1.

A group of educators and is considering different approaches for analyzing the results of a new
standardized test designed to assess student’s proficiency in mathematics. Which factor
should they consider when deciding between Item Response Theory (IRT) and Classical Test
Theory (CTT)?
A. The complexity of statistical methods required for each approach
B. The availability of resources and expertise needed to implement each approach
C. The potential impact of each approach on the reliability and validity of test scores
D. The preference of educators and stakeholders for a specific approach

2. A psychology professor is conducting a study to evaluate the discriminability of questions on a

personality assessment questionnaire. Which groups of participants should the professor
compare to determine the discrimination index?
A. Participants who completed the questionnaire quickly and those who took a longer time
B. Participants who answered all questions correctly and those who answered all questions
incorrectly
C. Participants with high levels of extraversion and those with low levels of extraversion
D. Participants with highest and lowest total scores on the questionnaire

3. Angelica is a test developer creating a new assessment tool to measure students

understanding of science concepts. Which approach would best align with the concept
described focusing on how individuals respond to different variations to understand their
preferences better?
A. Providing students with a single set of multiple-choice questions and scoring their overall
performance
B. Offering students a variety of science experiments to perform and assessing their
understanding based on their approach and outcomes.
C. Administering a standardized test with fixed questions and analyzing the total overall
average score.
D. Presenting students with a range of scientific scenarios and observing how they solve
problems and make decisions

4. As a psychologist developing a personality test intended to measure various traits you

administer the test to two different individuals with distinct diagnosis. Afterward you conduct
a factor analysis. What might the results of factor analysis reveal about the test items?
A. The items load on different factors in each group indicating potential inconsistencies in
measurements
B. The items consistently load on the same factor in both groups ensuring measurement
consistency
C. The items show no significant differences in factor loading between the two groups
D. Factor analysis is not relevant to the interpretation of test results.

5. As a test developer Joanna aims to create items with varying difficulty levels for a biology
exam why is it important to include items of different difficulty level?
A. To maintain diversity in the test format
 B. To identify outliers in student performance
C. To accurately assess student’s depth of understanding
D. To streamline the grading process

6. As an educational psychologist you are reviewing the item discrimination indices of a

mathematics test designed for high school students. What can you conclude about this item
based on its item discrimination index?
A. The item effectively discriminates between high and low performance on the test
B. The item does not effectively discriminate between high and low performance on the test
C. The item is moderately effective in discriminating between high and low performers on the
test
D. The item is unreliable and should be removed from the test

7. As an educational researcher, you are tasked with evaluating the discriminability of items on
reading comprehension assessment. Which method would be most appropriate for examining
the discriminability of items based on the correlation between item performance and total
test score?
A. The phi coefficient method
B. The extreme group method
C. The standard deviation method
D. The point biserial method

8. As Ivy is developing a quiz for her students she considers different formats for the questions.
which of the following formats would allow her students to choose from a set of
predetermined options?
A. Selected-response format
B. Constructed-response format
C. Likert format
D. Checklists

9. As maya is designing a survey to gather feedback on customer satisfaction with a new product
she's careful to avoid a particular type of item. What is the reason behind maya's decision to
steer clear of double-barreled items?
A. To intentionally increase redundancy in the survey questions
B. To intentionally complicate the reading difficulty level for respondents
C. Because double-barreled items may convey multiple ideas at once, leading to confusion.
D. Because the double barrel item may inadvertently encourage an acquiescence response set.

10. As part of her test development process, Karen is considering different types of selected
response items. What distinguishes polytomous selected response from dichotomous items?
A. Polytomous items involved generating responses independently
B. Polytomous items offer more than two response options
C. Dichotomous items offer more than two response options
D. Dichotomous items are only used in constructed-response formats
11. As part of the final exam for her biology course Marian is required to answer questions in a
specific format. What do students typically do in constructed-response format?
A. Write an essay or short answer
B. Select from provided options
C. Match items from one list to another
D. Rate their agreement on a scale

12. Claire is task with creating a test to assess employee training effectiveness. What factor should
Claire consider to ensure the reading difficulty level remains appropriate for test completion?
A. Including exceptionally long items
B. Using redundant items for clarity
C. Writing items with varying levels of complexity
D. Generating items without regard to readability

13. Emma is overseeing a test try out for a new assessment tool and is concerned about the
potential risks associated with sample size. What risk is associated with using too few subjects
during test the try out?
A. Appearance of additional or unrelated variables
B. Difficulty in administering the test to a large sample
C. Excessive time required for data analysis
D. Inaccurate scoring of the test items

14. Imagine you’re a baker named Maria. You’re hosting a cookie taste test event and you're trying
to describe which batch of cookies is the most popular overall. Which approach would best
align with the concept of classical test theory in this situation?
A. Asking each participant to rate the taste of each cookie on a scale from 1 to 10 and average
in the ratings for each batch
B. Observing how individuals respond to different cookie variations to understand their
preferences better
C. Providing participants with the selection of cookies and allowing them to choose their
favorites without any structured rating system
D. Tallying the total number of cookies eaten from each batch and calculating the average
number of cookies consumed overall

15. In an effort to address potential biases introduced by the speed of a timed mathematics
section in a university admissions test, what adjustment could be made?

a. Allowing test-takers to retake the mathematics section multiple times to reduce time-related
stress.

b. Providing test-takers with additional breaks during the mathematics section to alleviate time
pressure.

c. Increasing the number of mathematics questions while maintaining the original time limit.
d. Increasing the time limit for the mathematics section to accommodate different pacing
preferences.

16. In the context of item fairness, what is the primary concern regarding biased test items?

a. Biased items have higher item discrimination indices.

b. Biased items may disadvantage certain groups of test-takers based on factors like cultural
background or gender.

c. Biased items increase the reliability of the test.

d. Biased items may advantage certain groups of test-takers based on factors like cultural
background or gender.

17. In the process of designing a norm-referenced test to evaluate mathematical reasoning

skills in high school students, what is the primary objective of conducting pilot testing?

a. To refine and validate the test items through preliminary testing and experimentation.

b. To distribute the final version of the test to a broad sample of students for norming purposes.

c. To randomly select students for participation in the pilot study.

d. To finalize the test without engaging in any preliminary validation procedures.

18. Jem is tasked with developing a series of test items for a history exam. What is one
practice that Jem should avoid when crafting these test items?

a. Generating an extensive item pool to ensure thorough coverage of the material

b. Using exceptionally lengthy items that may confuse or fatigue the test takers

c. Including redundant items that cover the same content or skill

d. Maintaining an appropriate reading difficulty level to ensure accessibility for all students

19. Jemmie is analyzing the item characteristic curve (ICC) for a question on a physics exam
related to projectile motion. The curve exhibits a shallow slope. What does this indicate about
the question's effectiveness?

a. The question may be too easy for all students, irrespective of their understanding of projectile
motion.

b. Students who have a strong grasp of projectile motion concepts are more likely to answer the
question correctly.

c. The question poorly discriminates between students of varying ability levels.

d. The question is ambiguous and necessitates clarification.

20. Jerson is reviewing the process for calculating the item-validity index for a psychology test.
How is the item-validity index calculated?
a. By calculating the product of the standard deviation of item scores and the correlation
between the item score and the criterion score.

b. By adding together the standard deviation of item scores and the correlation bet on the item
score and the criterion score

c. By subtracting the standard deviation of item scores from the correlation between the item
score and the criterion score.

d. By dividing the standard deviation of item scores by the correlation between the item score
and the criterion score.

21. Joane is participating in a survey conducted by her university's psychology department. In

a Likert format, what does Joane typically do?

a. Rank items in order of preference

b. Write an essay response

c. Select from provided options

d. Match items from one list to another

22. Joemar is conducting a study to gain insights into the cognitive processes of test-takers.
Which approach involves having respondents verbalize their thoughts during test-taking?

a. Expert panel

b. Sensitivity review

c. Test revision process

d. "Think aloud" test administration

23. John is responsible for crafting a standardized test for high school students. How can he
best mitigate the impact of guessing in test items?

a. Encouraging test-takers to guess on all items if unsure to foster active participation.

b. Replacing items where guessing is likely to occur to avoid inaccurate test

c. Utilizing multiple-choice questions that offer just one viable answer to diminish the impact of
guessing.

d. Allowing test-takers to skip difficult items to prevent guessing and alleviate test anxiety.

24. Jonathan is preparing for a standardized test and is reviewing different question formats.
What distinguishes constructed-response formats from selected-response formats?

a. Constructed-response formats provide predetermined options

b. Selected-response formats involve choosing responses from provided options

c. Constructed-response formats allow for multiple response options

d. Selected-response formats require selecting responses from a predetermined set

25. Judel is studying different scoring models for psychological assessments. What is the
primary characteristic of the cumulative scoring model?

a. Higher scores on the test indicate higher levels of the measured trait

b. Test-taker responses earn credit toward placement in specific categories.

c. Test-takers are compared to each other based on their responses.

d. Test-takers are compared based on their scores relative to the general population.

26. Junestar is reviewing the significance of the item-validity index for evaluating a test's
criterion-related validity. What does the item-validity index indicate about a test's criterion-
related validity?

a. It measures the extent to which the test accurately assesses what claims to measure.

b. It evaluates the consistency of the test items with each other.

c. It assesses the reliability of the test across various administrations.

d. It determines the level of difficulty of individual test items.

28. Kent is a chef organizing a cooking competition to determine which contestant has the best
culinary skills. Which approach would best align with the concept of Item Response Theory
(IRT) in this situation?

a. Asking each contestant to prepare a single dish and rating the overall taste and presentation.

b. Observing how contestants respond to different cooking challenges to understand their

culinary abilities better.

c. Providing contestants with a variety of ingredients and allowing them to create their own
unique dishes without any structured guidelines.

d. Tallying the total number of dishes each contestant successfully prepares and calculating the
average number of dishes made overall.

29. Kristel is developing a psychology questionnaire to assess attitudes towards stress

management techniques, she decided to put positively and negatively worded items. What is
the purpose of mixing positively and negatively worded items in Kristel's questionnaire?

a. To deliberately increase the reading difficulty level for respondents

b. To ensure that each concept is redundantly covered from different perspectives

c. To inadvertently encourage an acquiescence response set among participants

d. To effectively minimize response bias and promote more accurate responses

30. Let's say you work for a company that produces smartphones, and you're tasked with
assessing customer satisfaction with the latest model, the XYZ Phone. You decide to use the?

a. Likert scale

b. Method of paired comparisons

c. Comparative scaling

d. Categorical scaling

e. Guttman scale

31. Margie is tasked with ensuring fairness and impartiality in a set of test items for a college
entrance exam. Which approach would best help identify and address potential biases in the
test items?

a. Analyzing the performance of each test item across different demographic groups to identify
any disparities.

b. Revising test items that have been reported by individual test-takers as unfair or
discriminatory

c. Consulting with a diverse panel of experts to assess the cultural sensitivity and relevance of
the test items.

d. Administering the test to a sample of test-takers and adjusting item scores based on
demographic characteristics.

32. Marrex is planning a test tryout for a new assessment tool and is considering the
importance of replicating the conditions of the final test. Why is it important to conduct the
test tryout under conditions as identical as possible to the conditions of the final test?

a. To ensure that test-takers are comfortable during the tryout

b. To reduce the influence of luck in future data interpretation.

c. To make the tryout more enjoyable for the participants

d. To speed up the process of item analysis

33. Nelly is reviewing different scoring modes for a psychological assessment she's developing,
In which scoring model do test-taker responses earn credit toward placement in specific
categories?

a. Cumulative scoring model

b. Ipsative scoring model

c. Class scoring model

d. Normative scoring model

34. Pearl is a psychology researcher comparing different personality assessment tools. Which
of the following assessment tools is likely to use an ipsative scoring model?

a. Beck Anxiety Inventory (BAI)

b. Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression (HAM-D)

c. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)

d. Edwards Personal Preference Schedule (EPPS)

36. Remy is a test developer working on a new assessment tool and wants to ensure that the
differences in responses to the test's items are solely due to the items themselves. How does
the test developer ensure this?

a. By removing any additional factors that might affect responses

b. By administering the test in an environment that promotes honesty

c. By ensuring that the instructions for the test are clear and uniform

d. By conducting the test tryout with a large and varied sample

37. Sherwel is developing a new questionnaire to measure customer satisfaction with a mobile
app. What approach should Sherwel take when selecting items from the initial pool of
questionnaire items?

a. Randomly choose items without regard to redundancy

b. Include all items from the item pool to ensure comprehensiveness

c. Write additional items to compensate for redundancy

d. Carefully select and develop items, avoiding redundancy

38 Trishia is involved in the development of a standardized test and decides to utilize factor
analysis to assess the consistency of item measurement across various domains. How might
factor analysis influence her decision-making regarding the test items?

a. Factor analysis suggests the necessity to increase the quantity of items to improve test
reliability.

b. Factor analysis outcomes will lead to adjustments or removals of items that do not align with
the intended constructs.

c. Factor analysis confirms the sufficiency of all test items, requiring no further modifications.

d. Factor analysis is solely relevant to qualitative research and does not contribute to test
development

39. True or False: There is no single best method of scaling for any type of test.
a. False, because different tests may require different methods based on the trait or
characteristic being measured, and test developers choose the scaling method they believe is
most suitable.

b. True, because standardized methods of scaling are universally applicable to all tests regardless
of their nature or purpose.

c. True, because standardized methods of scaling ensure consistency and accuracy across all
tests, regardless of their nature or purpose.

d. False, because scaling methods are predetermined by testing agencies and are not subject to
variation.

40. What is a disadvantage of using alternate forms of a test?

a. Increased likelihood of test security breaches

b. Potential for inconsistency in difficulty levels between forms

c. Reduced reliability of test scores

d. Higher cost and resource allocation for test development

41. When conducting a survey to assess employee job satisfaction, which scaling method would
be most appropriate to use?

a. Guttman scale

b. Method of paired comparisons

c. Comparative scaling

d. Categorical scaling

e. Likert scale

42. Which statistical method is used to evaluate the discriminability of items on a test by
calculating the correlation between individual item performance and the total test score?

a. The phi coefficient method

b. The extreme group method

c. The standard deviation method

d. The point biserial method

43. Why do test developers create alternate forms of a test?

a. To promote fairness and impartiality in testing

b. To simplify the test administration process

c. To mitigate the risk of cheating during testing

d. To accommodate a larger number of test takers

44. Why do test developers typically maintain a test bank during the test development
process?

a. To establish rigid guidelines for item selection in the final version of the test

b. To ensure consistency in item difficulty across different test forms

c. To evaluate the effectiveness of scoring rules for each item

d. To provide a collection of items that can be used to make the final test.

45. Why is it common practice for the initial draft of a standardized test to include
approximately twice the number of items the final version will contain?

a. To facilitate the process of item selection and refinement

b. To decrease the overall testing time required for administration

c. To simplify the assessment process for test administrators

d. To streamline the scoring process for test developers

46. You are analyzing the item-discrimination indices of a biology test designed to assess
understanding of ecological concepts. One item has an item-discrimination index of +0.70,
while another item has an index of -0.15. What can you conclude about these items based on
their item-discrimination indices?

a. Both items effectively discriminate between test-takers with different levels of ecological
understanding.

b. The first item effectively discriminates between test-takers, while the second item does not.

c. The second item effectively discriminates between test-takers, while the first item does not

d. Neither item effectively discriminates between test-takers with different levels of ecological

47. You are tasked with creating a test to evaluate proficiency in a foreign language for
language certification Which of the following item development approaches aligns best with
the principles of criterion-referenced testing?

a. Formulating items that assess general language aptitude rather than specific language skills.

b. Including items that primarily compare test-takers' performance to the average of the group.

c. Designing items where high scorers respond correctly, regardless of their mastery of language
skills.

d. Crafting items that distinguish between individuals who have mastered the language skills and
those who have not.
48. You've been assigned the task of crafting a test for high school students to gauge their
grasp of a new science curriculum. What's the primary aim when formulating questions for
this test?

a. To minimize the necessity for item revisions during test creation, thereby reducing workload

b. To heighten the difficulty level of each question to push the boundaries of student knowledge

c. To introduce a variety of question formats to maintain student interest

d. To ensure that the questions align with the test specification and objectives, effectively
evaluating

49. You've been assigned to develop a new assessment for a college-level psychology course.
What is the primary guideline provided by DeVellis (1991) that you should adhere to when
crafting test items?

a. Ensure a balanced mix of positively and negatively worded items to capture different
perspectives

b. Generate a large pool of items to ensure comprehensive coverage of the content

c. Clearly define the construct you intend to measure with each test item

d. Avoid including excessively lengthy items to maintain clarity and focus

50. Zach is a test developer working on creating a new assessment tool for evaluating
students' reading comprehension skills. He is considering using Item Response Theory (IRT) for
the test development process. What is the main advantage of using IRT in developing this test?

a. IRT allows for a deeper understanding of individual item characteristics and their impact on
test performance.

b. IRT simplifies the process of test construction by providing predetermined scoring criteria.

c. IRT enables test developers to administer the test to a large sample of students
simultaneously

d. IRT ensures that the test is culturally sensitive and relevant to diverse populations