SOLUTIONS CHAPTER 1

1.1. Show that Equation (1.6) follows from Equation (1.3).

q2
Solution: Equation (1.3) is dEP = dr . Integrating both sides we obtain
4πε 0 r 2
q2 q2 1 q2 ⎡ 1 ⎤
∫ P ∫ 4πε 0r2
dE = dr =
4πε0 ∫ r
2 dr = − + const = EP
4πε 0 ⎢⎣ r ⎥⎦
To find the constant, we employ the boundary condition that at r = ∞ , EP=Evac:
−q 2
EP (r = ∞) = Evac = + const = 0 + const
4πε 0 ⋅ ∞
∴const = Evac and
−q 2
EP = Evac − = Evac , Equation (1.6)
4πε 0 ⋅ ∞

1.2. Consider a lithium nucleus, of charge +3q. Calculate the first three
electron energies for an electron in a Li++ ion, using the Bohr model.
We repeat the analysis that we used for the hydrogen atom, except that
now the charge of the nucleus Q1 is equal to 3q = +3(1.6 × 10−19 )C . The
results of the key steps are
QQ −3q 2
F = 1 22 =
4πε 0 r 4πε 0 r 2
3q 2
EP (r ) = Evac −
4πε 0 r
mv 2 3q 2
− =0
r 4πε 0 r 2
mvn rn = nh
3q 2 ⎛1⎞
vn =
( 4πε 0 ) h ⎜⎝ n ⎟⎠
( 4πε 0 ) h 2
rn = (n 2 )
3mq 2
m32 q 4 ⎛ 1 ⎞
EK = ⎜ 2⎟
2 ( 4πε 0 ) h ⎝n ⎠
2 2

9mq 4 ⎛ 1 ⎞
E n = EPn + EKn = Evac − ⎜ 2⎟
2 ( 4πε 0 ) h ⎝n ⎠
2 2

Thus E1 = Evac − 9 (13.6eV ) = Evac − 122eV

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Solutions Chapter 1
 9 (13.6eV )
and E2 = Evac − = Evac − 30.6eV
22
9 (13.6eV )
and E3 = Evac − = Evac − 13.6eV
32

1.3. Show that Equations (1.12) and (1.13) follow from (1.8) and (1.11).

mv 2 q2
Equation (1.8) is: − =0
r 4πε 0 r 2

Multiply both sides by r2 and divide by v :

q2
mvr = which from Equation (1.11) is
4πε 0 v

q2
mvr = = nh
4πε 0 v

Solving the right hand equality for v :

q2
v= (Equation (1.13))
4πε 0 nh

Solving the left hand equality for r substituting in v :

nh nh ( 4πε 0 ) nh 4πε 0 n 2 h 2
r= = = (Equation (1.12)).
mv mq 2 mq 2

1.3. In each of the potential energy distributions in Figure 1P.1, sketch the
magnitude and direction of the force on the electron.

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 The force is minus the gradient of the potential energy (Equation (1.2)).

1.5. Consider the electron in the energy diagram of Figure 1P.2. Taking the
energy the electron has at Point A as Etotal, at each of the indicated positions,
find the total energy, the kinetic energy, the potential energy, and the
electron’s velocity. Indicate the direction of force (if any). Recall that total
energy is conserved. At point “D” the electron collides inelastically with
something (perhaps an atom in the crystal). After the collision, the electron’s
energy is equal to its potential energy, and its kinetic energy is zero. Its total
energy is much less than before the collision; where did the extra energy go?

The electron at Point A is at rest. Its total energy is Etotal, its kinetic energy
and velocity are zero, and its potential energy is equal to its total energy.
The force on the electron is to the right, because the slope of the potential
energy is negative.
At Point B, the total energy of the electron is the same (by conservation of
energy), but the potential energy is EP(B ) = Etotal − 5eV . The kinetic energy
is the difference between the total and the potential energies, so
EK (B) = Etotal − EP (B ) = Etotal − (Etotal − 5eV ) = 5eV . The velocity of the electron

2 EK 2 ⋅ (5eV ) ⋅ (1.6 × 10−19 J / eV )

is v = = = 1.33 × 106 m / s (or 3 million miles
m 9.1 × 10−31 kg
an hour).
At Point C, the electron’s energy is Etotal, but its potential energy is

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 EP(C) = Etotal − 10eV . Therefore, the kinetic energy of the electron is
EK (C ) = Etotal − E P(C) = Etotal − (Etotal − 10eV ) = 10eV , and
2 EK ( C ) 2 ⋅ (10eV ) (1.6 × 10−19 eV / J
v= = −31
= 1.86 × 106 m / s
m 9.1 × 10 kg

There is no force on the electron because the slope of the potential energy
is zero, but the electron continues moving to the right because it still has
kinetic energy.
At Point D, the electron has made a collision. Its total energy is now 10eV
less than it was- the extra 10 eV of energy was transferred to the atom it
collided with. The potential energy is EP (D) = Etotal − 10eV . The electron’s
total energy is now Etotal(new) = Etotal (original ) − 10eV , which is the same as its
potential energy. Therefore, the kinetic energy of the electron is zero, and
so is the velocity. There is no force on the electron because the slope of
the potential energy is zero.

1.6. Find the kinetic energies in each of the following. Express all your answers
in electron volts.
(a) an electron in the first allowed energy states of the hydrogen atom
(according to the Bohr model, Eq. (1.14))

mq 4 1
We use the relation EK =
2 ( 4πε 0 )
2 2 2
h n
( 9.1E − 31) kg (1.6 E − 19 ) C 4
4
1
EK =
2 ( 4π 8.8E − 12 ) ( F / m ) (1.06 E − 34 ) J s 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2

= 2.15 E − 18 J
= 13.6eV

(b) a free electron, initially at rest at the back of a cathode ray tube in
your television, accelerated through a potential of 10 kV to strike the phosphor
layer
An electron accelerated through 10kV acquires an energy of 10KeV. Since
this electron was initially at rest, its kinetic energy is now 10 KeV, or
10,000 × 1.6 × 10−19 J = 1.6 × 10−15 J .
(c) a tiny, drifting dust particle, of mass 1 µg and velocity a leisurely 1
mm/s.
1 1
We use EK = mv 2 = ⋅10−9 kg ⋅ (10−3 m / s ) 2 = 5 × 10−16 J = 3.1keV
2 2

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1.7. For the following semiconductor materials, indicate to what degree you
expect covalent or ionic bonding, and why:
Ge
GaP
InGaAsP
HgCdTe

Ge: This element is in Column IV of the periodic table. Each atom in the
crystal shares 4 electrons with each neighboring atom, and in return
“receives” 4 electrons. Because every atom is “giving” and “receiving” the
same number of electrons, the charge is evenly distributed between
atoms, and the bonding is covalent.
GaP: Gallium is in Column III and phosphorous is in Column V. Thus in
the bonding, indium has less positive charge than the phosphorus, so the
electrons spends slightly more time near the P atoms than the Ga. This
bonding is largely covalaent but with a slightly ionic flavor.
InGaAsP: Indium and gallium are in Column III and arsenic and
phosphorous are in Column V, so the bonding has the same character as
that of InP, mostly covalent but somewhat ionic.
HgCdTe: Mercury is in Column II, while cadmium and tellurium are in
column VI. This II-VI semiconductor material has a largely ionic but slightly
covalent bonding. The electrons spend quite a bit of their time nearer the
column VI atoms because of those atoms’ greater positive charge.

1.8. For each of the semiconductors below, draw (to scale) the energy band
diagrams:
Si: Eg=1.12 eV. χ=4.05 eV
Ge: Eg=0.67 eV, χ=4.0 eV
GaAs: Eg=1.43 eV, χ=4.07 eV
InP: Eg=1.35 eV, χ=4.35 eV

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1.9. What minimum energy must an electron at the bottom of the conduction
band in aluminum antimonide gain to become free of the crystal? Repeat for
an electron at the top of the valence band?
The energy required to remove an electron from EC to Evac is the electron
affinity, which from Table 1.2 is 3.6 eV for aluminum antimonide. The
energy required to remove it from EV is the ionization potential, which is
equal to
γ = χ + E g = 3.6eV + 1.6eV = 5.2eV

1.10. A nondegenerate semiconductor cannot conduct current at absolute zero

(degeneracy will be discussed in Chapter 2). How much energy must at least
one electron obtain in silicon before conduction is possible?
In intrinsic silicon, at least one electron must be excited from the valence
band into the conduction band, meaning it must gain an energy equal to at
least the band gap. Thus ∆E=1.12 eV.

1.11. At room temperature in a cubic centimeter of intrinsic silicon, there will

be about 10 billion electrons in the conduction band.
a) How many holes are in the valence band?
The number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor must be equal to the
number of electrons, or 10 billion.
b) If electrons are constantly seeking lower energies and recombining
with holes (empty states at lower energies), then how can the number 10
billion remain constant?
At a given temperature, the thermal energy of the crystal is a constant. If
some electrons are losing energy by recombining, others are gaining
energy, generating new electron-hole pairs.

1.12. Suppose the electron in Figure 1.12 is traveling to the right at constant
energy. What happens to it as it approaches the surface of the material?
Explain your answer, using the energy diagram.
The electron travels at constant energy and thus at constant speed
(constant kinetic energy) in the region where EP is constant. When the
electron approaches the barrier, the potential energy increases. The
kinetic energy thus decreases, and the electron slows down. When it
reaches the edge, its total energy is equal to its potential energy so it
stops. There is a force to the left (gradient in the potential energy) so the
electron is accelerated back to the left. Thus the electron is reflected at
this barrier.

1.13. Show that Equation (1.38) is a solution to Equation (1.37). What is the
significance of the positive and negative signs of K?
2m0 (E − E0 )
Equation (1.38): ψ (x) = Ae jKx + Be − jKx . Letting K = 2 (Equation
h
1.40), the solution can be written as

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 ⎛ 2m0 (E −E 0 ) ⎞ ⎛ 2m (E −E
0 0 )⎞
jx ⎜ ⎟ − jx ⎜ ⎟
⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎜ 2 ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
ψ (x) = Ae
h h
+ Be
We wish to show this is a solution to Equation (1.37):
d 2ψ (x) 2m0
+ 2 (E − E0 )ψ (x) = 0 . We begin by finding the derivatives:
dx2 h
dψ (x) ⎡ 2m0 (E − E0 ) ⎤ jx 2 m 0 (E2 −E 0 ) ⎡ 2 m (E − E )
2m0 (E − E0 ) ⎤ − jx 0 h 2 0
= A⎢ j ⎥e h
+ B⎢ − j ⎥e
dx ⎢⎣ h2 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ h2 ⎥⎦
and
2 2
d 2ψ (x) ⎡ 2m (E − E ) ⎤ jx 2 m 0 (E2− E0 ) ⎡ 2 m (E − E )
2m 0 (E − E0 ) ⎤ − jx 0 h 2 0
2 =A j ⎢ 0
2
0
⎥ e h
⎢
+ B −j 2
⎥ e
dx ⎢⎣ h ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ h ⎥⎦
2 m 0 (E − E 0 ) 2 m 0 (E − E0 )
⎛ 2m 0 (E − E0 )⎞ jx h2
⎛ 2m0 (E − E0 )⎞ − jx h2
= −A⎜ 2 ⎟e + B⎜ 2 ⎟e
⎝ h ⎠ ⎝ h ⎠
⎧ jx 2 m0 (E −E 0 ) 2 m 0 (E − E0 ) ⎫⎡ 2m E − E ⎤
⎪ ⎪ 0( 0)
− jx
= ⎨Ae h2
+ Be h2
⎬⎢ − 2 ⎥
⎪⎩ ⎪⎭⎣ h ⎦

Substituting into Equation (1.37) we obtain

⎛ jx 2m0 (E − E0 ) − jx
2m 0 (E − E0 ) ⎞
⎛ 2m0 (E − E0 )⎞
⎜ Ae h2
+ Be h2
⎟⎜ − ⎟+
⎜ ⎟⎝ h2 ⎠
⎝ ⎠

2m0 (E − E0 ) ⎛ jx ⎞
2m 0 (E − E0 ) 2m 0 (E − E0 )
− jx
h2 h2
⎜ Ae + Be ⎟ =0
h
2
⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠
0=0
From Equation (1.40), K can be taken as either the positive or negative
root. If we choose the opposite sign, then from Equation (1.38),
ψ (x) = Ae jKx + Be − jKx , it would be the same as changing the sign of x. Thus
the sign of K reverses the direction of propagation of the wave.

1.14. (a) Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of

i) a free electron with 1 eV of kinetic energy

p2
EK = 1eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J =
2m

kg ⋅ m
p = 2(9.11×10−31 kg )(1.6 × 10−19 J ) = 5.39 × 10−25
sec

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Solutions Chapter 1
 h 6.63 × 10 −34 J − s
λ= = = 1.23 nm
p 539 × 10 −27 kg ⋅ m/ s

b) an electron with 10 keV of kinetic energy

⎛ 1.6 × 10−19 J ⎞ −15

EK = 1 × 104 eV ⎜ ⎟ = 1.6 × 10 J
⎝ eV ⎠

p = 2mEK = 2 ( 9.1 × 10−31 kg )(1.6 × 10−15 J ) = 5.39 × 10−23 kg ⋅ m / s

λ = 0.0123nm

iii) a tiny, drifting dust particle of mass 1 µg and a leisurely velocity of 1

mm/s

m = 1µ g = 10−9 kg
v = 1mm / s = 10−3 m / s
p = mv = 10−12 kg − m / s
λ = h / p = 6.63 × 10−22 m

iv) yourself, walking at 4 mph on your way to class..

self, about 70 kg, v =4mph=1.8m/s

p=mv=70 kg×1.8m/s=126 kg-m/s

λ=h/p=5.26×10-32m

(b)What is a typical size of an atom? You begin to see why quantum

mechanics and the wave description are not useful for large objects.
An atom is on the order of 10-10 m. Even the 10keV electron's wavelength
is a 10th of that, and the dust particle's wavelength is ridiculously small.

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1.15. What is the wave length of an electron at the bottom of the E-K
relationship of Figure 1.13? What is its kinetic energy there?

2π
At the bottom of the parabola, K=0, and since λ = , λ is infinity. .
K
Note,however that for a finite crystal, the point at K=0 is not permitted
since the electron wave length cannot exceed the crystal dimension. Since
the kinetic energy is the total energy minus the potential energy (E0), the
kinetic energy is zero.

1.16. Consider the E-K diagram shown in Figure 1P.3:

E

Kx
5π 4π 3π 2π π π 2π 3π 4π 5π
− − − − −
a a a a a a a a a a
a) Verify that it meets the required criteria:
i) E(K) is periodic in K-space with period 2π/a
ii) Equivalent extrema exist at K=0, ±2π/a, ±4π/a…
iii) Equivalent extrema exist at K=±π/a, ±3π/a, ±5π/a…
iv) The slope of the E-K curve is zero at K=0, ±π/a, ±2π/a, …

b) Indicate the first Brillouin zone.

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Solutions Chapter 1
 E

first
Brillouin
zone Kx
5π 4π 3π 2π π π 2π 3π 4π 5π
− − − − −
a a a a a a a a a a
c) Sketch the corresponding vg-K diagram.
1 dE
The group velocity vg = is proportional to the slope of E:
h dK
vg

5π 4π 3π 2π π π 2π 3π 4π 5π Kx
− − − − −
a a a a a a a a a a

d) In what regions of the E-K diagram are electrons most likely to be

found for this material?
Electrons will be at the lowest energies in general, so for this material they
will be mostly found near the edges of the Brillouin zones, but not at K=0.
most likely
E to find electrons

first
Brillouin Kx
zone
5π 4π 3π 2π π π 2π 3π 4π 5π
− − − − −
a a a a a a a a a a
1.17. Explain the analogy between using a conducting layer thicker than the
skin depth to shield a region of space from electromagnetic waves, and the
ability of an electron to penetrate a potential barrier.

Although there cannot be an electric field in a bulk metal, electromagnetic

radiation will penetrate a short distance into the metal (skin depth). To
prevent the radiation from penetrating the metal and leaking through to the
other side, the metal should be thicker than the skin depth by some safety
factor.

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 Similarly, an electron wave cannot exist in a bulk material whose potential
energy is higher than that of the electron, but the electron can penetrate a
short distance into this forbidden region. If the barrier is thin enough, the
electron can leak through to the other side.

1.18. The infinitely thick potential barrier of Figure 1.18 (a) can be considered a
crude approximation to the potential barrier at the surface of a semiconductor
(see Figure 1.12).
(a) How, then, might you construct a thin potential barrier like that in
Figure 1.18 (b)? Thin potential barriers are used in a wide variety of
semiconductor devices, including tunnel diodes, contacts, and field
effect transistors.
One could place two pieces of semiconductor close together with a narrow
air gap (another insulator will do) between them.

(b) How would you construct a potential well (thin region of lower
potential energy bounded by region of higher potential energy?
Potential wells are widely used in lasers, photodectors, and
heterojunction bipolar transistors.
In this case one would use a thin layer of semiconductor with air on either
side.

1.19. a) From the Bohr model, what emission wavelength would you expect
for a transition in hydrogen from E2 to E1? Transitions ending at E1 are
collectively called the Lyman series, and are generally found in the ultraviolet
region of the spectrum.

E2 − E1 = Evac − 3.4 − (E vac − 13.6) = 10.2eV

The wavelength of this transition is
hc ( 6.63 × 10 J − s )( 3.0 × 10 m / s )
−34 8

λ= = = 122nm
E 10.2eV (1.6 ×10−19 J / eV )

b) What emission wavelength would you expect from a transition from E4 to

E3? This is the first emission line in the Paschen series, and is in the infrared.
E4 − E3 = Evac − 0.85 − (Evac − 1. 51) = 0.66eV
,
hc
and λ = = 1.9µ m
E

1.20. What wavelength of light should you shine on hydrogen to cause

electrons to go from E1 to E2 by optical absorption?

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Solutions Chapter 1
 From Problem 1.19, we know that the energy corresponding to this
transition is 10.2 eV, or λ= 122nm.

b) What would happen if you passed a beam of λ=430 nm through a hydrogen

sample? Explain your answer.
From the Golden Rule, light of wavelength λ=430 nm has an energy of
1.24 1.24
E(eV ) = = = 2.88eV . It could not be absorbed, because
λ (µm) 0.43µm
there is no combination of allowed initial and final states corresponding to
this wavelength or energy. Thus, hydrogen is transparent to this radiation.

1.21. In discussing Figure 1.19 (a), we pointed out that in a material with a
band gap of 2.5 eV, an electron near the top of the valence band could not
absorb a photon of energy 2.06 eV, since it would have to end up at a
forbidden energy state.
a) What about an electron deep in the valence band, more than 2.06 eV
below the band edge EV? Why is it unlikely for this electron to absorb the
photon?
The electron must have an empty state at 2.06eV above its current state.
If this electron is deep in the valence band, the desired new state will
exist, but it is most likely occupied, since it is in the valence band.

b) Why is unlikely for a photon of 2.06 eV to be absorbed by an electron

in the conduction band?
For this absorption to take place, there must be an electron in the
conduction band. The states in the conduction band are mostly empty, so
the number of electrons available there for this absorption process is
small.

1.22. For a simple cubic crystalline structure of lattice constant a=0.50nm,

a) How many atoms are there per unit volume? (Hint: an easy way to
proceed is to calculate the volume of the unit cell, and the number of atoms
per unit cell. Although there are eight atoms involved in any given unit cell,
each atom in the simple cubic structure is part of eight different cells, one
corner of each. Thus, there are 8 atoms×1/8 atom per corner or 1 atom per unit
cell.)
The volume of the unit cell is the volume of the cube, or (0.5×10-9 m)3, or
1.25×10-28 cubic meters. The density of atoms is thus 1/1.25×10−23 m3, or
8×1027 atoms/cubic meter.
b) How many atoms per unit area are there in the (100) plane? The (110)
plane? The (111) plane?
In the (100) plane, we have a grid of atoms on squares a on a side.
Each square contains 1/4 of an atom at each corner, or 4 times 1/4 atoms
per area a2. Thus the area density of atoms is 1/a2.

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 In the 110 plane, the atoms appear arranged in rectangles that are a by
a⋅a 2
The area density for the (110) plane is 1/ a 2 2 .
For the (111) plane, the atoms are arranged in regular pattern, the
fundamental element of which is an isosceles triangle 2a on a side.
1 1a 2 a2
The area of a triangle is bh = (a 2) = . But, each triangle
2 2 2 2
⎛1⎞
⎜ ⎟
contains 1/6 of at atom at each point, so the area density is ⎝ 2 ⎠ = 2 .
6 1
⎛ a ⎞ 3a
⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
c) What if the lattice is FCC instead (still with a=0.5 nm)? Now how
many atoms per unit volume are there?
The volume of the unit cell is still the volume of the cube, but now the
number of atoms per unit cell is different. There are still 8 corner atoms,
each contributing 1/8 of an atom to the unit cell, but there are also 6 face
atoms. Each of those face atoms is half in a given cell, and half in an
adjacent one. Thus the number of atoms/unit cell is 8×1/8 + 6×1/2=4
atoms per unit cell. The number of atoms per unit volume is thus 4
atoms/1.25×10-28m3=32×1027 m-3.

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