Wolkite University

College of Social Science and Humanities

Department of English Language and Literature

General Direction: This pre-tutorial examination contains 140 multiple choice items. The
exam paper has 14 parts, which represent the 14 courses that have already been identified
for the exit exam examination. As can be understood from the numbers, 10 items are taken
from each course. The students therefore are required to choose the correct answer from
the given alternatives.

Time allowed: 2:20 hours

Part One: Listening Skills

Instruction: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
1. An interpretive listener is:
A. The one who interprets only what is said by the speaker.
B. The one who believes in all what is said by the speaker
C. Someone who separates facts from opinions.
D. Someone who merges facts with opinions.
2. One of the following is not enabling or micro skill of listening:
A. Skill understanding inferred information
B. Rushing to conclusions
C. Predicting what people are going to talk about
D. Retaining relevant points
3. Samira was carefully listening to the lyrics of a song for the first time, so she would be able
to write an interpretation of what the song is all about. The possible approach she used
is____________________.
A. bottom –up C. mixed
B. top-down D. none of them

4. One of the following is not the principle for developing listening skills.
A. removing distractions
B. encouraging personal prejudice
C. making preparation to listen
D. waiting and watching for non-verbal communications
5. The last stage of listening is___________________.

A. evaluating C. sensing
B. responding D. attending

6. A type of listening which involves critics, analysis and judgment is:

1
 A. appreciative listening C. comprehensive listening
B. critical listening D. empathic listening

7. All are expected from an interpretive listener, except:

A. understanding the context C. recognizing paralinguistic features

B. checking the speaker’s identity D. understanding the mood of the speaker

8. One of the following is an activity during while listening stage.

A. Filling the missed words or phrases
B. Asking the listeners to summarize the speech
C. Letting the listeners to predict the contents based on the topic
D. Checking the listeners’ understanding level
9. A type of listening which is used to identify different sounds is:

A. Comprehensive listening C. Discriminative listening

B. Appreciative listening D. Critical listening
10. Hearing is different from listening in that:
A. it is an active process C. it requires conscious efforts
B. it is a passive process D. it requires grasping and understanding

Part Two: Advanced Speech

Instruction: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
11. The linear model of communication is considered to be inadequate because:
A. The model was intended to capture the radio and television transmission process.
B. Communication is much more complicated than firing off a message to others.
C. The model fails to include channel as part of the communication process.
D. The model sees communication as two-way process.
12. In transactional model of communication, communication is seen as:
A. a one-way process C. decoding and encoding process
B. an ongoing circular process D. unidirectional process
13. If the message transmission or reception is disturbed by the broken up of someone with a
significant other, the type of noise is:
A. psychological C. cultural
B. physiological D. physical
14. One of the five core components of our worldview that represents our belief system and how we
see the nature of reality is:
A. epistemology C. cosmology
B. axiology D. ontology
15. One of the following is true about contentious communicators.
A. communicate using a memorable style
B. concerned with understanding others

2
 C. like to argue and may seem belligerent at times
D. kind and caring, recognize others in a positive way.
16. If a speech is carefully prepared and rehearsed, but delivered using notes of key words and phrases
that support the speaker, the style of delivery is:
A. Extemporaneous C. Manuscript
B. Impromptu D. Memorized
17. One of the following is not the problem of giving a speech from memory.
A. The speaker will probably sound mechanical.
B. The audience may sense the speech is not from the heart.
C. The speech may get derailed from the very beginning.
D. The audience may question the speaker’s sincerity.
18. Which one of the following is true about tone in advanced speech?
A. Tone is determined more by the speaker.
B. Tone is determined more by the audience.
C. Tone is determined more by the channel of communication.
D. Tone is determined more by the situation.
19. The language style that better describes “how well adapted the language is to the audience’s
sensitivity and expectations” is:
A. Clarity C. Formality
B. Appropriateness D. Preciseness
20. The physical aspect of speech should consider the following except:
A. Projection C. Movement
B. Posture D. Gesture

Part Three: Advanced Writing

Instruction: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.

21. Among the following one is not true about a report.

A. It is highly socialized means of communication.
B. It presents factual information to the reader.
C. It facilitates problem solving and decision-making processes.
D. All are possible answers.
22. In the process of writing a report, a writer does not engage in one of the following activities.
A. In evaluating the information collected for its usefulness
B. In combining similar pieces of information to present using tables, charts, and graphs
C. In reporting the findings, solutions, or recommendations
D. None of the above
23. A researcher should be careful not to commit _____error/s while collecting data.
A. failing to gather enough data to cover all aspects of a problem
B. using samples that are not representative
C. A and B

3
 D. None
24. There are several types of summary writing which are used for different purposes. Among
these summary types, two of them are the most common.
A. expository summary and descriptive summary
B. descriptive summary and evaluative summary
C. interpretative summary and evaluative summary
D. descriptive summary and interpretative summary
25. Breaking the text into different sections is one of the five stapes of summary writing. It
involves _______________________
A. reading the abstract because it contains the author summary and suggests what to expect.
B. paying attention to the headings and sub-headings to get good sense of each part.
C. reading the introduction and the conclusion so as to get what the author set out to do.
D. All are possible answers.
26. Paraphrasing is one of the techniques that help researchers to adopt material for inclusion in a
research paper. This technique requires _______________ .
A. to read the selection through once to get the central meaning
B. to look up every word to understand the text
C. to follow the same order that the writer uses in presenting the idea
D. A and C
27. There is an assertion: Reading helps writing. This claim is supported by one of the following
statements:
A. Wide reading helps to absorb a great deal about the craft of writing.
B. Wide reading activates effective writing.
C. Reading develops knowledge of the readers.
D. None
28. The most important task to be carried by the writer while writing a review is
_____________.
A. evaluating the sources
B. determining how many sources should be included
C. summarizing, synthesizing, or critiquing the sources by discussing a common theme or
issue
D. All
29. From the following statements, one is true about students' reflection paper.
A. It focuses on facts.
B. It relies on what the students think
C. It is influenced by others opinion
D. None
30. One of the following is practical error that result in faulty data interpretation.
A. Attempting to make results confirm the researcher's prediction
B. Comparing findings where there is no commonality
C. Considering cause and effect relationship
4
 D. Attempting to base conclusion on a title evidence

Part Four: Reading Skills

Instruction: Read the following passage and answer items 31 to 40.

To catch a king

Charles Spencer’s latest book, To Catch a King, tells us the story of the hunt for King Charles II
in the six weeks after his resounding defeat at the Battle of Worcester in September 1651. And
what a story it is. After his father was executed by the Parliamentarians in 1649, the young
Charles II sacrificed one of the very principles his father had died for and did a deal with the
Scots, thereby accepting Presbyterianism as the national religion in return for being crowned
King of Scots. His arrival in Edinburgh prompted the English Parliamentary army to invade
Scotland in a pre-emptive strike. This was followed by a Scottish invasion of England. The two
sides finally faced one another at Worcester in the west of England in 1651. After being
comprehensively defeated on the meadows outside the city by the Parliamentarian army, the 21-
year-old king found himself the subject of a national manhunt, with a huge sum offered for his
capture. Over the following six weeks he managed, through a series of heart-poundingly close
escapes, to evade the Parliamentarians before seeking refuge in France. For the next nine years,
the penniless and defeated Charles wandered around Europe with only a small group of loyal
supporters.

Years later, after his restoration as king, the 50-year-old Charles II requested a meeting with the
writer and diarist Samuel Pepys. His intention when asking Pepys to commit his story to paper
was to ensure that this most extraordinary episode was never forgotten. Over two three-hour
sittings, the king related to him in great detail his personal recollections of the six weeks he had
spent as a fugitive. As the king and secretary settled down (a scene that is surely a gift for a
future scriptwriter), Charles commenced his story: ‘After the battle was so absolutely lost as to
be beyond hope of recovery, I began to think of the best way of saving myself.’

One of the joys of Spencer’s book, a result not least of its use of Charles II’s own narrative as
well as those of his supporters, is just how close the reader gets to the action. The day-by-day
retelling of the fugitives’ doings provides delicious details: the cutting of the king’s long hair
with agricultural shears, the use of walnut leaves to dye his pale skin, and the day Charles spent
lying on a branch of the great oak tree in Boscobel Wood as the Parliamentary soldiers scoured
the forest floor below. Spencer draws out both the humor – such as the preposterous refusal of
Charles’s friend Henry Wilmot to adopt disguise on the grounds that it was beneath his dignity
and the emotional tension when the secret of king’s presence was cautiously revealed to his
supporters.

5
Charles’s adventures after losing the Battle of Worcester hide the uncomfortable truth that whilst
almost everyone in England had been appalled by the execution of his father, they had not
welcomed the arrival of his son with the Scots army, but had instead firmly bolted their doors.
This was partly because he rode at the head of what looked like a foreign invasion force and
partly because, after almost a decade of civil war, people were desperate to avoid it beginning
again. This makes it all the more interesting that Charles II himself loved the story so much ever
after. As well as retelling it to anyone who would listen, causing eye-rolling among courtiers, he
set in train a series of initiatives to memorialize it. There was to be a new order of chivalry, the
Knights of the Royal Oak. A series of enormous oil paintings depicting the episode were
produced, including a two-metre-wide canvas of Boscobel Wood and a set of six similarly
enormous paintings of the king on the run. In 1660, Charles II commissioned the artist John
Michael Wright to paint a flying squadron of cherubs carrying an oak tree to the heavens on the
ceiling of his bedchamber. It is hard to imagine many other kings marking the lowest point in
their life so enthusiastically, or indeed pulling off such an escape in the first place.

Charles Spencer is the perfect person to pass the story on to a new generation. His pacey,
readable prose steers deftly clear of modern idioms and elegantly brings to life the details of the
great tale. He has even-handed sympathy for both the fugitive king and the fierce republican
regime that hunted him, and he succeeds in his desire to explore far more of the background of
the story than previous books on the subject have done. Indeed, the opening third of the book is
about how Charles II found himself at Worcester in the first place, which for some will be reason
alone to read To Catch a King.

The tantalizing question left, in the end, is that of what it all meant. Would Charles II have been
a different king had these six weeks never happened? The days and nights spent in hiding must
have affected him in some way. Did the need to assume disguises, to survive on wit and charm
alone, to use trickery and subterfuge to escape from tight corners help form him? This is the one
area where the book doesn’t quite hit the mark. Instead its depiction of Charles II in his final
years as an ineffective, pleasure-loving monarch doesn’t do justice to the man (neither is it
accurate), or to the complexity of his character. But this one niggle aside, To Catch a King is an
excellent read, and those who come to it knowing little of the famous tale will find they have a
treat in store.

I. For questions (31-35), choose appropriate phrases from the lists (A-J) given below
that best complete the following summary.

The story behind the hunt for Charles II

Charles II’s father was executed by the Parliamentarian forces in 1649. Charles II then formed a
(31) _________________with the Scots, and in order to become King of Scots, he abandoned an
important (32) _________________that was held by his father and had contributed to his
father’s death. The opposing sides then met outside Worcester in 1651. The battle led to a (33)

6
________________ for the Parliamentarians and Charles had to flee for his life. A (34)
_________________ was offered for Charles’s capture, but after six weeks spent in hiding, he
eventually managed to reach the (35) _____________________ of continental Europe.

A. military innovation F. decisive victory

B. large reward G. political debate
C. widespread conspiracy H. strategic alliance
D. relative safety I. popular solution
E. new government J. religious conviction

II. Choose the best answer from the given alternatives.

36. What is the reviewer’s main purpose in the first paragraph?
A. to describe what happened during the Battle of Worcester
B. to give an account of the circumstances leading to Charles II’s escape
C. to provide details of the Parliamentarians’ political views
D. to compare Charles II’s beliefs with those of his father
37. Why does the reviewer include examples of the fugitives’ behavior in the third paragraph?
A. to explain how close Charles II came to losing his life
B. to suggest that Charles II’s supporters were badly prepared
C. to illustrate how the events of the six weeks are brought to life
D. to argue that certain aspects are not as well-known as they should be
38. What point does the reviewer make about Charles II in the fourth paragraph?
A. He chose to celebrate what was essentially a defeat.
B. He misunderstood the motives of his opponents.
C. He aimed to restore people’s faith in the monarchy.
D. He was driven by a desire to be popular.
39. What does the reviewer say about Charles Spencer in the fifth paragraph?
A. His decision to write the book comes as a surprise.
B. He takes an unbiased approach to the subject matter.
C. His descriptions of events would be better if they included more detail.
D. He chooses language that is suitable for a twenty-first-century audience.
40. When the reviewer says the book ‘doesn’t quite hit the mark’, he is making the point that
A. it overlooks the impact of events on ordinary people.
B. it lacks an analysis of prevalent views on monarchy.
C. it omits any references to the deceit practiced by Charles II during his time in hiding.
D. it fails to address whether Charles II’s experiences had a lasting influence on him.

Part Five: Sophomore English

Instruction: Identify the correct sentence from the four alternative sentences given.

41.

7
 A. The board reviewing the courses offered by the college found that the quality of academic
programs was generally good but somewhat uneven.
B. The strangely distorted, colorful pictures by Picasso have received much attention not
only from the critics, but also from the general public.
C. If one hears a baseless rumor, you can either ignore it or try to find out how it started.
D. None
42.
A. Everyone who plans to attend the senior retreat needs to pack appropriatecamping
supplies.
B. After hours of futile debate, the committee has decided to postpone furtherdiscussion of
the resolution until their next meeting.
C. All states impose severe penalties on drivers who do not stop when he or sheis involved
in accidents.
D. None
43.
A. We always eat at In ‘N’ Out, they prefer Burger King.
B. We always eat at In ‘N’ Out; They prefer Burger King.
C. We always eat at In ‘N’ Out but they prefer Burger King.
D. We always eat at In ‘N’ Out. They prefer Burger King.
44.
A. I need to find a new roommate. Because the one I have isn’t working out too well.
B. Whenever I can’t fall asleep at night.
C. The beautiful, calm, elegant girl who sits next to me.
D. I shouted with delight.
35.
A. Entering the English classroom, four large windows can be seen.
B. Looking at Television, the electricity went off suddenly.
C. At the age of five, my parents sent me to camp.
D. Standing on the tiptoe, we could see the inside of the room.
Instruction: Choose the correctly punctuated sentence from the four alternative sentences
given.

46.
A. You were not late today, were you?
B. You were not late today. Were you?
C. You were not late today; were you!
D. You were not late today: were you?
47.
A. Have you read animal farm, a book by George Orwell.
B. Have you read Animal Farm, a book by George Orwell?
C. Have you read Animal Farm; a book by George Orwell.

8
 D. Have you read Animal farm a book by George Orwell?
Instruction: Read the following topic sentences and identify the sentence that is deviating
from the controlling idea.
48. There are several reasons why online courses are increasing in popularity.
A. Online courses are flexible in terms of time.
B. Online courses have been available since 1990s.
C. Online courses are more convenient for students who live far away from the Campus.
D. None
49. My city is famous because of its architecture.
A. We have ancient red-tiled buildings around the main square.
B. The restaurants near the beach serve great sea food.
C. It has expensive tree-lined boulevards with beautiful limestone buildings and monuments.
D. A famous university is located on the side of a mountain
50. The best way to reduce traffic in our city is to build a metro subway system.
A. Pollution is very bad in our city.
B. Widening the freeways has not solved the problem of traffic congestion.
C. A metro subway system would encourage people to take public transportation to work.
D. None

Part Six: English Grammar in Use

Instruction: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
51. Which one of the following statements has an object complement?
A. They are happy that they are attending their remedial classes at Wolkite University.
B. Her father is a rescuer.
C. Candy makes children happy.
D. We hope that you will win this competition.
52. Which one of the following alternatives does not need the article “the”?
A. Sun C. Spain
B. United States of America D. Netherlands
53. Which of the following statements has a grammatical error?
A. I am sure that you are utterly wrong. C. She is always a bit sickly.
B. He did not run fast enough. D. I did not do the last exam good.
54. They _________________ in us and our stories. The alternative that best completes this
statement is
A. are interesting C. have interested
B. are interested D. interest
55. Teachers have to support their families just __________________ everyone else.

9
 A. similar than C. like
B. as D. the same that
56. I _________________ to shop before the shooting started. The alternative that best
completes this statement is
A. have gone C. went
B. had gone D. was going
57. My wife has disapproved __________ the color of my jacket, but it looks nice on me.
A. against C. about
B. of D. over
58. __________________ the consistent implementation of the globally accepted healthcare
system, approximately one hundred thousand children die each year.
A. despite C. although
B. in spite D. however
59. Jessica told her parents, "I was watching a movie when someone knocked on the door." The
reported speech form of this sentence is
A. Jessica told her parents that she was watching a movie when someone knocked on the
door.
B. Jessica told her parents that she had been watching a movie when someone knocked on
the door.
C. Jessica told her parents that I had been watching a movie when someone knocked on the
door.
D. Jessica told her parents that she had been watching a movie when someone had knocked
on the door.
60. All of us ___________________ by the terrorists if we ___________________them what
they wanted. The alternative that best completes this sentence is
A. would be killed----did not give
B. would have been killed ----had not given
C. would have killed ----had not given
D. would kill ----did not give
Part Seven: Introduction to Language and Linguistics
Instruction: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
61. According to John R. Searle (American Philosopher), which one of the alternatives is a type
of speech act that is used for commanding and requesting?
A. Expressive C. Representative
B. Directive D. Commissive

10
62. The statement, ‘I promise to visit our province after this COVID-19 outbreak,’ is an speech
act used as:
A. Directive C. Commissive
B. Expressive D. Representative
63. In the pronunciation of the word ‘ink’ the alveolar /n/ becoming a velar sound is an instance
of
A. Progressive C. Reciprocal
B. Regressive D. None of the above
64. Language is never static; it goes on changing. This property of language is called:

A. Dynamic C. Displacement
B. Recursiveness D. D. Transference

65. Phonemes which affect meaning change in the same environment are said to be in:

A. Contrastive distribution C. Noncontrastive distribution

B. B. Complementary distribution D. None of the above

66. Syllables in which the consonants function as nucleus are called

A. Syllabic consosnants C. Suffixes

B. Sibilants D. None of the above

67. The degree of force with which a sound of syllable is uttered is:

A. Stress C. Intonation
B. Pitch D. Juncture

68. The Ding-Dong Theory of the origin of language was advanced by:

A. Wilhelm Wundt and Sir Richard C. Max-Muller

Paget D. Otto Jepersen
B. Noire

69. The following sound influencing the preceding sound is an instance of _________
assimilation:

A. Progressive C. Reciprocal
B. Regressive D. D. None of the above

70. The term ____________ refers to omissions of certain sounds, syllables or even words in
continues speech.

A. Alliteration C. Elision
B. Assonance D. D. None of the above

11
Part Eight: Discourse Analysis
Instruction: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
71. Of the following conditions, which one must be met for a text to be coherent?
A. Development – the presentation of ideas must be orderly and convey a sense of direction.
B. Continuity – there must be consistency of facts, opinions and writer perspective.
C. Completeness the ideas presented must provide a sufficiently thorough discourse
D. All of the above
72. Which one of the given four alternatives is the type of cohesive tie?
A. Reference C. Conjunction
B. Substitution D. All of the above
73. What is face?
A. Public self-image
B. It’s a redressive action addressed to the addressee
C. Acts that run contrary to the face wants of the speaker’s
D. Addressee’s desire to have his/her freedom
74. According Hill et al. (1986:282), politeness is one of the constraints of human interaction
whose:
A. Purpose is to consider other’s feelings
B. Establish levels of mutual comfort
C. Promote rapport
D. None of the above
75. What is meant by the term ‘adjacency pair in Conversational Analysis (CA)?
A. An interviewer and interviewee sitting next to each other
B. Two linked phases of conversation
C. Two similar questions asked consecutively
D. Two related participants
76. What do Discourse Analysts study?
A. Forms of communication other than talk
B. The way discourse ‘frame’ our understanding of the social world
C. The rhetorical styles used in written and oral communication
D. All of the above
77. Which one of the following statements is true regarding conversation analysis?
A. It is an analysis of talk
B. It is concerned with uncovering the underlying structures of talk
C. It is concerned with the achievement of order through interaction
D. All of the above
78. ______________ is an utterance which has a certain conventional force for informing,
ordering, warning and undertaking.
A. Hedges C. Perlocutionary
B. Illocutionary D. Negative politeness

12
79. Which of the following two research approaches are predominantly concerned with
analyzing language?
A. Conversation and discourse analysis
B. Structured and semi-structured interviewing
C. Observation and content analysis
D. None of the above
80. Which one of the following Jacobson’s function of language is similar to Austin’s
Perlocutionary Act?
A. Referential C. Poetic
B. Conative D. Phatic

Part Nine: Translation and Interpretation

Instruction: Read the following sentence and choose the correct answer.
81. Which one of the following is true about translation?
A. Machine translation is more effective than human assisted translation.
B. Scholarly translation is used to enrich the students’ vocabulary in L2.
C. Translators must not be fluent both in SL/source language &TL/ target language.
D. The skills and tasks required are not similar in translation and interpretation.
82. Which one of the following is not a qualification of good interpreter?
A. Having sufficient vocabulary in both SL & TL.
B. Having good not taking skills
C. Having expressive thoughts clearly and inaccuracy in TL.
D. Knowing the culture of both SL and TL of native speakers.
83. Professional translation service requires in business area because:
A. It helps to avoid drawbacks
B. It has professional linguists and they can easily bring the market to the expectation
C. It has sufficient tools to manage the translation and reduces cost and can speed up the
translation to the market.
D. All
84. _________________ focuses the translation of files, manuals & websites.
A. Computer translation C. Machine translation
B. Literary translation D. Machine assisted translation
85. The word Childish implies ‘immaturity behavior’the type of meaning is _____________
A. Denotative meaning C. Affective meaning
B. Connotative meaning D. Social meaning
86. Aster changed the flat tire. (Active )The flat tire was changed by Aster.(passive ) The first
sentence answers a question “What was Aster changed?” And the second sentence answers
the question “Who changed the flat tire?” The way the message is organized marks
____________________
A. Denotative meaning C. Affective meaning
B. Connotative meaning D. Thematic meaning
13
87. “In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. በመጀመርያ እግዚአብሄር ሰማይንና ምድርን
ፈጠረ፡፡” in this text what kind of translation is applied?
A. Communicative translation C. Word for word translation
B. Cultural translation D. Adaptation translation
88. _______________ involves translating texts by paraphrasing within a language.
A. Intralingual translation C. Commercial translation
B. Interlingual translation D. Technical translation
89. Which one of the following is not true about equivalence in translation?
A. It refers to a relationship between the Source Text and the Target Text in relation to a
corresponding linguistic aspect.
B. The semantic sense of each word and sentence.
C. Its place in time and space.
D. The information about the participants involved in its production and reception
90. ________________ refers to the learning of pragmatic aspect of various speech acts, namely,
the cultural values, norms, and other socio-cultural conventions in social contexts.
A. Sociolinguistic competence C. Pragmatic competence
B. Phonological competence D. Lexical competence

Part Ten: Introduction to Literary Theory and Criticism

Instruction: Choose the best answer from the given alternatives.
91. Which of the following best describes the difference between literary criticism and literary
theory?
A. Literary criticism is concerned only with the meaning of a literary work, while literary
theory is concerned only with the structure of a literary work.
B. Literary criticism draws upon research derived from sources outside literature, while
literary theory draws upon sources within a text.
C. Literary criticism is concerned with how characters in a text act, while literary theory is
concerned with why characters act.
D. Literary theory is concerned with the method used to interpret a work, while literary
criticism is the application of literary theory.
92. How did the New Critics view literature?
A. as an aesthetic object that is independent of historical context
B. as an aesthetic object that is influenced by historical context
C. as a historical object that is also aesthetic
D. as a historical object that is not necessarily aesthetic
93. What do structuralist and formalist critics have in common?
A. Both sets of critics reject the importance of historical context in studying literature.
B. Both sets of critics look for an objective way to view texts.
C. Both sets of critics study the underlying forms of texts.
D. All of the above answers are correct.
94. Which literary theorist argues that "there is nothing outside the text"?
14
 A. T.S. Eliot C. Jacques Lacan
B. Jacques Derrida D. Stanley Fish
95. What does gynocriticism recommend as an approach to literature?
A. Examining only female-authored literature more critically
B. Becoming more familiar with the history of women and women's writing
C. Studying women's literature for its linguistic qualities only
D. Considering women's literature outside of its historical context
96. Reader-response theory is focused on considering which of the following?
A. How readers learn to read
B. How readers imagine visual images in a text
C. How readers participate in creating the meaning of a text
D. How readers choose to read what they read
97. What is the purpose of feminist theory?
A. To advocate for women's rights
B. To create literary subjects with which female readers can identify
C. To critique phallocentric assumptions about literature
D. To counter stereotypes about women
E. All of the above answers are correct.
98. What fundamental idea does psychoanalytic criticism hold about literary texts?
A. Literary texts should not be read as a projection of the author's psyche.
B. Literary texts reveal secret elements of an author's unconscious.
C. Literary texts are unlike dreams because they have a system of order and produce
meaning.
D. Literary texts solely reflect an author's intentions.
99. Jacques Derrida's concept of difference challenges us to think about language as a system
that:
A. mirrors our physical evolution as human beings.
B. prevents us from communicating through writing or speech.
C. involves a constant process of deferred meaning.
D. evolved exclusively as a function of our individual psyche.
100. Which of the following best defines the work of a deconstructionist critic?
A. Suggesting that the study of literature is based on the breakdown of language into signs
B. Arguing that language, and therefore literary texts, relies on the difference between terms
and therefore constantly defers meaning.
C. Calling into question the capacity of language to communicate
D. All of the above answers are correct.

Part Eleven: Fundamentals of Literature

Instruction: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.

101. Which of the following is not a literary device?

15
 A. Allegory C. Dramatic irony
B. Alliteration D. Plot
102. What part of a play do critics primarily consider when classifying it as a comedy or a
tragedy?
A. the crisis C. the character
B. the resolution D. the structure
103. A poetic license is a term applied to a poet’s
A. choice of words C. restriction in the use of language
B. choice of characters D. freedom in the use of language
104. We live to die, and we die to live is an example of
A. paradox C. inversion
B. hyperbole D. oxymoron
105. Rather than depicting characters and action, which genre of poetry portrays the poet’s
own feelings, states of mind and perceptions?
A. lyric poetry C. dramatic poetry
B. narrative poetry D. didactic poetry
106. In what way the oral tradition refers to a mode of storytelling are communicated?
A. written down C. filmed
B. spoken or sung out loud D. recorded
107. In literature, poetic justice applies to
A. a story that ends well
B. characters that are spared death
C. the development of a good plot
D. the rewarding of good characters and the punishment of bad ones
108. Condensed use of language is a dominant feature of
A. play C. prose
B. poetry D. tragedy
109. Which one of the following is true about the definition of theme?
A. Theme is the central or major character of the fictional work.
B. Theme is the resolution of the story.
C. Theme is the central message of the story.
D. Theme is the music that goes with the story.
110. In literature, tone refers to
A. environment or atmosphere created by the actions, setting and characters of the story
B. the location and time in which the action of a narrative takes place
C. the main idea or message about life, society or human nature
D. the attitude of a writer toward a subject and his/her audience.

Part Twelve: Editing

Instruction: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
111. One among the following is the concept of editing.
16
 A. Performed with intention of producing incorrect & incomplete output.
B. A practice that includes creative skills, human relations & a precise set of methods.
C. Should be undertaken before finishing the first draft of a piece of text.
D. Doesn’t involve checking the content of the text.
112. Which of the following is not the list of editing your work?
A. Using spell-checker.
B. Putting your work aside for a few days.
C. Edit for structure & content first.
D. Physically turning your words into a different format.
113. Which of the following is the duty of a copy editor?

A. Keeping an eye out for libel C. Designing

B. Writing headlines D. All

114. Which one of the following statement is correct?

A. Proper nouns are always spelled with a capital letter.
B. Most journals require their own writing style.
C. The objective of typography is effective communication
D. If an article is factually true, it doesn’t guarantees publication.
E. All
115. Which one of the following is true?
A. A headline should grab the reader’s attention.
B. Copy editors check written material, usually as the final step before it is set into type.
C. Before use of computers, the traditional copy desk resembled a horseshoe.
D. Numbers should be spelled out when they begin a sentence.
E. All
116. Identify the correct words for the blank in the following sentence.
I would like to have the party ____ more ____ at a restaurant.

A. hear, than C. here, than

B. hear, then D. here, then

117. Which of the following is a complete sentence?

A. Because night fell. C. On a tree-lined path.

B. Jim ate the sandwich. D. In our neck of the woods.

118. Identify the sentence that uses capitalization correctly.

A. The whole family appreciated the letter Senator Clinton sent to Uncle Jeff.
B. The whole Family appreciated the letter senator Clinton sent to Uncle Jeff.
C. The whole family appreciated the letter Senator Clinton sent to uncle Jeff.
D. The whole family appreciated the letter senator Clinton sent to uncle Jeff.
119. What is defamation?

17
 A. Publishing unflattering information about someone
B. An invasion of privacy
C. A clearly labeled personal opinion
D. An untruthful accusation that lowers someone’s reputation
120. To be successful, a consent defense must prove:
A. The defamed person had been informed that defamatory information would be published.
B. The person knew what they were consenting to.
C. The proof of this consent must be in the form of documents, tapes or a witness.
D. All of the above

Part Thirteen: English in Public Relations

Instruction: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
121. Theories of persuasion broadly categorize premises about how we think and feel, and how
those thoughts and emotions affect the way we act. Select the most appropriate assumption.
A. How people process information about the world can play an important part in what
typesof messages they find most persuasive.
B. People's behavior and actions are inextricably linked to their mother and father's
parentingstyle, and the behavior and actions of siblings.
C. People tend to understand messages regardless of who seeks to persuade them.
D. All of the above are correct.
E. None of the above are correct.
122. Making relational preservation a super ordinate goal is the idea behind which of the
following principles of negotiation:
A. generate a variety of possibilities before deciding what to do
B. be aware that in conflict situations, we usually misread each other's interests
C. focus on interests, not positions
D. separates the people from the problem
123. Public relations professionals often deal with either internal or external
communications.Which of the following best describes those two types of communications?
A. Internal communications deal with investors, clients, customers or contributors, and
external communications keep company employees informed about the company.
B. Internal communications always flow from the top of the organization down, and
externalcommunications always flow from the bottom to the top.
C. Internal communications always are carried out by e-mail, and external communications
always are carried out through the mass media.
D. Internal communications keep company employees informed about the company, and
external communications deal with investors, clients, customers or contributors.
124. Business interests in media organizations can often supersede the public interests entrusted
to that organization. This can happen in which of the following ways?
A. Advertisers threaten to stop advertising unless the media organization stops or changes
coverage of the company or a controversial issue.
18
 B. Lack of consumer power among disadvantaged groups can mean they get less
newscoverage or are mostly portrayed in a negative light
C. Cutting staff to save money can affect the quality of news coverage as journalists get
evenmore overworked.
D. Journalists often lack professional development training because of media organizations’
unwillingness to support such training.
E. All of the above
125. Social media audiences differ from those of traditional media because:
A. Traditional media audiences consume material created for them while social media
audiences either dictate the type of product they want or bypass traditional producers to
find products more suitable to their particular needs or desires.
B. Traditional media audiences tend to be within a certain age, gender and socio-economic
group, while social media appeals to virtually every age, gender and economic status.
C. Social media audiences tend to be the millennial generation while traditional media are
mainly some.
D. None of the above
126. Which of the following would NOT be among your responsibilities as the public relations
director for a large organization?
A. organizing news conferences
B. controlling all the information about your organization that is released to the public
C. planning the launch of new products and services
D. acting as the organization's spokesperson
127. How are marketing and advertising different?
A. Advertising is used to promote products, while marketing is used to promote services.
B. Marketing and advertising are different terms for the same thing.
C. Advertising is one aspect of marketing, but marketing can include other strategies.
D. Advertising is used to promote services, while marketing is used to promote products.
128. Fitsum is a group leader. Before the initial group meeting, he makes a list of the things that
must occur in order for the group to make an effective decision. Fitsum is working under the
assumptions of which theory?
A. Symbolic convergence theory
B. Adaptive structuration theory
C. Functional theory
D. Bona Fide Groups perspective
129. Which of the following factors can be a solution to solve unanimity in group opinion
according to Carroll Clark?
A. Underlying common interests strong enough to override sharply opposed interests and
sentiments
B. a common discourse in terms of which an exchange of views may be effected
C. tolerance of opposing views and willingness to discuss the issues
D. All
19
130. A tactic of collaboration that uses non-hostile questions about events related to conflict that
cannot be observed by the other person (thoughts, feelings, intentions, etc.) is:
A. acceptance of responsibility
B. concessions
C. solicitation of disclosure
D. solicitation of criticism

Part Fourteen: Fundamentals of Research and Report Writing

Instruction: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
131. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is an example of:
A. qualitative research C. fundamental research
B. empirical research D. analytical research
132. Bibliography means:
A. quotations taken C. biography
B. footnotes D. list of books referred
133. Onetime research is applicable in:
A. historical studies C. environmental studies
B. diagnostic studies D. experimental studies
134. The process not needed in experimental study research is;
A. manipulation C. assigning subjects
B. content analysis D. controlling
135. The last page of the research report is:
A. index C. appendix
B. bibliography D. conclusion
136. Which of the following statement is true about interpretations of the data?
A. Interpretations can proceed without analysis.
B. Analysis and interpretations are independent.
C. The data to be interpreted should be homogeneous in nature.
D. The data to be interpreted should be heterogeneous in nature.
137. The last stage of the research process is:
A. report writing C. research Design
B. analysis of data D. conclusion and recommendation
138. An abstract contains:
A. a brief summary of a statement of the problem
B. a brief summary of the findings of the report
C. a brief analysis of the data
D. a brief interpretation of data
139. The core elements of research are:
A. introduction, data collection, Data analysis, conclusions, and recommendations.
B. introduction, literature review, Data analysis, conclusions, and recommendations.
C. research plan, research design, data analysis, references.
20
 D. introduction, literature review, research methodology, results, discussion, and
conclusions.
140. The report submitted when there is a time lag between data collection and presentation of
results is called:
A. thesis report C. summary report
B. interim report D. article report

21