Test-bank-TACN-2-ESP121.docx-1

Chap 1:
1. Communication skills
a. are not as important as technical skills for career success.
b. are not necessary in today's competitive job market.
c. are ranked by recruiters at the top of qualities they most desire in job seekers.
d. cannot be learned; they are innate.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
2. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Because today's workers are more geographically dispersed, the need for well-written
messages has declined.
b. Employers rank oral and written communication skills as less valuable than hard skills
such as mathematical computation, computer literacy, and troubleshooting.
c. Communication skills are critical to your job placement, performance, career

advancement, and organizational success.
d. Business letters and interoffice memoranda remain the top forms of business
correspondence.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
3. On the job you are more likely to be taken seriously and promoted if you
a. look and sound professional.
b. frame your degree or certificate and hang it on your office or cubicle wall.
c. appear to be busy even when you're not really doing anything.
d. attend office parties.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
a. Workers today communicate less than in previous years.
b. Technology has not affected how and why we communicate.
c. Businesses today generate a wide range of messages in a variety of media.
d. Writing is a skill set used only by managers and corporate executives.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
5. Major trends in today's dynamic world of work include increased emphasis on self-directed
work groups and virtual teams, heightened global competition, innovative communication
technologies, new work environments, and focus on
a. creating an entirely online presence.
b. promoting from within.
c. restructuring and downsizing.
d. business ethics.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
6. Which of the following statements about today's business environments is most accurate?
a. The number of telecommuting employees is expected to decline in the future.
b. All companies assign offices for employees.
c. Many employees today no longer need an office; they can work anytime and anywhere.
d. Workers today spend more time in offices than workers in the past.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
7. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Ethics is a priority for many businesses.
b. Because of economic concerns, American companies are relying on local markets.
c. Most companies encourage workers to work independently.
d. Today's businesses are expanding their hierarchies to meet the demands of their
workers and their competition.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
8. Communication is defined as "the transmission of information and meaning from one

individual or group to another." The crucial element of this definition is
a. transmission.
b. information.
c. meaning.
d. individual.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
9. Converting ideas into words or gestures to convey meaning is called
a. feedback.
b. decoding.
c. encoding.
d. nonverbal communication.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
10. The communication process begins when the sender
a. determines the appropriate communication channel.
b. has an idea.
c. encodes an idea into a message.
d. plans for feedback.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
11. Translating the message from its symbol form into meaning involves
a. feedback.
b. decoding.
c. encoding.
d. nonverbal communication.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
12. Which of the following statements about feedback is most accurate?
a. Feedback is the verbal response from the receiver.
b. Senders should provide as much information as they can to their receivers to show their
intellectual capabilities.
c. Paraphrasing a speaker's message is a waste of time.
d. Feedback can include both nonverbal and verbal responses.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
13. The medium over which the message is transmitted is the
a. context of the message.
b. encoding process.
c. communication channel.
d. decoding process.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
14. Communication noise
a. includes anything that disrupts the transmission of a message.
b. is also called feedback.
c. describes only externally produced sounds.
d. occurs only during the encoding process.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
15. Many of us are poor listeners because
a. the brain can process information at least three times as fast as people talk.
b. we tend to "tune out" speakers whose ideas run counter to our own.
c. we would rather talk than listen.
d. All answer choices are correct.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
16. According to research, what percentage of our work time is spent listening?
a. 50 percent
b. 90 percent
c. 10 percent
d. 25 percent
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC

a. Very few management problems are related to listening.
b. The average person remembers nearly three quarters of what he or she hears following
a10-minute presentation.
c. We misinterpret, misunderstand, or change very little of what we hear.
d. Most people are not very good listeners.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
18. Approximately how many words per minute do most North Americans speak?
a. 375
b. 500
c. 250
d. 125
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
19. Peter must inform his employees that his company will need to let go of employees. Which
word would be best for Peter to use when conveying this idea to his employees?
a. Layoff
b. Streamlining
c. Downsizing
d. Rightsizing
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
20. You can improve your listening skills if you follow tips for active listening, including
a. keeping an open mind, establishing a receptive mind-set, and listening between the
lines.
b. establishing a receptive mind-set, concentrating on appearance and delivery, and sifting

information through biases.
c. capitalizing on lag time, concentrating on your next comment, and taking as many
notes as possible.
d. asking questions immediately, focusing on the speaker's face, and concentrating on the
details presented in the message.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
21. Your boss is giving instructions for a new method of keeping expense accounts. However,
you find it difficult to concentrate because you think the change is unnecessary. What type of
barrier to effective listening are you experiencing?
a. Language problem barrier
b. Psychological barrier
c. Physical barrier
d. Nonverbal distraction barrier
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
22. A listener who nods her head and maintains eye contact with a speaker is probably
a. listening actively to what the speaker is saying.
b. not understanding what the speaker is saying.
c. faking attention while she listens to music on her MP3 player.
d. formulating her response to a point with which she disagrees.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
23. Brian is attending a seminar on workplace efficiency and must make a presentation on this
topic when he returns to work. Brian can increase his comprehension by keeping an open mind,
listening for main points, taking selective notes, and
a. closing his eyes.
b. speaking up immediately when he has a question or does not agree with the speaker.
c. filling in the lag time by mentally reviewing other tasks he must do that day.
d. judging ideas, not appearances.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
24. Amelia has made a conscious effort to become an active listener. Therefore, she shuts down
her computer, turns off her cell phone, and asks her assistant to hold all incoming calls when she
conducts interviews. What technique is she using to improve listening?
a. Keeping an open mind
b. Establishing a receptive mind-set
c. Capitalizing on lag time
d. Controlling her surroundings
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
25. Which of the following statements about nonverbal communication is most accurate?
a. Nonverbal communication comprises approximately 10 percent of a message.
b. When verbal and nonverbal messages contradict, receivers believe that the verbal
message is more accurate.
c. Meanings of nonverbal behaviors are often influenced by one's culture.
d. Nonverbal communication applies to only intended messages.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
26. Which of the following is a form of nonverbal communication?
a. Facial expressions, such as frowning or raising the eyebrows
b. Eye contact, such as staring or avoiding looking someone in the eye
c. Time, such as showing up too late or too early
d. All of these choices are forms of nonverbal communication.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
27. According to Edward T. Hall, in which spatial zone do most people converse with friends
and family members?
a. Intimate
b. Personal
c. Social
d. Public
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
28. According to Edward T. Hall, which spatial zone is the largest?
a. Intimate
b. Personal
c. Social
d. Public
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
29. Which of the following tips should you follow to improve your nonverbal communication
skills?
a. Focus only on the sender's words when you are engaged in conversation.
b. Proofread all correspondence you send.
c. Avoid individuals from other cultures so that you don't start using nonverbal behaviors
displayed in other cultures.
d. Avoid asking the speaker questions when his or her nonverbal and verbal messages
contradict.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
30. Nonverbal communication includes
a. all unwritten and unspoken messages, intended or not.
b. only body language and gestures that accompany a spoken message.
c. only eye contact and facial expressions that support the meaning of the words.
d. only cues that reveal agreement with or contradiction of the verbal message.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
31. Most people think that the best predictor of a speaker's true feelings is his or her
a. facial expressions.
b. posture.
c. gestures.
d. eyes.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
32. Suzanne wants to make a good impression during a job interview. What should she do?
a. Avoid eye contact with her interviewer to show respect.
b. Slump down in her chair to show that she's relaxed.
c. Wear professional business attire.
d. Ask the interviewer to lunch.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
33. The manager noticed that Stephen slammed his desk drawer right after he said that he was
happy to work late. The manager should
a. tell Stephen that he should behave more professionally.
b. respond to the verbal message only and thank him for working late.
c. politely seek additional information by saying, I'm not sure that you really want to stay
late. Do you have somewhere you need to be?
d. fire Stephen for insubordination.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
34. Every country has a unique culture or common heritage that
a. teaches its members how to behave and conditions their reactions.
b. results from a common gene pool.
c. is created by a structured educational system.
d. comes from an orderly system of government and laws.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
35. Communicators in ____ cultures (such as those in North America, Scandinavia, and
Germany) depend little on the context of a situation to convey their meaning. They tend to be
logical, analytical, and action oriented.
a. high-context
b. civilized
c. ancient
d. low-context
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
36. Which of the following countries represents a high-context culture?
a. United States
b. Germany
c. Norway
d. Japan
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
37. Which of the following is a common trait of a business communicator from a low-context
culture?
a. Valuing relationships, harmony, status, and saving face
b. Relying on relationships and group decisions
c. Keeping business and social relationships separate
d. Assuming listeners require little background information
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
38. North Americans value straightforwardness and are suspicious of evasiveness. These traits
identify the cultural dimension of
a. individualism.
b. formality.
c. communication style.
d. time orientation.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
39. Which of the following countries would likely view a business contract as a binding
document?
a. Mexico
b. Greece
c. Japan
d. Germany
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
40. Learning about beliefs and practices different from our own and appreciating them means
displaying
a. tolerance
b. individualism.
c. stereotyping.
d. gender norming.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
41. An American businessperson who thinks that all Swiss are hardworking, efficient, and neat
is illustrating an example of
a. ethnocentrism.
b. tolerance.
c. stereotyping.
d. a cultural norm.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
42. Robert frequently comments that he likes working independently because that's the
American way⎯and the American way is the best way! Robert's belief in the superiority of his own
culture is an example of
a. stereotyping.
b. individualism.
c. ethnocentrism.
d. communication style.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
43. Working with people from other cultures will require tolerance. One of the best ways to
become more tolerant is by
a. practicing empathy.
b. increasing your individualism.
c. encouraging ethnocentrism.
d. knowing your communication style.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
44. While conducting business with a customer from Italy, Zoe was careful to speak slowly and
clearly, using short sentences and familiar words. However, she noticed that the customer had a
glazed expression and did not understand her. Zoe should
a. repeat what she has said in a louder voice.
b. graciously accept the blame for not making her meaning clear.
c. end the conversation until an interpreter can be found.
d. require the Italian businessperson to restate the message in simple words.

ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
45. When speaking with someone for whom English is a second language, you should talk
slowly, enunciate clearly, check frequently for comprehension, observe eye messages, listen
without interrupting, and
a. follow up important messages in writing.
b. avoid smiling, which might make you appear to lack seriousness.
c. use words that will impress the listener.
d. assume that the listener understands if he or she nods and smiles in agreement.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
46. When writing for a multicultural audience, you are more likely to be understood if you use
short sentences and short paragraphs and if you include
a. slang, such as This product really rocks!
b. idioms, such as You can improve your bottom line by using this product.
c. acronyms, such as ASAP.

d. action-specific verbs, such as e-mail me if you have any questions rather than contact
me if you have any questions.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
47. Max is preparing a contract between his company and one in Mexico. What should he do
when citing numbers in the contract?
a. Use the metric system.
b. Use American currency figures.
c. Write all months as figures rather than as words.
d. Avoid using any figures in the contract.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
48. Which of the following is a benefit of a diverse work environment?
a. Better ability to create the products desired by consumers
b. Fewer discrimination lawsuits, fewer union clashes, and less government regulatory
action
c. Improvement of employee relationships and increased productivity
d. All are benefits of a diverse work environment.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
49. Megahertz Technology Solutions, Inc., recently suffered a discrimination lawsuit. Advice to
improve its workforce diversity is likely to include understanding the value of differences,
providing diversity training for employees, building on similarities, and
a. hiring a more homogenous work group.
b. making fewer assumptions.
c. requiring all employees to use jargon that conveys stereotypes.
d. making sure all employees conform to a standard company culture.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
50. Workers who communicate successfully with diverse audiences must make few
assumptions, learn about their own and other cultures, and
a. seek common ground.

b. help others conform.
c. avoid noticing differences.
d. see professional advice.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
51. In making hiring decisions, employers often rank communication skills among the
most-requested competencies.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
52. Because of today's communication technology, writing skills are less important than in the
past.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
53. Operating a computer is an example of a "soft" skill.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
54. As a frontline employee, you can expect to have more managers in the workforce.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
55. Despite their popularity among teens, social networking sites such as Facebook and Twitter
are rarely used in today's business world.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
56. Theresa will be working with Alex on a virtual team to develop a new marketing plan.
Because they won't meet face to face, their work will be less dependent on good communication
skills.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
57. The central objective of communication is the transmission of meaning.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
58. Anything that disrupts the transmission of a message in the communication process is called
noise.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
59. Words have the same basic meanings for everyone; therefore, messages communicated
verbally are always understood.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
60. After explaining a new procedure to her employees, Amy asks, "Is there anything that
wasn't clear?" She is asking this question to encourage feedback.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
61. Successful communication takes place only when a receiver understands the intended
meaning of a message.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
62. Skilled communicators should always use complex words to communicate their ideas and
feelings.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
63. Most people listen with 50 percent or higher efficiency.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
64. Psychological barriers to listening include hearing disabilities, poor acoustics, and noisy
surroundings.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
65. Physical barriers to listening include only environmentally produced noises.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
66. If you want to become a better listener, your first step is to stop talking.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
67. Brooke is listening to a difficult presentation on nanotechnology development. As a good

listener, she should take complete notes of everything said.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
68. One of the best strategies to become a better listener is to question a speaker while he or she
is still talking to ensure your comprehension.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
69. When verbal and nonverbal messages conflict, listeners tend to believe the verbal message.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
70. Most communication is nonverbal.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
71. Understanding a message involves listening to only the spoken words.

ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
72. Most Americans communicate with business associates at approximately 1½ feet.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
73. Both your personal appearance and the physical appearance of your business documents
transmit immediate and important nonverbal messages.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
74. Zach's company does business globally. By associating with people from diverse cultures,
Zach can widen his knowledge of intercultural messages and can increase his tolerance of
differences.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
75. Greg will be the student speaker for graduation. To ensure that his nonverbal cues support
his verbal message, he should ask friends and family to monitor his conscious and unconscious
body movements and gestures.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
76. Joseph will be traveling to South America to increase sales for his company. Because the
meanings of nonverbal gestures are similar in all cultures, Joseph can indicate that everything is
OK with his South American customers by using his thumb and forefinger to form a circle.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
77. The more you know about culture in general and your own culture, the better able you will
be to adopt an intercultural perspective.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
78. Laura values individualism and personal responsibility in herself and coworkers. These
values are typical of North American culture.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
79. For Americans words are very important, especially in contracts and negotiations.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
80. The United States is an example of a low-context culture.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
81. Bijan and his family place great emphasis on tradition, ceremony, and social rules. Bijan is
most likely a member of a low-context culture.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
82. North Americans consider time a precious commodity and correlate it with productivity,
efficiency, and money.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
83. Cross-cultural communication can be improved by practicing tolerance and ethnocentrism.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
84. Ethnocentrism can be found in all cultures.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
85. For international trade it is a good idea to learn and use the metric system.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
86. Developing a diverse staff that can work together cooperatively is one of the biggest
challenges facing business organizations today.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
87. Ryan has an upcoming business meeting with a person from Germany. Because Ryan has
never met this person, he is worried about traveling there to do business for his company. Ryan
could reduce his worry by assuming that his German associate is similar to him.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
88. Businesses that want to capitalize on cultural diversity need to train workers to think and act
alike to reduce conflicts.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
89. When communicating face-to-face with a person from another culture, you can always
assume that the other person is understanding your ideas if he or she smiles.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
90. The diversity of the U.S. workforce is expected to remain relatively stable in the next
decade.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
91. ____________________ is defined as "the transmission of information and meaning from

one individual or group to another."
ANSWER: Communication
TYPE: FB
92. In the communication process, ____________________ means converting an idea into

words or gestures that will convey meaning.
ANSWER: encoding
TYPE: FB
93. When you decide the spoken or written means by which you will send a message, you have
selected the ____________________ of communication.
ANSWER: channel
TYPE: FB
94. When the receiver translates the message from its symbol form into meaning, it is known as
____________________.
ANSWER: decoding
TYPE: FB
95. The verbal and nonverbal responses of the receiver create ____________________, a vital
part of the entire communication process that helps the sender know that the message was received
and understood.
ANSWER: feedback
TYPE: FB
96. ____________________ cues include eye contact, facial expression, body movements,
space, time, territory, and appearance.
ANSWER: Nonverbal
TYPE: FB
97. According to a model developed by cultural anthropologist Edward T. Hall,

____________________ refers to the stimuli, environment, or ambience surrounding an event and
is arranged on a continuum from low to high.
ANSWER: context
TYPE: FB
98. The belief in the superiority of one's own culture is known as ____________________. This
natural attitude is found in all cultures.
ANSWER: ethnocentrism
TYPE: FB
99. An oversimplified perception of a behavior pattern or characteristic applied to entire groups

is a(n) ____________________.
ANSWER: stereotype
TYPE: FB
100. ____________________ means learning about beliefs and practices different from our own
and appreciating them. One of the best ways to develop this trait is to practice empathy.
ANSWER: Tolerance
TYPE: FB
Chap 2:
1. Which of the following represents a goal for business writers?
a. You should concentrate on your feelings in business messages.
b. You should get your audience to believe and accept your ideas.
c. You should create messages that are lengthy to demonstrate your superior intellect and
language skills.
d. You should write business messages from your perspective.

ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
2. When preparing a business message, you should make your writing audience oriented.
Audience oriented means you should
a. write to solve a problem or convey information.
b. attempt to get your audience to believe and accept your message.
c. present ideas clearly but concisely.
d. concentrate on looking at the problem from the receiver's perspective.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
3. Business writing should be purposeful. In this context purposeful can best be defined as
a. presenting ideas clearly and concisely.
b. concentrating on the receiver's perspective instead of your own.
c. solving problems and conveying information.
d. getting your audience to believe and accept your message.

ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
4. Business writing should be economical. In this context economical can best be defined as
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
5. Business writing should be persuasive. In this context persuasive can best be defined as
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
6. The first phase of the writing process involves analyzing the audience and your purpose for
writing, anticipating your audience' reaction to your message, and
a. investigating background information.
b. composing your message.
c. adapting your message to the audience.
d. looking for previous company documents on the topic.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
7. Adapting your message to the audience involves
a. thinking of the right words and tone to use in your message.
b. rewriting your message several times to ensure it is clear.
c. selecting the best research to incorporate within the message.
d. conducting a thorough audience analysis.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
8. During the second phase of the writing process, you conduct research,
a. clarify the audience demographics, and edit word choices.
b. anticipate audience reaction, and adapt the message.
c. organize ideas, and compose the message.
d. evaluate message effectiveness, and revise as needed.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
9. In the final phase of the writing process, check the message for clarity and readability,
proofread for errors, and
a. evaluate for effectiveness.
b. assess the cost in the selected delivery channel.
c. solve the problem.
d. forward the document to the publishing department.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
10. Experts say that writers should spend the most time in the ____ stage of the writing process.
a. prewriting
b. writing
c. revising
d. transmission
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
11. According to writing experts, approximately what percentage of time should you spend on
the prewriting phase of a business message?
a. 90 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 25 percent
d. 5 percent
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
12. The primary purpose of business writing is typically to inform or persuade; a common
secondary purpose is to
a. promote goodwill.
b. comply with governmental regulations.
c. create written documentation.
d. avoid lawsuits.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
13. Before Melissa organizes and composes her message, she should ask two questions: (1)
Why am I sending this message? and (2)
a. Why did my boss give this task to me?
b. What do I hope to achieve with this message?
c. How can I get this message written as quickly as possible?
d. Do I have enough time and financial resources to complete the work?
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
14. Travis must determine the appropriate channel for an important business message. In this
context channel refers to the
a. individuals who will receive the message.
b. degree of formality required.
c. medium through which the message is sent.
d. tone and approach needed to accomplish his purpose.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
15. You are selecting a channel for sending your message. Which of the following is not a factor
to consider when making this decision?
a. Amount and speed of feedback and interactivity required
b. Cost of the channel
c. Confidentiality and sensitivity of the message
d. Your competitors' channel use
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
16. Which of the following communication channels is considered the richest medium?
a. Written proposal
b. E-mail message
c. Face-to-face conversation
d. Blog posting
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
17. Human Resources Manager Claire Siu must inform Anthony that company job changes will
require him to seek retraining or lose his position. The best channel for Ms. Siu to deliver this
message is
a. an e-mail message.
b. face-to-face communication.
c. voice mail.
d. an instant message.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
18. Michael usually holds team meetings on Tuesday mornings, but he needs to reschedule next
week's meeting to Wednesday morning. To tell team members of the date change for the next
meeting, Michael should
a. send an e-mail.
b. meet in person with each team member.
c. call a team meeting.
d. write a short team report.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
19. What communication channel would be most appropriate to deliver data to a customer?
a. Business letter
b. E-mail
c. Report or proposal
d. Memorandum
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
20. What communication channel would be most appropriate when you must share digital
information with other members of your work team?
a. Wiki
b. E-mail
c. Fax
d. Instant message
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
21. What communication channel would be most appropriate when a written record or formality
is required?
a. Report or proposal
b. Letter
c. E-mail
d. Blog
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
22. What is the preferred channel choice for today's corporate communicators?
a. Memos
b. Letters
c. E-mail
d. Instant messaging
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
23. Lindsay is writing a property description for a new real estate brochure. To make her
brochure more effective, Lindsay should anticipate her audience. This means she
a. identifies the property's outstanding traits and describes them clearly.
b. concentrates on the price and value of the property.
c. writes using familiar words and a friendly, informal tone.
d. considers what the readers are like and how they will react to the message.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
24. Profiling the audience for a business message helps the writer
a. identify the appropriate tone, language, and channel.
b. guarantee that the audience will respond positively to the message.
c. select slang and jargon the audience will recognize and appreciate.
d. create a perfect first draft.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
25. What question should you ask to visualize your audience?
a. What position does the person hold in the organization?
b. Do I need to include more background information?
c. Should I expect a neutral, positive, or negative response to my message?
d. All answer choices are questions you should ask to visualize your audience.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
26. What is the primary way tone is conveyed through a business message?
a. Sentence structure
b. Language choice
c. Document design and layout
d. Sentence length
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
27. One technique that improves business writing is the use of empathy. Empathy refers to
a. using inclusive language to eliminate bias.
b. putting yourself in the receiver's shoes to adapt the message to the receiver's needs.
c. appealing to the audience by using a sender focus.
d. formatting documents to meet business standards.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
28. Which of the following sentences best focuses on the audience?
a. We are very pleased to have you as our newest customer.
b. You can help us by sending us your payment immediately.
c. Register now to lock in your preferred travel dates.
d. All sentences are focused on the audience rather than the sender.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
29. Jorge must inform Samantha that she is not eligible to have an August vacation for which
she recently applied. Which of the following sentences best demonstrates the "you" view Jorge
should use in denying Samantha's application?
a. I have not approved your August vacation because you applied too late.
b. We didn't receive your application early enough for the August vacation schedule.
c. Although the August vacation schedule is full, you may qualify for a vacation in
September if you apply now.
d. The August vacation schedule was posted in May. You should have consulted it earlier.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
30. Business messages should be conversational, professional, positive, and
a. long.
b. courteous.
c. written from the sender's perspective.
d. filled with many common abbreviations.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
31. Create a conversational but professional tone in letters, e-mail messages, instant messages,
and memos by
a. choosing a clear format and effective document layout.
b. using emoticons.
c. using familiar words, occasional contractions, and pronouns such as you and I.
d. using slang and abbreviations such as IMHO and BTW.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
32. Marketing Director Kiprova will inform the board of directors that customers are not
responding positively to the company's Paris Hilton ads. Which of the following is the most
appropriate announcement?
a. Our customers are ripping on our Paris Hilton ads, even though we know these ads
rock.
b. Our customers are badmouthing this awesome new marketing campaign; they are
obviously just out of it.
c. At the meeting you will receive reports on recent customer criticism of the new Paris
Hilton ads.
d. It has come to my attention that our customers have denigrated our strategic
implementation of Paris Hilton's notoriety in our novel ad campaign.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
33. Which of the following sentences demonstrates effective business writing?
a. Hey, Bob. Ur proposal is rad!
b. Your proposal demonstrates how our call center can better meet the needs of our
customers.
c. FYI, i liked your proposal :).

d. Congrats on the proposal. You rock!
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
34. Which of the following sentences demonstrates effective business writing?
a. As per your request, enclosed is our latest catalog.
b. Enclosed is our latest catalog.
c. The latest catalog is contained under separate cover.
d. Pertaining to your request, our latest catalog is enclosed.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
35. Which of the following sentences demonstrates conversational business writing?
a. Your return policy really ticks me off.
b. I am upset about your return policy.
c. Your return policy has provoked me to write this letter.

d. All answer choices reflect conversational business writing.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
36. As employees use instant messaging to conduct more business, they should send messages
that are informal, conversational, and
a. professional.
b. streamlined (e.g., using abbreviations such as ur for you are).
c. casual, including low-level language.
d. filled with slang and jargon.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
37. Which of the following represents the best business writing?
a. We regret that we are unable to accept you as a credit customer at this time.
b. You will never be sorry that you opened a checking account with our bank.
c. We cannot accept the returned merchandise because it is not resalable.

d. You can return all resalable merchandise for a store credit.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
38. Business messages should use positive language rather than negative language. Positive
language
a. has no effect on the tone of a message.
b. conveys less information than negative language.
c. grants the reader all requests or demands.
d. tells what is and what can be done.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
39. Courteous business messages
a. avoid using words that sound demanding or preachy.
b. often turn demands into rhetorical questions.
c. avoid hostility or anger.

ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
40. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?
a. I'm ticked! Credit my account now!
b. Will you please credit my account for $125 due to the computer error on May 1.
c. You should credit my account.
d. Please get it right and credit my account for $125.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
a. All executives and their wives will attend the Reno conference.
b. A salesman must meet monthly sales quotas.
c. The female attorney graduated from Yale.

d. The office personnel will assist you with your forms.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
42. Which of the following is most acceptable for business writing?
a. Every physician must carry his own malpractice insurance.
b. Every physician must carry their own malpractice insurance.
c. All physicians must carry their own malpractice insurance.
d. Every physician must carry his or her own malpractice insurance.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
a. An Asian CEO was the keynote speaker.
b. An African American man was the next customer.
c. A record number of Japanese investors are purchasing real estate in the United States.
d. Mr. Hernandez, a Mexican, is my boss.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
a. Julie Neibauer, 45, was promoted to our call center.
b. The little, old lady needed assistance with her purchases.
c. Daniel Simpson, a senior citizen, volunteered with Habitat for Humanity.
d. The new tax rule applied to individuals over 62.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
a. Victoria uses a wheelchair.
b. Victoria is confined to a wheelchair.
c. Crippled by multiple sclerosis, Victoria uses a wheelchair.

d. Victoria is suffering from multiple sclerosis.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
46. Business writers are encouraged to use plain English, which means
a. using active-voice verbs, personal pronouns, short sentences, and familiar words.
b. writing without weakening qualifiers.
c. avoiding all negative expressions.
d. including slang and low-level diction that everyone understands.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
47. Francisco is writing an article for the company's intranet to encourage managers to use plain
English. Which of these sentences uses an appropriate business style to express Francisco's point?
a. If you obliterate the obfuscation in your e-mail messages, your department members
will respond more appropriately.
b. Employees will respond better if you write e-mail messages with familiar language and
a friendly, conversational style.
c. Before sending an e-mail message to your department, run it up the flagpole to see if
anyone salutes.
d. Per company directives, please cease and desist from sending incomprehensible e-mail
messages to department members.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
48. Business writers who use words such as interrogate, remuneration, and terminate are using
language many readers would consider
a. slang.
b. conversational.
c. jargon.
d. unfamiliar.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
a. It is imperative that we ascertain whether you qualify for benefits.

b. Our company stipulates that you must submit your hours so that we can compensate
you properly.
c. Please check with your supervisor for information about salary increases.
d. Your remuneration will perpetuate for three weeks after your termination.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
a. Please think about the new insurance option.
b. Caltrek experienced a change in profits during the last fiscal year.
c. Retailers can expect to pay higher amounts for their goods and services.
d. Sheila will examine the job proposal carefully.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
51. A business message should be long because quantity enhances quality.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
52. The ability to prepare concise, audience-centered, persuasive, and purposeful messages
comes naturally.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
53. When writing a business message, you should always write it from your perspective.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
54. The goal of persuasive writing is to make your audience believe and accept your message.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
55. Following a systematic plan when preparing any document or presentation will make your
job easier.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
56. An important aspect of the first phase of writing a business message is anticipating the
audience's reaction to the message.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
57. Shannon is writing a proposal to the board of directors to upgrade the company's computer
equipment. After completing the prewriting phase, Shannon should immediately start composing
the report.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
58. The final task in the third phase of the writing process is evaluating your message to decide
whether it accomplishes your goal.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
59. Proofreading and revising are the same.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
60. To be effective, the three phases of the writing process must be performed in sequence,
moving from Phase 1 to Phase 2 to Phase 3 in order.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
61. You should plan to spend equal amounts of time on each phase of the writing process.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
62. The most important phase of the writing process is the revising phase.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
63. Most writers spend equal amounts of time on each of the three phases of the writing
process: prewriting, writing, and revising.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
64. As you become a more skilled and experienced business writer, you will be more likely to
alter, compress, and rearrange the writing process steps to suit your needs.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
65. The primary purposes of most business documents are to inform and to promote goodwill.
A common secondary purpose is sales growth.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
66. One of the most important questions you can ask yourself as you begin to compose a
message is What do I hope to achieve?
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
67. Alonso needs to get feedback from sales representatives located across the US and Europe.
Because he needs to have the most interactivity and feedback possible, the best channel of
communication for Alonso is videoconferencing or teleconferencing.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
68. Face-to-face conversation is a richer medium than a written report.

ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
69. One factor affecting channel choice is the importance of the message.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
70. Today's businesses increasingly use e-mail and instant messaging for conducting business,
but hard-copy memos are still written for messages that require persuasion, permanence, and
formality.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
71. Don't send a message unless you know exactly who your audience is.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
72. You are more likely to achieve your communication goals if you profile your audience and
shape the message to that profile.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
73. Profiling your audience helps you tailor your words to your readers or listeners.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
74. Although messages may have a primary and a secondary audience, the writer needs to
profile only the primary audience to determine the best presentation of the message.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
75. Ben Franklin stated this opinion about business messages: To be good, it ought to have a
tendency to benefit the reader. His opinion reflects the importance of analyzing the purpose of the
message.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
76. Empathy, which increases the likelihood of a successful message, occurs when writers put
themselves in the audience's shoes when creating the message.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
77. The following sentence represents an audience focus: Our product guarantee becomes
effective after we receive full payment.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
78. To emphasize the "you" view in e-mail messages, you must avoid any phrases that include
the "I/we" view such as I'm happy or We're delighted.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
79. Whether your goal is to inform, persuade, or promote goodwill, the catchiest words you can
use in your business writing are "you" and "your."
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
80. The active voice is generally preferred in business writing.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
81. Monica is writing her first safety-inspection report. To sound businesslike and professional,
Monica should include expressions such as the affected party, the undersigned, and the writer.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
82. Business messages are most effective if they convey an informal, conversational tone.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
83. Positive language generally conveys more information than negative language does.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
84. The sentence You must submit your application by Friday is a more effective business
message than Please submit your application by Friday.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
85. Every mechanic has ten minutes for his morning break is an effectively written sentence.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
86. Never specify the age of a person in business messages.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
87. Some business, legal, and government documents are written in an inflated and confusing
style that obscures meaning. This style of writing is often referred to as legalese or federalese.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
88. Whenever possible in business writing, substitute longer, less familiar words for shorter,
simpler words.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
89. A message that is shorter and more conversational is less likely to achieve its goal than a
message that is longer and more formal.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
90. Business messages should contain strong verbs and concrete nouns.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
91. During the ____________________ phase of the writing process, the writer analyzes the
audience and the purpose for writing.
ANSWER: prewriting
TYPE: FB
92. Sam is collecting and organizing information for a marketing report he is writing. Sam is
involved in the second phase of the writing process, which is the ____________________ phase.
ANSWER: writing
TYPE: FB
93. Catherine is proofreading her cover letter and résumé for accuracy before e-mailing them to
a prospective employer. She is in the third phase of the writing process, which is the
____________________ phase.
ANSWER: revising
TYPE: FB
94. An interesting theory called ____________________ richness describes the extent to which
a channel or medium recreates or represents all the information available in the original message.
ANSWER: media
TYPE: FB
95. The channel of choice for corporate communicators today is clearly

____________________.
ANSWER: e-mail
TYPE: FB
96. ____________________ is the process of creating a message that suits your audience. One
important aspect of this process is tone. Conveyed largely by the words in a message, tone affects
how a receiver feels after reading or hearing a message.
ANSWER: Adaptation
TYPE: FB
97. Conveyed largely by the words in a message, ____________________ affects how a

receiver feels after reading or hearing a message.
ANSWER: tone
TYPE: FB
98. Putting yourself in the receiver's shoes to better adapt your message to that person's needs is
called ____________________.
ANSWER: empathy
TYPE: FB
99. Theresa has emphasized second-person pronouns (you, your) instead of first-person
pronouns (I/we, us, our) in a letter to a customer. She is using the ____________________ view.
ANSWER: you
TYPE: FB
100. ____________________ describes technical or specialized terms within a field.
ANSWER: Jargon
TYPE: FB
Chap 3:
1. Matthew must develop a proposal for his supervisor that will describe the cost savings for an
automated call center. Where should he begin?
a. Writing the proposal
b. Locating other proposals that he can copy
c. Researching the proposal
d. Determining an appropriate layout
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
2. Before composing a business document, you should gather information that will answer
which of these questions?
a. Will I have enough time to complete thorough research?
b. What is the receiver to do?
c. What information will be the easiest to locate?
d. How will I use this information?
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
3. Formal research methods are generally required for what type(s) of business document(s)?
a. Routine e-mail messages
b. Routine memos
c. Long reports and complex business problems
d. All of these choices would require formal research.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
4. Which of the following is a formal research method?
a. Talking with your boss
b. Organizing a focus group
c. Brainstorming
d. Looking in company files
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
5. Which formal research source is best to obtain firsthand information?

a. Internet Web sites and articles
b. Reference books
c. Electronic databases
d. Interviews
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
6. Stephanie is preparing a market analysis for her business plan. For firsthand information she
should
a. search manually in her local library.
b. conduct interviews and surveys or organize a focus group.
c. search the Internet for related Web sites.
d. review scientific experiments conducted by experts.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
7. Quality Building Materials Inc. has developed a new whole-house weather blanket and needs
to determine the price point at which builders would switch to this new product. The best research
method for this is a(n)
a. manual search of other companies' price lists.
b. interview with a local builder.
c. Internet search of insulation values for weather blankets.
d. scientific experiment that presents price choices with controlled variables.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
8. As interns in human resource management, Brad and his team are administering a
professionally developed employee questionnaire to collect information on workplace violence.
This type of research produces data that is considered
a. firsthand information.
b. informal documentation.
c. supplementary, secondary information.
d. scientific experimentation.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
9. Ahna is sending a persuasive memo to her staff asking them to participate in the new wellness
program. Which of the following sources of information would be most appropriate to help Ahna
shape an effective persuasive message for her staff?
a. Tightly controlled scientific experimentation
b. Library research rooms
c. Questionnaires and surveys of employees
d. Research in company files
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
10. Many routine writing tasks such as composing e-mail messages or informational reports
require that you collect information informally by
a. conducting extensive Web research.
b. conducting a scientific experiment.
c. looking in the files.
d. searching a variety of books, journals, or magazines.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
11. When brainstorming to generate ideas, you should
a. critique each idea as it is suggested.
b. record ideas without judging them.
c. always work alone for greater efficiency.
d. allow no more than five ideas to be discussed.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
12. You will create clear, readable messages if you
a. proceed free form from one idea to the next for maximum creative effect.
b. avoid emphasizing important ideas to allow readers to judge for themselves.
c. group similar items together and emphasize important ideas.
d. do not follow any pattern that restricts the free flow of your ideas.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
13. Organizing data includes two processes. These processes are
a. grouping and strategizing.
b. brainstorming and researching.
c. outlining and drafting.
d. drafting and editing.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
14. According to communication experts, what is the greatest failing of business writers?
a. Poor spelling
b. Unclear sentence structure
c. Ambiguous wording
d. Poor organization
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
15. Organizing your ideas into an outline is especially important when you are
a. developing a complex project.
b. writing a routine memo.
c. replying quickly to an e-mail message.
d. beginning the research phase of the writing process.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
16. The direct strategy would be most appropriate when
a. delivering bad news.
b. presenting ideas requiring persuasion.
c. expecting the audience to be pleased, mildly interested, or neutral.
d. revealing sensitive news.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
17. Which of the following business messages would use the direct strategy?
a. A letter denying credit to a customer
b. A sales letter
c. A letter rejecting a customer's claim
d. An e-mail to your staff reminding them of the upcoming all-staff meeting
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
18. Which of the following is an advantage of the direct strategy?
a. Minimizes a negative reaction
b. Respects the feelings of the reader
c. Saves the reader time
d. Encourages a fair hearing
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
19. Which of the following message openings is the most direct opening for an e-mail message
announcing a new telecommuting plan?
a. A number of employees have asked about telecommuting options.
b. Many businesses have been implementing telecommuting programs, and we have

studied their programs extensively.
c. Rising gas prices have led many companies to allow telecommuting, and we think this
might be a good idea for our company.
d. Our new telecommuting program will begin on August 1.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
20. Yosevin began his memo with background information and explanations before announcing
a reduction in health insurance coverage. The strategy Yosevin used is called
a. frontloading.
b. direct.
c. passive voice.
d. indirect.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
21. Which of the following is an advantage of the indirect strategy?
a. Saves the reader's time
b. Respects the feelings of the audience
c. Prevents frustration
d. Sets a proper frame of mind
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
22. When you expect a reader of your message to be uninterested, unwilling, displeased, or
hostile, you should
a. put the bad news first.
b. begin with the main idea.
c. explain all background information first.
d. send the message via e-mail, text message, or IM.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
23. Which of the following kinds of business messages typically use the indirect strategy?
a. Non-sensitive memos
b. Routine requests
c. Informational reports
d. Sensitive messages
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
24. What kind of sentence contains only one independent clause?
a. Simple sentence
b. Compound sentence
c. Complex sentence
d. Compound-complex sentence
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
25. What kind of sentence contains two independent clauses?

a. Simple sentence
c. Complex sentence
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
26. What kind of sentence contains an independent clause and a dependent clause?
a. Simple sentence
c. Complex sentence
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
27. What kind of sentence contains at least two independent clauses and a dependent clause?
a. Simple sentence
c. Complex sentence
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
28. Which of the following is a simple sentence?
a. If health insurance costs continue to rise, employee copays may increase.
b. Having healthy employees decreases the cost of monthly premiums; therefore, we will
be implementing a wellness program.
c. HMO and PPO insurance plans offer additional cost savings.
d. Because we will be reducing employee health insurance benefits, some employees may
be unhappy; however, we must make sure that they understand the reason for the
change.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
29. What is the recommended maximum number of words for a sentence?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
30. What is a sentence fragment?
a. Two independent clauses connected without punctuation or a conjunction
b. Two independent clauses connected by a comma without a conjunction
c. A broken-off part of a complex sentence
d. The part of a sentence containing the verb
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
31. What is a comma splice?

a. Two independent clauses run together without punctuation or a conjunction
b. Two independent clauses joined by a comma without a conjunction
d. Two dependent clauses
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
32. What is a run-on sentence?
a. Two independent clauses run together without punctuation or a conjunction
b. Two independent clauses joined by a comma without a conjunction
d. An independent clause containing two dependent clauses
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
33. Which of the following contains no sentence faults?

a. Which is why we are considering new health insurance options.
b. HealthNet's coverage is extensive, and the rates are fair.
c. Review the list of benefits, then let me know what you think.
d. Having good health insurance is important to employees we need to keep that in mind.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
34. How should the following be classified? ReliaCare increased insurance premiums by 28
percent for our next fiscal year, that is why we are seeking new insurance bids.
a. Complete sentence
b. Fragment
c. Fused or run-on sentence
d. Comma splice
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
35. How should the following be classified? Liana called ReliaCare she also requested a new
bid for health insurance premiums.
a. Complete sentence
b. Fused or run-on sentence
c. Fragment
d. Comma splice
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
36. To emphasize an idea through mechanics, place it in
a. boldface.
b. a different font style.
c. capital letters.
d. Any of these techniques would emphasize the idea.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
37. To emphasize an idea through style, place it

a. in a simple sentence.
b. in a dependent clause.
c. in the middle of a sentence.
d. Any of these techniques would emphasize the idea.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
38. Which of the following sentences is most effective in de-emphasizing the bad news?
a. Although cash refunds are not offered, you can exchange resalable merchandise.
b. Although you can exchange returned merchandise, cash refunds are not available.
c. Since we only exchange merchandise, it is impossible for you to receive a cash refund.
d. Because of our exchange policy, you may not receive a cash refund.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
39. Active-voice sentences

a. direct the action of the verb toward the subject.
b. place the subject of the sentence as the doer of the action.
c. generally use a to be helping verb.
d. should always be avoided.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
40. Which of the following uses only active voice in a complete sentence?
a. The company's rigid return policy was criticized by a few unhappy customers.
b. Because a few unhappy customers criticized the company's rigid return policy.
c. Managers were told about the unhappy customers who criticized the company's rigid
return policy.
d. A few unhappy customers criticized the company's rigid return policy.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
41. When should passive voice be used in business writing?

a. When you want to de-emphasize the action or the recipient of the action
b. When you want to emphasize the doer of the action
c. When you want to de-emphasize negative news
d. Never
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
42. Which of the following uses parallel structure?
a. Our new paralegal must be smart, efficient, and have flexibility.
b. The accident shattered her pelvis, dislocated her foot, and her spinal column was
broken in three places.
c. Big business demands superior forecasting, reporting, and analyzing.
d. A good financial planner must be certified, competent, and must possess ethical
standards.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
43. Which of the following sentences uses modifiers correctly?

a. Competent in computer graphics, our Web site was designed by Gloria.
b. To take advantage of the discounted pricing, place your order immediately.
c. To meet customers' orders, shipments must be increased.
d. Placing the proposal on the desk, the office was left by John.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
44. Effective paragraphs
a. usually present the main idea in the first sentence.
b. are coherent.
c. include supporting sentences that expand and explain the main idea.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
45. What do most writers use as the first sentence in a paragraph?

a. Supporting sentence
b. Transitional sentence
c. Topic sentence
d. Pivoting sentence
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
46. Paragraphs are coherent when
a. all sentences are written in the active voice.
b. each sentence includes dependent and independent clauses.
c. ideas are linked; that is, one idea leads logically to the next.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
47. Transitional expressions such as next, first, and finally are useful to show
a. cause and effect.
b. illustration.
c. comparison and contrast.
d. time association.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
48. Paragraphs should
a. focus on as many ideas as necessary.
b. avoid the repetition of key or similar words.
c. contain long, solid chunks of print.
d. contain eight or fewer printed lines.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
49. Writer's block can best be defined as

a. a block of time set aside to compose documents and projects.
b. the organization of research and ideas into an outline or scratch list.
c. an inability to produce a first draft because of poor preparation.
d. a neighborhood in a city or town where writers live and work together.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
50. Most writers can compose their business messages more effectively if they
a. have a quiet environment in which to concentrate.
b. turn on a TV, CD player, stereo, or other device to stimulate their thinking.
c. maintain a normal working environment, including accepting phone calls, text

messages, IMs, and occasional visitors.
d. hold off writing until the perfect wording forms the complete message in their minds.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
51. You can expect to write more messages on the job than ever.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
52. Being able to write effectively is critical to promotions.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
53. Research is necessary only when composing formal documents.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
54. When you fail to collect all needed research before beginning to organize and write your
business document, you may end up starting over and reorganizing.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
55. One question you should ask yourself when you collect research is What does the receiver
need to know about this topic?
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
56. Jonathan is researching the financial impact of a job-sharing benefit for employees. Talking
with his boss about the possible effects of offering this benefit to employees is an effective method
of formal research.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
57. Conducting scientific experiments is a method to gather formal research.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
58. Most routine business writing tasks allow you to use informal research techniques to gather
sufficient information.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
59. Looking in company files for information is a waste of time.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
60. Brainstorming is an ineffective research technique.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
61. Many communication experts regard poor organization as the greatest failing of business
writers.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
62. Using a hierarchy such as an outline can help you to organize ideas and information.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
63. When you expect the reader to be pleased, mildly interested, or neutral, use the indirect pattern
of organization.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
64. Another name for the direct method is frontloading.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
65. One advantage of the direct method is that it saves the reader time.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
66. The indirect pattern works well with three kinds of messages: (a) bad news, (b) ideas that
require persuasion, and (c) sensitive news.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
67. One advantage of the indirect method is that it respects the feelings of the audience.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
68. The most compelling and effective messages contain one repeated sentence pattern rather
than a variety of sentences.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
69. A compound-complex sentence contains two complete but related thoughts.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
70. Because sentences of 20 or fewer words have the most impact, business writers must restrict
all sentences to fewer than 20 words.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
71. Words such as although, as, because, and which often introduce dependent clauses.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
72. A run-on-sentence results when a writer joins two independent clauses with a comma.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
73. Mechanical techniques to emphasize important ideas include underlining, italics, boldface,
font changes, all caps, dashes, tabulation, columns, and headings.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
74. Although mechanical means are occasionally appropriate to create emphasis, more often a
writer achieves emphasis stylistically.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
75. Careful writers avoid labeling main ideas because they know that readers prefer to identify
main ideas for themselves.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
76. The following sentence effectively uses a stylistic device to de-emphasize the bad news:
Although we don't have any available positions at this time, we were pleased to receive your
application and will keep it on file for six months.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
77. In the active voice, the subject is acted upon. In the passive voice, the subject is the doer of
the action.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
78. Active voice is more direct, clear, and concise. Therefore, passive voice should never be
used in business writing.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
79. To achieve parallel construction, use similar structure to express ideas.

ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
80. The following sentence demonstrates parallel structure: Eric demonstrated dedication,
effective communication skills, and he was always punctual.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
81. Modifiers must be close to the words they describe or limit.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
82. The following sentence contains a dangling or misplaced modifier: Working all night, the
brief was filed with the court on time.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
83. Business writers generally place the topic sentence first in the paragraph.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
84. All support sentences in a paragraph must relate to the topic sentence.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
85. Pronouns can be used to promote paragraph coherence.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
86. Good writers should avoid repetition of words or key ideas because it shows lack of
creativity.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
87. Writers can use words and phrases such as on the other hand, as opposed to, and conversely
to show contrast in business messages.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
88. Business writers should strive for paragraphs with eight or fewer printed lines.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
89. Communicators who have not completed their preparatory work may suffer from writer's
block as they sit staring at their computer screens waiting for inspiration.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
90. Experts recommend that business writers avoid free writing, which is similar to cramming
for final exams and likely to produce similarly poor results.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
91. Nicola is collecting information for a business document she is writing. We call this
collection process ____________________.
ANSWER: research
TYPE: FB
92. Long reports and complex business problems generally require some use of
____________________ research methods.
ANSWER: formal
TYPE: FB
93. Looking in the files and talking with your boss are methods of ____________________
research.
ANSWER: informal
TYPE: FB
94. In the ____________________ pattern of organization, the main idea comes first, followed
by details, an explanation, or evidence.
ANSWER: direct
TYPE: FB
95. Persuasive and bad-news messages should usually use the ____________________ pattern.
ANSWER: indirect
TYPE: FB
96. A(n) ____________________ sentence contains an independent clause (a complete
thought) and a dependent clause (a thought that cannot stand by itself).
ANSWER: complex
TYPE: FB
97. The refund authorization was processed by our customer service representative is an
example of a sentence using the ____________________ voice.
ANSWER: passive
TYPE: FB
98. A dangling ____________________ results when the word or phrase the modifier describes
is missing from its sentence.
ANSWER: modifier
TYPE: FB
99. A(n) ____________________ is a group of sentences about one idea.
ANSWER: paragraph
TYPE: FB
100. Before and meanwhile are examples of transitional expressions that show
____________________ association.
ANSWER: time
TYPE: FB
Chap 5:
1. Which of the following statements about communication in the workplace is most accurate?
a. Today's workplaces are nearly all paperless; employees conduct business with digital
media and communicate only with electronic messages.
b. Most employees exchange documents and complete projects on the Web, but only
management creates content, reviews products, or edits projects.
c. More data are stored on and accessed from PDAs and individual computers rather than
on the Internet or a network.
d. Although today's workplaces are still far from paperless, increasingly information is
exchanged electronically and on the go.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
2. Business are storing and accessing ever more data along with software in remote network
clusters. This process of remote storage is called
a. community sourcing.
b. networking.
c. cloud computing.
d. data dumps.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
3. Web 2.0
a. allows users to create content, review products, and edit and share information.
b. is a software editing package that finds and corrects all grammar and spelling errors in
business documents.
c. has replaced the need for paper copies of business documents.
d. is a Web site that contains journals on a variety of topics usually written by one person.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
4. How are businesses using VPNs (virtual private networks) today?
a. Businesses use VPNs to send confidential e-mails on their intranets.
b. Small businesses share VPNs instead of developing their own Web sites.
c. VPNs offer businesses secure access to company information from any worldwide
location that provides an Internet connection.
d. VPNs are the primary host site of corporate blogs used to promote new products.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
5. The technological revolution of the last 25 years has resulted in
a. shortened workweeks for lucky i-workers (information workers).
b. amazing productivity gains.
c. fewer workers telecommuting than expected.
d. increasing worker freedom from workplace communications.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
6. You must communicate up-to-date information immediately to customers who are digitally
connected. Which of these is the best communication channel to offer you this always-on
connectedness for your business message?
a. E-mail
b. Twitter
c. Podcast
d. Blog
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
7. You are delivering your salary and benefits proposals for employees in your department to
your supervisor. What is the best communication channel to deliver this confidential information?
a. E-mail
b. Podcast
c. Interoffice memo
d. All are appropriate channels to deliver confidential information.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
8. Which of the following messages is appropriate to send via e-mail?
a. An announcement of a major benefit reduction for all employees
b. An announcement of a change in a meeting date
c. A quarterly performance appraisal of an employee
d. Notification of company layoff plans for the next quarter
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
9. Jackson is sending an e-mail message about an important upcoming meeting. Which of the
following represents the most effective subject line?
a. Urgent!
b. Our next staff meeting will be held on the 15th of August.
c. Please Attend Staff Meeting August 15
d. Please Read NOW
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
10. Most e-mail messages and memos
a. have non-sensitive topics and begin directly.
b. require persuasion.
c. are indirect and begin with an explanation.
d. need not be carefully organized because they are informal.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
11. Bennett is sending an e-mail message about a change in procedure for submitting work
hours. Which of the following represents the most direct opening?
a. Recently, the management staff discussed our process for submitting work hours.
b. A new procedure for submitting work hours will go into effect on April 1.
c. Are you in the mood to try something a little different?
d. We all hate when procedures change, but this change is needed.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
12. Which of the following is the best advice for writing the body of an e-mail message?
a. To help the receiver act on the subject, discuss only one idea.
b. Because e-mail messages and memos are informal, do not use numbered or bulleted
lists.
c. Limit white space to place all information on a single screen if possible.
d. Do not waste space on headings and subheadings.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
13. Your e-mail messages and memos should have high skim value, which meANSWER
a. you write the message quickly and efficiently.
b. information presented is easy to read and comprehend.
c. all sentences contain ten or fewer words.
d. all paragraphs contain five or fewer lines.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
14. An e-mail message or memo usually ends with action information, needed dates, a summary
of the message, or a
a. witty quotation.
b. copyright notice or confidentiality statement.
c. closing thought.
d. reference line that includes the typist's initials.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
15. Which of the following is the most appropriate closing for an e-mail message or memo?
a. Please submit your report by August 1 so that the information can be presented at the
seminar.
b. Please let me know if I may be of further assistance.
c. Thank you in advance for answering my questions.
d. It's been great talking with you.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
16. Which of the following is not a guide word used in e-mail messages and memos?
a. TO:
b. FROM:
c. RESPONSE:
d. DATE:
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
17. What is the current advice on the use of a greeting on business e-mail?
a. Omit greetings because they make an e-mail appear too casual.
b. Add a greeting only when forwarding an e-mail with a lengthy header.
c. Don't waste precious digital space on the nonessential keystrokes of a greeting or

salutation.
d. Begin with a greeting to provide a visual cue and to show friendliness.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
18. If a coworker is using company computers to communicate with family members, what is
the best advice?
a. Send e-mail to family or friends if you wish because the employer can't monitor
non-business e-mail anyway.
b. Use company computers for e-mail and shopping, but don't visit any gambling sites.
c. Don't use company computers for personal matters.
d. Be certain to complete all personal communication during break time.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
19. If you have to send a long message via e-mail, what is the best advice?
a. Place all information in the body of the e-mail message.
b. Attach a separate document to the e-mail message, leaving the body of the message
blank.
c. Attach a document to the e-mail message, including identifying information in the body
of the e-mail.
d. Send it another way because you should not send attachments via e-mail.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
20. The final element of an e-mail message should be
a. your name.
b. a witty phrase and your name.
c. the name of the business or organization only.
d. the final paragraph of the message containing action information.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
21. To correctly format a hard-copy interoffice memorandum, which of the following is not a
guideline you should follow?
a. Set 1-inch top and bottom margins and left and right margins of 1.25 inches.
b. Insert in bold the guide words: Date:, To:, From:, and Subject: at the left margin.
c. Provide a heading that includes the name of the company plus "Memo" or
"Memorandum."
d. Justify the right margin.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
22. Business e-mail users must learn that e-mail can be dangerous because messages travel long
distances, are difficult to erase, and
a. can't be used to transmit official documents.
b. are informal, allowing a few spelling and punctuation mistakes.
c. may become evidence in court.
d. are challenging to type using only two fingers.

ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
23. E-mail is the No. 1 communication channel in business today. To make your messages
effective, you should
a. consider the receiver.
b. compose quickly.
c. organize indirectly.
d. edit and revise as you draft.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
24. Samantha must use e-mail frequently to communicate with others in her new job. What is
the best advice to give her?
a. Consider composing important messages offline.
b. Use general tags such as Hi! or Important as the subject line to catch the reader's
attention.
c. Add frequent emoticons such as happy faces to appear friendly and approachable in
e-mail messages.
d. Always press "Reply to All" when responding to e-mail messages.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
25. Good advice for e-mail is to use the "top-of-screen" test, which meANSWER
a. beginning with a cute graphic or witty quotation to capture your reader's attention.
b. getting the e-mail address right.
c. composing offline.
d. conveying your purpose in the subject line and first paragraph.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
26. Which of the following situations is most appropriate for sending an e-mail message?
a. Matthew is angry with one of his colleagues and wants to let her know exactly how he
feels.
b. Jane found a great political joke she wants to share with her colleagues.
c. Chris must send the monthly sales data to his department.

d. Maggie needs to vent her frustrations about working conditions to her shift supervisor.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
27. Which of these is the best recommendation for business communicators using e-mail?
a. Use e-mail to deliver bad news or to resolve arguments to limit or avoid workplace
confrontation.
b. Add humor or tongue-in-cheek comments to lighten the tone of serious e-mail topics.
c. Use e-mail, not hard-copy memos, for messages that the business would not want to be
made public or for topics that should not be published.
d. Care about tone, correctness, and conciseness to create messages with the reader in
mind.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
28. If business writers want to demonstrate good netiquette when using e-mail, they should
a. document every business decision and action in hard-copy memos or e-mail.
b. write important e-mail messages in all capital letters for emphasis and increased
professionalism.
c. ask permission before forwarding e-mail messages.
d. add a cc (carbon copy) to their supervisors on all business messages.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
29. Which of the following is the best tip for replying to e-mail messages?
a. Reply to an e-mail message immediately because reading additional e-mail messages

before replying might confuse you.
b. If you can't reply immediately, acknowledge receipt of the message and tell the sender
when you'll be able to reply.
c. Include the sender's entire original message in the body of your reply to clarify the
meaning of your response.
d. Retain the original subject line to identify a conversation thread even if the topic shifts.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
30. Which of the following is an advantage of instant messaging (IM)?
a. It includes "presence functionality," allowing coworkers to locate each other online,

which saves time tracking someone down who is out of the office.
b. It is delayed; a user has time to recall sent messages if he or she decides the message
should not have been delivered.
c. It prevents multitasking and encourages employees to focus on one job at a time.
d. It allows in-depth analysis of data, including charts and graphs, and lengthy
conversation of the chosen topics.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
31. Why do some employers forbid employees to use instant messaging (IM)?
a. Instant messaging is more expensive to use than faxes or phone calls.
b. Employers consider IM yet another distraction in addition to the interruptions caused

by telephones and e-mails.
c. Delivery of instant messages takes longer than e-mail message delivery.
d. Many companies forbid instant messaging use for all these reasons.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
32. Porter's company has decided to let employees use instant messaging (IM) as an internal
communication tool, and she wants to make sure that she's using it professionally. What should she
do?
a. Make sure she's available via IM at all times so that her colleagues can always reach
her.
b. Include both professional and personal contacts on the same IM contact list for
efficiency.
c. Respect her receivers by using proper grammar, spelling, and proofreading in her
instant messages.
d. Create an imaginative IM name for herself such as "PrettySmart1."
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
33. Podcasts, blogs, and wikis are part of the new user-centered virtual environment called
a. the Total Network.
b. Web 2.0.
c. Cloud Computing.
d. VPN.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
34. Because access to the Web is readily available, the dangers are obvious. Which of these
represents a common danger of the Web?
a. Fact checking is reducing productivity.
b. Buzz may become more important than truth.
c. It is difficult to establish or verify a reputation.
d. People can access information on the Web.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
35. News professionals, educators, and corporate trainers create digital audio or video files; and
receivers can download the files to a computer or a smartphone to view or hear the file contents.
What are these digital audio or video files called?
a. Blogs
b. Podcasts
c. Wikis
d. Web forums
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
36. Businesses have embraced podcasts for audio and video messages because podcasts
a. do not require a live presence, yet offer a friendly human face.
b. can't replace costlier live teleconferences but can replace most business travel.
c. provide up to 1,000 views per podcast, saving money over individual presentations.
d. broadcast interactive, non-repetitive information.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
37. Which of the following is the best tip for preparing a podcast?
a. Purchase a high-end digital recorder, memorize your message, and record your
presentation.
b. Speak clearly, deliver off the cuff, and maintain eye contact.
c. Know the subject, know your audience, and know your goal.
d. Select a digital recorder, organize your message, and rehearse your delivery.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
38. The biggest advantage of business blogs is that
a. they have the potential to reach a vast, far-flung audience.
b. they have become the primary method of business communication internally.
c. they provide anytime access to digital audio and video files containing corporate
training, marketing, and informational messages.
d. they provide digital security against hackers and rival companies.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
39. Some companies now use Twitter and other social media to monitor what is being said
about them, to engage with customers, and
a. to serve as cover letters for longer documents.
b. to post job openings.
c. to market to other businesses.
d. to share files and collaborate on projects.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
40. You are using the corporate blog to respond to an business emergency. Which of the
following is the best recommendation?
a. Use the blog as the sole provider of emergency information to avoid muddled
messages.
b. Make the blog part of your overall effort to communicate information regarding the
business's emergency.
c. Soothe emotional reactions by posting information on your corporate blog, replacing

all other communication channels.
d. Do not address rumors or misinformation on the blog; address factual content only.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
41. Blogs have several internal communication purposes including
a. posting employee changes such as layoffs, promotions, and firings.
b. announcing employee illnesses, adoptions, and vacations.
c. providing information about benefits or featuring profiles on key employees.
d. posting administrative salaries, raises, and incentive packages.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
42. You are crafting a message for your corporate blog. What advice should you follow?
a. Make your writing serious, reserved, and formal.
b. Offer a professional perspective on subjects you care about or a topic your company
needs to promote.
c. Get to know the blogosphere in your industry and avoid discussing topics from other
blogs.
d. Blog about topics that showcase your expertise and insights.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
43. Experts advise that you use blogrolling to maximize effectiveness. What does blogrolling
mean?
a. You provide links to other sites or blogs on the Web that you find valuable and that are
related to your business or industry.
b. You frequently update or "roll over" the information on your blog to keep it fresh.
c. Your company or organization maintains separate blogs for each department or division
and posts rolling messages daily.
d. You add links to other technologies, allowing viewers to access podcasts, Twitter feeds,
Facebook pages, and company files.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
44. How do companies use wikis?
a. Companies share special deals and incentives in short messages of 140 characters or
less.
b. Corporate teams respond to internal and external customers in rapid-fire posts to

emergencies and other high-pressure situations.
c. Global companies share information between headquarters and satellite offices.
d. Companies post photos and biographies of their top-tier managers.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
45. You must contribute to projects on your departmental wiki. Which of the following is not a
guideline you should follow?
a. Follow the conventions of polite society and commonsense rules and show respect.
b. Watch out for improper or ambiguous language.

c. Freely and severely criticize obvious errors by another contributor.
d. Verify your facts and give credit where credit is due.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
46. Which of the following statements best describes use of social networks by businesses
today?
a. All companies are comfortable with using social networking for brainstorming and
teamwork.
b. Companies struggle with finding the right balance between permitting access to the
Web and protecting security as well as ensuring productivity.
c. Companies must run their own social networks to capitalize effectively on the benefits
this medium offers.
d. Large companies (like McDonalds and British Telecom) create buzz and promote their
brands via social networking, but social networking offers no benefit to small
businesses.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
47. Travis has asked you for some advice regarding the use of social networking in the
workplace. What advice will you share?
a. Do not share any sensitive information.
b. Refuse friend requests or "unfriend" people to avoid jeopardizing professional

relationships.
c. Establish boundaries, and don't share information online that you wouldn't share openly
in the office.
d. Assume the content posted on a social networking site is protected.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
48. Which of the following represents a potential reward of using professional networking sites
such as LinkedIn?
a. Sites like LinkedIn are inexpensive, simple, and fast ways to connect recruiters and job
candidates.
b. Professional networking sites can replace face-to-face interviews.
c. Candidates do not need to craft their profiles with the same care as used for their
traditional résumés.
d. Networking sites are automatically updated, relieving the jobseeker of the obligation of
keeping documents current.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
49. Why do busy employees choose to use RSS feeds?
a. Most employers demand that employees remain connected via RSS at all times.
b. Including RSS (Recent Senders Service) feeds allows employees to track customer
activity levels in their e-mail and other communication tools.
c. RSS feeds have identified computer viruses and malware, saving millions of dollars for
large corporations.
d. These feeds can be a time-saver, allowing users to monitor many news sources in one
convenient spot.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
50. What is the purpose of social bookmarking?
a. It helps users search, organize, manage, and store bookmarks on the Web with the help
of metadata.
b. It connects single employees with other singles in the same company.
c. It allows businesses to identify emerging data needs, to select new digital

communication technologies, and to merge existing software.
d. It enables interdepartmental collaboration on long-term projects by managing
multiple-data packages.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
51. E-mail has replaced letters for many messages inside organizations and for some messages
to external audiences.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
52. PDF documents guarantee that the reader receives a message that looks exactly as the writer
intended.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
53. Use e-mail for internal messages requiring a permanent record or formality; use hard-copy
memos for external messages requiring a permanent record or formality.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
54. Informational e-mail and memos generally follow the same writing plan: informative
subject line, direct opening, explanatory body, and appropriate closing.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
55. Including a subject line in your e-mail message or memo is optional because the message is
usually short.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
56. Open most e-mails and memos indirectly to show respect for readers.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
57. Effective e-mail messages and memos generally discuss only one topic.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
58. Readers look for deadlines and action language in the body of an e-mail message or memo.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
59. Please let me know if I may provide additional information or be of further assistance is an
example of an effective, professional closing for an e-mail message or memo.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
60. You need not close messages to coworkers with goodwill statements such as those found in
letters to customers or clients.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
61. Because the recipient's e-mail address is located in the e-mail heading, including a greeting
in the message body is not necessary.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
62. The Accounting Department wants to document the information it presented at the weekly
divisional meeting. The best internal channel to create a permanent, formal record of this
information is a hard-copy memo.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
63. One of the risks in using e-mail is "self-destructing," which refers to accidentally sending an
e-mail message without first carefully editing it or verifying the recipients' names.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
64. Typing your name at the bottom of an e-mail message is unnecessary.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
65. In addition to the basic elements of Date, To, From, and Subject, large organizations may
include other identifying headings, such as File Number, Floor, Extension, Location, and
Distribution on memos.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
66. One risk of e-mail is that even though you erase an e-mail message, it can remain on
multiple servers that are backed up by companies or Internet service providers.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
67. E-mail is an appropriate channel for communicating schedule changes, breaking bad news,
and resolving arguments.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
68. E-mail messages have benefits and risks; some risks occur because e-mail messages travel,
intentionally or unintentionally, long distances.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
69. Travis deleted an e-mail message, but now he needs that message. Unfortunately, once
deleted, e-mail can never be retrieved.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
70. Because employers have the legal right to monitor e-mail use, assume that your employer
monitors all workplace e-mail.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
71. When preparing your script for a podcast, include some redundancy: tell the listeners what
you will tell them, then tell them, and, finally, tell them what you have told them.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
72. Although teenagers use instant messaging (IM) frequently, corporations do not use this
communication tool.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
73. The major attraction of instant messaging (IM) in business is real-time communication with
colleagues anywhere in the world⎯so long as a cell phone signal or a Wi-Fi connection is
available.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
74. Podcasting has experienced large growth and has spread among various user groups online.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
75. RSS feeds are online journals used by companies to communicate internally with employees
and externally with customers.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
76. Millie needs to research customer reactions. She should consider a blog because blogs can
produce unbiased consumer feedback more quickly and cheaply than familiar techniques like focus
groups and surveys.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
77. Twitter is very popular for personal use with employees under age 35, but businesses have
not yet found positive business applications for this digital communication tool.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
78. One of the prominent business uses of blogs is to provide up-to-date company information
to the press and the public.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
79. Businesses now have appointed employees to scrutinize the blogosphere for buzz and
positive or negative postings about their organization and products.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
80. Unlike more formal business messages, blog entries should address a general audience,
have a casual style, and use an informal tone; thus the blog message will be suitable for anyone.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
81. When creating a blog, you are striving to attract repeat traffic by individual blog readers and
to avoid hits by search engines.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
82. Lines between social and professional networking have been clear; and as a business
communicator, you must strive to keep those boundaries distinct.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
83. Business applications for social networks continue to emerge as some organizations provide
the collaboration tools and watch what happens.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
84. You must be wary of the many risks in the cyber world, which include not only appearing in
inappropriate photographs but also making "friends" online.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
85. Professional networking sites allow hiring managers to fully screen job applicants, select the
best candidate, and offer the job to the selected candidate, thus saving today's businesses time and
money in the hiring process.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
86. As businesses try to control the risks related to Internet access, their younger employees, in
particular, are shocked to find employers have blocked access to Facebook, Gmail, and other
popular Web destinations.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
87. RSS is a fast and easy way to search and manage information in a data file format capable
of transmitting changing Web content.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
88. About three quarters of U.S. companies view social media⎯mostly LinkedIn⎯as essential
sources for recruiting.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
89. The terms social networking and social bookmarking both refer to an online service used to
connect users with related interests.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
90. A majority of messages are being exchanged electronically.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
91. ____________________ messages tend to carry more weight, are more formal, and are
taken more seriously in certain situations.
ANSWER: Hard copy
TYPE: FB
92. In the ____________________ of an e-mail message, you should cover just one topic.
ANSWER: body copy

TYPE: FB
93. Sending unsolicited advertisements, also called ____________________, either by fax or

e-mail is illegal in the United States.
ANSWER: spam copy
TYPE: FB
94. A(n) ____________________ is a digital audio or video file that can be downloaded to a
computer or watched on a smartphone.
ANSWER: podcast copy
TYPE: FB
95. An e-mail message should include a descriptive ____________________ to help ensure that
the message will be read.
ANSWER: subject line copy
TYPE: FB
96. To, From, Date, and Subject in an e-mail message or a memo are called
____________________ words.
ANSWER: guide copy
TYPE: FB
97. Unless your company specifically allows it, never use your employer's computers for
____________________ messages or entertainment.
ANSWER: personal copy
TYPE: FB
98. Although e-mail is still a relatively new business communication tool, a set of rules for
polite online interaction called ____________________ has emerged.
ANSWER: netiquette copy
TYPE: FB
99. ____________________ messaging enables you to use the Internet to communicate in real
time in a private chat room with one or more individuals. It is like live e-mail or a text telephone
call.
ANSWER: Instant copy
TYPE: FB
100. Teams or departments use ____________________ to collect and disseminate information to

large audiences creating a database for knowledge management.
ANSWER: wikis copy
TYPE: FB
Chap 9:
1. Which of the following statements about reports is accurate?
a. Business professionals rarely write reports.
b. Writers develop reports for internal audiences only.
c. Informal reports of eight or fewer pages are the most common report in the workplace.
d. Business writers deliver reports only through hard copies.

ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
2. Reports convey information, answer questions, and
a. present your opinions.
b. solve problems.
c. comply with government regulations.
d. demonstrate your proficiency as a technical writer.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
3. Reports that present data without analysis or recommendations are
a. informational reports.
b. analytical reports.
c. cost-benefit analysis reports.
d. justification reports.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
4. Which of the following is most likely to be written as an informative report?
a. A recommendation from the Information Technology Department that your company

install a wireless network
b. A feasibility study addressing tuition reimbursement to all employees
c. A comparison of five handheld communication devices that your company might

purchase
d. A summary of information presented at a recent conference for technical writers
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
5. Reports that provide data or findings, analyses, and conclusions are
a. informational reports.
b. analytical reports.
c. summaries.
d. progress reports.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
6. Which of the following reports is an example of an analytical report?
a. A report summarizing the details of a recent seminar you attended
b. A report recommending an antiterrorism security system for mass transit
c. A report outlining the new company procedure for reporting workplace injuries
d. A report showing state budget allocations for education
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
7. The direct pattern of organization is appropriate for a business report when readers
a. need to be educated.
b. must be persuaded.
c. are informed.
d. may be disappointed or hostile.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
8. When you organize a report directly, what is the correct order of ideas to follow?
a. Introduction, facts, and summary
b. Introduction, summary, and facts
c. Summary, introduction, and facts
d. The direct pattern presents ideas in any order for maximum effectiveness.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
9. The indirect pattern of organization is appropriate for a business report when readers
a. are supportive of the topic.
b. must be persuaded.
c. are familiar with the topic.
d. want to know the results immediately.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
10. When you organize a report indirectly, in which order should you present your ideas?
a. Description of the problem, conclusions, facts, and recommendations
b. Conclusion, recommendations, description of the problem, and facts
c. Description of the problem, facts, conclusions, and recommendations
d. The indirect pattern does not follow a set order of ideas.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
11. Which is the most accurate statement about business report organizational patterns?
a. The primary difference between direct and indirect organizational patterns is the
location of the findings.
b. Many business executives place most importance on the analysis of the problem in a
report.
c. When using the indirect organizational pattern, place the conclusions and
recommendations at the beginning of the report.
d. The indirect pattern seems more logical to many readers because it mirrors the way we
solve problems.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
12. Connor has studied the effect of on-site daycare on employee work attendance. He must
present his findings to his supervisor, who is opposed to this service. How should Connor present
his information?
a. Use persuasive strategies and an indirect organizational pattern.
b. Arrange the report using the direct organizational pattern.
c. Omit background data as this might bore his supervisor.
d. Give up; his boss will never go for this idea anyway.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
13. The format of a report depends primarily on
a. its topic, recommendations, and organizational pattern.
b. your knowledge of the writing process.
c. its length, topic, audience, and purpose.
d. your printer quality and paper type.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
14. You are writing a short, informal report that will stay inside your organization. Which
format would be most appropriate?
a. Letter format
b. Memo or e-mail format
c. Manuscript format
d. Full-block format
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
15. You are writing a short, informal report that you will send to one of your customers. Which
format would be most appropriate?
a. Letter format
b. Memo or e-mail format
c. Manuscript format
d. Printed form
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
16. You work for a development firm and must explain to a customer the results of a year-long
study of potential sites for new stores. In what format should you develop this report?
a. Memo or e-mail format
b. Printed form
c. Letter format
d. Manuscript format
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
17. You are an inventory specialist for a retail store. Your boss has asked you to compile a
year-end report listing the merchandise sold each month through the company's Web site. In what
format should you present this data?
a. Memo or e-mail format
b. Preprinted form
c. Letter format
d. Manuscript format
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
18. Which statement regarding digital report formats and delivery is accurate?
a. Although digital media allows writers to produce and distribute reports electronically,
good writers follow up such electronic reports with hard copies.
b. Only certain kinds of reports can be attached to an e-mail.
c. New technology allows users to hyperlink multimedia content within a document or

with associated text or files.
d. When attaching a report to an e-mail message, you do not need to introduce the report
or reference the attachment in the e-mail message.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
19. When you receive an assignment to write a report, you should begin the report-writing
process by
a. analyzing your audience.
b. determining your purpose.
c. beginning your research.

d. looking for someone else to write the report.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
20. Many business writers begin their report research by
a. conducting interviews.
b. observing others.
c. constructing questionnaires and inventories.
d. visiting company records.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
21. What type of research source provides the richest and most accurate first-hand information?
a. Surveys
b. Interviews
c. Company records
d. Observations
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
22. Typical sources for factual information in an informal report include
a. company records, observation, and electronic resources.
b. observation, personal opinion, and print sources.
c. printed materials, the writer's educated guesses, and electronic resources.
d. personal experience, personal observation, and personal opinion.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
23. Which of the following statements is accurate?
a. Primary data result from reading what others have experienced or observed.
b. Secondary data come from firsthand experience and observation.
c. Secondary data are easier and cheaper to gather than primary data.
d. Secondary data are always gathered after the collection of primary data.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
24. A report that monitors the headway of a nonroutine or unusual activity is called
a. the minutes of a meeting.
b. an information report.
c. a progress report.
d. a summary.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
25. A report that attempts to solve problems by presenting data, drawing conclusions, and
offering solutions is called a(n)
a. justification/recommendation report.
b. information report.
c. progress report.
d. summary.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
26. Reports that describe routine activities without analysis are called
a. justification/recommendation reports.
b. information reports.
c. progress reports.
d. summaries.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
27. A record of the proceedings of a meeting is called
a. a progress report.
b. an information report.
c. a summary.
d. the minutes.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
28. What kind of report condenses the primary ideas, conclusions, and recommendations of a
longer report or publication?
a. Progress report
b. Information report
c. Summary
d. Analytical report
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
29. As chairperson of a customer service task force, you must update management on your
team's progress. What kind of report will you write?
a. Justification/recommendation report
b. Information report
c. Progress report
d. Feasibility report
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
30. Your department needs a new copier, and your job is to research the options. Based on your
research, you have selected an all-in-one machine that you believe will be cost effective and will
perform well. What kind of report would you write to present your findings?
a. Summary report
b. Justification/recommendation report
c. Information report
d. Progress report
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
31. As a human resources (HR) assistant, you must write a monthly report to the HR director
summarizing the number of job applicants, the number of interviews conducted, and the number of
active employees. What kind of report would you prepare?
a. Information report
b. Justification/recommendation report
c. Progress report
d. Feasibility report
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
32. Your current assignment is to condense a 200-page government policy report on oil drilling
in Alaska into a shorter report for Sierra Club members to read. What kind of report would you
most likely write?
a. Information report
b. Summary report
c. Justification/recommendation report
d. Progress report
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
33. Your company currently processes its payroll internally but is considering the use of an
external accounting firm. You are in charge of determining whether your company should proceed
with this plan. What kind of report would you most likely write?
a. Feasibility report
b. Progress report
c. Information report
d. Summary report
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
34. Which of the following is most likely to be written as an informational report?
a. A report recommending the installation of retina scanner to improve security
b. A report telling management about the current status of a long-term project
c. A government regulatory report to be filed with the Securities and Exchange

Commission
d. A report comparing three locations and identifying the best for a new franchise outlet
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
35. You have organized the findings section of your information report by answering who, what,
when, where, why, and how. This pattern is called
a. chronological.
b. journalism style.
c. geographical.
d. alphabetical.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
36. Which of the following situations might require a progress report?
a. The work of a committee preparing for an open house when a new wing of a hospital is
completed
b. The reporting of monthly sales figures for all divisions
c. A study of whether a company should provide on-site childcare
d. A one-page summary of a long article in The Wall Street Journal
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
37. In what order should you organize your ideas when you believe your audience will be
agreeable to the suggestions in your justification/recommendation report?
a. Announce the recommendation, explain the recommendation, identify the problem or
need, and provide necessary action.
b. Provide necessary action, identify the problem or need, announce the recommendation,
and explain the recommendation.
c. Identify the problem or need, announce the recommendation, explain the

recommendation, and provide necessary action.
d. Identify the problem or need, provide necessary action, announce the recommendation,
and explain the recommendation.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
38. Which of the following is not needed in a feasibility report?
a. The background and problem necessitating the proposal
b. Problems that may result from implementation
c. Costs of implementing the proposal
d. Persuasive techniques
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
39. Thomas is in charge of taking formal minutes during an Institute of Internal Auditors
chapter meeting. Which of the following is the best advice?
a. Record only new business because old business will appear in previous minutes.
b. Avoid using the exact wording of motions because that would be too time consuming.
c. Record voting results and actions taken.
d. Omit his name and signature as the person recording the minutes because he is acting
on behalf of the organization.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
40. Which of the following is the best advice to follow when writing a summary?
a. Include specific examples from the report, article, or book you are summarizing.
b. Copy passages word for word to ensure that you cover the main ideas.
c. Avoid headings or lists to prevent reader distraction.
d. Condense the original ideas.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
41. An informal writing style includes
a. contractions (for example, wouldn't, don't, they're).
b. second-person pronouns (for example, you and your).
c. mainly passive-voice verbs.
d. longer sentences.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
42. Which of the following constructions uses the best writing style for an informal report?
a. James, Deloitte, and Wilts, Inc., after extensive review of references and credentials of
contractors, has elected to contract with Peck Builders for the new office complex.
b. We're pleased to announce the selection of Peck Builders as general contractor for our
new office complex.
c. After conducting an exhaustive search of building design elements and cost-efficiency

data, the company has verified the qualifications of Peck Builders.
d. The findings demonstrate the imperative of selecting a fully qualified and bonded
contractor for the new building project of James, Deloitte, and Wilts, Inc.; that
contractor is Peck Builders.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
43. Which of the following sentences demonstrates active-voice verbs?
a. Superior writing skills are required by many employers.
b. Employee use of e-mail was monitored by management.
c. Research indicates a correlation between strong writing skills and promotions.
d. The proposals were carefully reviewed by the screening committee.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
44. Irina wants to make sure that she sounds credible in her business report. What should she do
to build her credibility?
a. Discuss only the position that she favors so that her readers don't get confused.
b. Write her personal opinions so that they sound like facts.
c. Tell her readers the source of her information.
d. Irina should do all of these to build credibility.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
45. Which of the following represents the best use of language?
a. Most people agree...
b. Some people agree...
c. Seventy-five percent of people agree...
d. All answer choices reflect appropriate language choice.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
46. Headings that show the outline of a report are called
a. talking headings.
b. topic headings.
c. functional headings.
d. descriptive headings.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
47. Headings that describe the content of a report section are called
a. talking headings.
b. topic headings.
c. functional headings.
d. descriptive headings.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
48. Which of the following statements about functional headings is accurate?
a. Functional headings are useful for complex reports.
b. Functional headings provide more information than talking headings.
c. Functional headings are not appropriate for sensitive or controversial topics.
d. Background is an example of a functional heading.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
49. Which of the following is a talking heading?
a. IT Outsourcing
b. Savings
c. Cost Savings
d. Projected Cost Savings for IT Outsourcing
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
50. Vanessa is writing a report that will include headings. What should she do to make sure that
her headings are effective?
a. Enclose the headings in quotation marks to make them stand out on the page.
b. Vary same-level headings in terms of physical position and appearance to help the
reader maintain interest in the report.
c. Use headings as antecedents for pronouns to make her report more concise.
d. Include at least one heading per report page.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
51. Business reports are always presented in writing or orally, but they are not presented
digitally.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
52. The most common type of report in the workplace is the formal report.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
53. You will write reports for only one reason: to convey information.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
54. Based on their function, business reports typically fall into one of two categories:
instructional or persuasive.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
55. An informative report presents data without analysis and recommendations.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
56. The direct organization strategy presents the purpose for writing near the beginning of a
report.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
57. The direct strategy is appropriate when your readers are informed or supportive of your
topic.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
58. Use the indirect strategy for all analytic reports.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
59. The format for an informal report relies solely on the intended audience.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
60. Preprinted forms are useful for reporting repetitive data.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
61. If you are preparing a report in manuscript format for an outside organization, print the
report on your company letterhead.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
62. The memo or e-mail format is appropriate for short informal reports that stay within
organizations.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
63. All reports are printed on either paper or preprinted forms.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
64. You can attach reports in any format to an e-mail message.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
65. The first step in preparing a report is to sit down and begin writing immediately; this
technique allows you to capture your best ideas quickly.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
66. Identifying your primary and secondary audiences can help you determine your writing
style.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
67. Primary data result from reading what others have experienced or observed and recorded.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
68. Many report writers begin with an analysis of company records and files.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
69. Surveys provide the richest, most accurate first-hand information.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
70. Business researchers often use such electronic resources such as mailing lists, discussion
boards, social networking sites, and blogs to conduct research for business reports.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
71. Informal business reports generally fall into one of six categories. However, in many
instances the category boundaries overlap and distinctions are not always clear-cut.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
72. Informational reports may be personalized or standardized.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
73. You should organize all informational reports topically.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
74. Progress reports are written for only internal readers.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
75. Feasibility reports analyze a problem, discuss options, and present a recommendation,
solution, or action to be taken.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
76. When your reader may oppose your recommendation, you should begin the report by
announcing the recommendation directly.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
77. Feasibility reports answer such questions as Will this plan or proposal work?
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
78. Feasibility reports are typically written for internal audiences.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
79. Formal meeting minutes provide a record of old business, new business, announcements,
and reports, as well as the precise wording of motions.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
80. Informal minutes tend to be longer and less well organized than formal minutes, making the
informal minutes more difficult to read.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
81. Summary reports are typical in academic settings but rarely used in business settings.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
82. The primary purpose of an executive summary is to concentrate on what management needs
to know from a longer report.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
83. A formal writing style includes first-person pronouns, contractions, active-voice verbs,
shorter sentences, and familiar words.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
84. The audience, purpose, and setting of a message usually determine the use of a formal or
informal writing style, but only a formal writing style will enhance the authority and credibility of
a report.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
85. Reports are convincing only when the facts are believable and the writer is credible.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
86. Although citing sources in a formal report is essential, you do not need to cite sources in an
informal report.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
87. Discussion of Findings is an example of a functional heading.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
88. Functional headings should be used instead of talking headings in a report when the report
discusses a sensitive or controversial topic.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
89. Headings are advantageous only to the reader of the report, not to the writer.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
90. You should include at least one heading per report page.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
91. Business ____________________ are systematic attempts to convey information, answer
questions, and solve problems.
ANSWER: reports
TYPE: FB
92. In a report using the ____________________ organizational pattern, the problem,

discussion, and findings are presented before the conclusions and recommendations.
ANSWER: indirect
TYPE: FB
93. Use ____________________ format for short (usually eight or fewer pages) informal
reports addressed outside an organization.
ANSWER: letter
TYPE: FB
94. Use Empowered Team Decision-Making Without Losing Control is an example of a(n)
____________________ heading.
ANSWER: talking
TYPE: FB
95. A distinct type of information report is the ____________________ report. In this type of
report, business travelers identify the event they attended or the company they visited; summarize
three to five main points objectively; and, if requested, itemize their expenses on a separate sheet.
ANSWER: trip
TYPE: FB
96. The purpose of a(n)____________________ report is used to tell management whether a

nonroutine project is on schedule.
ANSWER: progress
TYPE: FB
97. ____________________ or recommendation reports attempt to solve problems by

evaluating options and offering recommendations.
ANSWER: Justification
TYPE: FB
98. A(n) ____________________ condenses the primary ideas, conclusions, and

recommendations of a longer report or publication.
ANSWER: summary
TYPE: FB
99. When a company must decide whether to proceed with a plan of action, it may require a(n)
____________________ report.
ANSWER: feasibility
TYPE: FB
100. ____________________ are a record of the proceedings of a meeting.
ANSWER: Minutes
TYPE: FB
Chap 10:

a. Proposals are persuasive documents used to solve problems, provide services, or sell
equipment.
b. Proposals are always solicited.
c. Proposals are informative documents used to share problems, identify emerging issues,
and categorize available resources for resolution.
d. Proposals are developed for external audiences only.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
2. A company might prepare a proposal for which of the following reasons?
a. To show its compliance with Homeland Security rules and regulations
b. To solicit competitive bids for a new building
c. To inform company shareholders of an attempted hostile takeover
d. To bid for a contract to retrofit a local bridge
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
3. An RFP (request for proposal) can best be defined as

a. a document that solicits competitive bids on a project.
b. an offer to provide a service, sell equipment, or solve a problem.
c. an internal report justifying a request for additional staffing and equipment.
d. a persuasive sales presentation emphasizing benefits for the reader.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
4. A business would be most likely to write a request for proposals
a. to advertise openings for two sales positions.
b. to attract new clients.
c. to renovate offices.
d. to begin expansion in global markets.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
5. In addition to an introduction, the background information, and the proposal itself, informal or
letter proposals often contain
a. staffing requirements, a budget, and an authorization request.
b. service dates, applicable laws and statutes, and a signed contract.
c. a bill for services rendered and a signed contract.
d. free prizes and other gimmicks.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
6. You can make the introduction of a proposal more persuasive if you
a. explain in great detail how much better you are than your competitors.
b. hint at the problem you will solve but avoid explaining the reasons for the proposal.
c. remain as vague as possible to keep the reader intrigued.
d. provide a "hook" such as mentioning a remarkable resource available exclusively to the

writer.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
7. Which of the following is the best tip to fight writer's block when writing proposals?
a. Drink a lot of coffee to make your mind sharp.
b. Begin by making a bulleted list of customer wants and needs.
c. Make a list of personal benefits you will receive after receiving the contract.
d. Type anything because proposals must adhere to deadlines.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
8. In which part of a solicited proposal would you most likely convince your reader that you
understand the problem completely?
a. Introduction
b. Background
c. Authorization
d. Budget
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
9. In which section of an informal proposal would you most likely include a timetable for a
project to be completed?
a. Staffing
b. Authorization
c. Budget
d. Proposal
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
10. What may be included in the staffing section of an informal proposal?
a. Credentials and expertise of project leaders
b. Size and qualifications of support staff
c. Resources such as computer facilities
d. All may be included in the staffing section.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
11. The budget in a proposal should

a. reflect careful research because a proposal is a legal contract.
b. provide only rough estimates so that you can raise the price later if costs increase.
c. never itemize hours and costs, but offer only a total sum.
d. include a disclaimer to ensure that the budget is not legally binding.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
12. Jeremy has decided to include a deadline for acceptance in his proposal to install
energy-efficient workstations for a local manufacturer. In which section should Jeremy place the
deadline?
a. Introduction
b. Background
c. Authorization request
d. Proposal
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
13. The main differences between informal and formal proposals are
a. the primary and secondary audiences.
b. the style and need for correctness.
c. identification of resources used and placement of documentation.
d. format and length.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
14. Although formal reports are similar to formal proposals, a primary difference is that
a. formal reports represent the end product of thorough investigation and analysis.
b. formal reports use a more conversational tone.
c. reports are written for internal audiences only.
d. more formal reports are written than formal proposals.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
15. What is the first step in preparing to write a formal report?

a. Analyze your audience.
b. Research primary and secondary data.
c. Define the project and limit its scope.
d. Determine the length of the report.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
16. What is the best advice when writing a statement of purpose for a formal report?
a. Write a statement of purpose only for external formal reports.
b. Omit limitations to avoid a negative tone.
c. Use action verbs that tell what you intend to do.
d. Do all of these choices when writing statements of purpose.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
17. Primary research data can be defined as

a. information that comes from reading what others have experienced and observed.
b. information gained from firsthand experience and observation.
c. statistics collected during the first stage of research.
d. data you get from the Web.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
18. Your boss asks you to write a formal report on the impact of smoking on employee
healthcare costs. Like nearly every writer of a research project, you should begin your research by
a. reviewing secondary data in the library or on the Internet.
b. interviewing your colleagues to solicit their input and feelings.
c. preparing a questionnaire to distribute to your colleagues.
d. conducting a field experiment.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
19. Although researchers are increasingly using electronic data, you should learn to use print
resources because
a. electronic sources are never considered as reliable as books and magazines.
b. print sources provide primary data and electronic sources provide secondary data.
c. some data is available only in print.
d. audiences respect only writers who include data from print sources.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
20. What type of print resource provides excellent historical data?
a. Periodicals
b. Bibliographic indexes
c. Brochures
d. Books
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
21. Many researchers today begin by looking in electronic databases because

a. they know that all data found in electronic databases is valid and reliable.
b. electronic databases are always a free resource if you have Internet access.
c. it is easy to cite sources found in an electronic database.
d. electronic databases are convenient to use.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
22. Which statement about the World Wide Web is accurate?
a. The Web always provides accurate, credible information.
b. The Web is a collection of hypertext pages that offer information and links of trillions
of pages.
c. The number of Web sites is now decreasing after reaching its peak of 235 million sites.
d. Only certain individuals or organizations are permitted to post on the Web.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
23. Searching the Web requires a(n)

a. e-mail address.
b. Web browser.
c. handheld wireless device.
d. master's degree.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
24. Which statement about search tools is accurate?
a. A search tool is also called a Web browser.
b. A search tool is a service that indexes, organizes, and often rates and reviews Web
pages.
c. Bing is currently the most-used search tool.
d. A search tool helps to protect the user's computer against viruses and malware as the
user conducts Web searches.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
25. What is the best advice for conducting an Internet search?

a. When connecting to a search tool for the first time, always read the FAQs (Frequently
Asked Questions), Help, and How to Search sections.
b. Use one search tool only so that you can master it.
c. Use all uppercase letters for your searches.
d. Include articles and prepositions in search phrases to make searches more specific.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
26. A blog is
a. an online diary or journal that allows visitors to leave public comments.
b. a computer virus that frequently appears from Web sites such as Facebook and
MySpace.
c. a collection of hypertext pages that offer information and links.
d. an electronic information storage base that users access via computer and search
digitally.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
27. Which of the following is a primary data source?
a. Periodicals
b. Electronic databases
c. Blogs
d. Experimentation
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
28. Surveys, which are used to collect firsthand data, have many advantages. One advantage is
that
a. those who respond to mailed or online surveys exactly represent the overall population.
b. respondents can be relied on to respond openly and truthfully to anonymous surveys.
c. data can be gathered economically and efficiently.
d. return rates for online and mailed surveys are typically over 90 percent.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
29. Brittany is writing a business report about protecting workplace data and will be conducting
an interview with a data security expert. What is the best advice you can give her?
a. Call before the interview to confirm the arrangements, and then arrive on time.
b. Learn about the individual she is interviewing, and research the background and
terminology of the topic.
c. Use open-ended questions rather than yes-or-no questions to draw out the responses
from the expert.
d. Brittany should complete all these steps.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
30. Plagiarism
a. involves using good data from reputable sources to increase your credibility and to
enhance the logic of your reasoning.
b. happens in only academic settings.
c. is the act of using others' ideas without proper documentation or by paraphrasing

poorly.
d. is restating an original passage in your own words.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
31. Which of the following statements about documenting data is not accurate?
a. Documenting data can strengthen your argument.
b. Documenting data protects you from charges of plagiarism.
c. Documenting data is not necessary if you put the information in your own words.
d. Documenting data helps the reader pursue the topic further.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
32. Which of the following statements would need to be documented in a report?
a. Tornadoes caused extensive loss of property and lives in Missouri.
b. You can get an idea of how dangerous a tornado is by its rating.
c. Damaging winds, common in strong tornadoes, caused problems for the residents of
Missouri.
d. The Fujita-Pearson tornado scale rates tornadoes with wind speeds of 261 to 318 miles
per hour as F5 storms.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
33. Paraphrasing is
a. restating an original passage in your own words.
b. repeating the grammatical structure of the original passage.
c. replacing original words with appropriate synonyms.
d. indicating the source of the original work.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
34. Which of the following is not a purpose for a direct quotation?
a. To duplicate exact wording before criticizing an idea
b. To repeat identical phrasing because of its precise wording
c. To add length to a researched document
d. To provide objective background information
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
35. Which of the following is the best advice about the use of direct quotations in a report?
a. Beware of overusing quotations because you may appear as if you have no ideas of
your own.
b. If you use a direct quotation, don't dilute its impact by summarizing it or introducing it
in your own words.
c. Place the direct quotation in quotation marks, but change a few words to show you
have your own ideas.
d. Direct quotations do not need to be placed in quotation marks if the audience is already
familiar with the quote such as "The buck stops here."
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
36. What is the correct order of ideas for a report using the indirect strategy?
a. Recommendations, findings, and conclusions
b. Conclusions, findings, and recommendations
c. Findings, conclusions, and recommendations
d. Recommendations, conclusions, and findings
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
37. Chronological organization arranges ideas by
a. time.
b. order of importance.
c. physical location.
d. simple to complex.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
38. Tanika must prepare a formal report detailing the findings of a year-long study of her
company's new wellness program. In this report she must discuss employee absenteeism before
and after the program's implementation. What type of organizational pattern will she likely use?
a. Chronological
b. Spatial
c. Compare/Contrast
d. Importance
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
39. Tyler is writing a report that analyzes the GlobalCom, Inc., market share of cell phone
subscriptions worldwide by region. He will probably organize his report
a. chronologically by the date the cell phone subscriptions reached their maximums.
b. around extensive secondary data to assure the reader that he conducted adequate
research before he wrote the report.
c. using a functional arrangement to show types of subscriptions globally.
d. geographically with sections representing each region's market share.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
40. Logan is creating an outline to help him write a report on e-waste generated by his
company. What advice should he follow?
a. Include the outline as part of the final report so that his audience can quickly see his
organizational pattern.
b. Create a balanced outline with exactly the same number of subpoints and details for
each main point.
c. Avoid placing only one subpoint under a main idea.

d. Avoid using the main points used on the outline as main headings in the written report.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
41. Yolanda must include a long table in a report she is preparing on employee Internet use.
What advice should she follow when creating the table?
a. Avoid distracting her readers with shading.
b. Place the table as close as possible to its text discussion.
c. Leave missing data blank.
d. Because the emphasis is on the data, avoid the use of headings for each row.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
42. The major advantage of line charts is that they
a. compare related items.
b. present large amounts of data.
c. show the proportion of parts to a whole.

d. demonstrate trends.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
43. What type of graphic illustrates changes in data over time?
a. Line chart
b. Flowchart
c. Bar chart
d. Table
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
44. In her letter to policyholders, Min Yi needs a graphic depicting the procedure a policyholder
follows when filing a claim. Which of these would be most appropriate?
a. Organizational chart
b. Flowchart
c. Illustration
d. Table
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
45. Which statement about pie charts is accurate?
a. Pie charts are most useful for technical audiences.
b. Pie charts are most appropriate for showing percentages.
c. Pie charts are more flexible than bar or line charts.
d. Pie charts can be confusing to readers because of the use of multiple colors.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
46. Which of the following is the best advice when using graphics in reports?
a. Don't overuse color because too much color can be distracting and confusing.
b. Don't introduce a graphic; a good graphic should communicate clearly itself.
c. Avoid summarizing the main point of the graphic.

d. Avoid the use of headings on a graphic.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
47. What is the purpose of a letter or memo of transmittal?
a. To present an overview of the report
b. To provide a list of sources used within the report
c. To introduce the writer of the report
d. To designate the parts of the report
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
48. What advice should you follow when preparing a table of contents?
a. Avoid leaders (spaced or unspaced dots) on a table of contents to avoid confusing the
reader.
b. Include all headings for a long report on the table of contents.
c. Include a list of figures on the table of contents.

d. Wait until you have completed the report before writing the table of contents.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
49. The discussion of findings in a report should do all of the following except
a. use graphics to illustrate key points and findings.
b. use first-person pronouns.
c. analyze and interpret the research findings or solution.
d. present evidence to justify your conclusions.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
50. What information is included in the appendix in of a formal report?
a. Surveys
b. Sources mentioned in the report
c. Recommendations based on the report findings

d. Author's credentials
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
51. Proposals are informative documents used to educate readers.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
52. Proposals may be internal or external, but most proposals are external.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
53. External proposals may be solicited or unsolicited, but most proposals are unsolicited.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
54. RFP stands for "Required Formal Procedures."
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
55. Informal proposals are often presented in short (two- to four-page) letters.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
56. Most proposals begin by explaining briefly the reasons for the proposal and by highlighting
the writer's qualifications.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
57. To make the introduction of your proposal persuasive, include a "hook" that focuses on the
audience's specific needs and benefits.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
58. In a solicited proposal, your goal is to convince the reader that a problem exists.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
59. If you are responding to a request for proposal (RFP), avoid using the same language of the
RFP as doing so will show a lack of creativity.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
60. Don't include a deadline for acceptance in the budget section of a proposal because doing so
puts too much pressure on the reader.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
61. A proposal represents a legal contract.

ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
62. Companies today prefer online proposals.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
63. The main differences between formal and informal proposals are tone and language use.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
64. Like proposals and informal reports, formal reports begin with a definition of the project.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
65. The first step in preparing a report is to conduct research.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
66. Secondary data come from reading what others have experienced and observed.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
67. An advantage of secondary data over primary data is that secondary data are easier and
cheaper to develop.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
68. Books provide historical, in-depth data; however, periodicals provide limited but current
coverage.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
69. If you find information on the Web, you can be assured that it is reliable.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
70. To efficiently locate information using the Internet, use two or three search tools and
combine keywords into phrases.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
71. Businesses should avoid using social networking sites to generate research because these
sites serve entertainment and leisure purposes only.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
72. Both observation and experimentation produce firsthand data to clarify cause and effect.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
73. When you conduct an interview, prepare closed-ended questions to make the interviewee
feel relaxed and at ease.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
74. The only reason to document sources in a report is to avoid charges of plagiarism.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
75. Documenting data is necessary only when writing long reports and proposals.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
76. If you paraphrase (put information in your own words), you did not need to credit the
information source.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
77. Information that is common knowledge requires no documentation.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
78. If you are worried about plagiarizing, you can avoid the problem if you use the grammatical
structure of the original and just replace words with synonyms.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
79. Katrina has decided to organize her business report using the direct organizational pattern.
Therefore, she should begin the report with her conclusions and recommendations.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
80. A report discussing the correct procedure to process customer complaints should be
organized using a chronological order.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
81. Most writers agree that the clearest way to show the organization of a report is by recording
its divisions in an outline.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
82. Avoid the use of graphics in a report because graphics usually confuse readers.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
83. Probably the most frequently used visual aid in reports is the table.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
84. The major advantage of line charts is that they show changes over time, thus indicating
trends.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
85. Avoid referencing graphics in the text of your report; the visual should speak for itself.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
86. The title page is a prefatory part of a business report.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
87. If included with a report, a letter or memo of transmittal should be written using the indirect
pattern.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
88. The body of a formal report typically includes an introduction; the discussion of findings;
and a summary, conclusions, or recommendations.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
89. The recommendations of a report may be placed in a separate section or incorporated with
the conclusions.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
90. Regardless of the referencing format used, citations include the author, title, publication,
date of publication, page number, and other significant data for all sources used in the report.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
91. Graphics should incorporate lots of color and decorations to provide visual impact for
readers.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
92. Informal proposals are sometimes called ____________________ proposals.
ANSWER: letter
TYPE: FB
93. In the ____________________ section, your aim is to discuss your plan for solving the
problem.
ANSWER: proposal
TYPE: FB
94. The ____________________ section promotes the credentials and expertise of project
leaders and support staff.
ANSWER: staffing
TYPE: FB
95. The planning of every report begins with a statement of ____________________ that
describes the goal, significance, and limitations of a formal report.
ANSWER: purpose
TYPE: FB
96. A(n) ____________________ is a collection of information stored electronically so that it is

accessible by computer and digitally searchable.
ANSWER: database
TYPE: FB
97. A(n) ____________________ tool is a service such as Google that indexes, organizes, and
often rates and reviews Web pages.
ANSWER: search
TYPE: FB
98. An online diary or journal that allows visitors to leave public comments is called a weblog
or ____________________.
ANSWER: blog
TYPE: FB
99. ____________________ is giving credit to your information sources.
ANSWER: documentation
TYPE: FB
100. Business reports often rely on ____________________ data from firsthand experience such
as surveys, interviews, observations, and experimentations.
ANSWER: primary
TYPE: FB
101. Using the ideas of someone else without giving credit is called ____________________ and
is unethical.
ANSWER: plagiarism
TYPE: FB
CHAP 11
1. Which statement about professionalism is accurate?
a. Professionalism refers to those behaviors exhibited only to customers.
b. Professionalism describes desirable workplace behavior.
c. Professionalism emphasizes hard skills or technical knowledge desired by employers.
d. Professionalism is important only in large companies.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
2. A synonym for professionalism is
a. hard skills.
b. social acceptance.
c. business etiquette.
d. diversity.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
3. Professional behavior is comprised of six dimensions, including courtesy and respect, appearance
and appeal, tolerance and tact, honesty and ethics, reliability and responsibility, and
a. soft and hard skills.
b. self-actualization and self-control.
c. diligence and collegiality.
d. education and training.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
4. Which of the following statements about professionalism in the workplace is accurate?
a. Unprofessional behavior affects only the individual who displays it.

b. More organizations are establishing procedures or policies to encourage professionalism.
c. Employees need to exhibit professional behavior only when working at their desks.
d. You exhibit professional behavior only through nonverbal actions such as dressing appropriately
or maintaining eye contact with others.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
5. Stephen is starting a new job and wants to demonstrate that he is a professional employee. What
advice should he follow?
a. Never apologize for errors or misunderstandings because doing so calls attention to them.
b. Show up a few minutes to late every so often to show that he isn't an overzealous employee.
c. Share confidential information with his closest coworkers.
d. Keep personal opinions of people private.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
6. Richard wants to prove that he is diligent and collegial. What is the best advice you can give him?
a. Put all focus on his job and avoid volunteering his services to a worthy community or charity
group.
b. Turn in projects on time, even if he's not proud of the work he's done.
c. Show a willingness to share his expertise with others.
d. Richard should do all of these to come across as diligent and collegial.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
7. How do recruiters and employers view the importance of professional behavior in the workplace?
a. Although recruiters are impressed with applicants who speak well, a candidate's technical
expertise is all that matters.
b. Employers will often promote or advance individuals who display appropriate communication
skills and professional polish.
c. Professionalism and soft skills are important only in service-oriented fields.
d. Team, communication, and people skills are low priorities for most hiring managers.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
8. Jue understands that soft skills and professional polish will ensure her long-term success on the
job. Which of the following is not a soft skill?
a. A grasp of workplace etiquette
b. An eagerness to learn
c. The ability to work effectively as part of team
d. Proficiency in using a variety of computer software packages
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
9. Which of the following statements about face-to-face communication is accurate?
a. Face-to-face communication is less expressive and persuasive than written communication.
b. Face-to-face communication increases the likelihood of misunderstandings.
c. Face-to-face conversations reduce cooperation and limit problem solving during conflict.
d. Face-to-face interaction is the most effective of all communication channels.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
10. Saying words correctly and clearly with the accepted sounds and syllables reflects
a. rate.
b. pitch.
c. vocal quality.
d. proper pronunciation.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
11. Alec, hoping for a promotion, wants to improve his pronunciation skills so that he's able to say
words correctly and clearly with accepted sounds and accented syllables. Which of the following is the
best advice for Alec?
a. Hire a professional speech coach.
b. Listen carefully to educated people.
c. Practice sounding enthusiastic when speaking.
d. Relax. Mispronouncing a few words is common and will not affect the opportunity for
promotion.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
a. The quality of your voice sends only verbal messages.
b. You can learn to change your voice to make it more powerful.
c. Listeners do not judge people's voices.
d. Speakers should use a higher-pitched voice.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
13. The best definition of uptalk is
a. a flat or monotonous delivery.
b. a rising inflection at the end of a sentence that makes statements sound like questions.
c. self-gratifying comments to make you appear better than others.
d. an unnaturally quick speaking pattern.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
14. To use your voice effectively,
a. speak in a moderately low-pitched voice at about 125 words per minute.
b. overemphasize all words to guarantee audience understanding.
c. avoid listening to educated individuals to retain your speaking uniqueness.
d. keep the same volume and rate while speaking.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
15. LaTarsha's coworker has told her that LaTarsha is more likely to be promoted if she speaks
effectively in conversations. Which of the following is a good tip for LaTarsha?
a. Learn and use first names for all coworkers, clients, and customers.
b. Prove that she is relaxed and confident by telling some political jokes that are sure to "raise an
eyebrow."
c. Show strength of conviction by openly discussing her complaints.
d. Give sincere and specific praise to managers, colleagues, and workers.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
16. Which of the following is the best advice regarding small talk in the workplace?
a. Avoid small talk in the workplace because doing so is unprofessional.
b. Read newspapers and listen to the radio and TV so that you can discuss current events
intelligently.
c. Bring up controversial topics such as politics or religion as often as possible to show your
intelligence.
d. Be defensive if someone brings up a topic that upsets you.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
17. A coworker has justly criticized you for poor performance at work. If you agree quickly with this
on-target criticism,
a. the coworker is likely to take the criticism to your supervisor.
b. others will view you as a coward who doesn't fight back when criticized.
c. the coworker is more likely to take advantage of your weakness.
d. others will more likely respect you.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
18. You are in a meeting receiving your performance review and are surprised that your supervisor
has offered you many suggestions for improvement. How should you react to the criticism?
a. Interrupt your supervisor frequently to comment on his or her suggestions so that you don't miss
giving feedback on anything.
b. To avoid any type of confrontation with your supervisor, agree with all comments made.
c. Try to deflect blame for anything negative said to others in your department.
d. Ask for clarification of comments when necessary.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
19. You recently chaired a team implementing new federal confidentiality requirements. After
implementation, you must evaluate each team member's performance. Which of the following suggestions
about giving constructive criticism is not accurate?
a. Use language that focuses on improvement instead of problems.
b. To show more compassion, be as vague as possible.
c. Ask the team members for feedback.
d. Discuss the behavior, not the person.

ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
20. Which of the following statement best provides constructive criticism?
a. You seem to think that you can submit any kind of work and that it doesn't matter.
b. Your work is often shoddy.
c. Producing inferior work often causes this company to lose time and money.
d. You need to produce work that meets this company's standards.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
21. Which of the following is the best advice when making business telephone calls?
a. Realize that the responsibility for ending a call lies with the person who receives the call, not
with the caller.
b. Before you make a call, ask yourself if it's necessary.
c. To sound natural and spontaneous, decide what you're going to say after the receiver answers.
d. Don't worry about smiling because the person can't see you.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
22. Marsha has limited time and must call Charlie for answers to several questions. Which of the
following is the best example of a brisk and professional approach?
a. Charlie, I have only a few minutes, but I knew you were the one with answers to my questions.
b. Hey, Charlie, what's up, dude?
c. I can't waste any time chit chatting, so you need to get to the point pronto!
d. Look, Charlie, you always have the inside scoop at work; what's going on?
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
23. Which of the following demonstrates the best example when answering a telephone call?
a. This is Beth. May I help you?
b. Precision Integrations. What's on your mind?
c. Hello. What can I do for you?
d. Thanks for calling Precision Integrations. This is Beth Dittmer. How may I help you today?
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
24. Which of the following is the best advice to follow when receiving telephone calls for others?
a. Identify your colleague's whereabouts if you are answering his or her phone.
b. Provide only your name when answering a call.
c. Verify telephone numbers and spelling of names when taking messages.
d. Guarantee the caller that your colleague will return the call within a few hours.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
25. Which of the following is the best example of a response when answering calls for others?
a. Annette is currently participating in an important budget meeting with our board of directors.
b. We're not really sure where Annette is right now, but she'll return your call immediately
whenever she gets back.
c. Annette has run down to the ladies' room for a few minutes, but she should be back soon.
d. Annette is away from her desk, but I will give her your message when she returns.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
26. Melinda uses a cell phone for all her business communications. What advice should she follow?
a. Talk openly and freely on her cell phone in any location.
b. Converse in her normal speaking voice.
c. Answer her cell phone when it rings while she is driving to ensure she communicates with her
customers at all times.
d. Screen incoming calls.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
27. Which of the following statements about using cell phones for business is most accurate?
a. Because cell phones can be annoying to others, don't use them for business purposes.
b. To make yourself look professional and important, leave your cell phone on at all times during
the workday.
c. Choose a unique and creative ring style such as your college fight song to distinguish calls to
your cell phone.
d. Be careful about using your cell phone to discuss private or confidential company information.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
28. The benefits of voice mail include eliminating unnecessary chit chat, telephone tag, inaccurate
messages, and
a. time-zone barriers.
b. the need for written messages.
c. the necessity of a cordial, friendly greeting.
d. prompt responses.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
29. Shawn needs to record his business voicemail outgoing message. Which of the following
outgoing messages is most professional?
a. Hi! I'm sorry I missed your call. Please leave a brief message after the tone.
b. This is Shawn. I'm not available right now. But if you leave a message, I promise to call you
back. Be sure to include your name, phone number, and the best time to return your call.
c. Your call is important to me. Please leave your name and number so that I can return your call
promptly.
d. Hi! You have reached the voice mail of Shawn Berg of Juarez Accounting. I am currently away
from my phone but will return by 2 p.m. Please call back then. Thank you for calling.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
30. Leticia has called a client and gotten his voice mail. What is the best advice you can give Leticia
for leaving a message?
a. Hang up and call back later; her client won't want to be bothered with having to listen to a
message.
b. Speak as quickly as possible to make her message more concise.
c. Smile when leaving her message to add warmth to her voice.
d. Leave a complete message, including confidential details about the project Leticia is working
on, to make her message as useful as possible.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
31. Which of the following statements about workplace teams is most accurate?
a. Teams tend to respond more slowly to competition or problem solving.
b. Because conflict often results, teams tend to have decreased productivity.
c. Team members who are involved in the decision-making process show less resistance to change.
d. Individuals tend to make better decisions than teams.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
32. What term describes groups of people who work interdependently with a shared purpose across
space, time, and organization boundaries using technology?
a. Blogs
b. Virtual teams
c. Team players
d. Social networking
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
33. The most effective groups have members who

a. do not establish rules.
b. make excessive jokes to make everyone laugh.
c. ignore silent group members.
d. offer information and try out their ideas on the group to stimulate discussion.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
34. The most successful workplace teams
a. have a small number of members.
b. are homogeneous.
c. avoid conflict.
d. work independently.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
35. What is the optimum number of participants for most group projects?
a. Two
b. Four to five
c. Ten
d. There is no "optimum" number; more is always better.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
36. Which of the following would probably best help a group achieve its goal?
a. Competition
b. Individual leadership
c. Emphasis on individualism
d. Active listening skills
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
37. Which of the following statements about meetings is most accurate?

a. Reliance on e-mail and wireless devices are causing face-to-face meetings to disappear.
b. Meetings consist of ten or more individuals who gather to achieve a goal, solve a problem, or
create a work plan.
c. As businesses become more team-oriented, people are attending more meetings than ever.
d. Most people enjoy attending meetings because they recognize that meetings present great
opportunities for professional growth and recognition.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
38. What is your first task before holding a meeting?
a. Decide how and where to meet.
b. Prepare an agenda.
c. Invite participants.
d. Determine your purpose.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
39. Which statement about group conflict is accurate?

a. Good groups acknowledge conflict and address the root of the problem openly.
b. Addressing group conflict wastes valuable time and reduces team commitment.
c. Groups should use majority voting to resolve group conflicts.
d. Groups that confront conflict should be person oriented, not task oriented.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
40. Tao has just volunteered to participate in a work team that will explore the establishment of an
employee exercise facility. Which of the following behaviors should he practice?
a. Concentrate on his desire to stay fit rather than on other employees' goals.
b. Agree with all group members' contributions.
c. Remind group members of their task if they periodically get off track.
d. Hold back his knowledge of an employee exercise program from a previous employer.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
41. When the purpose of your meeting is to solve a problem, what is the recommended number of
meeting participants?
a. Five or fewer
b. Ten or fewer
c. Thirty or fewer
d. An unlimited number of participants
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
42. A meeting agenda should include the date and place of the meeting, start and end times, a brief
description of each topic with its time allotment, and
a. a refreshment list.
b. an explanation of the leader's position on each of the topics.
c. the speaker order.
d. any premeeting preparation expected of participants.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
43. Which of the following is the best practice for a group when it begins a meeting?
a. Wait until all participants arrive.
b. Give a quick recap to anyone who arrives late.
c. Establish ground rules.
d. Always avoid self-introductions.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
44. Antonia is leading her first professional business meeting and wants to follow professional
meeting etiquette. Which of the following is the best tip for Antonia?
a. Avoid following an agenda because the meeting will appear too rigid.
b. End the meeting on time, even if the group hasn't discussed all agenda items.
c. Don't waste time on introductions because you may run out of time to complete your meeting
business.
d. Encourage friendly, informal side conversations.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
45. Lucas will attend his first sales meeting and wants to follow proper meeting etiquette. Which of
the following should he do to make a good impression?
a. Keep his cell phone and pager on so that he doesn't miss an important call.
b. Leave the room only for breaks and emergencies.
c. Use body language to show if he's bored; the chair will appreciate his honesty.
d. Avoid direct eye contact with other group members.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
46. How should a group leader keep a meeting progressing effectively?
a. Engage in most of the talking to ensure that the meeting ends on time.
b. Allow group members to digress on a topic because other topics may be beneficial to explore.
c. Discourage members who monopolize the discussion.
d. Summarize only at the end of the meeting.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
47. Which of the following statements about meetings is not accurate?
a. Meetings should start on time unless someone important is late.
b. An agenda should be distributed at least two days before the meeting.
c. Meetings should not be held if the flow of information will be strictly one way.
d. The real expense of a meeting is the lost productivity of the attendees.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
48. Which of the following statements about managing workplace conflict is most accurate?
a. Conflict in the workplace can be desirable.
b. Because conflict makes people feel awkward and uneasy, it inhibits creativity.
c. Since conflict is always negative, you should always avoid it in the workplace.
d. Unresolved conflict indicates leadership failure.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
49. Team leaders can handle difficult group members during a meeting by
a. announcing the rules for expected behavior as soon as a participant digresses.
b. seating the difficult group member as far from the leader as possible.
c. making direct eye contact with everyone when asking questions.
d. assigning a task to the disruptive person.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
50. Which of the following should occur at the end of a meeting?
a. A meeting should end only when participants have discussed all agenda items.
b. The leader should provide a summary of accomplishments and a review of action items.
c. The leader should remind participants that they are responsible for taking their own minutes.
d. Participants should pass their assigned tasks on to someone who did not attend.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
51. Many businesses have established protocol procedures or policies to encourage civility.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
52. Hard skills refer to a whole cluster of personal qualities, habits, attitudes (for example, optimism
and friendliness), communication skills, and social graces.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
53. Technical fields such as accounting and finance don't emphasize soft skills.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
54. Because today's technologies provide many alternate communication channels, face-to-face
communication is no longer important in business and professional transactions.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
55. You are unable to change your voice.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
56. Your vocal quality sends only verbal messages.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
57. Speakers should avoid "uptalk" in the workplace because it makes them appear weak and
tentative.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
58. Rate refers to the pace of your speech.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
59. When conversing with others, always address them by their first names.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
60. Attending work-related social functions can harm your career if you dress inappropriately or
choose controversial conversation topics; therefore, it is best to avoid these functions.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
61. If you receive constructive criticism on the job, you should focus on your feelings as much as
possible.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
62. If another person has criticized you unfairly, you should disagree respectfully and constructively.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
63. When you deliver constructive criticism, you should use the word "we" instead of "you" to avoid
sounding accusatory.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
64. You should deliver most constructive criticism in writing rather than in person.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
65. E-mail has made telephone use obsolete in the corporate world.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
66. When placing a business telephone call, immediately name the person you are calling, identify
yourself and your affiliation, and give a brief explanation of your reason for calling.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
67. You should identify the extension when transferring a call.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
68. Some places are inappropriate or even dangerous for cell phone use.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
69. To make your outgoing voice mail message more professional, use the computer-generated voice
that comes with most systems.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
70. Because of the increased focus on individualism, teams have become less important in today's
business environment.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
71. Decisions made by teams promote greater "buy-in" from group members.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
72. Many organizations are using virtual teams to exchange ideas and make decisions.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
73. The most effective groups have members who are willing to establish rules and abide by those
rules.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
74. Withdrawing from a group is viewed as an effective technique to deal with group differences.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
75. Groups with diverse members often produce the best decisions.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
76. When confronting group conflict, focus on the person to make him or her feel important and
heard.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
77. Effective teams often have no formal leader.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
78. Today's workers attend more meetings than ever.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
79. No meeting should be called unless the topic is important, can't wait, and requires an exchange of
ideas.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
80. Emotional topics should be placed near the beginning of an agenda.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
81. When preparing the location for business meetings, you can maximize collaboration by arranging
the tables or chairs in straight rows.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
82. Etiquette guidelines for business meetings indicate that both participants and leaders are
responsible for sticking to the agenda and avoiding tangents.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
83. Ground rules for a business meeting should be discussed only when a participant's behavior is
harming the progress of the agenda.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
84. It is appropriate for a meeting leader to move the meeting along by saying, "Thanks, Ivan, for
your viewpoint, but please hold your next comment until we can hear what Shung Chai thinks of your
idea."
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
85. When a conflict develops between two members, allow each to make a complete case before the
group.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
86. One way to handle dysfunctional group members during a meeting is to seat them next to the
leader.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
87. A meeting should be adjourned when the group has reached an impasse.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
88. No one should leave a meeting without a full understanding of what was accomplished.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
89. Meeting minutes should be distributed within two weeks after the meeting or at least two days
before the next meeting, whichever comes first.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
90. It is the leader's responsibility to see that what was decided at the meeting is accomplished.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
91. ____________________, also known as business etiquette, civility, social intelligence, or soft
skills, refers to a whole range of desirable workplace behaviors.
ANSWER: Professionalism
TYPE: FB
92. ____________________ intelligence is defined as "the ability to get along well with others and to
get them to cooperate with you."
ANSWER: Social
TYPE: FB
93. The ____________________ of your voice is the degree of loudness or the intensity of sound.
ANSWER: volume
TYPE: FB
94. ____________________ criticism involves planning what you will say, focusing on
improvement, offering to help, being specific, and avoiding anger.
ANSWER: Constructive
TYPE: FB
95. ____________________ enable you to conduct business from virtually anywhere at any time and
have become an essential part of communication in today's workplace.
ANSWER: Smartphones
TYPE: FB
96. ____________________ mail links a telephone system to a computer that digitizes and stores
incoming messages.
ANSWER: Voice
TYPE: FB
97. To connect with distant team members across borders and time zones, many organizations are
creating ____________________ teams. These teams work interdependently with a shared purpose across
space, time, and organization boundaries using technology.
ANSWER: virtual
TYPE: FB
98. ____________________ consist of three or more people who gather to pool information, solicit
feedback, clarify policy, seek consensus, and solve problems.
ANSWER: Meetings
TYPE: FB
99. The list of topics to be discussed at a meeting is called a(n) ____________________.
ANSWER: agenda
TYPE: FB
100. The ____________________ are a record of points of discussion, decisions made, and tasks
assigned at a meeting.
ANSWER: minutes
TYPE: FB
Chap 12:
1. Choose the most accurate statement about business presentations.
a. At some point nearly half of businesspeople have to inform others or sell an idea.
b. Good speakers are born, not made.
c. If you are like most people, you may be apprehensive about making informational or
persuasive oral presentations.
d. Information and persuasion are seldom conveyed in person because e-mail, memos,
and letters are more effective.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
2. Which of the following statements about business presentations and speaking skills is most
accurate?
a. Speaking skills are useful only for individuals in upper-level positions.
b. Effective speaking skills and career success go hand in hand.
c. For many positions only technical skills, not communication skills, are needed.
d. Oral presentations in the workplace are necessary only when you must motivate action.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
3. According to a major study on public speaking,
a. the No. 1 predictor of success and upward mobility is how much you enjoy public
speaking and how effective you are at it.
b. everyone fears public speaking, and overcoming that fear is impossible; instead you
must learn to focus your fears.
c. presentation skills measure the success and pay of middle and upper management but
have little correlation to entry-level employment.
d. job seekers who highlight public-speaking skills in their application materials are more
than twice as likely to receive an interview.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
4. Which of the following statements about preparing for an oral presentation is not accurate?
a. Many people feel a great deal of anxiety when getting ready for an oral presentation.
b. You can lay the foundation for a professional performance by focusing on preparation,
organization, audience rapport, visual aids, and delivery.
c. The key element in successful preparation for an oral presentation is assessing your
knowledge and related technical skills.
d. For many people fear of speaking before a group is even greater than fear of dying.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
5. Anxiety about a presentation is normal. You can reduce your anxiety and set the groundwork
for a professional performance by focusing on five areas:
a. audience clothing, your clothing, seating arrangement or pattern, sight lines, and
lighting.
b. volume, pace, pitch, tone, and pattern.
c. adequate rest, driving time (or commuting time), parking arrangements, building
identification, and name tags.
d. preparation, organization, audience rapport, visual aids, and delivery.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
6. The most important part of preparing for an oral presentation is
a. analyzing the audience.
b. determining the purpose.

c. gathering research.
d. creating a professional appearance.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
7. Choose the best example of a statement of purpose for an oral presentation.
a. To persuade the management team to offer flexible work schedules to all

executive-level employees.
b. To persuade my listeners in a brief, interesting, and effective speech.
c. This effective presentation will be both entertaining and informative for my audience
about my chosen subject.
d. We made fiscal mistakes that we can't afford to repeat that caused the economic
downturn and created widespread business closures and the collapse of the housing
market in several major metropolitan areas.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
8. After determining your purpose for the presentation, what is your next important step?
a. Conducting research
b. Examining the room where the presentation will be made
c. Preparing your PowerPoint slides
d. Analyzing the audience
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
9. Your task in audience analysis is to
a. select a presentation topic and a purpose best suited to your audience.
b. anticipate the audience's reactions and adjust to its needs, if necessary.
c. determine your needs and develop your visual aids.
d. begin information research and organization.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
10. Audience analysis issues you should consider when preparing your presentation include
size, age, gender, and which of the following?
a. Height and weight

b. Race, religion, and culture
c. Stereotypes, biases, and prejudices
d. Experience, attitude, and expectations
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
11. Presentations are given to many types of audiences. According to your text, what are the
four categories of audiences?
a. Informed, uninformed, intelligent, and stupid
b. Hostile, friendly, neutral, and uninterested
c. Workplace, education or school-related, community, and political
d. Manuscript, extemporaneous, impromptu, and memorized
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
12. Your audience analysis reveals that audience members will be friendly and interested in
your topic. You should be
a. warm, pleasant, and open; and you should use a lot of eye contact and smiles.
b. be calm and controlled, and you should speak evenly and slowly.
c. controlled and do nothing showy; you should use confident, small gestures.
d. dynamic and entertaining; you should also use large gestures and move around.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
13. If you have agreed to speak to an audience with which you are unfamiliar, you should
a. obtain the names of several audience members, and contact them to ask questions about
their backgrounds, attitudes, and expectations.
b. imagine for yourself what an average audience in this part of the country might be like.
c. use a search engine to collect as much information about the region and its people as
possible and then base your audience analysis on this.
d. ask the person sponsoring the event to complete your audience analysis worksheet for
you.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
14. Irina will make her presentation to a large audience of members whose negative attitudes
range from displeased to outraged. What advice should Irina follow in preparing her presentation
for this audience?
a. Include plenty of personal stories, several anecdotes, and lots of jokes or humor.
b. Use facts, statistics, and expert opinions along with an energizing, upbeat delivery
style.
c. Be humorous, add colorful visuals and startling statistics, and keep the presentation
brief.
d. Present objective data and expert opinion in a calm, controlled delivery style.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
15. After you determine your purpose and analyze your audience, your next step is to
a. practice your delivery.
b. collect information.
c. organize the ideas.
d. choose your topic.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
16. Two of the most effective techniques to improve your audience's ability to understand and
remember your speech are
a. good organization and intentional repetition.
b. eliminating repetition and removing obvious signposting.
c. startling statistics and colorful visuals.
d. striking quotations and well-placed gestures.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
17. Some repetition in oral presentations
a. is necessary because speaking speed is much greater than listening speed.
b. is helpful because it increases audience comprehension and retention.
c. bores listeners and should be avoided.
d. encourages daydreaming and makes the speaker sound unprepared.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
18. You should do all of the following in the introduction of a presentation except
a. preview the main points of your presentation.
b. capture your listeners' attention and get them involved.
c. develop the main points with adequate explanation and details.
d. introduce yourself and establish your credibility.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
19. The best techniques to establish your credibility in a business presentation include
a. describing your knowledge, position, or experience.
b. telling the audience your salary, age, and hometown.
c. revealing your ethnicity, cultural heritage, and religious background.
d. discussing your love for public speaking.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
20. Jessica tells her audience about her five years' experience as a social networking
professional helping over 100 local businesses learn to use social networking as an effective
marketing tool. Jessica is attempting to
a. capture her listeners' attention and get them involved.
b. preview the main points of her presentation.
c. present the main goals of her presentation.
d. identify herself and establish credibility.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
21. Connor opened his presentation to an audience of business owners with this statement: If
you want to reduce employee benefit costs by at least 15 percent without hurting employee morale
or impacting your work environment, please stand up right now. By asking them to stand, Connor
is
a. identifying himself and establishing credibility.
b. previewing the main points of his presentation.
c. capturing listeners' attention and getting them involved.
d. misleading his audience.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
22. What is the biggest problem with most oral presentations?
a. Failure to focus on a few principal ideas
b. Use of too many visuals
c. Poor eye contact
d. Unprofessional attire
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
23. The body of a short, 20-minute presentation should focus on
a. at least five to eight main points.
b. up to ten main points.
c. approximately two to four main points.
d. as many points as necessary to convey your message.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
24. Paul is explaining to upper-level management how converting to a four-day workweek can
solve their budget woes by decreasing expenses. How will he most likely organize his
presentation?
a. Geography/space
b. Chronological
c. Problem/solution
d. Value/size
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
25. When preparing your speech, you should
a. aim for 20 percent past the time limit when rehearsing because most speakers speed up
during actual delivery
b. eliminate one third of the body to prevent speed talking, a common hazard among
novice public speakers.
c. remove about 10 percent of your content because most speakers exceed their time
limits.
d. prepare a little more material than you think you will actually need.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
26. In an effective presentation conclusion, you will strive to accomplish three goals:
a. state your recommendation, prove your persuasion, and reinforce the purpose.
b. remind the audience of your credibility, review the attention getter, and restate the
purpose.
c. summarize the main themes, give the audience a memorable take-away, and include a
statement that allows for a graceful exit.
d. promote your primary claim, advance your supporting claims, and elevate the most
viable evidence.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
27. In the conclusion of your speech, you say, I recommend developing and posting high-quality
video podcasts on our Web site to recruit new employees. You are using the conclusion to
a. introduce one additional main point of interest to the audience.
b. review the main themes of the presentation.
c. include a statement that allows you to depart gracefully.

d. provide a final action-oriented focus.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
28. Your speech will be more effective if you have audience rapport. Rapport can be defined as
a. a bond connecting the speaker with the audience.
b. the awareness of topic importance.
c. an understanding of key points.
d. the ability to hear clearly.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
29. Speakers build audience rapport by
a. researching thoroughly and organizing the speech effectively.
b. establishing credibility and demonstrating authority.
c. forming a bond with the audience by entertaining as well as informing.

d. speaking loudly, clearly, and rapidly.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
30. Tyrone has just told his audience that engineering a hostile business takeover is similar to
conducting guerilla warfare. He is using what technique?
a. Personal anecdote
b. Metaphor
c. Personalized statistic
d. Analogy
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
31. To help his listeners keep track of where he is in the presentation, Dominic has just said,
Next I will discuss three plans for reducing waste. What verbal signpost is Dominic using?
a. Summarizing
b. Previewing
c. Switching directions
d. Enumeration
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
32. In her presentation on improving employee morale, Jillian makes this statement: So far,
you've heard only about the problems we have with morale; let's move to some solutions. Jillian
has employed the verbal signpost called
a. summarizing.
b. previewing.
c. switching directions.
d. revealing.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
33. Like it or not, speakers are judged on their appearance. Which of these is the best advice on
choosing your attire for a business presentation?
a. Dress only as well as the best-dressed person in your audience, even if that means
shorts and a t-shirt.
b. For everything but small, in-house presentations, dress professionally.
c. Wear formal business attire for all presentations, both internal and external.
d. Clothing makes the man but not the woman; therefore, men must wear a suit and tie for
all presentations, but experts indicate women may dress casually for most
presentations.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
34. Effective speakers must be aware of their nonverbal messages. Nonverbal means
a. content delivered by visual aids.
b. information included on the outline, but not in the speech.
c. appearance, movements, and vocal qualities.
d. body language only.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
35. All of these are good advice for nonverbal messages during a presentation except
a. avoid being planted behind the podium.
b. use a variety of gestures planned and rehearsed in advance.
c. punctuate your words by varying your tone, volume, pitch, and pace.
d. maintain appropriate eye contact to show you are confident and prepared.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
36. When selecting and preparing your visual aids, keep in mind your goals as a speaker:
a. to make listeners understand, remember, and act on your ideas.
b. to observe your audience, adjust your delivery, and continue your presentation.
c. to inform, to entertain, and to persuade.
d. to plan and collect information, organize and rehearse, and deliver your presentation.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
37. During a business presentation, an effective visual aid will

a. emphasize and clarify main points.
b. increase audience interest.
c. help to jog the memory of a speaker.
d. do all of these.
ANSWER: D
38. Which of these tips regarding the use of handouts as a visual aid is most accurate?
a. Handouts should be discussed during the presentation, but you should delay
distribution of the handouts until your presentation is finished.
b. Savvy speakers no longer distribute handouts because audiences view the lowly
handout as outdated and environmentally unfriendly.
c. If you choose to use a handout, the most appropriate information for a handout is the
speaker's biography only.
d. Handouts should be included in the registration packet, along with name tags, lunch
tickets, and other event materials distributed prior to the presentation.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
39. Because the presenter can create dynamic, colorful presentations that incorporate Web links,
music, and video, one of the most popular visual aids is
a. overhead transparencies.
b. flipcharts.
c. multimedia slides.
d. handouts.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
40. Julio is designing a PowerPoint slide show that he will present in a darkened conference
room. What should Julio do?
a. Place the greatest focus on the visual component of his slides because this will be his
audience's focus.
b. Use as many special effects (animation, sound effects, and so on) as possible to
maintain his audience's interest.
c. Use light text on a dark background.
d. Use at least five different font colors to provide visual impact.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
41. For effective presentation slides, you should apply the 6-x-6 rule to most slides. The 6-x-6
rule means that
a. the entire presentation has no more than six slides.
b. each slide has no more than six words per line and no more than six lines.
c. each main idea has no more than six bullet points.
d. each slide is discussed for six minutes.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
42. What is the best advice for composing a PowerPoint slideshow?
a. Always design your own template to show your creativity and uniqueness.
b. Occasionally convert bullet points to diagrams, charts, and other images to make your
slideshow more interesting.
c. When including numbers, use lists rather than charts or graphs.
d. Make sure that every point has at least one bullet point and one visual.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
43. Malinda wants to be certain that her audience remains engaged during her PowerPoint
presentation at today's business meeting. What should she do?
a. Keep a careful eye on the computer monitor or screen to make sure she doesn't miss
anything.
b. Read the bullet points word for word to make sure her audience understands the
information.
c. Use a laser pointer to highlight slide items to discuss.
d. Make the room as dark as she can to make her slides more visible.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
44. Which of the following is the best recommendation for delivering an effective oral
presentation?
a. Memorize the entire oral presentation so that you don't have to use notes.
b. Read the entire oral presentation to the audience so that nothing important will be
overlooked.
c. Use the notes method, using note cards or an outline containing key sentences and
major ideas.
d. Wing it!
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
45. Niccolo is nervous about his upcoming presentation. Which of these techniques will
overcome his case of nerves and allow Niccolo to deliver a good presentation?
a. Hold his breath as long as he can to clear his head.
b. Tell the audience that he's nervous to get them to empathize with him.
c. Ignore any stumbles and keep going.
d. Have a stiff drink right before presenting
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
46. Nearly every speaker must overcome stage fright; one of the most effective techniques to
decrease stage fright is
a. wearing comfortable, relaxed clothing to enhance self-confidence.
b. knowing the subject thoroughly.

c. displaying a fully animated PowerPoint presentation.
d. picturing the audience naked.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
47. Which of these is the most accurate description regarding the use of pauses and silence in a
presentation?
a. Don't pause when you first approach the audience because you will appear unsure.
b. Fill awkward silences with short phrases such as "you know" or "basically."
c. Words always carry more impact than a silent pause.
d. Silence is preferable to meaningless fillers.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
48. For a smooth start to your presentation, you should prepare thoroughly, rehearse repeatedly,
dress professionally, and
a. practice stress reduction.

b. avoid personal contact with audience members before the presentation.
c. remove barriers (lecterns, podiums, tables, etc.) between you and the audience.
d. pump yourself up to build some tension, pressure, power, and enthusiasm.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
49. Follow all of these guidelines to deliver your presentation effectively except
a. present your first sentence from memory.
b. begin speaking immediately; that is, speak as soon as you are behind the lectern.
c. control your voice and your vocabulary.
d. show enthusiasm.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
50. If you will take questions at the end of your presentation, which of these is the best advice?
a. Announce the question-and-answer period in the conclusion of your presentation.

b. If you don't know the answer to a question, you should offer your best guess or make
up an answer.
c. Begin each answer with a repetition of the question.
d. Direct your answer just to the person who asked the question.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
51. Effective speaking skills and career success go hand in hand at every stage of a career.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
52. Business studies indicate that the best predictor of career success is not only whether
employees were effective at public speaking but also if they enjoyed public speaking.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
53. For any presentation you can reduce your fears and lay the foundation for a professional
performance by focusing on five items: your knowledge, your background/experience, your
self-confidence, your breathing, and your inner peace or Zen.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
54. The most important part of preparation for an oral presentation is deciding the purpose.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
55. To effectively adapt a presentation for an unfamiliar audience, you should contact five or six
audience members to interview before the presentation to determine typical audience attributes.
You should then thank these people in the opening of your presentation.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
56. No matter what kind of audience you will have, you must plan your presentation to focus it
on audience benefits.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
57. Good organization and conscious repetition are the two most powerful keys to audience
comprehension and retention.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
58. It may be appropriate to begin a speech with a promise, a question, an anecdote, and even a
joke.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
59. Prepare extra material for your speech because most speakers go about 25 percent under the
allotted time as opposed to their practice runs at home.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
60. You can avoid one of the biggest problems with most oral presentations if you focus your
speech on a few key ideas.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
61. Natalia is presenting statistics about the diversity of college students in different parts of the
country. She will most likely organize by chronology.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
62. A professional way to end a presentation is to warn the audience of the conclusion and wrap
up the speech with an expression like That's it.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
63. Reserve the use of anecdotes and quotations to grab attention in introductions in business
presentations because using these devices in the conclusion will weaken their impact.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
64. One of the goals of an effective conclusion in a presentation is to allow the speaker to leave
the podium gracefully.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
65. Once you have announced your conclusion, you should proceed to the conclusion
immediately.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
66. Build the best connection with your audience members by providing them the hard, dry
facts and by avoiding personalized statistics or personal anecdotes that make you appear
amateurish and unpolished.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
67. To enliven your presentation and enhance comprehension, try using some exaggeration or
distortion in your imagery.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
68. You have just made the statement This financial bailout is a missed field goal as the clock
runs out. This is an example of a metaphor.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
69. Next, therefore, on the contrary, moreover, and in conclusion are examples of transitional
expressions.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
70. You can create a stronger organization in your presentation through the use of verbal
signposts that will help your audience recognize your previews, summaries, or changes of
direction.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
71. If your audience will be dressed casually, experts recommend that you dress casually for
your presentation.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
72. Lindsay plans to give her audience a handout with images of her PowerPoint slides. Lindsay
should distribute this handout after her presentation to maintain audience control.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
73. Creating speaker's notes from your PowerPoint slides is helpful because these notes allow
you to read your presentation word for word.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
74. Although Microsoft PowerPoint is the business standard for presenting, defending, and
selling ideas, overused and abused multimedia presentations have become a common complaint in
business.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
75. The most effective multimedia presentations rely heavily on text, use frequent bullet-
pointed lists, and employ few graphics or images.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
76. Poorly designed PowerPoint presentations are the fault of the creator and not the software
itself.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
77. By preparing a visually appealing multimedia presentation and ensuring that each slide is
great looking, you can compensate for thin content.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
78. Roberto is preparing a PowerPoint multimedia presentation for a multicultural audience. He

must choose his background colors carefully.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
79. It is acceptable for a speaker to break the 6 x 6 rule for multimedia slides when the users
will be reviewing the presentation on their own with no speaker assistance.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
80. Rely on the spell check feature in PowerPoint to catch all spelling and grammar errors
appearing on your slides.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
81. Create a slide in your multimedia presentation only if that slide will create interest, help the
audience follow your ideas, highlight points you want your audience to remember, introduce or
review key points, provide a transition from one idea to the next, or illustrate and simplify complex
ideas.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
82. To create a solid multimedia presentation, begin with the text, and then move on to the
graphics, animation, and other enhancements.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
83. A blueprint slide is a drawing or visual depiction of an oral presentation that you reveal in
the introduction.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
84. The simplest option for moving your multimedia presentation to the Web involves a Web
conference or broadcast.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
85. Your best plan to create a convincing presentation is to read your entire presentation from a
manuscript so that your audience is confident you have not omitted anything.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
86. It is normal to experience some degree of stage fright when speaking before a group.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
87. The speakers who suffer the worst butterflies and who make the worst presentations are
those who try to memorize their speeches.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
88. You should present your first sentence from memory to establish rapport with the audience
through eye contact.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
89. If you make an error during your presentation, you will recover more rapidly and reconnect
most effectively with your audience if you immediately issue a sincere apology.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
90. When answering audience questions, you should debate the questioner to show that you're
right.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
91. ____________________ analysis issues include size, age, gender, experience, and
professional background.
ANSWER: Audience
TYPE: FB
92. You should capture listeners' attention, introduce yourself, establish your credibility, and
preview your topic in the ____________________ of your presentation.
ANSWER: introduction
TYPE: FB
93. Develop each of your main points in the ____________________ of your presentation.
ANSWER: body
TYPE: FB
94. In the ____________________ of your presentation, you should summarize your main
themes and leave the audience with something memorable.
ANSWER: conclusion
TYPE: FB
95. A comparison of similar traits between dissimilar items, such as Turning the course of this
economic downturn has been like stopping an avalanche; it's possible, but very, very difficult, is
a(n) ____________________.
ANSWER: simile
TYPE: FB
96. Help your audience recognize the organization and main points in an oral message with
____________________ signposts that keep listeners on track.
ANSWER: verbal
TYPE: FB
97. ____________________ points in a PowerPoint presentation consist of concise and parallel

key phrases.
ANSWER: Bullet
TYPE: FB
98. To ensure professional results for your multimedia presentation, choose a professionally
designed ____________________ that will combine harmonious colors, borders, bullet styles, and
fonts for pleasing visual effects.
ANSWER: template
TYPE: FB
99. After delivering their presentations, businesspeople often post their multimedia shows
online because attendees appreciate these ____________________ handouts.
ANSWER: electronic
TYPE: FB
100. ____________________ delivery means speaking freely, generally without notes, after
preparation and rehearsing. This delivery method allows you to freely discuss the ideas you have
prepared and rehearsed several times.
ANSWER: Extemporaneous
TYPE: FB
Chap 13:
1. Begin the job search by studying the job market and

a. identifying your interests, goals, and qualifications.
b. specifying your target job, ideal supervisor, and perfect working conditions.
c. developing a short-range career plan to present at interviews.
d. searching Web sites for job openings.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
2. Your first step in finding a satisfying career should be
a. researching salary, benefits, and job stability in a chosen field.
b. developing an effective résumé to send to prospective employers.
c. locating job openings at desirable companies.
d. learning about yourself, the job market, and the employment process.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
3. Which of the following is an effective question you should ask to determine your best career
path?
a. Do I speak, write, or understand another language?
b. Do I want to retrain frequently, and will my employer pay for this retraining?
c. How well will I stand out from other candidates applying for jobs in this career field,
and how likely will I be to get an interview and land a job?
d. Would I like to work for someone else or be my own boss?
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
4. Which of the following statements about the changing nature of jobs in today's workplace is
most accurate?
a. In many companies teams complete special projects and then disband.
b. The primary employers in today's economy are large businesses.
c. Employers prefer hiring people for jobs with narrow descriptions.
d. Jobs are becoming less flexible and more permanent.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
5. As you prepare for a successful job search, you must understand the role of the Web in the
process. Which of the following is most accurate?
a. The Web has made the process both easier and more challenging.
b. The Web has made it easy for job candidates to get noticed; standing out among
candidates is now simple.
c. The Web should be the only research tool in the job-search arsenal for savvy hunters
and recruiters.
d. The Web now provides one-stop employment services for job seekers and for
employers seeking employees.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
6. Given the changing nature of the job market today, which of these is the best advice for job
seekers?
a. Seek a lifelong career with a single company.
b. Upgrade your skills regularly and plan to retrain yourself frequently.
c. Start with a career that relies on existing technology skills to remain secure over the
long haul.
d. Remember that you will still have pay raises, promotions, and, finally, a comfortable
retirement over the course of your career, despite the changing job market.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
7. The best advice for college students who need to learn about careers and establish a
professional network is to
a. enroll in classes in many programs to sample every career path.
b. write your own blog to attract potential employers.
c. volunteer with a nonprofit organization.
d. purchase a good interview suit.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
a. You can expect to have two or three employers over the course of your career.
b. Because you are likely to change jobs often, do not train now for a specific career.
c. You make better career decisions if you match your interests to specific career
requirements.
d. The Web provides all the career data you need to gather.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
9. Kendra is searching for a job and wants to use electronic sources. Which of the following will
probably be her best source of online job listings?
a. Big job boards such as Monster.com and Yahoo HotJobs
b. Specific company Web sites
c. Her college Web site job board
d. Social networking sites such as MySpace and Facebook
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
10. Experts report a new online information source for successful job seekers. What is this
recently emerged online job source?
a. Big online job boards
b. Online newspapers
c. Public service Web sites
d. Social media sites

ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
11. Which of the following is a traditional job-search technique?
a. Developing a network
b. Searching CareerBuilder and HotJobs
c. Visiting a company Web site to search for job openings
d. Checking LinkedIn or Facebook
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
12. Which of the following tips will best help you conduct a safe, effective Web job search?
a. Respond only to "blind" job postings.
b. Renew your résumé posting about every 45 days.
c. Post your résumé only at reputable sites that charge a fee for this service.
d. Consider omitting your home address and home phone number.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
13. The most successful job seekers are those who
a. avoid career fairs and other "cattle calls" where the job seeker can become lost in a
crowd of applicants.
b. launch aggressive, proactive campaigns, which includes sending unsolicited application

letters with résumés to target companies.
c. focus their job searches on nontraditional methods such as Twitter and Facebook and
use traditional methods only as a last resort.
d. study the job market and companies in college and don't worry about their grades
because employers no longer place importance on GPAs.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
14. Because job competition is stiff, you must have a customized résumé. Having a customized
résumé means that you
a. prepare a special résumé for every position you want.
b. create résumés for each of the job categories to which you plan to apply.
c. hire a professional résumé preparation company to review and refine your basic résumé
and then "dress it up."
d. include your photo, add color, or place other graphics on the résumé.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
15. The primary way to make a résumé persuasive is to
a. limit it to one page.
b. customize it to fit each company and position.
c. use a good laser printer to print it on high-quality bond paper.
d. put a copy of it on the Web.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
16. Because it quickly reveals a candidate's education and experience record, most recruiters
favor a(n)
a. scannable résumé.
b. functional résumé.
c. chronological résumé.
d. online résumé.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
17. You are just graduating from college and have little employment experience, yet you want
to put together a persuasive résumé. What would be the best résumé style to use?
a. Chronological résumé
b. Scannable résumé
c. Functional résumé
d. Online résumé
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
18. Which of the following is the best advice about résumé length?
a. Because recruiters are busy, keep it to one page.
b. Because recruiters and hiring managers want to know your skills, make it as long as
needed to sell yourself.
c. Because recruiters interview applicants with two-page résumés, make it two pages.
d. Because experts are divided between one- or two-page résumé length, make your
résumé a page and a half.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
19. Which of these is the best tip for arranging the parts of a persuasive résumé?
a. Always include a Career Objective to show your commitment.
b. Use as many headings as needed to cover your background essentials.
c. List Education before Work Experience.
d. Always begin your résumé with your name and contact information.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
20. Opinions on the use of a Career Objective on the résumé are mixed. Which of the following
the best reason for candidates to add a Career Objective to their résumés?
a. An Objective shows flexibility and indicates that a candidate is adaptable and willing to
change to suit the employer's needs.
b. The primary goal of an Objective is to make the recruiter's life easier by quickly
classifying the résumé, which means the applicant is more likely to be hired.
c. An Objective can rapidly disqualify a candidate if the stated Objective does not match
a company's job description.
d. An Objective can tell the prospective employer that this candidate is sure about what he
or she wants to do.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
21. Which of the following is the best Career Objective for a résumé?
a. An entry-level position in the marketing area with a possibility of promotion
b. A challenging job at an organization that raises the bar in data security
c. Serving as a team player in a company where independent thinking is Job #1
d. An accounting position in which 10 years' experience and a license as a CPA will allow
me to assist the company with payroll, employee benefits, and governmental tax and
records reporting
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
22. What statement best describes the Summary of Qualifications portion of a résumé?
a. Recruiters and hiring managers dislike the Summary of Qualifications section because
it adds reading time.
b. The Summary of Qualifications usually appears at the end of a résumé to provide a

strong closing.
c. Smart job seekers add a summary of their most impressive qualifications to their
résumés to save the time of recruiters and hiring managers.
d. The Summary of Qualifications section is typically one or two concise paragraphs.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
23. In the Education section of your résumé, you should
a. list all college courses you have taken to give the employer a complete picture.
b. include relevant seminars attended and workshops completed.
c. list only colleges where you have completed a degree or certificate program.
d. specify your high school and college GPAs.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
24. Which of the following statements describing employment achievements would be most
effective on a résumé?
a. Directed work flow and scheduling for emergency room personnel
b. Performed preventative maintenance on production equipment
c. Achieved 125 percent of production goal for three consecutive quarters
d. Knowledgeable in a variety of production processes and Just-in-Time theories
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
25. Which of the following statements uses an action verb to highlight an aptitude?
a. Competent in creation of multimedia presentations
b. Mastered QuickBooks Pro accounting software in 20 hours with minimal instruction
c. Ability to develop innovative and interactive Web pages
d. Able to adapt quickly to changing work environments
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
26. Which of these résumé tips is most accurate?
a. Don't list awards and honors on a résumé; if you list them, you will appear to be
bragging.
b. Omit school and community activities from your résumé because they are unrelated to
your work experience.
c. Include your personal information (height, weight, and marital status) to give a
potential employer a complete picture.
d. Improve the visual impact of your résumé by placing your employment achievements
and relevant job duties in an easy-to-read bulleted list.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
27. Which statement represents the best advice on the use of references?
a. Include a list of references directly on the résumé.
b. Do not include personal or character references.
c. Remember that companies generally check references before a job interview to learn
about a candidate in advance.
d. Be sure to add the statement References furnished upon request at the bottom of your
résumé.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
28. Experts argue about the best length for a résumé, but they agree that you shouldn't waste
space on unnecessary information. Which of the following should you omit on your résumé?
a. Awards, honors, and certificates
b. Description of internship experiences as part of your college education
c. Complete listing of all courses taken during schooling
d. Skills and responsibilities learned at part-time jobs while in college
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
29. Employers today will probably ask you to submit your résumé in any of following formats
except as a
a. PDF document.
b. professionally typeset document.
c. Word document.
d. plain-text document.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
30. Employers often use scanners to sort and evaluate résumés. Which of these steps will
maximize the "hits" your résumé receives from scanners?
a. Describe your experience, education, and qualifications in general terms.
b. Spell out all abbreviations and acronyms, especially those related to your field.
c. Eliminate descriptions of interpersonal skills or aptitudes.
d. Use accurate, specific names of schools, degrees, products, job titles, and companies.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
31. What is the most accurate statement about plain-text résumés?
a. Plain-text résumés are in high demand for electronic applications because recruiters
and employers no longer ask candidates to send application materials by postal mail.
b. A plain-text format is widely used for posting to online job boards and for applying by
e-mail.
c. Plain-text résumés will look exactly like the original and cannot be altered without
Adobe Acrobat and other conversion software.
d. A plain-text résumé enables employers to plug your data into their formats for rapid
searching.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
32. Another name for a print-based résumé is
a. presentation résumé.
b. plain-text résumé.
c. employability résumé.
d. e-portfolio résumé.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
33. An e-portfolio is
a. an electronic copy of your résumé recorded on a CD or flash drive.
b. the addition of work samples and personal information as an attachment to your

embedded résumé.
c. a collection of digitized materials that give a snapshot of the candidate's qualifications.
d. the name given to résumés posted on job-search Web sites such as Monster.com.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
34. Generally, job seekers offer their e-portfolios on Web sites where potential employers can
access the information round the clock, but e-portfolios are also
a. burned onto CDs and DVDs to be mailed to prospective employers.
b. shared via YouTube and Tweets.
c. printed into hard-copy and arranged into three-ring binders.
d. posted on the big job boards.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
35. Omar has asked you for a tip to improve his résumé. Which of these is your best advice?
a. Switch your incomplete college education from a total number of credits to a

completed degree because a small inflation is normal.
b. For the employers who didn't assign actual job titles to your positions, create more
impressive job titles, for instance, replacing data entry technician with information
technology administrator.
c. Study model résumés to get ideas to improve your own; and if your skills don't
measure up, begin working now to improve them.
d. Improve your employment record by claiming a couple group projects as a solo effort
that you completed.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
36. Which of the following statements about résumés is inaccurate?
a. A résumé is expected to showcase your strengths and minimize your weaknesses.
b. An ethical résumé may include half-truths but not outright lies.
c. Even after you have been hired, a misrepresentation on the résumé can be cause for
firing.
d. Although they can't verify everything, most recruiters will verify your previous
employment and education before hiring.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
37. Which of the following is considered unethical on a résumé?
a. Misrepresenting a job title to make it sound more important
b. Extending employment dates to avoid showing periods of unemployment
c. Making your job duties sound more impressive and responsible than they really were
d. All of these choices are unethical.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
38. Because your résumé is probably the most important document you will ever write, you
should
a. enhance your job titles to make your résumé more impressive.
b. include ample use of the personal pronoun I to make it more personal.
c. consider having a knowledgeable friend or relative proofread it.
d. use a professional résumé service to prepare your résumé.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
39. When writing your job application letter, avoid the biggest error most applicants make,
which is
a. misspelling the receiver's name or the company's name.
b. forgetting to enclose their résumé.
c. making the letter too generic.
d. not asking for the interview.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
40. The purposes of a cover letter include all of the following except
a. securing a job offer.
b. introducing the résumé.
c. relating the sender's strengths to reader benefits.
d. gaining an interview.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
41. A job opening has been announced. Which of these answer choices will be the best opening
sentence in an application letter?
a. You seek a master Web engineer, and I need a job; we are perfect for each other!
b. Dr. Matthew Skalski, IT director at Northwestern University, told me that you have an
opening for a Web engineer with experience in networking, data management, and
innovations.
c. Please consider this letter my application for your opening in the IT Department.
d. Do you need a Web engineer with over three years of experience?
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
42. Openings in a cover letter for a solicited job should refer to
a. the source of the information, the job title, and qualifications for the position.
b. the reader's business, position, and name.
c. the applicant's education, the target position, and the desired hire date.
d. the desired position, the applicant's qualifications, and the desire for an interview.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
43. Which of the following statements is inaccurate regarding the opening in a cover letter for
an unsolicited job?
a. If you are unsure whether a position exists, use a more persuasive opening.
b. Demonstrate knowledge of the reader's business that may convince the person to
continue reading.
c. Show how your special talents will benefit the company and convince the reader that
your skill is exactly what this position demands.
d. Be vague about the type of position you're seeking so that you might be considered for
a variety of jobs.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
44. Which of these statements about the body of a cover letter is most accurate?
a. Discuss the company's qualifications as your potential employer in the body.
b. Explain what courses you took in college and what duties you performed in previous
jobs to give hiring officers a complete picture of your background.
c. Stress writer benefits because hiring officers want to know what appeals to you about
this particular company.
d. Share your experiences demonstrating your initiative and ability to learn easily because
employers seek employees with these qualities.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
45. Which of these is the best statement to present a job candidate's information in the body of a
cover letter?
a. I am a qualified and fully licensed pediatric nurse.
b. Your posting description closely matches my experiences assisting dysfunctional

families in crisis, and recently I've taken seminars in family dynamics to develop the
additional skills that your ad indicates are essential.
c. You need a licensed, registered nurse, and I meet those qualifications.
d. Having graduated summa cum laude from Southwest College, I am well-prepared and
eager to apply my knowledge in nursing.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
46. Choose the best closing sentence for a cover letter.
a. You should schedule my interview on Tuesday, September 7, at 10 a.m.

b. Please feel free to call me at your earliest convenience.
c. I hope you contact me soon to set up an interview for the systems analyst position.
d. To add to your team an experienced systems analyst with proven analytical and
troubleshooting skills, call me at (555) 555-4321 to arrange an interview.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
47. Which of the following is the best advice for a cover letter to accompany a résumé sent by
e-mail or fax?
a. Take the time to prepare a professional cover letter to accompany your résumé sent
electronically.
b. Send your cover letter separately from a faxed or e-mailed résumé.
c. Shorten your e-mail or fax cover letter to a brief statement such as Please consider the
attached résumé for your opening.
d. Skip the cover letter; you don't need to introduce yourself because the fax or e-mail
includes your name.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
48. Which of the following is the best tip for creating a successful cover letter?
a. Use different paper colors and paper types for your résumé and cover letter to create a
strong visual impact.
b. Make activities and outcomes, not yourself, the subject of sentences to reduce overuse
of "I."
c. Use a creative letter style to surprise the reader and make a big impact.
d. Keep the focus on your skills and traits through frequent use of "I" statements.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
49. To ensure your cover letter will look professional and suggest high quality, you should
a. revise it yourself and then pay a professional to read it for content and mechanics.
b. format the document traditionally using a business memorandum heading.
c. create a quality, professional look by (1) printing your letter on a brightly colored
paper; (2) choosing a fun, appealing font; and (3) signing your letter in a
complementary ink color.
d. polish the letter repeatedly because just like your résumé, your cover letter must be
perfect.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
50. Choose the best sentence to present an applicant's skills in an application letter.
a. I took classes in business at the local college, and I learned the skills needed to
perform well in any business setting.
b. I really enjoy and excel at teamwork, but I work well independently too.
c. Helping customers has been a pleasure in previous jobs, and serving your customers
would be equally rewarding.
d. If I didn't know better, I would swear this job had been written precisely for me because
the description exactly matches my skills and experiences.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
51. The employment process begins long before you are ready to prepare your résumé because
you must invest time and effort in self-evaluation.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
52. You can analyze your qualifications by asking such questions as Do I enjoy working with
people, data, or things? and Would I rather work for a large company or a small company?
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
53. People who learn quickly and adapt to change will always be in demand in today's new
workplace.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
54. Because you will probably be frequently changing jobs throughout your career, you should
not train for a specific career now.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
55. You can decide what qualifications you possess and how you can prove them by asking
yourself What evidence can I offer that I am a self-starter or a leader?
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
56. Students who are serious about the job search should include an internship in their
education because polls indicate that nearly 90 percent of employers offer full-time positions to
their interns.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
57. Smart job hunters know they need to search only the job boards because nearly one half of
external hires come from responses to online postings.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
58. Many job seekers today use social networking sites like Facebook and LinkedIn to network
and to find positions.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
59. Landing a job today depends largely on your technical expertise and ability to navigate the
big job boards.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
60. To conduct a safe job search online, you should post your information privately and limit
your personal information by omitting your home address and phone number.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
61. The most successful job seekers launch smart, reactive campaigns.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
62. Your primary purpose in preparing a persuasive résumé is to obtain an interview.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
63. The résumé format most popular with recruiters and hiring managers is the functional
résumé because it focuses on the job applicant's skills and abilities related to the position sought.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
64. Résumés usually fall into four categories: chronological, functional, customizable, and
popular.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
65. Recruiters may say they prefer one-page résumés, but many choose to interview those with
longer résumés.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
66. The parts of résumés should be arranged in the order expected by hiring managers, and that
places the education section before the employment history.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
67. To clearly label the purpose of your résumé for potential employers, always place the word
Résumé above the main heading.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
68. The Summary of Qualifications section will replace the Education and Experience sections.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
69. The purpose of a Summary of Qualifications is to present your most impressive

qualifications and to motivate the recruiter to read further.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
70. Including a Career Objective on your résumé is appropriate for a specific, targeted position,
but it may limit a broader job search.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
71. It is unethical to present your grade point average (GPA) as a calculation based on the
grades in your major courses only.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
72. In the Education section of your résumé, list your degrees and your GPA (grade point
average), but do not list all the courses you have taken.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
73. Experts recommend not listing foreign languages skills on your résumé because recruiters
often assume your nationality or ethnicity based on your language skills.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
74. You can include your hobbies or interests on your résumé because these may grab the
recruiter's attention or serve as conversation starters.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
75. In the Work Experience section of your résumé, you should include only those jobs that you
think will help you win the targeted position.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
76. Your résumé should include school, community, volunteer, and professional activities to
demonstrate leadership and interpersonal skills in descriptions like Secretary for Lions Club.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
77. The closing section of a résumé should include personal data (birth date, health, height and
weight, and sometimes a photograph) to help the recruiter finalize his or her decision.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
78. The first reader of your résumé may be a computer.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
79. Because résumés are increasingly becoming part of a searchable database, most job seekers
now create only one résumé format: the scannable résumé.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
80. You can maximize recognition of your résumé by a scanner if you use targeted keywords
and incorporate words from the advertisement or job description.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
81. Many applicants prepare a plain-text résumé because it can be pasted directly into the body
of an e-mail message.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
82. The most important reason to prepare an e-portfolio is that it shows off your talents and
qualifications more thoroughly than a print résumé.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
83. To fool scanning programs into ranking your résumé higher, you should insert hidden
keywords into your scannable résumé.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
84. Because they expect you to showcase your strengths and hide your weaknesses, employers
say it is acceptable to self-promote and distort facts on your résumé.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
85. A cover letter doesn't always need to accompany your résumé; for instance, if you send your
résumé by fax or e-mail, a cover letter is not necessary.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
86. The maximum length for a cover letter is always one page.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
87. The biggest mistake job seekers make when writing cover letters is making them sound too
generic.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
88. You can make your application letter more appealing by addressing it specifically to the
Human Resources Department or Hiring Manager.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
89. If an employment position has been announced and applicants are being solicited, you can
write your cover letter using a direct approach.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
90. Although a résumé must be perfect, a few errors or typos in a cover letter are acceptable.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
91. ____________________ accounts for most of the jobs found by candidates.
ANSWER: Networking
TYPE: FB
92. A résumé that focuses on a candidate's skills rather than on past employment has been
prepared using the ____________________ style.
ANSWER: functional
TYPE: FB
93. A résumé that lists work history job by job, starting with the most recent position, has been
prepared using the ____________________ style.
ANSWER: chronological
TYPE: FB
94. Seeking a position in criminalistics in a professional crime laboratory where my skills in

operating lab and field equipment, knowledge of the procedures to protect evidence, and six years'
experience analyzing physical evidence will help the organization prevent crime and convict
criminals is an example of a career ____________________.
ANSWER: objective
TYPE: FB
95. A(n) ____________________ of qualifications, which presents three to eight bulleted

statements identifying your most impressive accomplishments to prove you are the ideal candidate
for the position, appears near the top of your résumé.
ANSWER: summary
TYPE: FB
96. A(n) ____________________ résumé should be sent to companies that use automated
applicant-tracking software to screen incoming résumés.
ANSWER: scannable
TYPE: FB
97. An e-____________________ offers links to examples of a job candidate's performance,
talents, and accomplishments in digitized form.
ANSWER: portfolio
TYPE: FB
98. When an employer has advertised a job opening, you will write a(n)
____________________ application letter.
ANSWER: solicited
TYPE: FB
99. In the ____________________ of your application letter, you should promote your
qualifications for the position.
ANSWER: body
TYPE: FB
100. Motivate action by requesting an interview in the ____________________ of your

application letter.
ANSWER: closing
TYPE: FB
Chap 14:
1. During your interview you will
a. convince the employer of your potential.

b. research the company.
c. create success stories and match them to common interview questions.
d. organize yourself and your materials into a persuasive package.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
2. The job interview provides the opportunity for you to
a. expand on information in your résumé.
b. find out more about the job and whether it suits your career goals.
c. learn more about the company to decide whether you would fit into the company
culture.
d. do all of these.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
3. Which of the following statements about hiring/placement interviews is most accurate?
a. During sequential interviews sell your qualifications to each interviewer.

b. A hiring manager in the department with the job opening will probably ask more
general questions than will a human resources representative.
c. Panel interviews occur when a company interviews several candidates for the same
position at the same time.
d. The most common type of interview is the stress interview.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
4. Panel interviews are typically conducted by people who will be your supervisors and
colleagues. An important advantage of the panel interview is
a. allowing the company to measure the candidate's leadership and communication skills.
b. saving company money on repeated interviews and related costs.
c. determining the best candidate through multiple interviews.
d. testing the reactions of a candidate during nerve-racking situations.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
5. One common form of hiring interview is the sequential interview. Which of the following
statements most accurately describes a sequential interview?
a. In a sequential interview, you should outshine your competition at Sequence 1 when all
candidates are screened in the group interview.
b. You can assume that later interviewers know what was said in a previous interview
because sequential interviews are designed to save time.
c. As sequential interviews progress, interviews become more in-depth, which

meANSWER that you need to know even more about the company.
d. You must be totally committed to the job and the company to participate in a sequential
interview, which often takes weeks or even months to complete.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
6. Global Connections Inc. is interviewing several candidates for a leadership position requiring
strong communication skills. What form of interview will most likely be used for this interview?
a. A one-on-one interview conducted by the human resources director
b. A stress interview conducted by the head of the programming division
c. A computer screening interview to test applicants' programming skills
d. A group interview of several candidates at one time
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
7. When interviewing for high-pressure positions, companies may use stress interview
techniques, which include being
a. greeted immediately by the interviewer.
b. asked rapid-fire questions by members of a team.
c. given a test with no time limit.
d. offered challenging food, beverages, or tobacco products.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
8. Alejandro is an active job seeker now that he has submitted several job applications. Which of
the following is the best advice for Alejandro?
a. If you put your cell phone number on your application, answer the cell phone only if
your location is appropriate.
b. Tell your children or roommates that they must answer the phone promptly to avoid
missing any job calls.
c. Stop using voice mail to screen calls because employers are likely to find voice mail
unprofessional.
d. If you use voice mail, have someone with a clear, professional speaking voice record
your outgoing message.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
9. Which of the following is the best advice to make a positive first impression in a phone
conversation with an employer?
a. Don't refer to your résumé or references during the first phone call because these are
appropriate only in the placement interview.
b. Take notes about the conversation immediately after hanging up to avoid forgetting
details.
c. In the first phone call, be polite and enthusiastic; but don't be pushy by discussing your
qualifications.
d. If caught off guard by the call, ask whether you can call back in a few minutes.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
10. Which of the following is recommended for job seekers to complete as "homework" when
preparing for an interview?
a. Google the interviewer.

b. Allow a "cooling-off period"; stop thinking about the interview for 12 hours.
c. Select an interesting and appealing fragrance (aftershave or perfume).
d. Develop a thick skin because rejections are likely.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
11. Rebecca has an interview with a large company in a nearby city. What information should
she learn about the company before her interview?
a. The company's mission and goals
b. The company's customers and competitors
c. The management structure and names of leaders
d. Rebecca should find out all this information about the prospective employer.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
12. The best source of inside information about a company would probably result from
a. investigating its record at the Better Business Bureau.

b. calling the local Chamber of Commerce.
c. searching Wikipedia.
d. talking with company employees.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
13. Effective interview-preparation techniques include practicing answers to possible questions,

preparing to explain problem areas on your résumé, deciding on professional attire, and
a. informing your current employer of your plans.
b. preparing success stories.
c. writing a resignation letter.
d. purchasing a gift for the interviewer.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
14. Experts recommend you prepare success stories for your interview, but what should you
emphasize in these stories?
a. Highlight something humorous from your past to make the interviewer laugh.
b. Discuss a prior success of the company and the ways your skills will make the
company even better.
c. Share a story that showcases a strategic skill or key accomplishment.
d. Identify a weakness and share how you have turned it into a strength.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
15. Braden is preparing several success stories prior to his job interview for a sales
representative position. Which of the following scenarios would result in the best success story for
this position?
a. A story about a lemonade stand that Braden ran when he was a child
b. A story about working as part of a team in college to prepare a classroom presentation

about a company's history
c. A story about volunteering for a local food bank over the holidays
d. A story about developing a new sales technique that increased his customer sales by 30
percent over a six-month period
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
16. You are trying to decide what to wear to a job interview. Which of these provides the best
tip for you to follow?
a. Buy the most expensive suit you can afford to make a good impression.
b. Call the company to find out how its employees dress and dress the same to match the
look of the company culture.
c. Dress professionally, regardless of how company employees dress.
d. Don't worry about what you wear; it's what you say during the interview that counts.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
17. Social networking has impacted the job hunt for more than posting and searching jobs.
Which of the following best describes another important impact of social networking on the job
hunt?
a. Cleaning up digital dirt is essential because 70 percent of recruiters report eliminating

candidates based on information found on social networking sites.
b. Employers in large employment markets are most likely to eliminate candidates based
on information found online.
c. Social networking is so common that employers expect to find a few party pictures or
off-color comments; a little digital dirt is no longer harmful.
d. You can't control what others post about you online; thus employers no longer check
social networking sites.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
18. Which of the following is the best advice when traveling to and arriving at your interview?
a. Limit grooming time because the more time you have, the more nervous you will get.
b. If something unexpected happens causing you to be late, immediately call the

interviewer to explain what is happening.
c. If you smoke on the way to the interview, brush your teeth or chew some gum when
you arrive and liberally apply perfume or cologne.
d. Arrive at the interview 15 to 20 minutes early, and greet the receptionist promptly on
arrival.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
19. Which of the following statements about fear related to interviewing is most accurate?
a. Expect to be nervous before the interview and then to feel calm once the interview
begins; that is the natural fear cycle.
b. Other than public speaking, employment interviews are the most dreaded events in
people's lives.
c. One of the best ways to overcome fear is to be surprised by the structure of the
interview; anticipation is the biggest generator of fear.
d. Most job applicants cut their fear in half simply be dressing casually; professional dress
heightens stress, and stress increases interview fears.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
20. Which of the following will not help you reduce your fears during an interview?
a. Let the interviewer have complete charge of the entire interview.
b. Practice interviewing as much as you can, especially with real companies.
c. Practice how you will answer the most frequently asked interview questions.
d. Take deep breaths while waiting for the interview to begin.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
21. When you enter the office for an interview,

a. greet the interviewer confidently, and wait for him or her to initiate a handshake.
b. avoid small talk and obvious flattery such as "You have beautiful facilities here."
c. introduce yourself to the receptionist, and wait to be invited to sit.
d. immediately open your briefcase to sort through your contents to locate copies of your
résumé and references.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
22. You can send positive nonverbal messages during your interview by dressing professionally,
controlling your body movements, making eye contact, and
a. arriving on time.
b. using gender-neutral language.
c. presenting success stories to respond to behavioral questions.
d. preparing thoroughly.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
23. Which of the following statements about nonverbal messages during an interview is most
accurate?
a. Sit erect, leaning forward slightly to show interest and confidence.
b. Change positions often and gesture as frequently as possible to convey high energy.
c. Lean forward, resting your arms on the desk or table before you, to indicate control.
d. Relax back into your chair, slouching slightly, to demonstrate self-assurance.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
24. Which of the following is the best advice when answering interview questions?
a. Focus your answers on your strengths, but reveal a weakness or two to show your
humanity and humble nature.
b. Use the interviewer's name and title each time you answer a question to show respect.
c. To be concise, answer questions with a simple yes or no whenever possible.
d. Aim answers at the key characteristics needed, such as expertise, motivation, and a
pleasant personality.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
25. To find people who will fit into their organizations, some interviewers use the airport test,
which is
a. an informal personality measure asking what it would be like to spend 12 hours stuck
in an airport with this person.
b. an ethics questionnaire administered originally by the U.S. government to airline

employees.
c. a personality examination used to identify phobias related to heights.
d. a test containing ten questions asked of the candidate during the interview.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
26. Although you can't expect to be perfect in an employment interview, you can do your best
by
a. showing some passion by bringing up a controversial topic and taking a clear stand.
b. speaking forcefully but using some slang such as "like" and "ya know" to sound
relaxed and friendly.
c. elaborating on your answers and criticizing the person or object causing the problems
at a previous job.
d. occasionally refocusing and clarifying vague questions by asking "Do you mean...?"
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
27. Employment interviews are all about questions. Which of the following statements about
interview questions is accurate?
a. Your interviewer may use questions to become acquainted with you.
b. Some interview questions are meant to showcase the business to the candidate.
c. None of the questions you will be asked are new.
d. You can anticipate and prepare for every question.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
28. If an interviewer says Tell me about yourself, what is the best way to respond?
a. Present your brief biography as a chronology, beginning with when and where you
were born.
b. Briefly discuss educational, professional, or business-related strengths.

c. To start the interview positively, provide a few humorous personal anecdotes.
d. Tell several success stories, making sure to fill at least ten minutes of interview time.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
29. If an interviewer says Why do you want to work for us?, you should
a. briefly summarize problems at your current job that require you to change employers.
b. show what you know about the interviewer's company and how your goals match the
company and its culture.
c. explain that as a recent graduate you want to work for any company needing a person
with your skills and background.
d. tell the truth about your reasons for seeking this job; for example, you are unemployed,
you need more pay or better benefits, or you just graduated.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
30. When the interviewer asks you questions about the future, you should provide answers that
a. show ambition and interest in succeeding with this company.

b. enable you to work in your practiced success stories.
c. demonstrate you have the skills required for the target position.
d. illustrate your interest in their organization and in the open position.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
31. How should you respond if an interviewer asks, Why should we hire you when other
applicants have better credentials?
a. Admit that you are less qualified, but stress you can be paid less than more experienced
applicants.
b. Describe how you are correcting one of your most significant weaknesses to display
your strong work ethic and determination.
c. Confidently explain your strengths such as your openness to new ideas and knowledge
of the latest methods and equipment.
d. Since it is clear that you will not get this job offer, do not answer this question.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
32. Which of these responses is the best answer to the question, Where do you see yourself in
your career five years from now?
a. I see myself in your job.
b. I see myself as the president of this company.
c. I hope to be running my own business.
d. As a member of your team, I will have grown and learned enough to advance to a
position in management.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
33. Which of these is the most effective response to the question, What do you think is your
greatest weakness?
a. Some people complain that I'm a workaholic with nearly too much passion for this
field.
b. To tell the truth, I become frustrated with lazy coworkers who don't pull their own
weight.
c. My typing speed isn't as fast as I would like, but this position doesn't require me to use
the computer.
d. I've worked hard to eliminate every weakness, and I am confident you will find me the
perfect employee for this position.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
34. When an interviewer asks you a challenging question about a weakness, what is the best
way to respond?
a. To prove you have only strengths, reply that you have no weaknesses at all.
b. To be completely honest with the interviewer, talk about the employment weakness that
concerns you most.
c. Mention a previous weakness and the way you have corrected it.
d. Demonstrate your honesty by bringing up every weakness you can identify.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
35. Which of the following is an example of a situational question?
a. If you were aware that a coworker submitted false data, what would you do?
b. What is your ideal work environment?
c. What do you predict for the future of our industry?
d. Tell me about a time when you dealt with confidential information.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
36. Which of the following is an example of a behavioral interview question?
a. Who in your life has most inspired you and why?
b. An irate customer is demanding her money back. How would you handle the situation?
c. Tell me about a time when you solved a difficult problem.
d. What is your greatest strength?
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
37. When the interviewer says Describe a time when you worked successfully as a member of a
team, your best response will be to
a. reply that you have been a member of so many successful teams that no particular
instance stands out.
b. say that you not only enjoy teamwork, especially problem-solving groups, but also
work well independently.
c. tell a success story about a specific group project, your contributions, and the results.
d. list the names of all work teams on which you participated and stress that all were
successful.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
38. If the interviewer begins a question with Tell me about a time when..., you should
a. recognize that this is a trick question and tactfully refuse to answer.
b. politely explain that you have never experienced such a situation.
c. make up any answer and wish that you had been better prepared.
d. describe a situation or task, tell what action you took, and emphasize a positive result.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
39. What is the most effective way to handle an illegal or inappropriate question during an
interview?
a. If you find the question harmless and you want the job, go ahead and answer it.
b. Confront the interviewer about the illegal nature of the question.

c. Storm out of the room in anger; after all, you wouldn't work for a company with such
low ethics.
d. Refuse to answer the question because it is your legal right to do so.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
40. If an interviewer asks if you have any questions at the end of an interview, which of the
following is an inappropriate response?
a. May I have a tour of the facilities?
b. When do you expect to make a decision?
c. No, I have no questions right now; you have shared all the information I need.
d. What are the major challenges for a person in this position?
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
41. How should you close an interview?
a. Briefly review your strengths, thank the interviewer, and ask what action will follow.
b. Be confident and say, "This job sounds great! When do I start work?"
c. Ask about salary and benefits.
d. Invite the interviewer to lunch.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
42. What should you do after the interview?
a. Write a thank-you letter immediately.
b. Wait a few days to see if you hear from the employer; if not, write a thank-you letter.
c. Call the interviewer to thank him or her.
d. Send the interviewer(s) flowers.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
43. After writing a follow-up letter to thank your interviewer, your next step should be
a. alerting your references that they may be contacted by the employer.

b. sending a small gift to the receptionist to show your sincere appreciation.
c. calling the organization's human resources department to learn more about your
competitors for the open position.
d. waiting at least one month for a call of acceptance or rejection.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
44. The purposes of sending a follow-up e-mail or letter to the employer include jogging the
memory of the hiring officer, showing your serious interest in the position, and
a. emphasizing your qualifications or adding new information.
b. sending a personal note to the receptionist, who often helps make the final decision.
c. sharing your photograph to match your qualifications to your face.
d. setting a deadline for the employer to offer you the position.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
45. Kalinda made a follow-up call to her interviewer five days after the interview. Several
weeks later, Kalinda has still not heard from the employer. What action should Kalinda take now?
a. Assume that no decision has been made and that a call could come soon.
b. Send the interviewer a rejection follow-up letter.
c. Show her frustration and determination by calling the employer at least once or twice a
day for the next two weeks.
d. Assume that she didn't get the job and continue her job search.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
46. Recommended guidelines for completing application forms include which of the following?
a. Disregard questions that do not apply to you by leaving them blank.
b. Read the entire form before beginning to complete it.
c. Ignore misspellings because you are not expected to carry a dictionary.
d. Leave any questions about salary blank since they might limit what you will be paid.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
47. When you apply for a position but are rejected, employment experts recommend that you
a. send a rejection letter saying you believe the employer has made a hiring decision error
in not choosing you.
b. phone the employer's personnel office and have your application materials placed in the
inactive file in case the person hired "doesn't work out."
c. send a rejection e-message indicating you are disappointed but will contact the
company again in a month in case a job opens up.
d. do not apply at that company again for at least 12 months.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
48. When writing a resignation letter to your employer, you should
a. allow more than the standard two-week notice if you have a high or responsible
position within the company.
b. offer thanks and end with a forward-looking statement.
c. remind the employer of your contributions.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
49. In a job acceptance letter, your tasks are
a. accepting the position, asking for clarification as needed, and expressing appreciation.
b. thanking the interviewer for the interview and job offer and accepting the position.
c. confirming your acceptance, reviewing salary and benefits, and affirming the start date.
d. noting the job offer date, specifying the job acceptance date, and agreeing to the job
start date.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
50. If you must turn down a job offer, employment experts suggest you should send the
employer a letter
a. declining the offer, providing a thorough explanation of the reasons for declining, and
expanding on your qualifications for a new position.
b. thanking the employer for the offer and briefly declining the position.
c. specifying personal reasons for your decision.
d. declining the position and offering assistance finding your replacement.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
51. Many screening interviews occur on the telephone.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
52. The most common format for hiring/placement interviews is the sequential interview.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
53. If the company is conducting a panel interview, a candidate should direct an answer only to
the person who asked the question.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
54. In sequential interviewing follow-up interviews tend to be more relaxed than earlier
interviews.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
55. You will feel more comfortable and better prepared in any type of interview if you know
what to do before, during, and after the interview.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
56. Companies today use technologies like Skype to conduct online interviews that are informal
and allow candidates to take a less serious, more relaxed approach to the entire interview process.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
57. Once you have sent out one résumé or completed one job application form, you must
consider yourself an active job seeker.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
58. Most employers contact job applicants by e-mail to set up interviews.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
59. During your job search, you should treat any call from an employer just like an interview.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
60. Because employee blogs are inaccurate and biased sources of information about a company,
job seekers should ignore employee blogs.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
61. Don't worry about what information is available about you online because this information
is irrelevant to the job search.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
62. To prevent future problems with online material or digital dirt, you should use a nickname
or pseudonym when starting a new profile on a social network.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
63. Before your interview you should study the job opening, identify key needs, and then
develop matching success stories emphasizing your most strategic skills, areas of knowledge,
strongest personality traits, and key accomplishments.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
64. If something unexpected forces you to be late to your interview, call the interviewer right
away to explain what is happening.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
65. When greeting the interviewer, you should smile, maintain direct eye contact, and wait for
the interviewer to initiate a handshake.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
66. Remember that you will be judged not only by the interview but also by the receptionist and
anyone else who sees you before and after the interview.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
67. One of the best ways to overcome fear is to know what happens in a typical interview.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
68. If uncertain what to wear for your interview, call the company and ask about the dress code.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
69. When answering interview questions, interject many verbal pauses to give yourself time to
formulate appropriate answers.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
70. After opening introductions, recruiters generally try to start the interview with a series of
stress-inducing questions to see immediately how the job applicant will hold up under fire.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
71. Even if you have less experience and fewer accomplishments than other candidates, you
may be hired if you can demonstrate the skills required.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
72. When explaining how you would handle a negative hypothetical situation described in a
situational question, you should respond positively even though the situation sounds negative.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
73. To respond effectively to behavioral questions, use the storytelling technique to relate a
success story about a recent educational or work situation or task.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
74. A job applicant should never answer an illegal or inappropriate interview question.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
75. If you don't hear from the interviewer within five days, the best follow up is a phone call to
the interviewer to inquire about the decision and to indicate your extreme desire for the job.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
76. Sending a follow-up message or thank-you note after an interview is a social nicety that
distinguishes you from other candidates, but thank-you messages carry little weight in the hiring
process.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
77. If you've been interviewed by more than one person, send one thank-you note to the person
who appeared to be in charge.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
78. Always ask permission before submitting someone's name as a reference.

ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
79. When asking a previous supervisor to write a letter of recommendation, you would be smart
to provide the supervisor with a detailed description of your target job, the recommendation
deadline, and copies of your résumé and college transcript.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
80. After an interview you should always wait for the interviewer to contact you first.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
81. Fill out a job application form using a No. 2 pencil to allow easy erasure of mistakes, clear
handwriting, and dark lettering.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
82. If you have submitted a résumé and cover letter, you will not be required to fill out a job
application form.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
83. If your résumé or application generates no response within a reasonable time, you should
send a short follow-up e-mail or letter to emphasize your qualifications or to add new information.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
84. When you are rejected for a job that you considered perfect, you should give up on this
company and move rapidly to identify similar positions in other organizations.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
85. It would be appropriate to include a sentence such as the following in your job acceptance
letter: As we agreed, my compensation package includes a salary of $44,000, a benefits package
including health and life insurance, a retirement plan, and two weeks of vacation per year.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
86. Even though you will likely receive and accept your job offer via telephone, you should
send the employer a letter or e-mail to document your acceptance of the job.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
87. Writing a follow-up letter after being turned down for a job is unprofessional and
unnecessary.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
88. Although your job application form or letter and hiring materials will be placed in your
personnel file, you need not worry about the quality of a resignation letter because these are never
placed in a personnel file.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
89. Once you have resigned in a meeting with your supervisor, you do not need to document
your resignation in a letter or e-mail.
ANSWER: FALSE
TYPE: TF
90. A resignation letter typically includes a two-week notice. However, if your position is
higher and your responsibility is greater, you should provide your employer a longer notice.
ANSWER: TRUE
TYPE: TF
91. Many companies now use ____________________ interviews to save time and money by
eliminating less-qualified candidates before scheduling face-to-face interviews.
ANSWER: screening
TYPE: FB
92. A(n) ____________________ interview is meant to test a candidate's reactions during

nerve-racking situations.
ANSWER: stress
TYPE: FB
93. ____________________ interviews are typically conducted by a group of people who will
be your supervisors and colleagues. Usually seated around a table, interviewers may take turns
asking questions.
ANSWER: Panel
TYPE: FB
94. To feel confident and to sell your qualifications, you should prepare and practice
____________________ stories that provide specific examples of your educational and
work-related experience to showcase your qualifications and achievements.
ANSWER: success
TYPE: FB
95. Examples of positive ____________________ messages for the interview process include
arriving on time, dressing professionally, controlling your body movements, exhibiting good
posture, using appropriate eye contact, smiling appropriately, and listening attentively.
ANSWER: nonverbal
TYPE: FB
96. To test your thought processes and ability to think logically, interviewers describe a
hypothetical scenario and ask you how you would handle it using ____________________
questions.
ANSWER: situational
TYPE: FB
97. Your interviewer says to you Describe a time when... or Tell me about a time when... These
phrases are openings for a(n) ____________________ question.
ANSWER: behavioral
TYPE: FB
98. To provide the best possible recommendation of you to a potential employer, your
____________________ need information about the company and position.
ANSWER: references
TYPE: FB
99. Some job candidates who are declining a job offer choose to write a(n)
____________________ letter to thank the employer for the job offer and to formally refuse the
position.
ANSWER: rejection
TYPE: FB
100. You should write a formal ____________________ letter to confirm the exact date you will
terminate your employment when it is a position you have held for an extended period.
ANSWER: resignation
TYPE: FB

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Chap 1:

a. are not as important as technical skills for career success.

b. are not necessary in today's competitive job market.

d. cannot be learned; they are innate.

2. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

c. Communication skills are critical to your job placement, performance, career

a. look and sound professional.

c. appear to be busy even when you're not really doing anything.

d. attend office parties.

4. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

a. Workers today communicate less than in previous years.

b. Technology has not affected how and why we communicate.

c. Businesses today generate a wide range of messages in a variety of media.

d. Writing is a skill set used only by managers and corporate executives.

a. creating an entirely online presence.

b. promoting from within.

c. restructuring and downsizing.

a. The number of telecommuting employees is expected to decline in the future.

b. All companies assign offices for employees.

7. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Ethics is a priority for many businesses.

b. Because of economic concerns, American companies are relying on local markets.

c. Most companies encourage workers to work independently.

8. Communication is defined as "the transmission of information and meaning from one

9. Converting ideas into words or gestures to convey meaning is called

10. The communication process begins when the sender

a. determines the appropriate communication channel.

c. encodes an idea into a message.

d. plans for feedback.

12. Which of the following statements about feedback is most accurate?

a. Feedback is the verbal response from the receiver.

c. Paraphrasing a speaker's message is a waste of time.

d. Feedback can include both nonverbal and verbal responses.

a. context of the message.

14. Communication noise

a. includes anything that disrupts the transmission of a message.

b. is also called feedback.

c. describes only externally produced sounds.

d. occurs only during the encoding process.

c. we would rather talk than listen.

d. All answer choices are correct.

17. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

c. We misinterpret, misunderstand, or change very little of what we hear.

d. Most people are not very good listeners.

b. establishing a receptive mind-set, concentrating on appearance and delivery, and sifting

a. Language problem barrier

d. Nonverbal distraction barrier

a. listening actively to what the speaker is saying.

b. not understanding what the speaker is saying.

c. faking attention while she listens to music on her MP3 player.

d. formulating her response to a point with which she disagrees.

a. closing his eyes.

d. judging ideas, not appearances.

a. Keeping an open mind

b. Establishing a receptive mind-set

c. Capitalizing on lag time

d. Controlling her surroundings

a. Nonverbal communication comprises approximately 10 percent of a message.

c. Meanings of nonverbal behaviors are often influenced by one's culture.

d. Nonverbal communication applies to only intended messages.

26. Which of the following is a form of nonverbal communication?

a. Facial expressions, such as frowning or raising the eyebrows

b. Eye contact, such as staring or avoiding looking someone in the eye

c. Time, such as showing up too late or too early