Assignment plan

Decide on research question:


Is there a relationship between hours of sleep and number of dreams?

Decide on sample:
Twelve students from the 25 _________________ department

Decide on methodology:
Self-reporting

Decide on procedure:
Answers on 26 _________________

Check ethical guidelines for working with 27 _________________


Ensure that risk is assessed and 28 _________________ is kept to a minimum

Analyse the results


Calculate the correlation and make a 29 _________________

30 _________________ the research

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on Reading Passage
3 below.

Questions 27̶32
Reading passage 3 has six sections, A̶F.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

List of Headings
i
An increasing divergence of attitudes towards AI
ii Reasons why we have more faith in human judgement than in AI
iii The superiority of AI projections over those made by humans
iv The process by which AI can help us make good decisions
v The advantages of involving users in AI processes
vi Widespread distrust of an AI innovation
vii Encouraging openness about how AI functions
viii A surprisingly successful AI application

27 Section A
28 Section B
29 Section C
30 Section D
31 Section E
32 Section F

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Attitudes towards Artificial Intelligence
A Artificial intelligence (AI) can already predict the future. Police forces are using it to map when
and where crime is likely to occur. Doctors can use it to predict when a patient is most likely to
have a heart attack or stroke. Researchers are even trying to give AI imagination so it can plan
for unexpected consequences.
Many decisions in our lives require a good forecast, and AI is almost always better at
forecasting than we are. Yet for all these technological advances, we still seem to deeply lack
confidence in AI predictions. Recent cases show that people don’t like relying on AI and prefer
to trust human experts, even if these experts are wrong.
If we want AI to really benefit people, we need to find a way to get people to trust it. To do that,
we need to understand why people are so reluctant to trust AI in the first place.

B Take the case of Watson for Oncology, one of technology giant IBM’s supercomputer programs.
Their attempt to promote this program to cancer doctors was a PR disaster. The AI promised
to deliver top-quality recommendations on the treatment of 12 cancers that accounted for 80%
of the world’s cases. But when doctors first interacted with Watson, they found themselves in
a rather difficult situation. On the one hand, if Watson provided guidance about a treatment
that coincided with their own opinions, physicians did not see much point in Watson’s
recommendations. The supercomputer was simply telling them what they already knew, and
these recommendations did not change the actual treatment.
On the other hand, if Watson generated a recommendation that contradicted the experts’
opinion, doctors would typically conclude that Watson wasn’t competent. And the machine
wouldn’t be able to explain why its treatment was plausible because its machine-learning
algorithms were simply too complex to be fully understood by humans. Consequently, this
has caused even more suspicion and disbelief, leading many doctors to ignore the seemingly
outlandish AI recommendations and stick to their own expertise.

C This is just one example of people’s lack of confidence in AI and their reluctance to accept what
AI has to offer. Trust in other people is often based on our understanding of how others think
and having experience of their reliability. This helps create a psychological feeling of safety. AI,
on the other hand, is still fairly new and unfamiliar to most people. Even if it can be technically
explained (and that’s not always the case), AI’s decision-making process is usually too difficult
for most people to comprehend. And interacting with something we don’t understand can cause
anxiety and give us a sense that we’re losing control.

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Many people are also simply not familiar with many instances of AI actually working, because
it often happens in the background. Instead, they are acutely aware of instances where AI
goes wrong. Embarrassing AI failures receive a disproportionate amount of media attention,
emphasising the message that we cannot rely on technology. Machine learning is not foolproof,
in part because the humans who design it aren’t.

D Feelings about AI run deep. In a recent experiment, people from a range of backgrounds were
given various sci-fi films about AI to watch and then asked questions about automation in
everyday life. It was found that, regardless of whether the film they watched depicted AI in
a positive or negative light, simply watching a cinematic vision of our technological future
polarised the participants’ attitudes. Optimists became more extreme in their enthusiasm for AI
and sceptics became even more guarded.
This suggests people use relevant evidence about AI in a biased manner to support their existing
attitudes, a deep-rooted human tendency known as “confirmation bias”. As AI is represented
more and more in media and entertainment, it could lead to a society split between those who
benefit from AI and those who reject it. More pertinently, refusing to accept the advantages
offered by AI could place a large group of people at a serious disadvantage.

E Fortunately, we already have some ideas about how to improve trust in AI. Simply having
previous experience with AI can significantly improve people’s opinions about the technology,
as was found in the study mentioned above. Evidence also suggests the more you use other
technologies such as the internet, the more you trust them.Another solution may be to reveal
more about the algorithms which AI uses and the purposes they serve. Several high-profile
social media companies and online marketplaces already release transparency reports about
government requests and surveillance disclosures. A similar practice for AI could help people
have a better understanding of the way algorithmic decisions are made.Research suggests that
allowing people some control over AI decision-making could also improve trust and enable
AI to learn from human experience. For example, one study showed that when people were
allowed the freedom to slightly modify an algorithm, they felt more satisfied with its decisions,
more likely to believe it was superior and more likely to use it in the future.
We don’t need to understand the intricate inner workings of AI systems, but if people are given
a degree of responsibility for how they are implemented, they will be more willing to accept AI
into their lives.

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Question 33̶35
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
33 What is the writer doing in Section A?
A providing a solution to a concern
B justifying an opinion about an issue
C highlighting the existence of a problem
D explaining the reasons for a phenomenon
34 According to Section C, why might some people be reluctant to accept AI?
A They are afraid it will replace humans in decision-making jobs.
B Its complexity makes them feel that they are at a disadvantage.
C They would rather wait for the technology to be tested over a period of time.
D Misunderstandings about how it works make it seem more challenging than it is.
35 What does the writer say about the media in Section C of the text?
A It leads the public to be mistrustful of AI.
B It devotes an excessive amount of attention to AI.
C Its reports of incidents involving AI are often inaccurate.
D It gives the impression that AI failures are due to designer error.

Question 36̶40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
Write YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
36 Subjective depictions of AI in sci-fi films make people change their opinions about
automation.
37 Portrayals of AI in media and entertainment are likely to become more positive.
38 Rejection of the possibilities of AI may have a negative effect on many people’s lives.
39 Familiarity with AI has very little impact on people’s attitudes to the technology.
40 AI applications which users are able to modify are more likely to gain consumer approval.

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159
Listening 01

Exercise 1
Fill in the blank using the words in the box.

contrast fragile frame furniture properly

1 The workmanship that went into some of these pieces of _________________ was truly
remarkable.
2 To use _________________ effectively when taking photos, you will have to pay close attention
to the lighting conditions and the way different colors affect each other within a scene
3 Instead of keeping photos on my phone, I often _________________ some of them to give to
my boyfriend or family members as gifts for their special occasions.
4 If not cared for _________________ , photographs can crack and curl.
5 Old photographic prints can become _________________ over time, so more people prefer
keeping digital photos.

Exercise 2
Listen to the recording and write down the names you hear. Not all names will be spelt.
1 Dr _________________
2 Richard _________________
3 Miss _________________
4 Mr _________________
5 Robert _________________
6 Emily _________________
7 Nora _________________
8 Mrs Caroline _________________
9 Charles _________________
10 _________________ Ford

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Exercise 3
Complete the notes below.
Write THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Host Family Applicant

Example
Name: Jenny Chan
Present Address: Sea View Guesthouse 1 _________________
Day time telephone number: 2237676
[N.B. best time to contact is between 9 and
2 _________________ ]
Age: 19
Intended length of stay: 3 _________________
Occupation while in UK: Student
General Level of English: 4 _________________
Preferred location: In the 5 _________________
Special diet: 6 _________________
Other requirements: • own facilities
• own television
• have a real 7 _________________
• to be 8 _________________
• Maximum price to be the only
9 £ _________________ per week
Preferred starting date: Monday 10 _________________

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Reading 01

Exercise 1
Fill in the blank using the words in the box.

advantage perplexing possessions prospects remains

1 Four months on from the fateful moment the first person likely fell ill with Covid-19,
scientists still have some _________________ questions to answer.
2 High achievement in academic subjects can bring students a chance to have more
promising career _________________ in the future.
3 Wealth and material _________________ should be viewed as a sign of success rather than
happiness.
4 Today, in most countries, archaeological _________________ become the property of the
country where they were found, regardless of who finds them.
5 Students studying at an international school often have an _________________ over those at
a public school.

Exercise 2
Find five pairs of synonyms from words given in the box.

accompany enthusiastic goal keen significance


aim go with importance route track

1 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
2 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
3 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
4 ____________________________________________________________________________________________
5 ____________________________________________________________________________________________

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Exercise 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14‒26 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.

Questions 14̶20
Reading passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A̶G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

List of Headings
i The areas and artefacts within the pyramid itself
ii A difficult task for those involved
iii A king who saved his people
iv A single certainty among other less definite facts
v An overview of the external buildings and areas
vi A pyramid design that others copied
vii An idea for changing the design of burial structures
viii An incredible experience despite the few remains
ix The answers to some unexpected questions

14 Section A
15 Section B
16 Section C
17 Section D
18 Section E
19 Section F
20 Section G

The Step Pyramid of Djoser


A The pyramids are the most famous monuments of ancient Egypt and still hold enormous
interest for people in the present day. These grand, impressive tributes to the memory of the
Egyptian kings have become linked with the country even though other cultures, such as
the Chinese and Mayan, also built pyramids. The evolution of the pyramid form has been
written and argued about for centuries. However, there is no question that, as far as Egypt is
concerned, it began with one monument to one king designed by one brilliant architect: the
Step Pyramid of Djoser at Saqqara.

163
B Djoser was the first king of the Third Dynasty of Egypt and the first to build in stone. Prior to
Djoser’s reign, tombs were rectangular monuments made of dried clay brick, which covered
underground passages where the deceased person was buried. For reasons which remain
unclear, Djoser’s main official, whose name was Imhotep, conceived of building a taller, more
impressive tomb for his king by stacking stone slabs on top of one another, progressively
making them smaller, to form the shape now known as the Step Pyramid. Djoser is thought to
have reigned for 19 years, but some historians and scholars attribute a much longer time for
his rule, owing to the number and size of the monuments he built.
C The Step Pyramid has been thoroughly examined and investigated over the last century, and
it is now known that the building process went through many different stages. Historian Marc
Van de Mieroop comments on this, writing ‘Much experimentation was involved, which is
especially clear in the construction of the pyramid in the center of the complex. It had several
plans … before it became the first Step Pyramid in history, piling six levels on top of one
another … The weight of the enormous mass was a challenge for the builders, who placed the
stones at an inward incline in order to prevent the monument breaking up.’
D When finally completed, the Step Pyramid rose 62 meters high and was the tallest structure of
its time. The complex in which it was built was the size of a city in ancient Egypt and included
a temple, courtyards, shrines, and living quarters for the priests. It covered a region of 16
hectares and was surrounded by a wall 10.5 meters high. The wall had 13 false doors cut into
it with only one true entrance cut into the south-east corner; the entire wall was then ringed by
a trench 750 meters long and 40 meters wide. The false doors and the trench were incorporated
into the complex to discourage unwanted visitors. If someone wished to enter, he or she would
have needed to know in advance how to find the location of the true opening in the wall.
Djoser was so proud of his accomplishment that he broke the tradition of having only his own
name on the monument and had Imhotep’s name carved on it as well.
E The burial chamber of the tomb, where the king’s body was laid to rest, was dug beneath the
base of the pyramid, surrounded by a vast maze of long tunnels that had rooms off them to
discourage robbers. One of the most mysterious discoveries found inside the pyramid was
a large number of stone vessels. Over 40,000 of these vessels, of various forms and shapes,
were discovered in storerooms off the pyramid’s underground passages. They are inscribed
with the names of rulers from the First and Second Dynasties of Egypt and made from
different kinds of stone. There is no agreement among scholars and archaeologists on why
the vessels were placed in the tomb of Djoser or what they were supposed to represent. The
archaeologist Jean-Philippe Lauer, who excavated most of the pyramid and complex, believes
they were originally stored and then give a ‘proper burial’ by Djoser in his pyramid to honor
his predecessors. There are other historians, however, who claim the vessels were dumped

164
into the shafts as yet another attempt to prevent grave robbers from getting to the king’s burial
chamber.
F Unfortunately, all of the precautions and intricate design of the underground network did
not prevent ancient robbers from finding a way in. Djoser’s grave goods, and even his body,
were stolen at some point in the past and all archaeologists found were a small number of his
valuables overlooked by the thieves. There was enough left throughout the pyramid and its
complex, however, to astonish and amaze the archaeologists who excavated it.
G Egyptologist Miroslav Verner writes, ‘Few monuments hold a place in human history as
significant as that of the Step Pyramid in Saqqara … It can be said without exaggeration
that this pyramid complex constitutes a milestone in the evolution of monumental stone
architecture in Egypt and in the world as a whole.’ The Step Pyramid was a revolutionary
advance in architecture and became the archetype which all the other great pyramid builders of
Egypt would follow.

Questions 21̶24
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

The Step Pyramid of Djoser


The complex that includes the Step Pyramid and its surroundings is considered to be as big as an
Egyptian 21 _________________ of the past. The area outside the pyramid included accommodation
that was occupied by 22 _________________ , along with many other buildings and features.

A wall ran around the outside of the complex and a number of false entrances were built into
this. In addition, a long 23 _________________ encircled the wall. As a result, any visitors who had
not been invited were cleverly prevented from entering the pyramid grounds unless they knew
the 24 _________________ of the real entrance.

Questions 25 and 26
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO of the following points does the writer make about King Djoser?
A Initially he had to be persuaded to build in stone rather than clay.
B There is disagreement concerning the length of his reign.
C He failed to appreciate Imhotep’s part in the design of the Step Pyramid.
D A few of his possessions were still in his tomb when archaeologists found it.
E He criticised the design and construction of other pyramids in Egypt.

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Listening 02

Exercise 1
Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks.
1 Travelers always enjoy relaxing on a private _____ with a panoramic view of a river.
A hotel B balcony C stair
2 The government provides help for small businesses, but it cannot _____ their success.
A guarantee B overlook C found
3 The new government’s policy is to _____ state industries from the public sector to the
private sector.
A arrive B transfer C guarantee
4 My room is on the third floor and it _____ a public garden nearby.
A passes B transfers C overlooks
5 From jagged mountains in the north to tropical beaches in the south and the wealth of
history and culture in between, these are the best _____ to visit in Vietnam.
A industries B competitors C destinations

Exercise 2
Questions 1‒5
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

3D Film Choice
Name of film Time What you will see

The Secrets of the Nile 10.00 a.m. The first 1 ________________ along
the river Nile

2 ________________ Ocean 11.45 a.m. Life at the bottom of the sea

166
Dinosaurs Alive 3 ________________ A re-creation of a 4 ________________ of
dinosaur

Arabia 2.30 p.m. A trip across the 5 ________________ and


a dive in the Red Sea

Exercise 3
Questions 1‒8
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Natural History day: Morning events


All events begin at 9.30. You must attend one of these.

Name of event Theme or Topic Type of event Location

Dogs might fly Animal Lecture and group Room 27


1 ________________ 2 ________________

Flowers talk How plants might Video presentation 4 ________________


3 ________________

A world in your Local animal and 6 ________________ Local park


5 ________________ plant life

I’m not touching that Snakes and other Workshop 8 ________________ lab
7 ________________

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Reading 02

Exercise 1
Match the words 1-6 with their definitions a-f.
1 immortal a far away from other places, buildings, or people; remote.
2 deteriorate b an animal that kills and eats other animals
3 isolated c in a way that is angry and threatening
4 prey d an animal, a bird, etc. that is hunted, killed and eaten by another
5 aggressively e to become worse
6 predator f that lives or lasts forever

Exercise 2
Fill in the blanks with a correct preposition.
1 China has reacted _____ reports of unsafe products by cracking down on its own
manufacturers.
2 Efforts must double to respond _____ the outbreak of the epidemic.
3 Global climate change has already had observable effects _____ the environment.
4 Most employers understand that parents need to take care _____ important family matters.
5 Aging can be associated _____ serious health issues such as cardiovascular disease, cancer
and arthritis.
6 The media focus _____ politicians’ private lives inevitably switches the attention away from
the real issues.

168
Exercise 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

The History of Glass


From our earliest origins, man has been making use of glass. Historians have discovered that a
type of natural glass – obsidian – formed in places such as the mouth of a volcano as a result of
the intense heat of an eruption melting sand – was first used as tips for spears. Archaeologists
have even found evidence of man-made glass which dates back to 4000 BC; this took the form of
glazes used for coating stone beads. It was not until 1500 BC, however, that the first hollow glass
container was made by covering a sand core with a layer of molten glass.

Glass blowing became the most common way to make glass containers from the first century BC.
The glass made during this time was highly coloured due to the impurities of the raw material. In
the first century AD, methods of creating colourless glass were developed, which was then tinted
by the addition of colouring materials. The secret of glass making was taken across Europe by
the Romans during this century. However, they guarded the skills and technology required to
make glass very closely, and it was not until their empire collapsed in 476 AD that glass-making
knowledge became widespread throughout Europe and the Middle East. From the 10th century
onwards, the Venetians gained a reputation for technical skill and artistic ability in the making of
glass bottles, and many of the city’s craftsmen left Italy to set up glassworks throughout Europe.

A major milestone in the history of glass occurred with the invention of lead crystal glass by the
English glass manufacturer George Ravenscroft (1632-1683). He attempted to counter the effect
of clouding that sometimes occurred in blown glass by introducing lead to the raw materials used
in the process. The new glass he created was softer and easier to decorate, and had a higher
refractive index, adding to its brilliance and beauty, and it proved invaluable to the optical industry. It
is thanks to Ravenscroft’s invention that optical lenses, astronomical telescopes, microscopes and
the like became possible.

In Britain, the modern glass industry only really started to develop after the repeal of the Excise
Act in 1845. Before that time, heavy taxes had been placed on the amount of glass melted in a
glasshouse, and were levied continuously from 1745 to 1845. Joseph Paxton’s Crystal Palace at

169
London’s Great Exhibition of 1851 marked the beginning of glass as a material used in the building
industry. This revolutionary new building encouraged the use of glass in public, domestic and
horticultural architecture. Glass manufacturing techniques also improved with the advancement of
science and the development of better technology.

From 1887 onwards, glass making developed from traditional mouth-blowing to a semi-automatic
process, after factory-owner HM Ashley introduced a machine capable of producing 200 bottles
per hour in Castleford, Yorkshire, England – more than three times quicker than any previous
production method. Then in 1907, the first fully automated machine was developed in the USA by
Michael Owens – founder of the Owens Bottle Machine Company (later the major manufacturers
Owens-Illinois) – and installed in its factory. Owens’ invention could produce an impressive 2,500
bottles per hour. Other developments followed rapidly, but it was not until the First World War, when
Britain became out off from essential glass suppliers, that glass became part of the scientific sector.
Previous to this, glass had been as a craft rather than a precise science.

Today, glass making is big business. It has become a modern, hi-tech industry operating in a
fiercely competitive global market where quality, design and service levels are critical to maintaining
market share. Modern glass plants are capable of making millions of glass containers a day in
many different colours, with green, brown and clear remaining the most popular. Few of us can
imagine modern life without glass. It features in almost every aspect of our lives – in our homes, our
cars and whenever we sit down to eat or drink. Glass packaging is used for many products, many
beverages are sold in glass, as are numerous foodstuffs, as well as medicines and cosmetics.

Glass is an ideal material for recycling, and with growing consumer concern for green issues, glass
bottles and jars are becoming ever more popular. Glass recycling is good news for the environment.
It saves used glass containers being sent to landfill. As less energy is needed to melt recycled
glass than to melt down raw materials, this also saves fuel and production costs. Recycling also
reduces the need for raw materials to be quarried, thus saving precious resources.

170
Questions 1̶8
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

The History of Glass


• Early humans used a material called 1 _________________ to make the sharp points
of their 2 _________________ .
• 4000 BC: 3 _________________ made of stone were covered in a coating of man-
made glass.
• First century BC: glass was coloured because of the 4 _________________ in the
material.
• Until 476 AD: Only the 5 _________________ knew how to make glass.
• From 10th century: Venetians became famous for making bottles out of glass.
• 17th century: George Ravenscroft developed a process using 6 _________________
to avoid the occurrence of 7 _________________ in blown glass.
• Mid-19th century: British glass production developed after changes to laws
concerning 8 _________________ .

Question 9̶13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
9 In 1887, HM Ashley had the fastest bottle-producing machine that existed at the time.
10 Michael Owens was hired by a large US company to design a fully-automated bottle
manufacturing machine for them.
11 Nowadays, most glass is produced by large international manufacturers.
12 Concern for the environment is leading to an increased demand for glass containers.
13 It is more expensive to produce recycled glass than to manufacture new glass.

171
Listening 03

Exercise 1
Write the correct form of the given words.
1 Data _________________ (analyze) is defined as a process of cleaning, transforming, and
modeling data to discover useful information for business decision-making.
2 _________________ (politics) change is so important because our government controls many
different aspects of our lives.
3 A great deal of _________________ (science) research is being performed in this area.
4 There is concern about the _________________ (appropriate) of the use of force by police
officers.
5 _________________ (theory) , there is the challenge of contributing to current debates on how
music is perceived, understood and used as an effective means of communication.

Exercise 2
Questions 1‒5
Complete the flowchart below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

172
Step 1: Schematic Design Stage
Architect uses various tools to assess the 1 ________________ .

Step 2: Design Development Stage


Design starts to take shape and 2 ________________ are chosen.

Step 3: Construction Document Stage


A complete set of 3 ________________ is produced
including diagrammatic and written information

Step 4: Bidding and Negotiations Stage


Owner looks for 4 ________________ from various contractors.

Step 5: Construction Administration Stage


Architect is responsible for 5 ________________ the diagrammatic
information and dealing with unforeseen problems

173
Exercise 3
Questions 31‒40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The hunt for sunken settlements and ancient shipwrecks


ATLIT-YAM
• was a village on coast of eastern Mediterranean
• thrived until about 7,000 BC
• stones homes had a courtyard
• had a semicircle of large stones round a 31 _________________
• cause of destruction unknown – now under the sea
• biggest settlement from the prehistoric period found on the seabed
• research carried out into structures, 32 _________________ and human remains

TRADITIOINAL AUTONOMOUS UNDERWATER VEHICLES (AUVs)


• used in the oil industry, e.g. to make 33 _________________
• problems: they were expensive and 34 _________________

LATEST AUVs
• much easier to use, relatively cheap, sophisticated
Tests
• Marzamemi, Sicily: found ancient Roman ships carrying architectural elements
made of 35 _________________
Underwater internet
• 36 _________________ is used for short distance communication, acoustic waves
for long distance
• plans for communication with researchers by satellite
• AUV can send data to another AUV that has better 37 _________________ , for
example
Planned research in Gulf of Baratti
• to find out more about wrecks of ancient Roman ships, including
‒ one carrying 38 _________________ supplies; tables may have been used for
cleaning the 39 _________________
‒ others carrying containers of olive oil or 40 _________________

174
Reading 03

Exercise 1
Write the noun form of the given words.
1 limit____________________________________ 5 pursue__________________________________
2 supervise_______________________________ 6 specialize_______________________________
3 involve__________________________________ 7 correlate________________________________
4 criticize_________________________________ 8 apprentice______________________________

Exercise 2
Choose suitable words in Exercise 1 to fill in the blanks.
1 There is a significant positive _________________ between parental warmth and children’s
traits.
2 Whether you’re a student or working full time, making progress to _________________ in a
career or area of interest is essential.
3 Companies that exploit natural resources such as coal or gas should be operated under
government _________________ .
4 Course registration system should place _________________ on how many students at one
time could register for courses.
5 A number of countries promote the widespread adoption and sustainable use of all forms
of renewable energy in the _________________ of sustainable development, energy security
and low-carbon economic growth.

Exercise 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

Alexander Henderson (1831-1913)


Born in Scotland, Henderson emigrated to Canada in 1855
and become a well-known landscape photographer

175
Alexander Henderson was born in Scotland in 1831 and was the son of a successful merchant.
His grandfather, also called Alexander, had founded the family business, and later became the first
chairman of the National Bank of Scotland. The family had extensive landholding in Scotland.
Besides its residence in Edinburgh, it owned Press Estate, 650 acres of farmland about 35 miles
southeast of the city. The family often stayed at Press Castle, the large mansion on the northern edge
of the property, and Alexander spent much of his childhood in the area, playing on the beach near
Eyemouth or fishing in the streams nearby.

Even after he went to school at Murcheston Academy on the outskirts of Edinburgh, Henderson
returned to Press at weekends. In 1849 he began a three-year apprenticeship to become an
accountant. Although he never liked the prospect of a business career, he stayed with it to please his
family. In October 1855, however, he emigrated to Canada with his wife Agnes Elder Robertson and
they settled in Montreal.

Henderson learned photography in Montreal around the year 1857 and quickly took it up as a
serious amateur. He became a personal friend and colleague of the Scottish – Canadian photographer
William Notman. The two men made a photographic excursion to Niagara Falls in 1860 and they
cooperated on experiments with magnesium flares as a source of artificial light in 1865. They
belonged to the same societies and were among the founding members of the Art Association
of Montreal. Henderson acted as chairman of the association’s first meeting, which was held in
Notman’s studio on 11 January 1860.

In spite of their friendship, their styles of photography were quite different. While Notman’s
landscapes were noted for their bold realism, Henderson for the first 20 years of his career produced
romantic images, showing the strong influence of the British landscape tradition. His artistic and
technical progress was rapid and in 1865 he published his first major collection of landscape
photographs. The publication had limited circulation (only seven copies have ever been found),
and was called Canadian Views and Studies. The contents of each copy vary significantly and have
proved a useful source for evaluating Henderson’s early work.

In 1866, he gave up his business to open a photographic studio, advertising himself as a portrait
and landscape photographer. From about 1870 he dropped portraiture to specialize in landscape
photography and other views. His numerous photographs of city life revealed in street scenes,
houses, and markets are alive with human activity, and although his favourite subject was landscape
he usually composed his scenes around such human pursuits as farming the land, cutting ice on a
river, or sailing down a woodland stream. There was sufficient demand for these types of scenes and

176
others he took depicting the lumber trade, steamboats and waterfalls to enable him to make a living.
There was little competing hobby or amateur photography before the late 1880s because of the time-
consuming techniques involved and the weight of equipment. People wanted to buy photographs
as souvenirs of a trip or as gifts, and catering to this market, Henderson had stock photographs on
display at his studio for mounting, framing, or inclusion in albums.

Henderson frequently exhibited his photographs in Montreal and abroad, in London, Edinburgh,
Dublin, Paris, New York, and Philadelphia. He met with greater success in 1877 and 1878 in
New York when he won first prizes in the exhibition held by E and H T Anthony and Company
for landscapes using the Lambertype process. In 1878 his work won second prize at the world
exhibition in Paris.

In the 1890s and 1880s Henderson travelled widely throughout Quebec and Ontario, in Canada,
documenting the major cities of the two provinces and many of the villages in Quebec. He was
especially fond of the wilderness and often travelled by canoe on the Blanche, du Lièvre, and
other noted eastern rivers. He went on several occasions to the Maritimes and in 1872 he sailed by
yacht along the lower north shore of the St Lawrence River. That same year, while in the lower St
Lawrence River region, he took some photographs of the construction of the Intercolonial Railway.
This undertaking led in 1875 to a commission from the railway to record the principal structures
along the almost-completed line connecting Montreal to Halifax. Commissions from other railways
followed. In 1876 he photographed bridges on the Quebec, Montreal, Ottawa and Occidental
Railway between Montreal and Ottawa. In 1885 he went west along the Canadian Pacific Railway
(CPR) as far as Rogers Pass in British Columbia, where he took photographs of the mountains and
the progress of construction.

In 1892 Henderson accepted a full-time position with the CPR as manager of a photographic
department which he was to set up and administer. His duties included spending four months in the
field each year. That summer he made his second trip west, photographing extensively along the
railway line as far as Victoria. He continued in this post until 1897, when he retired completely from
photography.

When Henderson died in 1913, his huge collection of glass negatives was stored in the basement of
his house. Today collections of his work are held at the National Archives of Canada, Ottawa, and
the McCord Museum of Canadian History, Montreal.

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Question 1̶8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1 Henderson rarely visited the area around Press estate when he was younger.
2 Henderson pursued a business career because it was what his family wanted.
3 Henderson and Notman were surprised by the results of their 1865 experiment.
4 There were many similarities between Henderson’s early landscapes and those of Notman.
5 The studio that Henderson opened in 1866 was close to his home.
6 Henderson gave up portraiture so that he could focus on taking photographs of scenery.
7 When Henderson began work for the Intercolonial Railway, the Montreal to Halifax line had
been finished.
8 Henderson’s last work as a photographer was with the Canadian Pacific Railway.

Question 9̶13
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Alexander Henderson
Early life
• was born in Scotland in 1831 – father was a 9 _________________
• trained as an accountant, emigrated to Canada in 1855
Start of a photographic career
• opened up a photographic studio in 1866
• took photos of city life, but preferred landscape photography
• people bought Henderson’s photos because photography took up considerable
time and the 10 _________________ was heavy
• the photographs Henderson sold were 11 _________________ or souvenirs
Travelling as a professional photographer
• travelled widely in Quebec and Ontario in 1870s and 1880s
• took many trips along eastern rivers in a 12 _________________
• worked for Canadian railways between 1875 and 1897
• worked for CPR in 1885 and photographed the 13 _________________ and the
railway at Rogers Pass

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Listening 04

Exercise 1
Choose the synonyms of the words in bold.
1 Marie Curies was one of the innovative _____ in history.
A physician B physicist C physics
2 Hawking’s study is a mixture of commentary and _____ information.
A fact B factful C factual
3 _____ is the process whereby a researcher chooses the participants in a study.
A Exampling B Modeling C Sampling
4 Scientists are to carefully _____ their study subject.
A observe B see C watch
5 The data that is in the form of numbers is called _____ data.
A numberial B numeric C numerical

Exercise 2
Find the words that match the definitions below. You can use a dictionary.
1 a _ _ _ ia _ _ e (n.) a machine or device used in a home
2 ch _ m b _ _ (n.) a closed space, or a room
3 deter _ _ _ _ (n.) a chemical used to remove dirt from clothes or dishes
4 f _ ui _ (n.) liquid
5 f_nct__n (n.) the intended purpose of a device
6 cy _ _ _ d _ r (adj.) tube-shaped
7 d _ m _ st _ c (adj.) relating to a home
8 id _ _ tic _ _ (adj.) exactly alike
9 t _ p _ cal (adj.) having the distinctive qualities of a particular type
10 _ _ pressur _ _ _ (v.) release the pressure of the gas inside

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Part 3 Questions 21‒30
Questions 21‒25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Global Design Competition
21 Students entering the design competition have to
A produce an energy-efficient design.
B adapt an existing energy-saving appliance.
C develop a new use for current technology.
22 John chose a dishwasher because he wanted to make dishwashers
A more appealing.
B more common.
C more economical.
23 The stone in John’s ‘Rockpool’ design is used
A for decoration.
B to switch it on.
C to stop water escaping.
24 In the holding chamber, the carbon dioxide
A changes back to a gas.
B dries the dishes.
C is allowed to cool.
25 At the end of the cleaning process, the carbon dioxide
A is released into the air.
B is disposed of with the waste.
C is collected ready to be re-used.

Questions 26‒30
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

• John needs help preparing for his 26 _________________ .


• The professor advises John to make a 27 _________________ of his design.
• John’s main problem is getting good quality 28 _________________ .
• The professor suggests John apply for a 29 _________________ .
• The professor will check the 30 _________________ information in John’s written report.

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Reading 04

Exercise 1
Choose the synonyms of the words in bold.
1 Boreal forests can help reduce a substantial amount of emission from factories.
A considerable B minimal C rich D small
2 Boreal forests takes up 17% of the land area.
A accounts for B comprises of C takes on D sets up
3 Lands that can be used for farming should be fertile.
A arable B arid C dry D vulnerable
4 The crop yield has accumulated through the years.
A set up B made up C taken up D piled up
5 Do not cultivate soil before applying a translocated herbicide.
A farm B pick C rear D train
6 Forests can remove and sequester carbon from the atmosphere.
A concur B confine C conjoin D conquer
7 We should use as much green energy as possible and offset coal use.
A cancel B cancel out C force D overturn

Exercise 2
Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verbs in the box.

to abolish to dominate to oppose to vandalize


to distribute to initiate to scheme

1 Motorbikes is the type of vehicle that _________________ the streets of Vietnam.


2 The bus stops _________________ without taking user experience into consideration.
3 The Hanoi government _________________ to increase public transport to 30%.
4 The group _________________ the mayor and is trying to find a candidate to run against her.
5 The new elevated railway _________________ within the first month of operation.
6 The USA has decided _________________ the Transportation Security Administration.
7 They wanted _________________ a discussion on environmental awareness.

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Exercise 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14‒26 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.
The growth of bike-sharing schemes
around the world
How Dutch engineer Luud Schimmelpennink helped to devise urban bike-sharing schemes
A The original idea for an urban bike-sharing scheme dates back to a summer’s day in
Amsterdam in 1965. Provo, the organization that came up with the idea, was a group of Dutch
activists who wanted to change society. They believed the scheme, which was known as the
Witte Fietsenplan, was an answer to the perceived threats of air pollution and consumerism.
In the centre of Amsterdam, they painted a small number of used bikes white. They also
distributed leaflets describing the dangers of cars and inviting people to use the white bikes.
The bikes were then left unlocked at various locations around the city, to be used by anyone
in need of transport.
B Luud Schimmelpennink, a Dutch industrial engineer who still lives and cycles in Amsterdam,
was heavily involved in the original scheme. He recalls how the scheme succeeded in
attracting a great deal of attention – particularly when it came to publicising Provo’s aims –
but struggled to get off the ground. The police were opposed to Provo’s initiatives and almost
as soon as the white bikes were distributed around the city, they removed them. However, for
Schimmelpennink and for bike-sharing schemes in general, this was just the beginning. ‘The
first Witte Fietsenplan was just a symbolic thing,’ he says. ‘We painted a few bikes white, that
was all. Things got more serious when I became a member of the Amsterdam city council two
years later.’
C Schimmelpennink seized this opportunity to present a more elaborate Witte Fietsenplan to the
city council. ‘My idea was that the municipality of Amsterdam would distribute 10,000 white
bikes over the city, for everyone to use,’ he explains. ‘I made serious calculations. It turned
out that a white bicycle – per person, per kilometer – would cost the municipality only 10%
of what it contributed to public transport per person per kilometer.’ Nevertheless, the council
unanimously rejected the plan. ‘They said that the bicycle belongs to the past. They saw a
glorious future for the car,’ says Schimmelpennink. But he was not in the least discouraged.
D Schimmelpennink never stopped believing in bike-sharing, and in the mid-90s, two Danes
asked for his help to set up a system in Copenhagen. The result was the world’s first
large-scale bike-share programme. It worked on a deposit: ‘You dropped a coin in the bike
and when you returned it, you got your money back.’ After setting up the Danish system,

182
Schimmelpennink decided to try his luck again in the Netherlands – and this time he
succeeded in arousing the interest of the Dutch Ministry of Transport. ‘Times had changed,’
he recalls. ‘People had become more environmentally conscious, and the Danish experiment
had proved that bike-sharing was a real possibility.’ A new Witte Fietsenplan was launched
in 1999 in Amsterdam. However, riding a white bike was no longer free; it cost one guilder
per trip and payment was made with a chip card developed by the Dutch bank Postbank.
Schimmelpennink designed conspicuous, sturdy white bikes locked in special racks which
could be opened with the chip card – the plan started with 250 bikes, distributed over five
stations.
E Theo Molenaar, who was a system designer for the project, worked alongside
Schimmelpennink. ‘I remember when we were testing the bike racks, he announced that he
had already designed better ones. But of course, we had to go through with the ones we had.’
The system, however, was prone to vandalism and theft. ‘After every weekend there would
always be a couple of bikes missing,’ Molenaar says. ‘I really have no idea what people did
with them, because they could instantly be recognised as white bikes.’ But the biggest blow
came when Postbank decided to abolish the chip card, because it wasn’t profitable. ‘That
chip card was pivotal to the system,’ Molenaar says. ‘To continue the project we would have
needed to set up another system, but the business partner had lost interest.’
F Schimmelpennink was disappointed, but – characteristically – not for long. In 2002 he got
a call from the French advertising corporation JC Decaux, who wanted to set up his bike-
sharing scheme in Vienna. ‘That went really well. After Vienna, they set up a system in Lyon.
Then in 2007, Paris followed. That was a decisive moment in the history of bike-sharing.’ The
huge and unexpected success of the Parisian bike-sharing programme, which now boasts
more than 20,000 bicycles, inspired cities all over the world to set up their own schemes, all
modelled on Schimmelpennink’s. ‘It’s wonderful that this happened,’ he says. ‘But financially I
didn’t really benefit from it, because I never filed for a patent.’
G In Amsterdam today, 38% of all trips are made by bike and, along with Copenhagen, it is
regarded as one of the two most cycle-friendly capitals in the world – but the city never got
another Witte Fietsenplan. Molenaar believes this may be because everybody in Amsterdam
already has a bike. Schimmelpennink, however, cannot see that this changes Amsterdam’s
need for a bike-sharing scheme. ‘People who travel on the underground don’t carry their
bikes around. But often they need additional transport to reach their final destination.’
Although he thinks it is strange that a city like Amsterdam does not have a successful bike-
sharing scheme, he is optimistic about the future. ‘In the ‘60s we didn’t stand a chance
because people were prepared to give their lives to keep cars in the city. But that mentality
has totally changed. Today everybody longs for cities that are not dominated by cars.’

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Questions 14̶18
Reading Passage 2 has nine paragraphs, A̶E.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
NB You may use any letter more than once.
14 a description of how people misused a bike-sharing scheme
15 an explanation of why a proposed bike-sharing scheme was turned down
16 a reference to a person being unable to profit their work
17 an explanation of the potential savings a bike-sharing scheme would bring
18 a reference to the problems a bike-sharing scheme was intended to solve

Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO of the following statements are made in the text about the Amsterdam bike-
sharing scheme of 1999?
A It was initially opposed by a government department.
B It failed when a partner in the scheme withdrew support.
C It aimed to be more successful than the Copenhagen scheme.
D It was made possible by a change in people’s attitudes.
E It attracted interest from a range of bike designers.

Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO of the following statements are made in the text about Amsterdam today?
A The majority of residents would like to prevent all cars from entering the city.
B There is little likelihood of the city having another bike-sharing scheme.
C More trips in the city are made by bike than by any other form of transport.
D A bike-sharing scheme would benefit residents who use public transport.
E The city has a reputation as a place that welcomes cyclists.

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Questions 23̶26
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONY from the passage for each answer.

The first urban bike-sharing scheme


The first bike-sharing scheme was the idea of the Dutch group Provo. The people who
belonged to this group were 23 _________________ . They were concerned about damage to the
environment and about 24 _________________ , and believed that the bike-sharing scheme would
draw attention to these issues. As well as painting some bikes white, they handed out
25 _________________ that condemned the use of cars.
However, the scheme was not a great success: almost as quickly as Provo left the bikes around
the city, the 26 _________________ . Took them away. According to Schimmelpennink, the
scheme was intended to be symbolic. The idea was to get people thinking about the issues.
Questions 23̶26
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONY from the passage for each answer.

The first urban bike-sharing scheme


The first bike-sharing scheme was the idea of the Dutch group Provo. The people who
belonged to this group were 23 activists. They were concerned about damage to the
environment and about 24 consumerism, and believed that the bike-sharing scheme would
draw attention to these issues. As well as painting some bikes white, they handed out 25
leaflets that condemned the use of cars.

However, the scheme was not a great success: almost as quickly as Provo left the bikes around
the city, the 26 police. Took them away. According to Schimmelpennink, the scheme was
intended to be symbolic. The idea was to get people thinking about the issues.

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Listening 05

Exercise 1
Complete the following phrases 1-6 with the correct preposition.
Then, match them to their meanings a-f.
1 to be behind _____ something a to be late for something
2 to be eligible _____ something b to feel sorry for somebody
3 to be _____ the same wavelength c to not appreciate something
4 to put effort _____ something d to satisfying the conditions
5 to take pity _____ somebody e to work hard
6 to take something _____ granted f to work really well with somebody

Exercise 2
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO characteristics were shared by the subjects of Joanna’s psychology study?
A They had all won prizes for their music.
B They had all made music recordings.
C They were all under 27 years old.
D They had all toured internationally.
E They all played a string instrument.

Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO points does Joanna make about her use of telephone interviews?
A It meant rich data could be collected.
B It allowed the involvement of top performers.
C It led to a stressful atmosphere at times.
D It meant interview times had to be limited.
E It caused some technical problems.

186
Questions 25 and 26
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO topics did Joanna originally intend to investigate in her research?
A regulations concerning concert dress
B audience reactions to the dress of performers
C changes in performer attitudes to concert dress
D how choice of dress relates to performer roles
E links between musical instrument and dress choice

Questions 27‒30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
27 Joanna concentrated on women performers because
A women are more influenced by fashion.
B women’s dress has led to more controversy.
C women’s code of dress is less strict than men’s.
28 Mike Frost’s article suggests that in popular music, women’s dress is affected by
A their wish to be taken seriously.
B their tendency to copy each other.
C their reaction to the masculine nature of the music.
29 What did Joanna’s subjects say about the audience at a performance?
A The musicians’ choice of clothing is linked to respect for the audience.
B The clothing should not distract the audience from the music.
C The audience should make the effort to dress appropriately.
30 According to the speakers, musicians could learn from sports scientists about
A the importance of clothing for physical freedom.
B the part played by clothing in improving performance.
C the way clothing may protect against physical injury.

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Reading 05

Exercise 1
Complete the table with different form of the given words.

Noun Adjective Verb

1 anticipatory

2 arousal

3 avoidance

4 certainty

5 ingenious ø

6 intense

7 intention

8 to oppose

9 to precede

10 variation

Exercise 2
Match the adjectives 1-5 to their synonyms a-e and the nouns 6-10 to theirs f-g.
1 jeopardous a dangerous 6 apparel f competitor
2 opulent b luxurious 7 disparity g clothing
3 peripheral c minor 8 invigoration h inequality
4 radical d physical 9 rival i revitalization
5 tangible e revolutionary 10 transcendence j superiority

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Exercise 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27‒40 which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

MAKING THE MOST OF TRENDS


Experts from Harvard Business School give advice to managers

Most managers can identify the major trends of the day. But it the course of conducting research
in a number of industries and working directly with companies, we have discovered that managers
often fail to recognize the less obvious but profound ways these trends are influencing consumers’
aspirations, attitudes, and behaviors. This is especially true of trends that managers view as
peripheral to their core markets.

Many ignore trends in their innovation strategies or adopt a wait-and-see approach and let
competitors take the lead. At a minimum, such responses mean missed profit opportunities. At
the extreme, they can jeopardize a company by ceding to rivals the opportunity to transform the
industry. The purpose of this article is twofold: to spur managers to think more expansively about
how trends could engender new value propositions in their core markets, and to provide some high-
level advice on how to make market research and product development personnel more adept at
analyzing and exploiting trends.

One strategy, known as ‘infuse and augment’, is to design a product or service that retains most
of the attributes and functions of existing products in the category but adds others that address the
needs and desires unleashed by a major trend. A case in point in the Poppy range of handbags, which
the firm Coach created in response to the economic downturn of 2008. The Coach brand had been a
symbol of opulence and luxury for nearly 70 years, and the most obvious reaction to the downturn
would have been to lower prices. However, that would have risked cheapening the brand’s image.
Instead, they initiated a consumer-research project which revealed that customers were eager to lift
themselves and the country out of tough times. Using these insights, Coach launched the lower-
priced Poppy handbags, which were in vibrant colors, and looked more youthful and playful than
conventional Coach products. Creating the sub-brand allowed Coach to avert an across-the-board
price cut. In contrast to the many companies that responded to the recession by cutting prices, Coach
saw the new consumer mindset as an opportunity for innovation and renewal.

189
A further example of this strategy was supermarket Tesco’s response to consumers’ growing
concerns about the environment. With that in mind, Tesco, one of the world’s top five retailers,
introduced its Greener Living program, which demonstrates the company’s commitment to
protecting the environment by involving consumers in ways that produce tangible results. For
example, Tesco customers can accumulate points for such activities as reusing bags, recycling
cans and printer cartridges, and buying home-insulation materials. Like points earned on regular
purchases, these green points can be redeemed for cash. Tesco has not abandoned its traditional
retail offering but augmented its business with these innovations, thereby infusing its value
proposition with a green streak.

A more radical strategy is ‘combine and transcend’. This entails combining aspects of the product’s
existing value proposition with attributes addressing changes arising from a trend, to create a
novel experience – one that may land the company in an entirely new market space. At first glance,
spending resources to incorporate elements of a seemingly irrelevant trend into one’s core offerings
sounds like it’s hardly worthwhile. But consider Nike’s move to integrate the digital revolution
into its reputation for high-performance athletic footwear. In 2006, they teamed up with technology
company Apple to launch Nike+, a digital sports kit comprising a sensor that attaches to the running
shoe and a wireless receiver that connects to the user’s iPod. By combining Nike’s original value
proposition for amateur athletes with one for digital consumers, the Nike+ sports kit and web
interface moved the company from a focus on athletic apparel to a new plane of engagement with its
customers.

A third approach, known as ‘counteract and reaffirm’, involves developing products or services that
stress the values traditionally associated with the category in ways that allow consumers to oppose
– or at least temporarily escape from – the aspects of trends they view as undesirable. A product
that accomplished this is the ME2, a video game created by Canada’s iToys. By reaffirming the
toy category’s association with physical play, the ME2 counteracted some of the widely perceived
negative impacts of digital gaming devices. Like other handheld games, the device featured a host
of exciting interactive games, a full-color LCD screen, and advanced 3D graphics. What set it
apart was that it incorporated the traditional physical component of children’s play: it contained
a pedometer, which tracked and awarded points for physical activity (walking, running, biking,
skateboarding, climbing stairs). The child could use the points to enhance various virtual skills
needed for the video game. The ME2, introduced in mid-2008, catered to kids’ huge desire to play
video games while countering the negatives, such as associations with lack of exercise and obesity.

190
Once you have gained perspective on how trend-related changes in consumer opinions and
behaviors impact on your category, you can determine which of our three innovation strategies to
pursue. When your category’s basic value proposition continues to be meaningful for consumers
influenced by the trend, the infuse-and-augment strategy will allow you to reinvigorate the category.
If analysis reveals an increasing disparity between your category and consumers’ new focus, your
innovations need to transcend the category to integrate the two worlds. Finally, if aspects of the
category clash with undesired outcomes of a trend, such as associations with unhealthy lifestyles,
there is an opportunity to counteract those changes by reaffirming the core values of your category.

Trends – technological, economic, environmental, social, or political – that affect how people
perceive the world around them and shape what they expect from products and services present
firms with unique opportunities for growth.

Questions 27̶31
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
27 In the first paragraph, the writer says that most managers
A fail to spot the key consumer trends of the moment.
B make the mistake of focusing only on the principal consumer trends.
C misinterpret market research data relating to current consumer trends.
D are unaware of the significant impact that trends have on consumers’ lives.
28 According to the third paragraph, Coach was anxious to
A follow what some of its competitors were doing.
B maintain its prices throughout its range.
C safeguard its reputation as a manufacturer of luxury goods.
D modify the entire look of its brand to suit the economic climate.
29 What point is made about Tesco’s Greener Living programme?
A It did not require Tesco to modify its core business activities.
B It succeeded in attracting a more eco-conscious slientele.
C Its main aim was to raise consumers’ awareness of environmental issues.
D It was not the first time that Tesco had implemented such an initiative.
30 What does the writer suggest about Nike’s strategy?
A It was an extremely risky strategy at the time.
B It was a strategy that only a major company could afford to follow.
C It was the type of strategy that would not have been possible in the past.
D It was the kind of strategy which might appear to have few obvious benefits.

191
31 What was original about the ME2?
A It contained technology that had been developed for the sports industry.
B It appealed to young people who were keen to improve their physical fitness.
C It took advantage of a current trend for video games with colourful 3D graphic.
D It was a handheld game that addressed people’s concerns about unhealthy lifestyles.

Questions 32̶37
Look at the following ideas (Questions 32̶37) and the list of companies below.
Match each statement with the correct company, A, B, C or D.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
32 It turned the notion that its products could have harmful effects to its own advantage.
33 It extended its offering by collaborating with another manufacturer.
34 It implemented an incentive scheme to demonstrate its corporate social responsibility.
35 It discovered that customers had a positive attitude towards dealing with difficult
circumstances.
36 It responded to a growing lifestyle trend in an unrelated product sector.
37 It successfully avoided having to charge its customers less for its core products.

List of companies
A Coach
B Tesco
C Nike
D iToys

Questions 38̶40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A̶D below.
38 If there are any trend-related changes impacting on your category, you should
39 If a current trend highlights a negative aspect of your category, you should
40 If the consumers’ new focus has an increasing lack of connection with your offering you
should

A employ a combination of strategies to maintain your consumer base.


B identify the most appropriate innovation strategy to use.
C emphasise your brand’s traditional values with the counteract-and-affirm strategy.
D use the combine-and-transcend strategy to integrate the two worlds.

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Listening 06

Exercise 1
Fill in the blanks with the correct adjectives from the box.

accessible brief favourable sensible


behavioral challenging premier tricky

1 Before we head out for the creek circuit, the tour guide gave us a introduction to the area.
2 Bjørn Dæhlie takes a _________________ position in cross-country skiing.
3 Considering he is afraid of dogs, is only _________________ that Geoffrey avoid dog-sled trip.
4 It was obvious that Usan Bolt would enjoy steeper, longer and more _________________ runs.
5 During winter time, it is a _________________ slide down the mountain’s slippery slopes.
6 Outdoor activities can improve your mental health and eliminate some _________________
issues.
7 The hotel’s rooftop bar is not _________________ for elderly people.
8 The mountain track is the best route to take under _________________ conditions.

Exercise 2
Questions 11‒14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
New city developments
11 The idea for the two new developments in the city came from
A local people.
B the City Council.
C the SWRDC.
12 What is unusual about Brackenside pool?
A its architectural style
B its heating system
C its method of water treatment

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13 Local newspapers have raised worries about
A the late opening date.
B the cost of the project.
C the size of the facilities.
14 What decision has not yet been made about the pool?
A whose statue will be at the door
B the exact opening times
C who will open it

Questions 15-20
Which feature is related to each of the following areas of the world represented in the
playground?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A‒I, next to questions 15‒20.

Features
A ancient forts
B waterways
C ice and snow
D jewels
E local animals
F mountains
G music and film
H space travel
I volcanoes

Areas of the world


15 Asia
16 Antarctica
17 South America
18 North America
19 Europe
20 Africa

194
Reading 06

Exercise 1
Scan the reading passage Environmental practices of big business and find the words that
match the meanings and pronunciations below.

Vocab Pronunciation Form Meaning

1 uh-kawr-dns n. agreement

an act of breaking an agreement


2 breech n.
or a contract

3 out-reyj n. anger, resentment

shair-hohl-der n. a person who has shares of a


4
stok-hohl-der company

5 prin-suh-puhl n. guideline(s) that people live by

6 sen-tuh-muhnt n. attitude towards something

a fixed minimum or maximum


7 kwoh-tuh n.
number

8 mawr-uhl adj. / n. ethical

9 ik-splis-it adj. accurate, specific

10 lahy-uh-buhl adj. legally responsible

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Exercise 2
Choose the word that does NOT have the same meaning as the rest.
1 A adept B capable C inept D skilled
2 A peril B protection C safety D security
3 A dullness B panacle C plainness D simplicity
4 A boring B enthralling C fascinating D interesting
5 A ineffective B insignificant C potent D weak
6 A excessive B extra C moderate D redundant
7 A bright B dull C luminescent D radiant

Exercise 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14‒26 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.

I contain multitudes
Wendy Moore reviews Ed Yong’s book about microbes

Microbes, most of them bacteria, have populated this planet since long before animal life developed
and they will outlive us. Invisible to the naked eye, they are ubiquitous. They inhabit the soil, air,
rocks and water and are present within every form of life, from seaweed and coral to dogs and
humans. And, as Yong explains in his utterly absorbing and hugely important book we mess with
them at our peril.

Every species has its own colony of microbes, called a ‘microbiome’, and these microbes vary not
only between species but also between individuals and within different parts of each individual.
What is amazing is that while the number of human cells in the average person is about 30 trillion,
the number of microbial ones is higher – about 39 trillion. At best, Yong informs us, we are only
50 per cent human. Indeed, some scientists even suggest we should think of each species and its
microbes as a single unit, dubbed a ‘holobiont’.

In each human there are microbes that live only in the stomach, the mouth or the armpit and by
and large they do so peacefully. So ‘bad’ microbes are just microbes out of context. Microbes that
sit contentedly in the human gut (where there are more microbes than there are stars in the galaxy)
can become deadly if they find their way into the bloodstream. These communities are constantly

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changing too. The right hand shares just one sixth of its microbes with the left hand. And, of course,
we are surrounded by microbes. Every time we eat, we swallow a million microbes in each gram of
food; we are continually swapping microbes with other humans, pets and the world at large.

It’s a fascinating topic and Yong, a young British science journalist, is an extraordinarily adept
guide. Writing with lightness and panache, he has a knack of explaining complex science in terms
that are both easy to understand and totally enthralling. Yong is on a mission. Leading us gently by
the hand, he takes us into the world of microbes – a bizarre, alien planet – in a bid to persuade us to
love them as much as he does. By the end, we do.

For most of human history we had no idea that microbes existed. The first man to see these
extraordinarily potent creatures was a Dutch lens-maker called Antony van Leeuwenhoek in the
1670s. Using microscopes of his own design that could magnify up to 270 times, he examined a
drop of water from a nearby lake and found it teeming with tiny creatures he called ‘animalcules’.
It wasn’t until nearly two hundred years later that the research of French biologist Louis Pasteur
indicated that some microbes caused disease. It was Pasteur’s ‘germ theory’ that gave bacteria the
poor image that endures today.

Yong’s book is in many ways a plea for microbial tolerance, pointing out that while fewer than one
hundred species of bacteria bring disease, many thousands more play a vital role in maintaining
our health. The book also acknowledges that our attitude towards bacteria is not a simple one. We
tend to see the dangers posed by bacteria, yet at the same time we are sold yoghurts and drinks that
supposedly nurture ‘friendly’ bacteria. In reality, says Yong, bacteria should not be viewed as either
friends or foes, villains or heroes. Instead we should realise we have a symbiotic relationship, that
can be mutually beneficial or mutually destructive.

What then do these millions of organisms do? The answer is pretty much everything. New research
is now unravelling the ways in which bacteria aid digestion, regulate our immune systems, eliminate
toxins, produce vitamins, affect our behaviour and even combat obesity. ‘They actually help us
become who we are,’ says Yong. But we are facing a growing problem. Our obsession with hygiene,
our overuse of antibiotics and our unhealthy, low-fibre diets are disrupting the bacterial balance and
may be responsible for soaring rates of allergies and immune problems, such as inflammatory bowel
disease (IBD).

The most recent research actually turns accepted norms upside down. For example, there are studies
indicating that the excessive use of household detergents and antibacterial products actually destroys

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the microbes that normally keep the more dangerous germs at bay. Other studies show that keeping
a dog as a pet gives children early exposure to a diverse range of bacteria, which may help protect
them against allergies later.

The readers of Yong’s book must be prepared for a decidedly unglamorous world. Among the less
appealing case studies is one about a fungus that is wiping out entire populations of frogs and that
can be halted by a rare microbial bacterium. Another is about squid that carry luminescent bacteria
that protect them against predators. However, if you can overcome your distaste for some of the
investigations, the reasons for Yong’s enthusiasm become clear. The microbial world is a place of
wonder. Already, in an attempt to stop mosquitoes spreading dengue fever – a disease that infects
400 million people a year – mosquitoes are being loaded with a bacterium to block the disease.
In the future, our ability to manipulate microbes means we could construct buildings with useful
microbes built into their walls to fight off infections. Just imagine a neonatal hospital ward coated in
a specially mixed cocktail of microbes so that babies get the best start in life.

Questions 14‒16
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
14 What point does the writer make about microbes in the first paragraph?
A They adapt quickly to their environment.
B The risk they pose has been exaggerated.
C They are more plentiful in animal life than plant life.
D They will continue to exist for longer than the human race.
15 In the second paragraph, the writer is impressed by the fact that
A each species tends to have vastly different microbes.
B some parts of the body contain relatively few microbes.
C the average individual has more microbial cells than human ones.
D scientists have limited understanding of how microbial cells behave.
16 What is the writer doing in the fifth paragraph?
A explaining how a discovery was made
B comparing scientists’ theories about microbes
C describing confusion among scientists
D giving details of how microbes cause disease

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Questions 17̶20
Complete the summary using the list of words A‒H below.
We should be more tolerant of microbes
Yong’s book argues that we should be more tolerant of microbes. Many have a beneficial effect,
and only a relatively small number lead to 17 __________ . And although it is misleading to think
of microbes as ‘friendly’, we should also stop thinking of them as the enemy. In fact, we should
accept that our relationship with microbes is one based on 18 __________ .

New research shows that microbes have numerous benefits for humans. Amongst other
things, they aid digestion, remove poisons, produce vitamins and may even help reduce
obesity. However, there is a growing problem. Our poor 19 __________ , our overuse of antibiotics,
and our excessive focus on 20 __________ are upsetting the bacterial balance and may be
contributing to the huge increase in allergies and immune system problems.

A solution D exaggeration G illness


B partnership E cleanliness H nutrition
C destruction F regulations

Question 21̶26
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 2?
Write YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
21 It is possible that using antibacterial products in the home fails to have the desired effect.
22 It is a good idea to ensure that children come into contact with as few bacteria as possible.
23 Yong’s book contains more cause studies than are necessary.
24 The case study about bacteria that prevent squid from being attacked may have limited
appeal.
25 Efforts to control dengue fever have been surprisingly successful.
26 Microbes that reduce the risk of infection have already been put inside the walls of some
hospital wards.

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Listening 07

Exercise 1
Complete the sentences below using the phrases in the box.

adventure playground glass houses residential area


boundary private ownership wasteland

1 Buckingham Palace’s garden is The Queen’s _________________________ so it is not open to


public.
2 It is proposed that the new transit system goes through the town’s heavily populated

_________________________ .
3 Phineas and Ferb used to hang out with their friends at the _________________________ when
they were kids.
4 People who live in _________________________ shouldn’t throw stones.
5 The rusty gates mark the _________________________ of the Wayne Manor.
6 They are currently transforming an area of _________________________ into a community
garden.

Exercise 2
Questions 11‒14
Write the correct letter, A, B, or C.
Visiting the Sheepmarket area
11 Which is the most rapidly-growing group of residents in the Sheepmarket area?
A young professional people
B students from the university
C employees in the local market
12 The speaker recommends the side streets in the Sheepmarket for their
A international restaurants.
B historical buildings.
C arts and crafts.

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13 Clothes designed by entrants for the Young Fashion competition must
A be modelled by the designers themselves.
B be inspired by aspects of contemporary culture.
C be made from locally produced materials.
14 Car parking is free in some car parks if you
A stay for less than an hour.
B buy something in the shops.
B park in the evenings or at weekends.

Questions 15‒20
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A‒I next to Questions 15‒20.
Art and History in the Sheepmarket
N

W E

S B

Hill Road F
Bank A E

C
City Road

Public
Gardens
D

Station G I
Square

H
Crawley Road

15 The Reynolds House


16 The Thumb
17 The Museum
18 The Contemporary Art Gallery
19 The Warner Gallery
20 Nucleus

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Reading 07

Exercise 1
Choose the correct answers to complete the following sentence.
1 The earth completes 366 _____ about its axis in every leap year.
A spins B rotations C rounds D circulation
2 A _____ is a period of one thousand years.
A decade B century C millennium D era
3 Thailand’s CentralWorld Mall is one of the largest _____ shopping centers (those that are
surrounded by walls and often covered) in the world.
A enclosed B close C closure D closed-door
4 She _____ the washing machine to see what the problem was, but couldn’t _____ again.
A broke down - brought back C wrecked - gathered
B removed - rejoined D dismantled - assembled
5 A key goal for Madrid is urban _____ , including environmentally conscious developments.
A renovation B regeneration C reimbursement D renaissance
6 In cars that are automatics, you don’t have to bother with shifting _____ .
A tyres B directions C brakes D gears
7 There was a splendid _____ of food on the table.
A barrage B array C series D litany

Exercise 2
Match the words 1-6 with their antonyms a-f.
1 intermittent a agree
2 climax b continuous
3 excavate c exacerbate
4 dispute d rock bottom
5 salvage e bury

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Exercise 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.
Raising the Mary Rose
How a sixteenth-century warship was recovered from the seabed
On 19 July 1545, English and French fleets were engaged in a sea battle off the coast of southern
England in the area of water called the Solent, between Portsmouth and the Isle of Wight. Among
the English vessels was a warship by the name of Mary Rose. Built in Portsmouth some 35 years
earlier, she had had a long and successful fighting career, and was a favourite of King Henry VIII.
Accounts of what happened to the ship vary: while witnesses agree that she was not hit by the
French, some maintain that she was outdated, overladen and sailing too low in the water, others
that she was mishandled by undisciplined crew. What is undisputed, however, is that the Mary
Rose sank into the Solent that day, taking at least 500 men with her. After the battle, attempts were
made to recover the ship, but these failed.

The Mary Rose came to rest on the seabed, lying on her starboard (right) side at an angle of
approximately 60 degrees. The hull (the body of the ship) acted as a trap for the sand and mud
carried by Solent currents. As a result, the starboard side filled rapidly, leaving the exposed port
(left) side to be eroded by marine organisms and mechanical degradation. Because of the way the
ship sank, nearly all of the starboard half survived intact. During the seventeenth and eighteenth
centuries, the entire site became covered with a layer of hard grey clay, which minimised further
erosion.

Then, on 16 June 1836, some fishermen in the Solent found that their equipment was caught on an
underwater obstruction, which turned out to be the Mary Rose. Diver John Deane happened to be
exploring another sunken ship nearby, and the fishermen approached him, asking him to free their
gear. Deane dived down, and found the equipment caught on a timber protruding slightly from the
seabed. Exploring further, he uncovered several other timbers and a bronze gun. Deane continued
diving on the site intermittently until 1840, recovering several more guns, two bows, various
timbers, part of a pump and various other small finds.

The Mary Rose then faded into obscurity for another hundred years. But in 1965, military historian
and amateur diver Alexander McKee, in conjunction with the British Sub-Aqua Club, initiated a
project called ‘Solent Ships’. While on paper this was a plan to examine a number of known wrecks

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in the Solent, what McKee really hoped for was to find the Mary Rose. Ordinary search techniques
proved unsatisfactory, so McKee entered into collaboration with Harold E. Edgerton, professor of
electrical engineering at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. In 1967, Edgerton’s side-scan
sonar systems revealed a large, unusually shaped object, which McKee believed was the Mary
Rose.

Further excavations revealed stray pieces of timber and an iron gun. But the climax to the operation
came when, on 5 May 1971, part of the ship’s frame was uncovered. McKee and his team now
knew for certain that they had found the wreck, but were as yet unaware that it also housed a
treasure trove of beautifully preserved artefacts. Interest ^ in the project grew, and in 1979, The
Mary Rose Trust was formed, with Prince Charles as its President and Dr Margaret Rule its
Archaeological Director. The decision whether or not to salvage the wreck was not an easy one,
although an excavation in 1978 had shown that it might be possible to raise the hull. While the
original aim was to raise the hull if at all feasible, the operation was not given the go-ahead until
January 1982, when all the necessary information was available.

An important factor in trying to salvage the Mary Rose was that the remaining hull was an open
shell. This led to an important decision being taken: namely to carry out the lifting operation in three
very distinct stages. The hull was attached to a lifting frame via a network of bolts and lifting wires.
The problem of the hull being sucked back downwards into the mud was overcome by using 12
hydraulic jacks. These raised it a few centimetres over a period of several days, as the lifting frame
rose slowly up its four legs. It was only when the hull was hanging freely from the lifting frame, clear
of the seabed and the suction effect of the surrounding mud, that the salvage operation progressed
to the second stage. In this stage, the lifting frame was fixed to a hook attached to a crane, and
the hull was lifted completely clear of the seabed and transferred underwater into the lifting cradle.
This required precise positioning to locate the legs into the stabbing guides’ of the lifting cradle.
The lifting cradle was designed to fit the hull using archaeological survey drawings, and was fitted
with air bags to provide additional cushioning for the hull’s delicate timber framework. The third
and final stage was to lift the entire structure into the air, by which time the hull was also supported
from below. Finally, on 11 October 1982, millions of people around the world held their breath as
the timber skeleton of the Mary Rose was lifted clear of the water, ready to be returned home to
Portsmouth.

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Question 1̶4
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1 There is some doubt about what caused the Mary Rose to sink.
2 The Mary Rose was the only ship to sink in the battle of 19 July 1545.
3 Most of one side of the Mary Rose lay undamaged under the sea.
4 Alexander McKee knew that the wreck would contain many valuable historical objects.

Questions 5̶8
Look at the following statements (Questions 5̶8) and the list of dates below.
Match each statement with the correct date, A‒F.
5 A search for the Mary Rose was launched.
6 One person’s exploration of the Mary Rose site stopped.
7 It was agreed that the hull of the Mary Rose should be raised.
8 The site of the Mary Rose was found by chance.

List of Dates
A 1836 E 1971
B 1840 F 1979
C 1965 G 1982
D 1967

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Questions 9̶13
Label the diagram below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Raising the hull of the Mary Rose: Stages one and two

9 ________________________
attached to hull by wires

legs

hull of ship
10 ________________________
to prevent hull being
sucked into mud

crane

hook
legs

hull of ship

legs are placed into


11 ________________________

hull is lowered into


12 ________________________

13 ________________________
used as extra protection
for the hull

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Listening 08

Exercise 1
Choose the correct answers to complete the following sentence.
1 The earth completes 366 _____ about its axis in every leap year.
A spins B rotations C rounds D circulation
2 Jake is always very _____ – talk it over with him.
A approaching B approached C approachable D approach
3 I’m on _____ this semester, so I’ve really got to study hard.
A caution B alert C alarm D probation
4 You have to be employed six months to be _____ for medical benefits.
A eligible B applicable C responsible D achievable
5 30th April is a _____ public holiday in Vietnam.
A status B station C stationery D statutory
6 A ... is not a type of shoes.
A trainer B squeezer C loafer D slider
7 All public universities are _____ by the government.
A subsidized B subscribed C subtitled D submerged
8 You’re young and healthy and you have no _____ - you can do whatever you want.
A commit B committals C commitments D committee
9 He is a _____ man, and an inspiration to all of us.
A witness B witty C witch D wicked
10 He walked off in a most _____ fashion made from plastic bags.
A biased B bizarre C customary D casual
11 No report can _____ the unspeakable suffering that this war has caused.
A convey B construct C confuse D convince

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Exercise 2
Provide the correct forms of the words in brackets.
1 We carried out an _________________ (analyze) of the way that government money has been
spent in the past.
2 If you have any problems, _________________ (consultation) the FAQs on our website.
3 Society’s attitudes towards women have _________________ (shifting) enormously over the
last century.
4 English is compulsory for all students, but art and music are _________________ (option).

Exercise 3
Questions 21‒25
Write the correct letter, A, B, or C.
Theatre Studies Course
21 What helped Rob to prepare to play the character of a doctor?
A the stories his grandfather told him
B the times when he watched his grandfather working
C the way he imagined his grandfather at work
22 In the play’s first scene, the boredom of village life was suggested by
A repetition of words and phrases.
B scenery painted in dull colours.
C long pauses within conversations.
23 What has Rob learned about himself through working in a group?
A He likes to have clear guidelines.
B He copes well with stress.
C He thinks he is a good leader.
24 To support the production, research material was used which described
A political developments.
B changing social attitudes.
C economic transformations.
25 What problem did the students overcome in the final rehearsal?
A one person forgetting their words
B an equipment failure
C the injury of one character

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Questions 26‒30
What action is needed for the following stages in doing the ‘year abroad’ option?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A‒G, next to questions 26‒30.

Action
A be on time
B get a letter of recommendation
C plan for the final year
D make sure the institution’s focus is relevant
E show ability in Theatre Studies
F make travel arrangements and bookings
G ask for help

Stages in doing the ‘year abroad’ option


26 in the second year of the course
27 when first choosing where to go
28 when sending in your choices
29 when writing your personal statement
30 when doing the year abroad

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Reading 08

Exercise 1
Provide the correct forms of the words in brackets.
1 The site of the temple was discovered by a group of amateur _________________
(archaeology).
2 In this time of quarantine, food _________________ (preserve) plays a huge role in order to
prolong fresh foods and lessen the need to go outside and buy food.
3 Stonehenge is an _________________ (intricate) planned arrangement of huge stones.
4 Our long-term aim is to change industry’s _________________ (perceive) of the mathematical
sciences and to show the commercial benefits they can offer.
5 They intend to conduct a more detailed _________________ (assess) of potential clients.
6 This small country is faced with an _________________ (surmount) debt.
7 There are many vitamins that the body cannot _________________ (synthetic) itself.

Exercise 2
Fill in the blanks with the correct words or phrases in the box.

consensus damning marched simile


coverage diminish organic the corridors of power

1 I want to be in _________________ someday—I’m sick of having to take orders from other


people.
2 The royal wedding received extensive _________________ in the newspapers.
3 A _________________ is an expression comparing one thing with another, always including
the words “as” or “like”.
4 Over four thousand people _________________ through London today to protest against the
proposed new law.
5 We’ve seen our house _________________ substantially in value over the last six months.
6 There is little _________________ about the issue of smacking children.
7 His television career was an _________________ development from the endless sketches he
used to do with his best friend from school.
8 Another _________________ statistic for South Africa is its appallingly high murder rate.

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Exercise 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1‒13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.
SECRETS OF THE SWARM
Insects, birds and fish tend to be the creatures that humans feel furthest from. Unlike many mammals
they do not engage in human-like behaviour. The way they swarm or flock together does not usually get
good press coverage either: marching like worker ants might be a common simile for city commuters,
but it’s a damning, not positive, image. Yet a new school of scientific theory suggests that these
swarms might have a lot to teach us.

American author Peter Miller explains, ‘I used to think that individual ants knew where they were
going, and what they were supposed to do when they got there. But Deborah Gordon, a biologist
at Stanford University, showed me that nothing an ant does makes any sense except in terms of the
whole colony. Which makes you wonder if, as individuals, we don’t serve a similar function for the
companies where we work or the communities where we live.’ Ants are not intelligent by themselves.
Yet as a colony, they make wise decisions. And as Gordon discovered during her research, there’s no
one ant making decisions or giving orders.

Take food collecting, for example. No ant decides, ‘There’s lots of food around today; lots of ants
should go out to collect it.’ Instead, some forager ants go out, and as soon as they find food, they pick
it up and come back to the nest. At the entrance, they brush past reserve foragers, sending a ‘go out
signal. The faster the foragers come back, the more food there is and the faster other foragers go out,
until gradually the amount of food being brought back diminishes. An organic calculation has been
made to answer the question, ‘How many foragers does the colony need today?’ And if something
goes wrong - a hungry lizard prowling around for an ant snack, for instance - then a rush of ants
returning without food sends waiting reserves a ‘Don’t go out’ signal.

But could such decentralised control work in a human organisation? Miller visited a Texas gas
company that has successfully applied formulas based on ant colony behaviour to ‘optimise its
factories and route its trucks’. He explains, ‘If ant colonies had worked out a reliable way to identify
the best routes between their nest and food sources, the company managers figured, why not take
advantage of that knowledge?’ So they came up with a computer model, based on the self organising
principles of an ant colony. Data is fed into the model about deliveries needing to be made the next
day, as well as things like weather conditions, and it produces a simulation determining the best route

211
for the delivery lorries to take.

Miller explains that he first really understood the impact that swarm behaviour could have on humans
when he read a study of honeybees by Tom Seeley, a biologist at Cornell University. The honeybees
choose as a group which new nest to move to. First, scouts fly off to investigate multiple sites. When
they return they do a ‘waggle dance’ for their spot, and other scouts will then fly off and investigate
it. Many bees go out, but none tries to compare all sites. Each reports back on just one. The more they
liked their nest, the more vigorous and lengthy their waggle dance and the more bees will choose to
visit it. Gradually the volume of bees builds up towards one site; it’s a system that ensures that support
for the best site snowballs and the decision is made in the most democratic way.

Humans, too, can make clever decisions through diversity of knowledge and a little friendly
competition. ‘The best example of shared decision-making that I witnessed during my research was
a town meeting I attended in Vermont, where citizens met face-to-face to debate their annual budget,’
explains Miller. “For group decision-making to work well, you need a way to sort through the various
options they propose; and you need a mechanism to narrow down these options.’ Citizens in Vermont
control their municipal affairs by putting forward proposals, or backing up others’ suggestions, until a
consensus is reached through a vote. As with the bees, the broad sampling of options before a decision
is made will usually result in a compromise acceptable to all. The ‘wisdom of the crowd makes clever
decisions for the good of the group - and leaves citizens feeling represented and respected.

The Internet is also an area where we are increasingly exhibiting swarm behaviour, without any physical
contact. Miller compares a wiki website, for example, to a termite mound. Indirect collaboration is
the key principle behind information-sharing websites, just as it underlies the complex constructions
that termites build. Termites do not have an architect’s blueprint or a grand construction scheme. They
simply sense changes in their environment, as for example when the mound’s wall has been damaged,
altering the circulation of air. They go to the site of the change and drop a grain of soil. When the next
termite finds that grain, they drop theirs too. Slowly, without any kind of direct decision-making, a
new wall is built. A termite mound, in this way, is rather like a wiki website. Rather than meeting up
and talking about what we want to post online, we just add to what someone - maybe a stranger on the
other side of the world – already wrote. This indirect knowledge and skill-sharing is now finding its
way into the corridors of power.

212
Question 1̶6
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1 Commuters are often compared favourably with worker ants.
2 Some ants within a colony have leadership roles.
3 Forager ants tell each other how far away the food source is.
4 Forager ants are able to react quickly to a dangerous situation.
5 Termite mounds can be damaged by the wind.
6 Termites repair their mounds without directly communicating with each other.

Question 7̶9
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F, below.
7 Managers working for a Texas gas company
8 Citizens in an annual Vermont meeting
9 Some Internet users

A provide support for each other’s ideas in order to reach the best outcome.
B use detailed comments to create large and complicated systems.
C use decision-making strategies based on insect communities to improve their service.
D communicate with each other to decide who the leader will be.
E contribute independently to the ideas of others they do not know.
F repair structures they have built without directly communicating with each other.

213
Question 10̶13
Complete the flow-chart below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
How honeybees choose their nest

Honeybee 10 _________________ explore possible nest sites

they perform what is known as a 11 _________________ on their return

other bees go out and report back

enthusiasm and 12 _________________ increase for one particular site

a final choice is reached using a 13 _________________ process

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Listening 09

Exercise 1
Choose the correct answers to complete the following sentence.
1 The book didn’t get much _____ when it was published.
A publication B publishers C publicity D publicly
2 The company has introduced new prices which it says are necessary to survive
competition with _____ of Xiaomi and Huawei.
A the likes B the liking C the similarities D the comparison
3 She was blessed with an _____ belief in her own abilities.
A inevitable B unshakable C unfeasible D manageable
4 The _____ and carrying out of such a measure, he wrote, is absolutely necessary.
A initiation B implementation C conduct D imitation
5 The business remains amazingly _____ after 2 years of COVID-19.
A silent B lenient C patient D resilient
6 The ardent hope for the future brought them through all the sufferings during the war.
A ardent B latent C potent D urgent
7 “The new product really took off among teens”. What does the highlighted phrase mean?
A increase B begin to fly C become popular D suddenly fail

Exercise 2
Fill in the blanks with the correct words or phrases in the box.

fruitful playwright skeleton


genre provocatively

1 A _________________ a person who writes plays.


2 It was a most _________________ discussion, with both sides agreeing to adopt a common
policy.
3 My book is in _________________ form - now I just have to add the details.
4 The comics featured stories that dealt _________________ with the environment, and racism.
5 What _________________ does the book fall into - comedy or tragedy?

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Exercise 3
Questions 21‒2
Write the correct letter, A, B, or C.
Theatre Studies Course
21 What helped Rob to prepare to play the character of a doctor?
A the stories his grandfather told him
B the times when he watched his grandfather working
C the way he imagined his grandfather at work
22 In the play’s first scene, the boredom of village life was suggested by
A repetition of words and phrases.
B scenery painted in dull colours.
C long pauses within conversations.
23 What has Rob learned about himself through working in a group?
A He likes to have clear guidelines.
B He copes well with stress.
C He thinks he is a good leader.
24 To support the production, research material was used which described
A political developments.
B changing social attitudes.
C economic transformations.
25 What problem did the students overcome in the final rehearsal?
A one person forgetting their words
B an equipment failure
C the injury of one character

216
Reading 09

Exercise 1
Choose the correct answers to complete the following sentence.
1 He _____ the dangers of the trip in order to frighten them not into going.
A exaggerated B boasted C praised D imagined
2 Immigrants often struggle to learn a foreign _____ .
A vocabulary B voice C tongue D pronounce
3 _____ education includes a variety of strategies for using a student’s native language in
addition to English.
A multilingual B trilingual C bilingual D monolingual
4 Scientists have _____ about the possibility of parallel universes.
A predicted B calculated C proposed D speculated
5 _____ how often I correct them, some students always makes the same mistake.
A with regard to B regardless of C As regards D regarding
6 The city’s youths need more _____ to positive role models.
A exposure B contact C interaction D impact
7 It’s the press’s responsibility to _____ the truth.
A conceal B blur C judge D uncover

Exercise 2
Fill in the blanks with the correct words or phrases in the box.

arresting entangled pursuits solitary confinement


astonishment manipulate reconcile the public purse

1 People should provide for their own retirement and not expect to be supported by

_________________ .
2 It was hard to _________________ his career ambitions with the needs of his children.
3 _________________ is a punishment in which someone is kept in a prison room alone.
4 Her success is partly due to her ability to _________________ the media.
5 The house has an _________________ view of the river.

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6 The mayor and the city council are anxious to avoid getting _________________ in the
controversy.
7 To the _________________ of her colleagues, she turned down the award.
8 I don’t have much opportunity for leisure _________________ these days.

Exercise 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.
BOOK REVIEW
The Happiness Industry: How the Government and Big Business Sold Us Well-Being
By William Davies

‘Happiness is the ultimate goal because it is self-evidently good. If we are asked why happiness
matters we can give no further external reason. It just obviously does matter.’ This pronouncement
by Richard Layard, an economist and advocate of ‘positive psychology’, summarises the beliefs of
many people today. For Layard and others like him, it is obvious that the purpose of government
is to promote a state of collective well-being. The only question is how to achieve it, and here
positive psychology – a supposed science that not only identifies what makes people happy but also
allows their happiness to be measured – can show the way. Equipped with this science, they say,
governments can secure happiness in society in a way they never could in the past.

It is an astonishingly crude and simple-minded way of thinking, and for that very reason
increasingly popular. Those who think in this way are oblivious to the vast philosophical literature
in which the meaning and value of happiness have been explored and questioned, and write as if
nothing of any importance had been thought on the subject until it came to their attention. It was
the philosopher Jeremy Bentham (1748-1832) who was more than anyone else responsible for the
development of this way of thinking. For Bentham it was obvious that the human good consists of
pleasure and the absence of pain. The Greek philosopher Aristotle may have identified happiness
with self-realisation in the 4th century BC, and thinkers throughout the ages may have struggled
to reconcile the pursuit of happiness with other human values, but for Bentham all this was mere
metaphysics or fiction. Without knowing anything much of him or the school of moral theory he
established – since they are by education and intellectual conviction illiterate in the history of ideas
– our advocates of positive psychology follow in his tracks in rejecting as outmoded and irrelevant
pretty much the entirety of ethical reflection on human happiness to date.

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But as William Davies notes in his recent book The Happiness Industry, the view that happiness is
the only self-evident good is actually a way of limiting moral inquiry. One of the virtues of this rich,
lucid and arresting book is that it places the current cult of happiness in a well-defined historical
framework. Rightly, Davies his story with Bentham, noting that he was far more than a philosopher.
Davies writes, ‘Bentham’s activities were those which we might now associate with a public sector
management consultant’. In the 1790s, he wrote to the Home Office suggesting that the departments
of government be linked together through a set of ‘conversation tubes’, and to the Bank of England
with a design for a printing device that could produce unforgettable banknotes. He drew up plans
for a ‘frigidarium’ to keep provisions such as meat, fish, fruit and vegetables fresh. His celebrated
design for a prison to be known as a ‘Panopticon’, in which prisoners would be kept in solitary
confinement while being visible at all times to the guards, was very nearly adopted. (Surprisingly,
Davies does not discuss the fact that Bentham meant his Panopticon not just as a model prison but
also as an instrument of control that could be applied to schools and factories.)

Bentham was also a pioneer of the ‘science of happiness’. If happiness is to be regarded as a


science, it has to be measured, and Bentham suggested two ways in which this might be done.
Viewing happiness as a complex of pleasurable sensations, he suggested that it might be quantified
by measuring the human pulse rate. Alternatively, money could be used as the standard for
quantification: if two different goods have the same price, it can be claimed that they produce the
same quantity of pleasure in the consumer. Bentham was more attracted by the latter measure. By
associating money so closely to inner experience, Davies writes, Bentham ‘set the stage for the
entangling of psychological research and capitalism that would shape the business practices of the
twentieth century’.

The Happiness Industry describes how the project of a science of happiness has become integral to
capitalism. We learn much that is interesting about how economic problems are being redefined and
treated as psychological maladies. In addition, Davies shows how the belief that inner of pleasure
and displeasure can be objectively measured has informed management studies and advertising.
The tendency of thinkers such as J B Watson, the founder of behaviourism*, was that human beings
could be shaped, or manipulated, by policymakers and managers. Watson had no factual basis for
his view of human action. When he became president of the American Psychological Association
in 1915, he ‘had never even studied a single human being’: his research had been confined to
experiments on white rats. Yet Watson’s reductive model is now widely applied, with ‘behaviour
change’ becoming the goal of governments: in Britain, a ‘Behaviour Insights Team’ has been
established by the government to study how people can be encouraged, at minimum cost to the
public purse, to live in what are considered to be socially desirable ways.

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Modern industrial societies appear to need the possibility of ever-increasing happiness to motivate
them in their labours. But whatever its intellectual pedigree, the idea that governments should be
responsible for promoting happiness is always a threat to human freedom.
———————–
* ‘behaviourism’: a branch of psychology which is concerned with observable behaviour

Questions 27̶29
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
27 What is the reviewer’s attitude to advocates of positive psychology?
A They are wrong to reject the ideas of Bentham.
B They are over-influenced by their study of Bentham’s theories.
C They have a fresh new approach to ideas on human happiness.
D They are ignorant about the ideas they should be considering.
28 The reviewer refers to the Greek philosopher Aristotle in order to suggest that happiness
A may not be just pleasure and the absence of pain.
B should not be the main goal of humans.
C is not something that should be fought for.
D is not just an abstract concept.
29 According to Davies, Bentham’s suggestion for linking the price of goods to happiness was
significant because
A it was the first successful way of assessing happiness.
B it established a connection between work and psychology.
C it was the first successful example of psychological research.
D it involved consideration of the rights of consumers.

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Questions 30̶34
Complete the summary using the list of words A‒G below.
Jeremy Bentham
Jeremy Bentham was active in other areas besides philosophy. In the 1970s he suggested a
type of technology to improve 30 _________________ for different Government departments. He
developed a new way of printing banknotes to increase 31 _________________ and also designed
a method for the 32 _________________ of food. He also drew up plans for a prison which allowed
the 33 _________________ of prisoners at al times, and believed the same design could be used
for other institutions as well. When researching happiness, he investigated possibilities for its
34 _________________ and suggested some methods of doing this.

A measurement D profits F communication


B security E observation G preservation
C implementation

Question 35̶40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
Write YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
35 One strength of The Happiness Industry is its discussion of the relationship between
psychology and economics.
36 It is more difficult to measure some emotions than others.
37 Watson’s ideas on behaviourism were supported by research on humans he carried out
before 1915.
38 Watson’s ideas have been most influential on governments outside America.
39 The need for happiness is linked to industrialisation.
40 A main aim of government should be to increase the happiness of the population.

221
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Listening 01
Exercise 1
1 furniture 3 frame 5 fragile
2 contrast 4 properly
Exercise 2
1 Dr Davis 6 Emily Jackson
2 Richard Chamberlain 7 Nora Ingalls
3 Miss Victoria Halley 8 Mrs Caroline Castle
4 Mr C J Billings 9 Charles Pringle
5 Robert Powers 10 Emma Ford
Exercise 3
1 14 Hill Road 3 1 year 5 North-West 7 garden 9 100
2 9.30 4 intermediate 6 vegetarian 8 guest 10 23rd March

Reading 01
Exercise 1
1 perplexing 3 possessions 5 advantage
2 prospects 4 remains
Exercise 2
1 significance - importance 4 keen - enthusiastic
2 track - route 5 accompany - go with
3 goal - aim
Exercise 3
14 iv 17 v 20 vi 23 trench 25 B/D
15 vii 18 i 21 city 24 location 26 D/B
16 ii 19 viii 22 priests

Listening 02
Exercise 1
1 B 3 B 5 C
2 A 4 C

223
Exercise 2
1 journey 3 1.45 p.m. 5 desert
2 Wild 4 new species
Exercise 3
1 evolution 3 communicate 5 garden 7 reptiles
2 discussion 4 main hall 6 nature walk 8 biology

Reading 02
Exercise 1
1 f 3 a 5 c
2 e 4 d 6 b
Exercise 2
1 to 3 on 5 with
2 to 4 of 6 on
Exercise 3
1 obsidian 4 impurities 7 clouding 10 FALSE 12 TRUE
2 spear 5 Romans 8 taxes 11 NOT GIVEN 13 FALSE
3 beads 6 lead 9 TRUE

Listening 02
Exercise 1
1 analysis 3 scientific 5 Theoretically
2 Political 4 appropriateness
Exercise 2
1 client’s needs / clients’ needs 3 plans 5 clarifying
2 materials 4 contractors
Exercise 3
31 spring 33 maps 35 marble 37 camera(s) 39 eyes
32 tools 34 heavy 36 light 38 medical 40 wine

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Reading 03
Exercise 1
1 limitation 3 involvement 5 pursuit 7 correlation
2 supervision 4 criticism 6 specialization 8 apprenticeship
Exercise 2
1 correlation 3 supervision 5 pursuit
2 specialize 4 limitations
Exercise 3
1 FALSE 4 FALSE 7 FALSE 9 merchant 12 canoe
2 TRUE 5 NOT GIVEN 8 TRUE 10 equipment 13 mountains
3 NOT GIVEN 6 TRUE 11 gifts

Listening 04
Exercise 1
1 B 3 C 5 C
2 C 4 A
Exercise 2
1 appliance 3 detergent 5 cylinder 7 domestic 9 typical
2 chamber 4 fluid 6 function 8 identical 10 depressurize
Exercise 3
21 C 24 A 26 presentation 28 material / 29 grant
22 A 25 C 27 model materials 30 technical
23 B

Reading 04
Exercise 1
1 A 3 A 5 A 7 B
2 A 4 D 6 B
Exercise 2
1 dominates 3 schemes 5 was 6 to abolish
2 is distributed 4 opposes vandalized 7 to initate

225
Exercise 3
14 E 17 C 20 D/B 23 activists 25 leaflets
15 C 18 A 21 D/E 24 consumerism 26 police
16 F 19 B/D 22 E/D

Listening 05
Exercise 1
1 to be behind on something - a 4 to put effort into something - e
2 to be eligible for something - d 5 to take pity on somebody - b
3 to be on the same wavelength - f 6 to take something for granted - c
Exercise 2
21 B/D 23 A/B 25 B/E 27 C 29 A
22 D/B 24 B / A 26 E/B 28 A 30 C

Reading 05
Exercise 1
1 anticipation - to anticipate 6 intensity - intensify 10 various - to
2 aroused - to arouse 7 intent / intented - to intend vary
3 avoidant - to avoid 8 opponant / opposition - opposite
4 certain - to ascertain 9 precedent - precedent /
5 ingenuity precedented
Exercise 2
1 a 3 c 5 d 7 h 9 f
2 b 4 e 6 g 8 i 10 j
Exercise 3
27 D 30 D 33 C 36 C 39 C
28 C 31 D 34 B 37 A 40 D
29 A 32 D 35 A 38 B

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Listening 06
Exercise 1
1 brief 3 sensible 5 tricky 7 accessible
2 premier 4 challenging 6 behavioral 8 favourable
Exercise 2
11 A 13 C 15 E 17 D 19 A
12 C 14 A 16 F 18 H 20 B

Reading 06
Exercise 1
1 accordance 4 shareholder 5 principle 7 quota 9 explicit
2 a breach / stockholder 6 sentiment 8 moral 10 liable
3 outrage
Exercise 2
1 C 3 B 5 C 7 C
2 A 4 A 6 C
Exercise 3
14 D 17 G 20 E 23 NOT GIVEN 25 NOT GIVEN
15 C 18 B 21 YES 24 YES 26 NO
16 A 19 H 22 NO

Listening 07
Exercise 1
1 private ownership 3 adventure playground 5 boundary
2 residential area 4 glass houses 6 wasteland
Exercise 2
11 A 13 B 15 H 17 F 19 I
12 C 14 B 16 C 18 G 20 B

227
Reading 07
Exercise 1
1 B 3 A 5 B 7 B
2 C 4 D 6 D
Exercise 2
1 b 3 e 5 c
2 d 4 a
Exercise 3
1 TRUE 5 C 9 (lifting) frame 12 (lifting) crade
2 NOT GIVEN 6 B 10 hydraulic jacks 13 air bags
3 TRUE 7 G 11 stabbing guides
4 FALSE 8 A

Listening 08
Exercise 1
1 C 3 A 5 B 7 C 9 B
2 D 4 D 6 A 8 B 10 A
Exercise 2
1 analysis 3 shifted
2 consult 4 optional
Exercise 3
1 C 3 A 5 B 7 D 9 G
2 A 4 B 6 E 8 A 10 C

Reading 08
Exercise 1
1 archaeolo- 2 preservation 4 perception 6 insurmount-
gists 3 intricately 5 assessment able
Exercise 2
1 the corridors 2 coverage 4 marched 6 consensus 8 damning
of power 3 simile 5 diminish 7 organic

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Exercise 3
1 FALSE 4 TRUE 7 C 10 scouts 12 volume
2 FALSE 5 NOT GIVEN 8 A 11 waggle dance 13 democratic
3 NOT GIVEN 6 TRUE 9 E

Listening 09
Exercise 1
1 C 3 B 5 D 7 C
2 A 4 A 6 A
Exercise 2
1 playwright 3 skeleton 5 genre
2 fruitful 4 provocatively
Exercise 3
27 D 30 F 33 E 36 NOT GIVEN 39 YES
28 A 31 B 34 A 37 NO 40 NOT
29 B 32 G 35 YES 38 NOT GIVEN

Reading 09
Exercise 1
1 A 3 C 5 B 7 D
2 C 4 D 6 A
Exercise 2
1 the public purse 4 manipulate 7 astonishment
2 reconcile 5 arresting 8 pursuits
3 Solitary confinement 6 entangled
Exercise 3
27 D 30 F 33 E 36 NOT GIVEN 39 YES
28 A 31 B 34 A 37 NO 40 NOT
29 B 32 G 35 YES 38 NOT GIVEN

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