CENTRAL PHILIPPINE UNIVERSITY

COLLEGE OF MEDICINE
Anatomy Review SY 2021-2022

Name: __________________________________

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer.

1. The term refers to a numerical abnormality when an extra chromosome is present.

a. Monosomy
b. Trisomy
c. Nondisjunction
d. Mosaicism
2. The term refers to a numerical abnormality when one chromosome is missing.
a. Monosomy
b. Trisomy
c. Nondisjunction
d. Mosaicism
3. It is the process of cell division that takes place in the germ cells to generate male and female gametes.
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Mutation
d. Crossover
4. A clinical sydrome found only in males:
a. Klinefelter
b. Angelman”s
c. Triple X
d. Down
5. 98% of all fetuses with this syndrome are spontaneously aborted.
a. Klinefelter
b. Turner
c. Triple X
d. Down
6. This syndrome is a result of microdeletion on the maternal chromosome 15.
a. Miller-Dieker
b. Turner
c. Prader-Willi
d. Angelman’s
7. Patients with this syndrome often go undiagnosed because of their mild physical features but frequently have
problems with speech and self-esteem.
a. Triple X
b. Down
c. Angelman’s
d. Miller-Dieker
8. Normal ejaculate has a volume of:
a. 13 - 15 ml
b. 10 - 12 ml
c. 7 - 9 ml
d. 2 - 6 ml
9. At mid-cycle, there is a luteinizing hormone (LH) surge that:
a. Inhibits production of progesterone
b. Causes follicular rupture
c. Lowers maturation-promoting factor concentration
d. Thickening of uterine endometrium
10. It is the layer of trophoblast responsible for production of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
a. Epiblast
b. Cytotrophoblast
c. Amnioblast
d. Syncytiotrophoblast
11. The carotid sheath contains the following group of structures
a. common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, accessory nerve
b. common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, vagus nerve
c. external jugular vein, internal jugular vein, vagus nerve
d. external jugular vein, internal jugular vein, accessory nerve
12. All are contents of the cubital fossa except
a. median nerve
b. brachial artery
c. ulnar nerve
d. axillary artery
13. The following muscles take part in the formation of the thenar eminence except:
a. opponens pollicis
b. abductor pollicis brevis
c. adductor pollicis
 d. flexor pollicis brevis
14. Hemorrhage from a superficial stab wound in the deltopectoral triangle would be primarily from the
a. cephalic vein
b. brachial vein
c. basilic vein
d. median cubital vein
15. The upper limb is attached to the trunk through this joint
a. coracoacromial
b. sternoclavicular
c. coracoclavicular
d. glenohumeral
16. The superficial vein most often utilized in blood transfusion or drawing blood for examination is
a. subclavian vein
b. cephalic vein
c. medial cubital vein
d. axillary vein
17. Tendons which form the boundaries of the anatomical snuff box include the following except
a. abductor pollicis longus
b. extensor pollicis brevis
c. extensor pollicis longus
d. abductor pollicis brevis
18. Damage to the posterior cord of the brachial plexus results in paralysis of all of the following except
a. teres major
b. infraspinatus
c. subscapularis
d. latissimus dorsi
19. Injury to the thoracodorsal nerve produces paralysis of which muscle?
a. latissimus dorsi
b. levator scapulae
c. rhomboids
d. trapezius
20. A patient sustained a severe damage to the radial nerve resulting from fracture of the lower 3 rd of the humerus. The
patient will experience
a. a loss of wrist extension
b. weakness in pronating the forearm
c. inability to oppose thumb
d. inability to abduct digit 5
21. The following are contents of the posterior triangle of the neck except
a. subclavian artery
b. subclavian vein
c. accessory nerve
d. glossopharyngeal nerve
22. Which of the following group of muscles are deep extensors acting on the thumb?
a. supinator, extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis
b. abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis
c. adductor pollicis, abductor pollicis longus, abductor pollicis brevis
d. adductor pollicis, abductor pollicis longus, supinator
23. Pulsations of the radial artery may be felt between the tendons of
a. flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis longus
b. brachioradialis and flexor carpi radialis
c. flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis
d. flexor carpi radialis and flexor pollicis longus
24. The median nerve supplies the
a. thenar muscles
b. hypothenar muscles
c. medial lumbricals
d. dorsal interossei
25. The nerve commonly injured in fractures of the medial epicondyle of the humerus is the
a. radial
b. ulnar
c. median
d. musculocutanoeus

26. What structure forms the base of the femoral triangle

a. Sartorius
b. Gracilis
c. Inguinal ligament
d. Adductor magnus
27. In standing erect, where does the center of gravity falls anterior to?
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4
28. What muscle passes thru the greater sciatic foramen and serves as a landmark for the other
structures which pass thru the foramen?
a. Gluteus medius
b. Piriformis
c. Suoerior gemellus
d. Obturator internus
29. What nerve supplies the muscles in the anterior compartment of the thigh?
a. femoral nerve
b. sciatic nerve
c. obturator nerve
d. inferior gluteal nerve
30. What muscle is a powerful flexor of the thigh at the hip joint and can also contribute to
lateral rotation of the thigh and inserts on the lesser trochanter?
a. Sartorius
b. Rectus femoris
c. Gracilis
d. Iliopsoas
31. What muscle is included in the quadriceps muscle complex?
a. rectus femoris
b. biceps femoris
c. semitendinosus
d. semimembranosus
32. The tibial nerve and the common fibular nerve are terminal branches of what nerve?
a. femoral nerve
b. obturator nerve
c. sciatic nerve
d. superior gluteal nerve
33. What muscle is flat and quadrangular in the sole of the foot and assists the flexor digitorum
longus tendon in flexing the toes
a. flexor digitorum longus
b. abductor hallucis
c. quadratus plantae
d. lumbricals
34 . What muscles are worm like that originate from the tendons of the flexor digitorum
longus
a. dorsal interossei
b. plantar interossei
c. extensor hood
d. lumbricals
35. What nerve supplies the flexor hallucis brevis muscle?
a. lateral plantar nerve
b. medial plantar nerve
c. tibial nerve
d. fibular nerve
36. A patient who sustained a myocardial infarction involving the anterior, apical and anteroseptal wall of the heart is
most likely to have blockage of which coronary arterial branch?
a. Distal right coronary artery
b. Proximal right coronary artery
c. Proximal left anterior descending artery
d. Distal circumflex coronary artery
37. In the fetal circulation, blood from the inferior vena cava that enter the right atrium preferentially flows into:
a. The right ventricle through the tricuspid valve
b. The descending aorta via the ductus Arteriosus
c. The left atrium through the Foramen ovale
d. Lungs through the pulmonary artery
38. "Rib notching" due to dilated and tortuous intercostal arteries is seen in which condition?
a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Coarctation of the Aorta
c. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
d. Atrial Septal Defect
39. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding Patent Ductus Arteriosus
a. Causes a left to right shunt
b. It shunts blood from the pulmonary vein to the aorta
c. It shunts blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery
d. It causes pulmonary overcirculation
40. The lowest extent of the pleural cavity, into which lung tissue does not extend, is known as the:
a. costodiaphragmatic recess
b. costomediastinal recess
c. inferior mediastinum
d. pulmonary ligament
41. The SA node is located at
a. the apex of the triangle of Koch
b. Supero-lateral aspect of the SVC-Right atrial junction
c. Supero-medial aspect of the SVC-right atrial junction
d. Supero-lateral aspect of the IVC- right atrial junction
42. The most common type of Ventricular Septal Defect
a. Muscular VSD
b. Cono-ventricular
c. Peri-membranous
d. Inlet type
43. The following structures are homologous, EXCEPT:
a. Ductus arteriosus --> Ligamentum arteriosum
b. Umbilical vein --> Ligamentum teres
c. Ductus venosus - Ligamentum venosum
d. Umbilical arteries - Lateral umbilical ligaments
44. The anterior boundary of the posterior mediastinum is the:
a. sternal angle
b. body of the sternum
c. pericardium on anterior aspect of the heart
d. pericardium on posterior aspect of the heart
45. Which of the following structure does not pass through the aortic opening of the diaphragm?
a. descending aorta c. thoracic duct
b. left gastric artery d. azygos vein
46. Abdominal organs that drain blood into the portal vein, EXCEPT:
a. Stomach
b. Pancreas
c. Spleen
d. Liver
47. Obstruction of the cystic duct may result to, EXCEPT:
a. Dilatation and distention of the gallbladder
b. Obstructive type of jaundice
c. Acute inflammation of the gallbladder (cholecystitis)
d. Biliary colic type of pain
48. Obstruction of portal vein will manifest with:
a. Esophageal cancer
b. Hepatitis
c. Ascitis
d. Peritonitis
49. Structure that is present in the nasopharynx:
a. Recurrent nerve
b. Eustachian tube
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Fascial tonsils
50. A 25 year old male was stabbed on the left lower abdomen. Intra-operative findings revealed a bowel injury in the
area where the taenia coli abruptly ended. What is the site of injury?
a. Appendiceal tip
b. Ileocecal junction
c. Descending colon
d. Rectosigmoid junction
51. Which of the following factors is responsible for the propensity of sigmoid colon to develop volvulus?
a. Narrow diameter
b. Intraperitoneal location
c. Redundant mesocolon
d. Poor arterial supply
52. Carcinoma in the anatomical anal canal would drain in which nodal basin?
a. Inferior mesenteric nodes
b. Internal iliac nodes
c. Internal pudendal nodes
d. Superficial inguinal nodes
53. A 44 year old male tuba drinker was diagnosed to have amoebiasis. He complied poorly to the medications given.
Several weeks later, he developed RUQ pain. Ultrasound revealed hepatic abscess. What is the most plausible route
for amoeba to reach the liver?
a. Direct extension from colon to liver
b. Arterial supply via the hepatic artery
c. Venous drainage via superior mesenteric vein
d. Lymphatic drainage via the ileocolic lymph nodes
54. Which of the following statements regarding the Hesselbach’s triangle is correct?
a. It is bounded laterally by the inguinal ligament.
b. It is bounded medially by the linea semicircularis.
c. It is bounded inferiorly by the inferior epigastric artery.
d. It is the site where direct inguinal hernia protrudes.
55. A 45 year old female bank executive complained of epigastric pain which later also involved the hypogastric area.
Operative findings revealed perforated gastric ulcer with purulent materials in the pelvic area. What is the most
plausible route for abscess to reach the pelvis?
a. Greater omentum
b. Right paracolic gutter
c. Root of the mesentery
d. Redundant transverse mesocolon
56. Which of the following structure CANNOT be injured during ligation of the infundibulo-pelvic ligament:
a. Ovarian Artery and Vein c. Ureter
b. Uterine Artery and Vein d. Ovary
57. This bony protuberance serves as a marker for the narrowest plane of the pelvic bone:
a. Ischial Spine c. Coccyx
b. Ischial Tuberosity d. Sacral Promontory
58. This is a muscular membrane containing fibers of the levator ani which extends from the ischiopubic rami and is
pierced by the anal and vaginal opening:
a. Urogenital Diaphragm c. Pelvic Diaphragm
b. Urogenital Triangle d. Anal Triangle
59. This irregular mass of collagenous and elastic tissue is frequently damage after repeated vaginal birth, leading to
pelvic relaxation:
a. Fourchette c. Perineal Body
b. Posterior Commissure d. Fossa Naviculars
60. At the base of the broad ligament of the uterus is a structure that is composed of dense connective tissue that is
united firmly to the supravaginal portion of the cervix. This ligament is called as:
a. Uterosacral Ligament c. Round Ligament
b. Cardinal Ligament d. Infundibulo-pelvic Ligament
61. This forms the floor of the pelvic cavity:
a. Urogenital Diaphragm c. Pelvic Diaphragm
b. Levator Ani Muscles d. All of the above
62. Fertilization occurs in the segment of the fallopian tube:
a. Intramural c. Isthmus
b. Ampulla d. Infundibulum
63. The myometrium undergoes hypertrophy and hyperplasia during pregnancy which is of clinical significance after
delivery of the fetus. Which of the following is the main function of this layer of the uterus:
a. Helps in the expulsion of the product of the conception
b. Promotes effective uterine contraction thereby prevents more blood loss
c. Prevent post-partum endometritis
d. Any of the above
64. These are two elongated erectile and vascular tissues on either side of the vaginal orifice that lies just beneath
bulbocavernosus muscles that may cause rupture during vaginal delivery leading to vulvar hematoma:
a. Bartholin’s Gland c. Vestibular Gland
b. Skene’s Gland d. Bulb of the vagina
65. The most dilated, longest and thinned segment of the fallopian tube is:
a. Intramural c. Isthmus
b. Ampulla d. Fimbrae
66. These tissue/ cells are secrete testosterone, EXCEPT:
a. Zona reticularis of the adrenals c. Posterior pituitary
b. Leydig cells of the testis d. None
67. The following belong to the levator ani group of muscles, EXCEPT:
a. pubococcygeus c. puborectalis
b. iliococcygeus d. pubovesical
68. The correct order of scrotal layers from superficial to deep is:
a. Skin  dartos  external spermatic fascia  cremasteric fascia  internal spermatic fascia
b. Skin  external spermatic fascia  dartos  internal spermatic fascia  cremasteric fascia
c. Skin  dartos  external spermatic fascia  internal spermatic fascia  tunica vaginalis
d. Skin  detrusor  external spermatic fascia  cremasteric fascia  cremasteric fascia  int. spermatic
fascia
69. The correct order of the following structures from superficial to deep:
a. pararenal fat  Gerota fascia  perirenal fat c. Gerota fascia  perirenal fat  pararenal fat
b. perirenal fat  Gerota fascia  pararenal fat d. Gerota fascia  pararenal fat  perirenal fat
70. One of the following does NOT match:
a. Male spermatic cord = female round ligament c. Skene’s glands = Tyson’s glands
b. Cowper glands = Bartholin glands d. prostatic utricle = female vagina
71. The correct progression of the arterial supply to the kidney is:
a. Renal artery  segmental  interlobular  arcuate  interlobar  afferent
b. Renal artery  segmental  interlobar  arcuate  interlobular  afferent
c. Renal artery  segmental  arcuate  interlobar  interlobular  efferent
d. Renal artery  segmental  interlobar  arcuate  interlobular  efferent
72. The 3 layers of the bladder detrusor is distinct at the
a. bladder trigone c. bladder neck
b. throughout the body of the bladder d. external sphincter
73. One of the following is a Müllerian duct remnant:
a. prostatic utricle c. testes
b. epididymis d. vas deferens
74. One of the following homologous pairings is INCORRECT:
a. scrotum = labia majora c. prepuce = labia minora
b. prostatic utricle = vagina d. penis = clitoris
75. Which genitourinary organ is described as the lateral outpouching of the vas?
a. seminal vesicles c. tail of the epididymis
b. ampulla of the vas d. ejaculatory duct
76. Foramen cecum can be found between the following.
a. Tuberculum impar & hypobranchial eminence
 b. Tuberculum lateral & tuberculum impar
c. Ductus thyrogleosus & sinus cervicalis
d. Tuberculum impar & Mandibular arch
77. The thyroid gland remains in contact with the pharynx during embryologic development thru:
a. Pyramidal lobe c. Sinus cervicales
b. Thyroglossal duct d. Tuberculum lateral
78. Inferior parathyroid gland is derived from.
a. 2nd brachial pouch c. 4th brachial pouch
rd
b. 3 brachial pouch d. 5th brachial pouch
79. The ventral bud will give rise to the following parts of the pancreas. EXCEPT:
a. Head of the pancreas c. Duct of Santorini
b. Extrahepatic biliary system d. Duct of Wirsung
80. Part of the pancreas in which the superior mesenteric vessels are found posterior to it.
a. Head c. Body
b. Neck d. Tail
81. Which muscle is supplied by the superior division of CN III?
a. medial rectus
b. inferior rectus
c. inferior oblique
d. superior rectus
82. What is the origin of the 4 recti muscles?
a. Spiral of Tillaux
b. lateral orbital rim
c. annulus of Zinn
d. orbital floor
83. What is the peripheral termination of the Descemet’s membrane?
a. Schlemm’s Canal
b. Schwalbe’s line
c. trabecular meshwork
d. limbus
84. Layer of the cornea which is composed of a single layer of hexagonal cells derived from the neural crest
a. epithelium
b. Bowman’s layer
c. Descemet’s membrane
d. endothelium
85. The transition zone between the peripheral cornea and the anterior sclera is known as the
a. ora serrata
b. uvea
c. limbus
d. tenon
86. In the emmetropic eye, what is the approximate volume of the anterior chamber?
a. 200 ul
b. 100 ul
c. 500 ul
d. 450 ul
87. The aqueous humor is produced by the
a. pars plana
b. ora serrata
c. ciliary epithelium
d. posterior lens capsule
88. The posterior portion of the uveal tract which nourishes the outer portion of the retina
a. choroid
b. pars plana
c. iris
d. ciliary body
89. How much does the lens contribute to the refractive power of the eye?
a. 60D
b. 20D
c. 40 D
d. 10D
90. Layer of the retina responsible for Vit A metabolism
a. ganglion cell layer
b. nerve fiber layer
c. internal limiting membrane
d. retinal pigment epithelium
91. Which among the ff. is an incorrect statement?
a. Equilibrium is more important than hearing
b. Ear is an organ of hearing and balance
c. The inner ear develops from bronchial apparatus
d. The external canal is one half cartilaginous and two-third bony
92. Which among the ff. statements regarding the development of the ear is incorrect?
a. Derived from ectodermal first branchial cleft
b. The external ear at one stage of its development is closed completely by meatal plug
c. Pinna is supplied by the auriculotemporal branch of mandibular nerve and lesser occipital
and greater auricular nerves
d. Sensation from the posterosuperior portion of the external ears is transmitted by the eight
cranial nerve
93. Which statement about the cochlea is incorrect?
a. Aka snail’s shell
b. Aka horn of plenty for the two and half turns
c. Axis is called modiolus
d. NOTA
94. Which among the ff. is an important statement when congenital anomalies of the nose is concerned?
a. All congenital anomalies are purely inherited and never acquired
b. Range from isolated deformities to abnormalities associated with multiple organ
system defects
c. Whatever the etiology, its important to remember that neonates are obligate nose-breathers
d. Choanal atresia can be life-threatening and intervention to establish airway or intubation at
the time of birth can be life saving
95. It is solid noncompressible, non-pulsatile gray or purple mass that does not transilluminated and does not produce a+
Furstenberg sign
a. Encephalocele
b. Nasal dermoid cyst
c. Glioma
d. Choanal atresia
96. It is one of the congenital anomalies of the nose contain all elements of skin; hair follicles, sweat glands,
sebaceous glands and connective tissue
a. Nasal Glioma
b. Encephalocele
c. Choanal atresia
d. Nasal dermoid cyst
97. Which of the ff. is not a characteristic feature of a glioma
a. connect to CNS
b. (-) Furstenberg sign
c. Composed of extradural glial tissue
d. Approximately 60% are extra nasal, usually occurring along the nasomaxillary suture or
near the midline
98. Primarily associated with the use of vaginal tampons and also been reported after nasal packing
a. Septal abscess
b. Toxic Shock Syndrome
c. Furunculosis
d. Vestibulitis
99. It is not considered as an extensive and invasive infection of the sebaceous glands or hair follicles with involvement
of subcutaneous tissue, a furuncle, or boil?
a. Septal abscess
b. Rhinoscleroma
c. Furunculosis
d. Vestibulitis

100. Which among the ff. is not the characteristic features of allergic rhinosinusitis?
a. Characterized by sneezing, nasal congestion, profuse watery rhinorrhea
b. With presence of fever
c. Associated symptoms such as nausea, belching or bloating, diarrhea, somnolence or insomnia
also ingested allergen
d. +family history of allergy or asthma