AB MACHINERY AND MECHANIZATION

1. The first four wheel tractor was brought to the Philippines by?
a. Japanese
b. Americans
c. Germans
d. Russians

2. A standard medium tractors have an HP range of?

a. 32 – 49 HP
b. 50-69 HP
c. 70-89 HP
d. NOTA

3. It is a type of gear used to transmit motion between parallel shafts.

a. Bevel gear
b. Helical gear
c. Spur gear
d. Two of the above

4. What country model of mechanization does the Philippine follow?

a. Japanese model
b. USA model
c. Australian model
d. Indian model

5. They are the private sector of agency that serves as the heart of the agricultural
machinery manufacturing, marketing and after-sales service.
a. PSABE
b. AMTEC
c. PCARRD
d. AMMDA

6. A primary tillage cuts the soil at depth of?

a. 3 – 6 inches
b. 6 – 36 inches
c. Up to 6 inches
d. NOTA

7. It is a trench left equal to the furrow slices are thrown on opposite sides.
a. Furrowslice
 b. c. Back furrow
c. Furrow wall
d. Deadfurrow

8. It is part of the moldboard that counteracts the side pressure exerted by the furrowslice on
the plow bottom.
a. Share
b. Moldboard
c. Frog
d. Landside

9. It is the angle of the disc makes within the directions of travel make the disc cut the
proper width and allow the disc to rotate.
a. Tilt angle
b. Side angle
c. Horizontal clearance
d. Vertical clearance

10. A type of disc harrow which is consisting of two gangs of the disc.
a. Single action
b. Double action
c. Offset
d. Tandem

11. What is the effective field capacity of 3 moldboard plows having 25 cm width each
plowing at a speed of 6.5 km/hr for a field efficiency of 80%.
a. 0.39 ha/hr
b. 0.45 ha/hr
c. 0.49 ha/hr
d. NOTA

12. It is the pivotal point of connection of the hitch to the tractor or the center of the
articulated connection between the link and the implement.
a. Link point
b. Hitch pin
c. Hitch point
d. AOTA

13. It is a factor that considers the physical condition, heart-beat ratio, and body weight of a
person when operating a machine.
a. Humanistic factor
 b. Mechanical operation factors
c. Ergonomic factors
d. AOTA

14. If soil clods are needed to be inverted during plowing, the agricultural engineer will
recommend a
a. Disc plow
b. Moldboard plow
c. Disc harrow
d. AOTA

15. Manual transplanting of rice is advantageous over mechanical rice transplanter in terms
of?
a. Intelligence
b. Dexterity
c. Cost
d. NOTA

16. When plowing requires the soil to be incorporated or mixed with grasses and weeds, as
am AB engineer, you will recommend?
a. Disc plow
b. Rotary plow
c. Moldboard plow
d. AOTA

17. It is a system of planting wherein a group of seeds are placed at about equal intervals in
rows.
a. Hill dropping
b. Precision planting
c. No-till planting
d. Drill seeding

18. The rate of performance obtained if a machine performs its function100% of the time of a
given operating speed using 100% of its theoretical width.
a. Theoretical field capacity
b. Effective field capacity
c. Actual field capacity
d. NOTA

19. It is a trench left when the plow bottom cuts and turns the furrow slice.
a. Back furrow
 b. Furrow slice
c. Furrow
d. Dead furrow

20. It is an angle in a vertical plane which perpendicular to the direction of travel, between a
tool axis and the soil surface.
a. Tilt angle
b. Side angle
c. Lift angle
d. Center angle

21. A tillage system in which of the total surface is performed in such a way that plant
residue is specifically left on or near the soil surface.
a. Optimum tillge
b. Reduced tillage
c. Mulch tillage
d. Conservation tillage

22. A tillage system traditionally performed in preparing a seedbed for a given crop and
grown in a given geographical area.
a. Conservation tillage
b. Conventional tillage
c. Reduced tillage
d. Reservoir tillage
Give the two (2) types of rice transplanters
23. Manually operated rice transplanter
24. Self – propelled rice transplanters

25. They are the machines that place rice seedings with proper spacing in well prepared
paddy soil. (Rice Transplanters)

26. They are machines that are designed for plating pre-germinated rice seeds in rows so that
a manually operated weeder can be used. (Rice Drum Seeder)

27. It is a system of planting wherein seeds are randomly dropped and covered in furrows.
(Drill Seeding)
 28. They are machines used to place plant parts such as cassava cutting, sugarcane cuttings,
rice seedlings, etc in a prepared soil. (Planters)

29. It is a system of planting wherein single seeds are placed accurately at about equal
intervals in rows. (Precision Planting)

30. It is a system of planting wherein planting is made directly into an unprepared seedbed or
untilled soil. (No-Till Planting)

31. It is a system of planting wherein seeds are randomly scattered on the surface of the
field. ( Braodcasting)

32. It is a system of planting wherein a group of seeds are placed at about equal interval in
rows. (Hill Dropping)

33. They are machines used to place seeds such as beans, corn, rice, etc… in the soil.
(Seeders)

34. It is a procedure of determining the performance of a planter under the different seeding
rates, row, and hill spacing. It is designed to operate. (Calibration Of Planters)

35. In the preparation of the field using mechanical rice transplanters, it should be prepared
to a depth of 5 – 7 cm using a harrow or cultivator.

36. Puddled fields should be levelled and the soil allowed to settle for 12 – 24 hours.

37. In non-puddled conditions the soil should be tilled 1 – 2 times using a harrow or
cultivator and then planked.

38. When planting, maintain a uniform depth of 1 – 2 cm of standing water.

39. If weed density is high, a pre-plant application of a non-selective herbicide, should be

done 24 - 28 hours before planting.

Give the two (2) types of self-propelled rice transplanter

40. Walk behind
41. Riding type

42. Two-wheel tractors are used for land preparation, planting, cultivating, harvesting and
transport with an engine power range of? (3 HP to 15 HP)
 43. It is a type of two-wheel tractor which provides pulling power through its drawbar, fitted
with pneumatic tires for dry land preparation and steel cage wheels for wetland
operations. (Tractor Type)

44. It is an external shaft usually at the rear of the tractor providing rotational power to
implements and machines. (Power-take-off shaft)

45. It is part of the tractors transmission system which connects and disconnects the load
from the engine. (Clutch)

46. Standard medium tractors have an HP rating range of? (70 HP to 89 HP)

47. Compact tractors have an HP rating range of? ( 32 HP below)

48. It is type of gear used to transmit motion between interesting shafts. (Bevel gear)

49. It is a combination of one upper link and two lower links, each articulated to the tractor
and the implement at opposite ends to connect the implement to the tractor. (Three
Point Linkage)

50. It is composed of two – or four-post structural frames primarily used to protect a seat-
belted operator from being crushed in case the machine rolls over. ( Roll Over
Protective Structure)

51. It is a type of gear used to transmit motion between parallel shafts. (Spur Gear)

Give the three types of 2-wheel tractors classified according to function.

52. Traction type

53. Rotary type
54. General – purpose type

Give the three types of power that a 4-wheel tractor can provide through its transmission system.

55. Draft power

56. Rotary power
57. Lifting power

Give the 4 common methods of power transmission used in tractors.

58. Direct coupling

 59. Sprocket and Chains
60. Belt and Pulleys
61. Gear system

1ST REDUCTION

N1 = 2570 rpm

N2 = 1,100 rpm

D1 = 8 cm

D2 = 20 cm

Problem - Solving

62. To determine the forward speed of the 2-wheel tractor powered by a diesel engine
running at 2,750 rpm. What will be the required diameter (D1) of the 1st pulley in cm if
the diameter of the 2nd pulley (D2) is equal to 20 cm?

N1 D1 = N2 D2

(2,750 rpm) (D1) = (1,100 rpm) (20 cm)

D1 (2,750) = 22,000
2,750 2,750
D1 = 8 cm

63. What will be the required number of teeth ( T4) of sprocket 4 if the sprocket 3 has 14
teeth?

N3 T3 = N4 T4 2ND REDUCTION

(1,100) (14) = (240 ) (T4) N3 = 1,100 rpm

15,400 = 240 (T4) N4 = 240 rpm

240 240
T4 = 64 Teeth T3 = 14 teeth

T4 = 64 teeth
 64. What will be the required number of teeth (T6) of sprocket 6 if the fifth sprocket (T5)
has 15 teeth?
N5 T5 = N6 T6
3RD REDUCTION
(240) (15) = (85) (T6)
N5 = 240 rpm
3,600 = 85 (T6)
85 85 N6 = 85 rpm
42.35 Teeth = T6
T5 = 15 Teeth

T6 = 42.35 teeth

65. If the diameter of the wheel (D7) is equal to 61 cm, determine the forward speed (V) of
the two-wheel tractor in miles per hour using the specifications of the transmission
devices that you have calculated.
V = 𝝅N7D7
V = 𝝅 (85 rev/min) (61cm x 1m/100cm x 3.28 ft/1m x 1 mile/5280 ft) (60 min/1hr)
V = 6.07 mile/hr

MACHINE DESIGN
66. Four (4) different designs or types of roller chain sprockets (indicate the type and its
composition)
 Type A – Plain Plate
 Type B – Hub on the side
 Type C – Hub on both side
 Type D – Detachable hub
67. In selecting a sprocket, these four (4) infprmation markings shall be marked on it
 Types of sprocket
 Manufacturer’s name
 Number of teeth
 Chain number
68. In selecting a roller chain, these two (2) information markings shall be marked on it
  Chain number of designation
 Manufacturer’s name or/and its trademark
69. It is a sprocket advisable to be used for taking up the slack when the roller chain drive has
a fixed center distance or it is non-adjustable. IDLER SPROCKET
70. It is the diameter of the pitch circle of a sprocket that passes through the centers of the
link pins as the chain is wrapped on it. PITCH DIAMETER
71. It is a power transmission system, which consists of one of a roller chains, engaged on
two or more sprockets used to transmit power at high torque and low speed without
slippage. ROLLER CHAIN DRIVE
72. It is the distance between adjacent joint members of a roller chain. PITCH
73. For a sprocket with an odd number of teeth, it is the distance from the bottom of the tooth
gap to that of the nearest opposite tooth gap. For a sprocket with an even number of teeth,
it is the same as the bottom diameter. CALIPER DIAMETER
74. Four (4) types of belts
 Timing belt
 Round belt
 V – belt
 Flat belt
75. Four (4) types of chains
 Conveyor chain
 Leaf chain
 Roller chain
 Silent chain
76. Two (2) types of materials that the belt for agricultural machinery are usually made.
 Fabric
 Rubberized cord
77. If some belts on multiple v-belt drives are worn out, it is recommended that?
a. Worn out belts should be immediately replaced.
b. All belts should be replaced.
c. Wait until all belts are worn out before replacing the belts.
d. NOTA
78. If the pulley to be driven requires to be turned in a counterclockwise direction, what drive
system would you recommend?
a. Open drive
b. Quarter – turn drive
c. Cross – drive
d. AOTA
79. If the two shafts are perpendicular to each other, what type of driven transmission system
would you recommend?
a. Thickness and width
 b. Thickness and length
c. Width and length
d. Width, thickness, and length
80. It is a type of power transmission system used when the center-to-center distance
between shafts are fairly long.
a. V-belt drive
b. Flat belt drive
c. Universal joint
d. Roller chain drive
81. It is the standard length of GI pipes, angle bars, and flat bars available on the market.
a. 6.1 m
b. 20 ft
c. 10 ft
d. Both a and b
82. It is a system of elements arranged to transmit motion in a predetermined fashion.
a. Kinematic chain
b. Machine
c. Mechanism
d. Machine design
83. It is the significant change in length of the belt in moving from tight side tension to slack
side tension.
a. Creep
b. Slip
c. Stretch
d. NOTA
84. It is the phenomenon in which the driver pulley moves but the drivem pulley does not
move.
a. Creep
b. Slip
c. Stretch
d. NOTA
85. If the driver pulley diameter of the v-pulley is increased, the speed of the driven pulley
will?
a. Also increase
b. Decrease
c. It will remain the same.
d. Change in diameter does not affect speed.
A 12 HP diesel engine running at 1500 rpm is to be used to drive a thresher with a speed of 795
rpm. The diameter of the driver pulley is 120 mm and the center-to-center distance of the two
pulleys must be exactly 1,050 mm. determine the following.
 86. The design power of the drive
a. 19,825 W
b. 15,289 W
c. 12,248 W
d. 13,428 W
87. The diameter/s of the driven pulley
a. 226 mm
b. 228 mm
c. 230 mm
d. 236 mm
88. The length of the belt
a. 2,448.7 mm
b. 2,646.85 mm
c. 2,646.85 mm
d. 2,856.58 mm
89. The belt speed and speed ratio
a. 656.5 m/min and 1.89
b. 565.5 m/min and 1.89
c. 656.5 m/min and 1.98
d. 565.5 m/min and 1.98
90. The purpose of using standards in AB Machinery design is/are basically to?
a. Reduce the cost of the product.
b. Minimize potential liability in designing a product.
c. Provide an easy mechanism for interchanging machinery parts.
d. AOTA
91. It is a criterion of design wherein the product must perform its intended function
satisfactory or without failure at a given age.
a. Competitive
b. Functionality
c. Reliability
d. Durability
PROBLEM SOLVING
Fill in the blanks with the correct values to determine the belt linear speed of the flat belt (Vg)
shown in the figure.
 CONTEMPORARY WORLD
92. Economic and trade globalization is the result of companies trying to outmaneuver their
competitors. TRUE

93. Are more industrialized nations who received the majority of the world’s wealth.
a. Peripheral nations
b. Core countries
c. Dependency
d. Industrial revolution

94. Development has to be ensured in and for the future generations. TRUE

95. There are four main types of economic inequality. FALSE

96. Is the key to self – sustaining path to development, not liberal trade or export.
a. Industrial revolution
b. Columbian exchange
c. Fair trade
d. Trade protectionism

97. He contended the idea that less developed countries would develop by following the path
taken by the developed countries.
a. Andre Gunder Frunk
b. Andre Gunder Frank
c. Ander Gunder Frank
d. Andre Gander Frank

98. Using of the earth’s sources and the preservation of such sources for the future is called
______?
a. Efficiency
b. Sustainable development
c. Technological fixes
d. Global security
99. Western capitalist countries were labelled as the _____.
a. First world
 b. Second world
c. Third world
d. Fourth world
100. It refers to the net worth of a country. WEALTH
101. It is when your country is big enough that production becomes more about wants
than needs.
a. Traditional stage
b. High mass consumption
c. Take off stage
d. Drive to technological maturity
102. Speaks about distribution of assets.
a. Wealth
b. Wealth inequality
c. Income inequality
d. Income
103. _______means finding the quickest possible way of producing large amounts of a
particular product. EFFICIENCY
104. There were nine millennium development goals created in 1980s. FALSE
105. The Soviet Union and its allies were termed the _____.
a. First world
b. Second world
c. Third world
d. Fourth world
e.

ETHICS

3 different kinds of justice

106. Retributive Justice
107. Distributive Justice
108. Compensatory Justice
2 types of utilitarianism
109. Act of Utilitarianism
110. Rule of Utilitarianism
3 types of legal rights
111. Civil Rights
112. Political Rights
113. Economic Rights
4 different types of law
114. Eternal Law
115. Natural Law
116. Human Law
117. Divine Law
Give at least 3 main features of rights
118. Rights are equally available to all people.
119. Since rights are here only in society, this cannot be exercised against society.
120. The contents of rights keep on changing over time.
121. This theory basically states that moral judgement express positive or negative
feelings. EMOTIVISM
122. This admits that moral judgements are truth bearers. ETHICAL
SUBJECTIVISM
123. Individuals who conclude that being good involves both thinking and feeling.
ETHICISTS
124. This can be rational in being based at least sometimes on good judgement about
how well a circumstances or agent accomplishes appropriate objectives. EMOTIONS
125. This interprets ethical sentences as statements of fact, particularly as reports of
the speaker’s attitude. SUBJECTIVISM
126. They are seen as also necessary in ethical judgement as they are even deemed by
some as instinctive and trained response to moral dilemmas. FEELINGS
127. This holds the truth of falsity of ethical propositions is dependent on the feelings,
attitudes or standards of a person or group of persons. ETHICAL SUBJECTIVISM
128. This claims that any legitimate truth claim must be empirically verifiable.
LOGICAL POSITIVISM
129. The Greek philosopher Aristotle tells us that there are five distinct human
excellences. FALSE

130. In stage 1 a young child (age 1-5) chooses what to do – what is right – according
to what he/she wants to do and can do without getting into trouble.
TRUE
FALSE
131. To say that a certain person has a good moral character means that he/she is a
good person and good citizens with a sound good moral compass.
TRUE
FALSE

132. A moral character refers to the existence or lack of virtues such as integrity,
courage fortitude, honesty and loyalty. TRUE

133. In stage 4 children (age 5 – 10) are disposed to be egoistic or self – serving.
TRUE
134. A German psychologist Lawrence Kohlberg (1927 – 1987) is best known for his
theory of stage of moral development. TRUE

135. The term “character” is derived from Greek word “character” which was initially
used as a mark impressed upon a coin. TRUE
136. In stage 2 people (age 8-16), have shifted from pleasing themselves to pleasing
important others usually parents teachers, or friends. TRUE
137. In the process of moral development there is the circular relation between acts
that build character and moral character itself. FALSE
138. In Greek, ethics is the adjacent cognate of character.
TRUE
FALSE
139. The process by which individuals acquire knowledge from others in the groups to
which they belong, as a normal part of childhood. TRUE
140. In Confucianism, it is the upholding of righteousness and the moral disposition to
do good.
a. Yi
b. Li
c. Ren
d. Yang
141. The sum total of the learned behaviour of a group of people that are generally
considered to be the tradition of that people and are transmitted from generation to
generation.
a. Role
b. Culture
c. Tradition
 d. Religion
142. This is described as a feeling of lowliness, shame or embarrassment, and
inhibition or shyness which experienced as somewhat distressing.
a. Hiya
b. Respect for elders
c. Utang na loob
d. Pakikisama

143. The late philosophy professor who made a compelling assessment of cultural
relativism.
a. Aristotle
b. Richard Robinson
c. James Rachels
d. C.S. Lewis
144. This refers to the innate ability and trait of Filipinos to be courteous and
entertaining to their guest.
a. Utang na loob
b. Hospitality
c. Pakikisama
d. Amor propio
145. In Philippine culture, this is principally supported by and anchored on at least six
basic Filipino values.
a. SIR
b. AFP
c. NPA
d. DOS
146. This religion focuses on the cultivation of virtue and maintenance of morality.
a. Taoism
b. Shintoism
c. Confucianism
d. Buddhism
147. The usual or customary ways through which things are done within a group.
a. Relativism
b. Emotivism
c. Amor propio
d. Convention

AB STRUCTURES
148. Isolation pen is where the animals can rest before slaughter. FALSE
149. An animal is considered a downer if it is unable to move/stand. TRUE
150. The lairage shall be constructed at least 12 m away from the slaughterhouse.
FALSE
151. Swine having 80-100 kg weight must have an area (m2/head) of 0.64 – 0.73.
FALSE
152. There shall be wall dividers separating the animals (Swine) of the same batch or
group with a minimum height of 1.2 m. TRUE
153. The maximum recommended angle for ramps for ruminants and swine lairages
should be 25˚. FALSE
154. The height of the swine pen shall be at least 1.2 m. TRUE
155. The unloading dock length for swine lairage shall be at least 2 to 3 m. TRUE
156. The ceiling height for swine lairage shall be at least 3.4 high. FALSE
157. There shall be a 0.61 m catwalk for walk for the human handle at both sides of the
dock and ramp. TRUE
158. For swine pens, the floor slope shall not be less than 5%. FALSE
159. For the lighting requirement for swine lairage isolation pens, a lighting intensity
of not less than 650 lux shall be provided. FALSE
160. The pen width for swine lairage should be 2.2 m while the alley width should be
at least 1.3 m. FALSE
161. Exposures to impulsive or impact noise shall not exceed 140 db (A) peak sound
pressure level (celing value). TRUE
162. Chute is a term used for a passageway for the animals that connects the lairage to
the slaughterhouse. TRUE
163. Sheep, goats and deer are called large ruminants. FALSE
164. For ruminants, the pen width should should be from 3.5 to 4. 2 m while the alley
width should be 1.5 m. FALSE
165. For the large ruminants’ pens, the floor slope shall be at least 5˚ toward the open
canals. FALSE
166. A waste disposal system shall conform to the effluent and environmental
standards set by competent authorities. TRUE
167. The lairage shall be located at least 100 m away from any building used for
human habitation, national highway, public or commercial building/places, and any
animal production facilities. FALSE
168. What is the recommended minimum floor space requirement (m 2/100 birds) for
broiler chickens above 4 weeks old?
a. 12.50
b. 10.50
c. 11.50
d. 6.25
169. What is the recommended brooding temperature range for 1-7 days old chicks?
a. 32 – 35˚C
 b. 29 – 32˚C
c. 27 – 29˚C
d. 25 - 27˚C
170. What is the recommended artificial lighting schedule during the first 48 hours in
the brooding area?
a. 24 hours of light at 35 watts/m2 of illumination
b. 25 hours of light at watt/m2 of illumination
c. 22 hours of light at 35 watts/m2 of illumination
d. 23 hours of light at 35 watt/m2 of illumination
171. Which of the following is a common orientation of broiler housing?
a. East-west
b. East-north
c. East-south
d. None of the above
172. What is the primary purpose of broiler housing?
a. To maximize feed efficiency
b. To ensure the health and welfare of the birds
c. To minimize labor costs
d. To reduce the risk of environmental contamination
173. Which of the following is not a recommended feature of broiler housing?
a. Adequate ventilation
b. Adequate lighting
c. Adequate floor space
d. High humidity levels

174. Compute the quantity of cement bags (40 kg), sand, and gravel needed for a class
“A” mixture slab that is 3.5 meters long, 2.3 meters wide, and 0.150 meters thick.

Volume : 2.3 m x 3.5 m x 0.150 m = 1.21 m3

Cement : 1 x 1.21 m3 x 9.0
= 10.89 or 11 bags
Sand : 2 x 1.21 m3 x 0.5
= 1.21 m3
Gravel : 4 x 1.21 m3 x 1.0
= 4.84 m3

175. Compute the quantity of 50 kg cement bags, sand, and gravel needed for class “C”
mixture slab that is 5 meters long, 10 meters wide, and 0.250 meters thick.

Volume : 5 m x 10 m x 0.250 = 12. 5 m3

 Cement : 1 x 12. 5 m3 x 5.0
= 62.5 or 63 bags
Sand : 3 x 12. 5 m3 x 0.5
= 18.75 m3
Gravel : 6 x 12. 5 m3 x 1.0
= 37.5 m3

176. A contractor needs to pour a concrete slab that requires a comprehensive strength
of 4000 psi. The slab will be 3 meters wide, 6 meters long, and 0.1 meter thick. Calculate
amount of materials needed for the concrete mixture.
Volume : 3 m x 6 m x 0.1 m = 1.8 m3
Cement : 1 x 1.8 m3 x 12
= 21.6 or 22 bags
Sand : 1.5 x 1.8 x 0.5
= 1.35 m3
Gravel : 3 x 1.8 m3 x 1.0
= 5.4 m3

PHIL HISTORY
177. First ever recorded blood compact in Philippine history? SANDUGO
The two powerful countries in the world led in the discovery of the European nations.
178. PORTUGAL
 179. SPAIN
180. Place of mass recorded in Philippine history. SHORE OF MASAO
181. Complete date/place where Magellan died. APRIL 27, 1521/ MACTAN
182. Place discovered by Bartolome dias. CAPE OF GOOD HOPE
183. A brave Filipino chieftain did not submit to become Christian to Fernando
Magallanes. LAPU LAPU
184. Discovered the Congo river. DIOGO CAO
185. When has the fall of Constantinople happened that the emergence of the muslim
turks closed the trade routes in Europe? MAY 29, 1453
186. Filipino citizens can acquire patent agricultural lands of the public domain not
exceeding.
a. 5 has
b. 7 has
c. 10 has
d. 12 has

LITERATURE
187. It is mostly commonly defined as rules or expectations that are socially enforced.
NORMS
188. It projects the virtues for good values in the society for people to emulate. It is
also imitation of human action, often presents a picture of what people think, say, and in
the society. LITERATURE
189. Literature ________ and makes us understand the every walk of life.
INFLUENCES US
190. Japanese people dressing in western clothing is an example of what?
ACCULTURATION
191. It is one of the ways of transmitting literature that comes during festival, social
gatherings, religious gatherings, occupational rituals, and conventions during pre
literature time of the society. ORAL TRADITION
192. A potent instrument of expression that can be changed and adapted. It can be
beautified and decorated according to people, race, tribe, culture, season, occupation,
feelings, thought and inspirations. CULTURE