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    23 views36 pages

    AIATS - 01 (TYM) @DefeatNEET

    Uploaded by

    Aman Singh

    Copyright:

    © All Rights Reserved
    Download as PDF or read online from Scribd
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    of 36
    Roll Now (ILL Test Date:| 27-11-2022] @ | Aakash C By Gsvsus Booklet Code ‘AL INDIA ARKASH TEST SERIES . for ‘Medical Entrance Exam - 2024 National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) Us # (XI Studying Students) Tua ie RRA OLA CR GREG Re REG) Fr. Belore atlemping the question paper, student should ensure thalineostpapescortangallpasesercno pegs messing TA BS TT TH vee Sey, Pron well vae Gir a toa Hanh ges dow mr RES TAAL 8, Enh ad nae ure fours 7a war wt bo lodorencn ncorertansnerfumtvottl cor, eve zee eco Pt ae se see Be 9 SEN st hn fora handing over To anewer sheet tthe im tana sha enack that Rol Ne. and Cente Code hos ieee oh ST wea ae satu gmeee en aren spo he veh -viit ata at eeasan eet 10. Intl sth pressed examination times ow snsinarsheotabe raurodtolne ndgotoe Reere 8 ge wre eed arr See ters 11. Thoro Readeachquestioncarauly sree rh erg a 2. le mandatory 1o use Buo(Btack Ball Poin Ponto darken tho ‘appropralecicieinthe answer shoe, sacar A agen pe wed & fae AA ZT a aie 3 oT sari ever staré 43, Morkshouldbe darkandshould completly flict pee ee pe: we Hat FT 4, Roughworkmustnolbedonoontheansworshee!, seme ea HA A rr err I RT 6. Donoluze whle-tuid or any otnor rubbing nasal on newer Sheot Nochangela theanswor once marks lowed. gee en (ite ug) FM cer ow eA Sr en su HE we Tee TA we WA FA ver defend ag RT 6, Student cannot ute log tables and calculator or any othr ‘matoralinthe examination rane ae a aber we UW 3 re two MM: 720 TEST | Time = 3 Hrs. 20 Min, [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer at sere ear ere ha: SECTION -A- i Ws -A 1. 2 parsec = n light-year. Value of nis 1. Qua = n were | nF (1) 3.24 (2) 152 . er (@) 652 (4) 2.52 (1) 3.21 E “ (3) 682 (4) 282 2 In the relation Y = 9 cos w= ‘mensional formula of Fi (yx are postions and tis time) (1) (eT) (2) IMeL2T19 (3) IMLT]) (4) IML2T*2) 3. Which of the following force has shortest range? (1), Strong nuclear force | (2) Electromagnetic force (8) Weak nuclear force (4) Gravitational force 4. Radius ofa circle is 1.217, Arediof the circle (using concept of significant igits)is : (use x= 3.14) (1) 3.85 me (2) 351 me (3) 4.60 m? (4) 4.51 m2 Strai o 5 Tmdnmsetemieat () (1) IMT] 2 MT (3) IMLST>] (4) IMLT=] 6. Iferror in measurement of radius of cylinder is 3% and error in measurement of length of cylinder Is 41%, Error in the determination of volume of cylinder willbe (1) 1% (2) 3% (8) 2% (4) 7% 7. The velocity of train decreases uniformly from 50 km/h to 10 kmin in 2 hours. The distance travelled by the train during this process is (1) 30 km (2) 60km (3) 20km (4) 10km x ) 5, Safar, VK Reaferat 8 site rar ay (1) IMUT 2) (MOLT (3) (Mir), (4) (ML?T"4] Pare Rety 2e e fwce crae (sae at (2) Pagar gratia ae . (9) Berar wet (4) Rett ser 4. BRA GoM 1.21 msgs dasa arte 3 fraia oor sai as) (= 3.44 arr) (1) 3.85 me (2) 3.51 me (8) 4.60 m2 (4) 4.51 m? a (S32) wraeee (1) (MeL) (3) IMPLIT-3) (2) IMaL-sT3) (4) [MLT=] 6. atte Risers meri gt 3% 8 ohio Aa Samy 1% toad amranigeet (1) 1% (2) 3% (3) 2% (4) 7% Fraran2 wi we um eTa sokmne 10kmM RE rH 8 ea hha Ferra FE (1) 30 km (3) 20 km (2) 60km (4) 10km Corporate Offfco: Akash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, Naw Delhi-t 10005. Phone: 011 ATSEMES 10. 1" 12 18, TES it ¥ = V8sinx- V2cos.x, thon maximum value of vis wy @ @) V0 (4) V5 A particle moves along straight lino such that its ition is given by x= (P — 2° + 5) m, Find ils position when its acceleration is zero. 139 iat 1) 22m aL OF aa 419 113 @ am 3 2 @ am ‘The velocity(v}-time(t) graph of a moving particle is shown in the figure. Total distance travelled by the abject in first three second is (Assuming particle is. ‘moving int-D) v (mis), -4 ¥ @) 10m @) 6m ia) 4m (4) 2m The main scale of vernier caller has 2 divisions/om. n divisions of vernier scale coincide with (a —2) divisions of main scale. The least count ‘of verniercalliper is 1 1) Lem Os @ Lon Inanexpetnent ur uals 2, and dar measured with percentage error of 1%, 2%, 1% and 015% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as p= 212. re moxinum percentage ear in Pls Pd 49, 23, m G% @ 5% 1 23 @ 5% @ It power (P}, velocity (v) and timo (7) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass aro 1) Pers (2) (Pv), 8) (PAT @) Pen 4, 10. 11. 12. 13, aif ¥ Vasine facosx, st yenn afr ara (1) v5 (2) 2 (0) 0 ) SB wm wert feta waft see nf ne Fe ot (= 20 + 5) m amar erm Ie 0 ean a 139 421 o Fo @ om 19 113 @ Bm o Ba A ana) (0 fe at ‘ee ee i ag cdg 2 eT +-Dii after) 1s) (1) 10m @4m Q)6m (2m _ affected A yor tr Ha weem fi a So n-ne A (o ~ 2) TTS TE oh afc Seed a ori 8 1 ) Lon @ tem @ Fen moniter ofa», osteo afrange 1%, 2%, 1% SHE 0.5% 3 are rT arAN BF vot p= 222 gersfian ty pi ferns afar 2g Re 19, a) ‘on 2% aR ais (P), (yt (7) a RHE TAT ST i feraara 8, oaea en (1) Pers) (2) (Pv (3) PPL (4) [eva Corporate Office: Kakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Dalti-110006, Phone: 011-47629456 Me Mpguntet em iene a ot tris uh tat, Wt the wg tanh yen in Stayt, Hs ih to! (1) aunts (8) zune 7 uns fo zonens “00! em te cones mau taba (1) 625mm (2) 607mm (3) 6.54 mm (4) 6.55 mm 16 An equion [P= ]v-) conten, Bis Presse and V given here. Ma and b are constants then diversions of , wilde @ a) Mer} (0 wuty @) IMT] yr] ‘The method of dimensional analysis can be used to (8) 295 om* (4) 348 em? When a cylinder made of copper is huated, ‘maximum percentage change will be observed in (1) Radius (2) Length (3) Volume (4) Curved surface area @e 19 20. Corporate Oftice: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Denn 100% 16. 7. 18. 19, 20 cia i, 20 10kg fev tbe 900 eae ope geen oR 1 FRU ACT RL Sh i ara at ie Sle et 108 (2 wat (1 aoent jaa (a) snenit (6) 2090 wut se 0.002 cn 65 a a, Sg os ach a ECT TET ETT BS gtr @ mm Bsr arte er eT AAT ET HP aa ai sour.26 vit ssh BAFTA H -0.004 em by ape fe 8, ie eh ara (1) 6.25 mm (2) 6.50 mm (3) 654mm (4) 6.55 mm aetna “3; iv —b) = Pre me Parte sh v ome 81 aft a att b Fraae 8. a S # Fo rt (1) [MUTS] (2) [MLT=] (3) (MLT-] (4) [MET] reat #8 fee tie at ayers a He ae Sr ‘Feeders fa arava Fer at sera bp (1) Y=Asin(wt+ kx) (2) N= Noe 1 w2 41 hee mv 8) Expr? ie? (a) Fa Frafafaa 8 & frail ania stat Sen ata (1) 0.0085 me (2) 3.645 = 10% me (8) 62300400 (4) 0.00065 m? ‘ofa cia, shel sts a. (10000 £0.1)om, (100 ¢ 0.1) em ate (10.0 + 0.2) cm @1 ets sre aera Fina (1) 310 em! (2) 990 on? (3) 295 em» (8) 348 om ‘eat choc at Feat a 8, a fier sata ofan ier dim . (1) farsa (2) charg (3) ster i (9) sa pte er 8. Phone: 011-47625456 at. 23. 24. 25. 26. 2. 28. Dimensions of angle are same as the dimensions of (1) Stress (2) Refractive index (3) Speed (4) Time Mass of an object is measured and readings are 1.52 kg, 1.83 kg, 1.55 kg, 1.45 kg. The percentage error in the measurement is (approximately) (1) 1.99% (2) 2.99% (9) 4.99% () 5.99% Te resstanceegnen as R=". hte V= 200 3) volt and / = (10 + 0.1) ampere. What is the mean absolute err in R? (1) 252 (2) 1592 (3) 0.52 (4) 029 Which of the folowing quantities are dimensioless but are having some unit? (2) Plane engle (6) Sold angle (©) Reynolds number _(@), Dielectric constant (1) Onyaandb (2) a b,candd (3) Onlya (4) Only cand d “The ratio of cimensions of moment of neta to that of Planck's constant is (1) Frequency (2) Velocity @) Time (4) Angular momentum A pattcle stats from rest and moves in a straight line under uniform acceleration (a). The average speed ofthe object for stl second is ast at OF 3 al a> ‘A body is dropped from a height h above ground. ‘The ratio of distances fallen in first two seconds, next two seconds and next three seconds is (1) 1:23:58 (2) 18:7 (3) 1:2:3 (4) 4:12:33 ‘A ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u. ‘The distance covered by the body during last 3 seconds of ascent is (1) 39 @) at (2) @ 39 @ 2 2, 23, 24, 25, 26. 27. 28. RoR, Pr Fr Pet ra (1) afore (2) seats (9) ae (4) at repay zea re MTA 1.52 kg, 1.53 kg, 1.55 kg, 1.45 # are af & err (1) 1.99% (2) 299% (3) 4.99% (4) 5.99% aftr = Larner sed Y= (200 29) atce em = (10 ¢ 0.1) fora Bi Rit wren Facer gfe a 8? () 250 (150 (@) 050 (4) 020 Freafeaa 3 -& atch ufewaterat Farnese 8, “fier goer trot tY (a) wae ait (bo) sr (© tester (a) saga (1) Fata aie 2) aboard (@) tama (4) Bamested gre oreph wer sais Fema or feoroit ar Seg fame oreo (1) srrafit (2) a @ 3 (4) sare care Reo ye he eR TOT (oS rat acerca af eh we CBS Pe aga sharma at 3 at me @ @) at o> wen fits ath Sard 8 rae ser fire Sra 8 eT hte, ome as it ome ts Hae fet oga® (1) 1:355, (2) 1:5:7 (3) 1:2:3 (4) 45:12:33, ewe a ure taal SCA oie a a a tga 3 if 3 ab er Rear aero gat 9 (1) 39 @) 59 5 7 (3) 39 4) 3 Torporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-t 10008, Phone: 011-47623456 29. An objectis thrown from ground in vertically upward | 29. direction with speed u. Assuming point of projection a5:origin and upward direction as positive Y-axis. Its distance (D)-time (7) graph is ¥ D a oF @ @) ce “) —_ XS 7 A body starts from rest under variable acceleration ‘as shown in the figure. The value of maximum velocity is 30. atmie’y, 20 (1) 50 mis (3) 40 mis (4) 30 mis, A bullet looses one-third of its velocity in passing (2) 20 mis 31. 30. 3 feat weg at wore ret uA HINT ae 5, fe 3 a ira BH wee Fg TS a she sree A eT ATER VTS HE eg og (Oya (TATE . t 4 OWN, = . ! (2) VA (3) - ? i (4) 7 ‘es te Rerargare often reo as woreda df a aren 81 saftrra ar ae a af (1) 50 mis (2) 20 ms 8) 40 mis (4) 30 mvs eaieic s eame & ap ae gather hee fd oT through a plank. What is the least numberof similar eee : planks requfed to stop the bulet? (Assuming | SPF Ret te at ast as fig sre a et constant retardation) SH wer ac be Fame ster a a3 @4 (13 ea @)2 5 (3) 2 as Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Ro: lew Delhi-t 10005. Phone: O17 -4762a150 US 32. Position (x) - time (°) graph for an object Is shown in figure. Which of tho following option Is corroct? (2 -» accoleration at point A) (es -» accaleration at point 8) -~ (1) aais positive and agis negative (2) Both ax and ag are positive (8) Both ag and ag are negative (4) axis negative and anis positive 33, Astone is thrown vertically upwards from a tower with initial velocity of 4.9 mvs. It strikes the ground after 4 seconds. Taking g = 9.8 mis the height of the tower is (1) 588m (2) 288m (3) 38.6 m (4) 70.8 m 34. If a particle travels first one fourth of cistance of jourey with speed vi and remaining distance with ‘speed vz. The average speed for entire journey is vis aw wy @ en ay, 2 @ 2 (4) 22 +2 wtve 35. Which of the following is not a fundamental quantity? (1) Charge (2) Amount of substance (3) Luminous intensity (4) Time SECTION -B 36, Which of the following pairs does not have similar dimensions? (1) Torque ané work (2) Young's modulus and stress, (8) Angle and strain (4) Tension and surface tension saa, fe it fh acy Fe ea (xy — me (4) sae ser Feet tft et 8 (an > Fig Ae) (n> fig ace) x A t (1) an te te ag TT (2) an SH ag Sri ware t (3) an 98 ag Seat aso (4) an ERR a on TE 99, Taha a we aT aT 4.9 mis & rife ara eat af ait ar rer ae 4 Be H a TAT a cart dts (9 = 9.8 mis? sD (1) 588m (2) 288m (3) 38.8m (4). 70.8m 24, afer ah et ese at STR aie eh ve rar a aT I ee aA fee he TET = cy 12 @ ee Aur ayy © San 4) ely 35, Rrafaam sia etre ager ofr at? (1) ante (2) sent (9) saa ttre (4) wa we-8 298, Fran Fn go Po eee BY (1) aeeonepi ater (2) sory atest (3) arate rg (4) wars at gee Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110008. Phone: 011-47623456 Test. 37. 38. 38. 40. Cx “The extemal and internal radius of a hollow cylinder are measured to be (6.23 + 0.01) om and (6.89 + 0.01) em. The thickness of the wall is (1) (0.34 + 0.02) cm (2) (0.34 + 0.01) cm (8) (0.17 £0.01) em (4) (0.17 0.02) om ‘Which one of the following reading of mass is most accurate? (1) 1.01 kg (2) 382kg @) 1.510 kg (4) 1.542 kg Column | contains some physical quantities and column tl contains is dimensional formula. Match the column I with column Il and choose the eorrect option. Column 1 Column tt | Gravitational (P) | ever? constant (6) B. | Mass density (@) | mers C. | Poisson's ratio (®) | MALT? 1D. | Rate of doing work _| (S) | MLST® UTE 37. watad era are it aw Fase (6.2 fh (.g0 + 0.01) cm ATTEN 8 a A HT (1) (0.94 # 0.02) em (2) (0.34 £0.91) om (a) (0.17 £0.01) om (a) (0.17 + 0.02) om sg, ean a ar eT eH ee ed (1) 1.01 kg (2) 3.52 kg 3) 15109 (4) 1.542 kg 99, aia igo Miwa Bateson Pte gr ir 1a Re ree 1 AE a freer er ARE er ee | genta Fiat (@y | (P) | MALOT 8 | mT (a) | mers . | steer anger (R) | Mur? D. | aah ane tae (s) | MUST? (1) AGRI: BLP): C(S}; O() (2) A(R}; BIS); CIP): BQ) (8) AIRY: BIA}; C(S); DIP) (4) AlP}; B(Q); CIR}: DIS) ‘An object accelerates uniformly from initial velocity tuto final velocity v. For ths, it travels distance s in the straight line in time & Which of the following equations is/are correct dimensionally? at Ya Bet Vow =F b. s=uttat® 2a a aura 5 (1) A(R); B(P); C(S); DQ) (2) A(R); BS): C(P); D(Q) ) AR}: B(Q); CIS); DIP) (4) A(P); BQ); G(R): DIS) i 40, peg arts 2a ua titer vase TT ET carat ties fre asmetarstare tet eB tee a a at ea ae FE | wrath j (1) a,bandc (1) a bait (2) Only andb 2) Fert seb (@) Onlye (©) rae (4) Only aandc (4) Fa asic. Corparata Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Roa Delhi-110008. Phone: 011-47620466 I 41, The displacement of a person moving from A to B along a circular arc of radius R subtending an angle Oat the center as shown in igure, is (2) 0R sin’ 2 () aRsing (4) 2Reos$ 42, The velocity ofthe body is expressed in terms of postion as v= 202, The acceleration of te body 3 2 funcion of postion is (1) 2? (2) 6x? (3) 4x (4) 5x8 43, Aboat takes one hour to travel 4 km forward and 4km backward ina river when the waters sil How rch time vil the boat take to make the same tip when ver stars owing at 4 Kmph? (1) 80 minutes (2) 60 minutes (3) 40 minutes (4) 80 seconds 46 yo 2, pn dt vat (1) 1-log, x (2) 1 @) z 4) 48. A particle obeys v-t graph as shown in figure. ‘The average velocity over first 12 seconds and for first 24 seconds is ums) 441, sar m3 oes arene a st Pan segura we ovr sia Frege’, & safer at owe after rears 2 wm = 2) oR 0 8 (3) 2Rsin§ (4) 2Reos$ 42, lh Rte 5 Sor ah Rea va v = 2x9? ero Parent Refs oe wa he aT TT (1) 22 (2) (3) 42 @) 5° 43, BEATE FE ia eT 4 ke HFT oC ke ft ak He aR core Se I a AH 4 Kemp sate der mera 8 daa sar tera fears (1) Bf @) 40 Free (2) 60 fire (4) 80 tes 44, ae y= 90% a Brae (1) 4109, x (2) ‘lee o% « 45, avai Ra a aga vt eT wee Te 12 Beis 3 we 24 Hehe % fa ahha ar wT: ws) ol 9) fa 09) (1) 5imie,5 mis (2) Smis, 10 mis (1) Sims, 8 ms (2) Sms, 10 mis @) Smis,Orvs (4) Omnis, Smis (3) Sims, 0 mis (4) O mis, Sis Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Re low Deihi-110005, Phone: 017-47623456 46. For two resistors Ry the relative error in Rv (100: 2)0 and het pl RoR. R, ‘and Re connected in paral Res (2004 3)0, Is thelr equivalent resistance If 46. cation Hae HARI sR Ae By ap ‘Aakash Test Rr= (100 2)0 3K Re = (200+ 3)08, ahaag, se efi ft 1.2.4) RoR Re ® 4 (1) = 1 600 Some 5 MW Qo a 600. eee 600 3 1 ® oo © 35 a 4) 2 4 8 500 (4) 500 47. The. value of (9998) according to ainomial 47, fea aha agen (9908)! ae theorem is sae 8 (1) 995 (2) 9.9995, 1) 226 @ (3) 9.5 (4) 9.995 8), 95 (4) 9.995 oe , 48, Rt A Aa uel ent ade eo aa a 48. The viscous force acting between liquid layers of dy area A is given as Fa—nA. iv oy has] F=-naSt arrorn oarrent aft 8 fr dimensions of speed and dx has dimensions of fi ears ara 3 site ax At am a ers, distance. The dimensions of n?? is ype fits (1) [MLT-p2 (1) (aero (2) [ML“T] 2) (ue-"T-4 (3) (ee LseT-9q (8) (WP? E32 p29) (4) (LT 4) mers, 48, The scclraon a) tne () graph of 8 Pare | a, en ony fact oft Ra /ing in @ straight line along x-axis is shown in the = fra fue tt initial velocity of particle is 6 m/s, then its SUT (a) Fe (ta eater ara afeaMTaT TEA. velocity at f= 2 is WO mis 8 At=2 omeqaTany a (mis) a(mvs’) 2 2 o o 4 ts) 7 7 (1) 9mis (@) Gms (1) 9mis (2) ems (3) 2mls (4) 12 mis 3) 2mis (4) 12mls Corporate Often Aakash Tower, 8, Psa sd, Naw DoT 0005 Pras TESSISS ‘All india Aakash Tost Sorlos for NEET-2024 60, The graph of velocity (v) - pasition (x) of partico Is shown in figure. Plot corresponding accoloration (a) = position (x) graph. wh rad sh om | cad {| 3 oe [-— ay | ___. [ _s LL Eas = [CHEM SECTION A270 51. How many moles of electron weigh 9.1 kg? (me = 9.4 * 40 kg) (1) eat 407 (2) 602210" (3) 1.66 = 107 (4) 6.022 * 10% 52, Which of the folowing has maximum number of atoms? (1) 1g H2SO« (2) 19 HzO (@) 190s (4) 1g He 53, Law of multple proportions is not applicable tothe pairot (1) H2Oz and H20 (2) NOz and NoOs (3) PCls and PCls (4) HzO and H2S 54, Number of significant figures in 1.220 kg 3 (2) Infinite 4 4) 2 55. An element has twoisotopes having mass 10 uand 11 u respectively. If percentage abundance of lighter isotope is 20%, then the average atomic (co 50, Renae Sy (uy a (x) ar re 1 (a) - Ra (x) eA A v (ah (a) ae x ISTRY] i “wea st, Pa ter eet a oe 9.4 kg Tm? (m= 9.1 « 10 kg) (1) 9.44% 107 (2) 6.022 « 107 (3) 1.68% 107 (4) 6.022 = 102 ‘reataa a 8 fe womesH eter srr 87 (1) 1g HaS0« (2) 19:0 (3) 190s (4) 19 He ‘rere aha fae afr gar a Fae eset ‘erm? (ay Hedewar Hao (2) NO2TUTNSO. (Pe wMPC. — (4) HAOTMTHS 1.220 kg Hears sia ft teat (3 (2) sri (3) 4 (a) 2 ear at eee & ew Ra HRT: 10 u TAT 11 Brae wet eres a er TAT 20% 8 a 82 53 56. mass of the element is aa aftr se FTA (4) 10.2u (2) 10.8u (1) 10.2u (2) 10.8u @) 1090 (4) 1080 (@) 1094 @ 1080 Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Ro jew Delhi-110005, Phono: O17-47623456 Cn 58. Maximum numbor of nowlrons re prosant (1) Sea (2) Mn. (a) Mo The mass porcentago of sulphur in a compound Is 4%. ts minimum moloeatar mass wil bo 6) (1) 4000 (2) 2000 (3) 600u (4) 800 u 58. What volume of oxygen gas is noodod to burn completely 200 m! of mothane gas undor tho samo Conditions of temperature and prossuro? (1) 200 mi (2) 150 mt (3) 600 mi (4) 400 mt 59. A fuel gas contains carbon and hydrogen only, On ‘buming a small sample of itin excess oxygen give 1.32 g COs, 0.36 9 of water and no other products. ‘The empirical formula of gas willbe () cH (2) Cat (8) CHe (4) CH 60. Mass of one molecule of magnesium carbonate is (1) 849 (2) 1.68 « 104g (3) 6.022% 10% (4) 1.39 10%g 61. Ina container equal mass of He and Oz are present, ‘The mole fraction of He in the mixture Is 16 15 OF @ 1 1 a a) OF a5 62, Number of moles of oxygen atoms present in 0.1 mole of H:PO«is (1) 4 mot 2) 0.4 mol 8) 8 mol (4) 0.8 mot 63. Normality of H’SO« when 9.8 g H:S0+ is dissolved in water to form 2 L of aqueous solution, is 4) 05N (2) 0.05 N @) 02N (4) O1N 64. Maximum energy among the folowing orbitals is of (1) 2s orbital of hydrogen (2) 2s orbital of lithium (3) 2s orbital of sodium (6) 25 orbital of potassium Corporate orice: 5, 67. 58, 59, 60. 61, 63, 64, kash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, Now Dalhi Al Ina Aakash Test Serles for NEE} frit fer eee i apg tere “ @ (a) Fer (4) i sp en ae Fr AT 4% a ay saris oT eT (1) 400 u (2) 2000 (3) 600u (4) e00u cary ae aa 1 a feet #200 ol eat opt wes & fe sieacrre fr 2 Pet caeres oh arrecenerh 87 (1) 200 mi (2) 150 mi (3) 600 mi (4) 400 mi va hrs fh eres ada ae eres ieee fre ger ot rea AT aT eA TE 132g C0, 0.96 g Set Bh em a sea zeae Ban tear STA a ee 40 5M cn Mo (1) cH @) Coke @) Cth (4) cH Sehr aie om omy ar Ze (1) 849 (2) 1.66 « 10%g @) 6022x10%g — (4) 139% 102g um at He wer On war Rea aaae & fay Hewritermarrs . 16 18 oF a? a 1 OF ot 0.1 Het HPO. H safer atretta memes eta went * (1) aster 2) O.4 the (9) over (4) 0.8 tet 9.8 9HeSO. 8 seri iran arate 2 Lave FIER A HeS00 eA eran (1) O5N (2) 0.05 N So2n (4) 01N Freon erat 8 sian sea ert (1) regs a 28 ara (2) shifter a 25 aera (3) tier = 25 mars (4) Sef an 2s ae 10005. Phone; 01147620456 PUT ee Se 65, Statement I: Cathode rays are positively charged particles. Statement I: Characteristics of cathode rays are independent of the material of electrodes and nature of gas present in cathode ray tube. (1) Both statements | and I are true (2) Both statements | and Il are false {3) Statement | is true but statement It is false (4) Statement lis false but statement I is true Zz 65, amere k: Salter arte a1 era “arora Us Sry Pa > satire eras & ard ce eS Fre af fers ot poe nel a (4) ery | er per AT eB (2) aera | ar a | Set Tera E (3) ert eh ater we II eT (4) aed ee 8 Sos aT HET 668, The number of angular node(s) in de orbital is in 66. day mare alte ats (Tei) ATS ayo (2) 1 @2 3 (0 @t 67. Which of the following is not permissible value of @2 . . (3 . angular momentum? a7. Breet sae er ater regia ETB? bh ay ost a ost * © @t Ose . (a) 125% 68, Fare rer eects go ae 8? 68. Which among the/following, is pot\isdelectronic pair? (1) Fema (2) AP TaTNe (1) Fe and oF (@) Ai and Ne (3) ComTNO® (4) NO were (8) CO and NO* (4) NO and Ne 69, sitettarr verry 3 fer eagis & fore waizn ears? 60. Possible set of quantum numbers for the last | araimiir ages electron of oxygen atom is 8 «) am n0s=+3 a (2) Rea totm=-ts=+4 @) 3 (8) n=2,1=0,m,=-152 45 ® 1 (4) (4) n=2,120,m, =0.8=—5 70, Fryer Fare = St 62 ‘quanta, The wavelength of radiation is were ! (1) 1240 nm (1) 1240 nm. (2) 402m (2) 400m 1 (3) 62nm (3) 620m (4) 20 nm (4) 200m Corporate Oca: Rakesh Tow, 8, Puse Road, New Dai 10005, Phone: 1 1-47623455 TC 74. A beam of frequoney (v) Incidant on metal surface ejects out clectron having kinotic onorgy (KE). IEEE tg AE STGP (¥) HO GH ATT 3 aera rat (KE) Te erg Pre STAT 1K ap ay Svitable graph botwoen KE, and v is vier arg aT e ‘ a *| + KE KE. KE, KE. 55 “| 0 ) a) @ rs v> ve > + t t f KE. KE, Ke] i i) (a) (3) @ 4 v> ve v 72. Which ofthe folowing transitions in H-otom results | 72. Hevea i Prafetfan i & Per sarmor 3 wma, in absorption of energy? aoa aor arrater eta 2? tones (1) m= 3% m= 1 aa (@) n=5%m=3 X i it of He* 3 Te rao of dus of second emt of He" 6h] 5 caer ar LA Ta Mant @) 2:3 araga’ @) 4:2 (4) 3:2 ast @ 2:3 74, Magnetic moment of 3.87 BLM. is given by thy te eetueralcateens adele, (1) Fe (2) Mnz “ (1) Fe “ @) ae = ae i oe (3) vee (om 75. Maximum number of orbitals in a subshell of an 3 sees * atom Is determined by 78. beeline Haart ft area er 4) 4142 2) vt Str Sa ° ® (1) 4142 Qn (9) 2? Or oe @) 76. Number of unpaired electron(s) present in Cue on | 76, Cue sama Oe fay rion is ‘stars org era (we as es we @3 a) 4 at ays 7. ait wom 3 Ren abt dat 7. Which of the folowing transitions in the hydrogen aaa atom will give rise to the highest energetic photon? Seam Sa are wie sw gM? (1) n=3t0n=1 (2) n=6ton=2 Mazsan=1 ans @)n=Ston=4 (4) n=wtone4 )n=5an=4 78. lonisation energy of He" ion in ground state is 78, SMO Hos sirersAt smear salt (1) 544 eVatom? (2) 13.6 eV alom-t (1) 644 eV atom (2) 13.6 eV atom (@) 272.eV atom! — (4) 68 eV atom (9) 272eVatom-+ (4) 6.8 eVatom 79. Bohr’s model is net applicable for 79. STC ee fe sare ere ge eT? (1) He* ion (2) Hatom (1) He* ares (2) Hoey (@) Be ion (4) Ut ion (2) 0% sare filinene? Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa ves roca’, Now Delhi-t10008, Phong: 617 ATEIaIEE = 80. 81. 82. 83, 85, the momentum of an olectron Is Incronsod to four times, thon the cio-Brogllo wavolongth will bacomo (1) Four timos of initial value @ ; of intial value {@) Two times of initial vat (4) $ final vaive 0, Cn aia wt einai age ua eT, i Naito eth (1) sR een ar oT (2) ste seat fr (9) wie (4) a ra } ant 1 atom, maximum nu ; Ce ee Iman om wexiinsunba of lacons han | 0 img fen sean = ane #1 TE Ae ae 2A fiona tent (8 aa @ : e : Work function for few metals are given below, 2, po gsi fairs Arf [wwe [u [ve [| a [wev | 242 [23 [eas [ar re By which metal, electrons wil be most easily woev | 242 [23 | 225 |_% ejected? Baar er ag oven oer cate i? au (2) No wu (2) No (3) K (4) Mg @K (4) Mg Fora d*elecronic configuration, Huna's rules nat | 83+ SF ose rarer fae, ge Freer ere followed in = rarer 87 o fae) @ be ©» GT) @ CT © fT) © PT oft) » fae Which among the following expressions is incorect| ae ec tainty ft sf for Heisenbera's uncertainty principle? oh (1) abe ata h (2) Ap dx2 Ze pall. @) Axx ve h @) aprave The number of s-electrons in Cl(Z = 17) Is not equal to the number of electrons in which of tho following? (1) electrons in Co (2 = 27) {2) peelectrons in Ne (2 = 10) (3) s-olectrons in K* (2 = 19) (4) p-olectrons in F (2 = 9) Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa R 85, are aise Teta 82 h (1) sex ate h 2) apxaxey bh (3) axxave e- (4) apxave Ch = 17) sotaghal A ee Pretetian 8 Prat shell stom ae veh 87 (1) Com (2= 27) aetagir (2) Ne (Z = 10)4 p- (a) ke = 19) sxe (4) F (2 = 9) 8 pxeagte ‘New Doihi-1 10008, Phone: 011-47623455 = ICI 86, 87, 89. 0. 91 92, SECTION -B Lowost value of n thal allows g orbitnis to oxist Is (2 @3 ea a5 ‘The longest wavolongth for Lyman sorios in H atom belongs to the transition (1) Fromato (3) From to 1 uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in position is h h a) EE (2) & h h Team Oe The de-Brogie wavelength of a parce with mass 10.g and velocity 1000 mis is (h = 6.626 x 10-4 Js) (1) 61626% 107m (2) 6.628 «10m (8) 8626 10%m (4) 6.628 10-%m ‘The correct energy order for 4f, 5s, 6p and Sd orbitals of H-atom is (1) §p>Sd>4f>5s (2) 4f>Sd>6p>Ss (3) 6p>Sd=5s>4P (4) 6p>Sd>5s>4F Radial nodes present in 4d and 2p, orbital respectively are (1) tando (2) tand4 (@) Oando (4) 4and3 Match List | with List Il and choose the correct option. (2) From 4 tot (4) From2to1 @ List Lis |e |Mieth we in Principal quantum | ()_ | Onlentation of alae = number orbital = o = ‘azimutnal quantum (i) [Spin of eleciron ® 5 : number in orbital BE Wem | (i) | ara Hecagrt ‘Magnetic quantum Size and energy = ruber arose ©. | yaetirsaiersiea [Tip | ware oree ‘Spin quantum |Shape of orbital erst umber 9 | Sram sates eer | (iv) | wae a Sgt 86, 7. 88. 89, 90. 91 92, [eserg 1h Fa pg eg er rare Be 8? (2 (2)3 (3) 4 @) 5 reg eo se te evra aafia te (y oft (2) 4a (9) St 1m (9) 28106 cafe fafa oar dan i caffra ware @, at forte satis & “ E h © Team nh @ lam 4) an 10 g HERA TUT 1000 mis Ser are oa a St Tt iret (h= 6.626 = 10-* Js) (1) 6.626 * 107 m (2) 6.626 « 102% m (3) 6.626 « 108m (4) 6.626 « 105m HEIR a, 66, pea Smeal A wal TTA (1) §p> 8d> ar> 55 (8) 65> 5d=5s> 47 (2) 4t> Sd> 6p > 5s (8) 6p> Sd>5s>4F Ady BI 2p, ae Saher rst Are AA: F (1) 18T0 (2) 901 (3) own (4) 43, AG er at 1 A Aig er A Pee AT war ia, (1) afi), bt, ef), at) (2) af, BAW, ef), ai) (9) af), bow), eli, ei) (4) ati, bf, et, a) (1) ali. (9, 600), €Qi)_ (2) at, BG, of, (@) a(9, bi). i), ei) (4) ati, bed, cf, Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110008, Phone: O11-476Da456 93, Suppose the olemonts ‘A’ and ‘B* combine to form two compounds AB and AzBs. I-01 molo of AB weighs 5 g and 0.25 moto of ArB) woighs 30 9, thon the atomic weights of ‘A’ and 'B* respectivaly aro (1) 20.and 30 (2) 30.and 20 (3) 10 and 20 (4) 20and 10 94. Amixture of gases contain Clz and F2 gases in the ratio of 1 : 76 (wiw). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture? (y 2:71 (2) 1:76 @) 71:2 (4) 1142, 95. Statement I: If 4.9 g of HsSOx is dissolved in 10g H:0, then %(w/w) of H2SOs solution is 32.88, Statement I: 96(wiw) is a unless quantity. Choose the correct option. (1) Both statements 1 and Il are true (2) Both statements I and Il are false (9) Statement lis true but statement Is false (4) Statement lis false but statement iis true 96. Temperature dependent term among the following is (1) Motality (2) Motarity (3) Mote fraction 4 (@) 97. 56 kg Nz (g) and 4.8 kg of Ho(g) are mixed to produce NHs(g). The amount of excess reactant that is left after the completion of reaction is (1) 28.0kg (2) 22.4 kg @) 16.8kg (4) 33.6 kg 88. A200 mlof 0.1 M solution of AgNO is added to 200 ml of 0.1 M solution of NaCl. The concentration of nitrate fon in the resulting solution Is (1) 041M (2) 0.2M (3) 0.05 (4) 05M 99. Formula mass is used in the case of (1) COz (2) b (3) HCL (4) NaCl 100. Mass of sodium hydroxide required to form $00 cc ©f 0.2 M aqueous solution is (1) 029 (2) 04g 93. NL ARTA Tan 'B! chit or 2 Mfrs: AB aT AZBs seri LAP 0.4 ste AB HOON 5 g 710.25 re ABs ZB aME 30 g B tA’ aT Bee TCT: (1) 207041 30, (2) 30771 20 8) 10720 (4) 20701 10 94, eit erm # Caran Fe R176 (whe) > TAH ‘8 Bro i lt ar sere ora ea (yas (2) 4:76 (8) 71:2 (4) 15142 95, wert I: a 4.9 g H:SO« #9 10 9 HO # aren are, Br H2S0, Preras #1 %( w/w), 32.88 2 “SaUrT Uh (wh) a TA AAT BL Fe Perera ee AR (1) aoe (erat 1 eta eS (2) Ser are eT I AT eH y (3) Serr ae 8 ans ae IN TTA (4) Ser rere ee ere TTS 96. Frafafant 8 aan frig t (1) Aterera (2) teen (3) Serre 4) (S)* 97, 86 kg No (g) WaT 4.8 kg He(g) a efit aH NHy(a) sare fare Ste @i safitfiean & pe SS are Ss serfs (3) 209 (4) 4.09 ‘sfirerten Ht ara & (1) 28.0 kg (2) 224Kg (8) 16.8 kg (4) 33.6 kg 98, 200 ml 0.1 M AgNOs Feta wet 200 ml 0.1 M NaCl ‘eeera it rere we sa ofa rere argze sree Bias (1) orm 2) 02M (3) 0.05 M (4) 05M 99, fare fea aa seer ar seer Pen Sra 8? (1) Coz 2) be (3) Hel (4) Nac 100. 500 cc 0.2 M wefta Freres art & fare sree aa ‘Treg RES FT FOIA (1) 02g (2) 049 (3) 209 (4) 409 Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 011-47623456 Tost Ca EET os [BOTANY] SECTION -A 101. Select the incorrect match, (1) Thylakoids — Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids, Dise shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus (2) Cistemae - (8) Ribosomes ~ Seen in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes ‘Seen in animal cells but not in higher plant calls 102.Select the incorrect statement about sub- metacentric chromosomes. (1) Centromere is present slightly away from the: centre (4) Centrioles — (2) Chromosomes have equal arms called p arm and q arm (3) Appear L-shaped during anaphase (4) Ave heterobrachial 103. State true (T) or false (F) for the following statements and select the correct option, ‘A. The size of Pleuropneumonia like organisms (PPLO) is 0.1 ym, B. The largest isolated single cell isthe egg of an ostrich r A B mfr |e afr] @|at]t (4) F e | 404.tdentiy the organisms on the basis of given features, ‘. There is no well defined nucleus b. The genetic materia is naked c. Have cell wall 4. Ribosomes are present 2) Protists (4) Animals (1) Blue green algae (3) Fungi WEA 101, er fe a aA (1) anrceatega — confizge 3% ape Hf flere aud Rereetar Seti ican eo were i fre Res em Aeehe ait i rt 8 vig tren iat fort ig sitters i frat & vig ser re sities ae Pra E 102, samen eh ere oe eater i rene ar a aa FO) (1) ereghig, 8 ater ferret (2) rata yard th & feed p sr g ys eran (9) verre des Ls Red (4) Prompt 103, Frere srt (1) a rae (F ReTeR et freer aaa fig A. seater sa ate (PPLO) er FFE 0.1 um 8. pemei nd acid wen aire, yt arate (2) frees — (3) aia — (A) are — A B a [ot F @ [F 7 @ [tT T m | F F 104.2 era 5 ome ae SST A TE a. sil int demat dert b. mrs era at cfr Fit anfiua ae tte aaftea wa (1) Fae are (2) site (8) wae 4) 3g ‘Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dall 10005, Phone: 017-a76I0466 CU eS 024 405. Mark the Incorrect statemant about mososome, (1) Iisa spoci membrane ifforentiatod form of call (2) is the characteristic of prokaryotes (9) Ithelps in DNA replication (4) It contains photosynthetic pigmants henco found in monerans 106.Most prokaryotic cells, particularly the bactorial cells, have a chemical complex _A_which consists of outermost layer _B Choose the correct option to filin the blanks A and B, A B (1) Glycocalyx (2) Cell envelope (3) Cell envelope (4) Glycocalyx 407. Select the incorrect match w.r. structures found in bacteria with their functions. Cell wail Glycocalyx Cell membrane Cell membrane Protects the cell from loss of water. and nutrients (1) | Slime layer | - re 105, sein 3 cae if arene ares afr fae (4) ap aan Rarer nn or Pte (2) ae saiteitge ot Faire % (3) 2 DNA afer rere ca (4) Set serra ae ger aH ome 106. sfirin sitbteitfes afarere, Frm sa a sary Afri H varafrs ea a fect A erat 8 fora vata ar 8 att fe eur er B tf ee rt reer af A 8 (1) warestras rer Fife (2) Sirona ergata @ Arson aie Pest (6) rameters fire Fret 107. tae art sr ah ears ar ee at TH aren Prana aa A 0) | sree * | - Se sar sie wea Allows bacterium to hide from host's immune | system [12 | Capsule | - (3) | Celwall | -| Determines the shape of the cell Permeable membrane which prevents the bacterial cell from bursting or collapsing. (@) | Celt ~ membrane 108, Surface structure of bacteria which play role in motility are (1) Pi (2) Fimbriae (3) Chromatophores (4) Flagolla 109.Read the following statements and choose tho correct option. ‘A. Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. B. The ribosomes of polysome translate the MRNA into proteins. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (8) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Ri @ ae = @) | afrertie [= @ [air | | w vers Reet Oar stray sh a aT Brute Ga aera d 408, sary Ft wae 9 Set SAY are afaetteraT Hae ior? (1) Pre (2) Fist (3) sitter (4) seen 4109, esfern rtt ofcrer eet Pser a AT A. upsets, tebe ewer ewer B. efhaia arate, mRNA a sich Hala we BL (1) Sara Awe (2) Sarre B watt (9) er mare arte (4) rr A Tere Se Mee sd, New Delhi-1 10005, Phone: 011-47623456 EOC to. boaion stone romorve antenlal pokarvoe Cols AME the following ane extiyplent ofthe same, axeopt (1) Phosphate granuing (2) Gag ws (2) Glyeogon grandam U1. Plant and animal colle ay differant as the formar possess Goll wall Coll membrane wc. Plastids Largo contra vacuole (1) Only aang e (8) Only cand a 412.Mark the wrong ‘membrane, (1) Major ipids are phospholipids in tho mombrano (2) Membrane also contains tho cholostarol (3) Tails of lipids aro hydrophobic (4) Non-polar heads of saturated hydrocarbons aro Protected from aqueous environment 113. Many molecules move across tha mombrane along the concentration gradient and do not require energy, Above statement is true for al, excopt (1) Passive transport (2) Simple diffusion (3) Active transport (4) Osmosts 144. The common component of algal and plant cell wall is (1) Calcium carbonate ) Hemicetiviose (2) Only e and (1) Alla, bean d Statoment about plasma (2) Coliulose (4) Mannans. 118. Choose the function of the call organolle which Is Hol considered as part of the endomombrano system, (1) Is major sito for synthesis of lipid (2) Is important site for formation of glycoproteins 3) Contain hydrolases to digast biomoloculos (4) Produce cellar onorgy in the form of ATP 146. Mitochondria and chloroplast are dissimilar to each thor as later (1) Synthesizes ATP (2) Has circular DNA (3) I double membrane bound (4) Synthosizes carbohydrates CUENIT 10 stale tet, Mein, aafararsit it alert are a une hte Mt fea tebe favsftena ath a4 eet A sae Me (1) ike aan (3) en aed) U1 ae oar ae fare fr HL vulewe itl Be ain an. alanes Fate b, vitfavea Reet cc. efeeger a anh Alea (1) Fert aware (2) rt omar (0) reracnd (4) mha,bemnd 112, Serroa Parcel 3 tate Hi rere aera Fatt “fafa (1) ree aera a it toate wa (2) free Ht atest of een & (2) Pars A pas aah He (4) ign ereshaeis 3 eye a ete area aeira ait 113.558 ry, igen Sera 3 age et Ss ef ree WaT Re Sat rere ae eit ‘anthem Rae atm re en fore ae bo (1) Piast (2) eet Fre (3) aire eae (4) sere 194, Stamey ea crew ater aft an nex er ir (2) Areva (4) sean a vite wre ataarst (1) eer are, (2) aagie @) tetaeeer (6) ta 198, ari a mel ie Fr kpc ao ‘AAT Sire 8h (1) Rare sedvor rq gee (2) vege a ee esas ere & (9) Saarpt a ere ng des et (6) ATP iui Alec al a seer ot 110, mga ace eee ia is hive (1) ATP aba Fea are @ (2) Frac ONA thar’ (9) fafrecting dar (4) rer wh eee a8 Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delh-110008, Phone: 01 tA76ISIG6 Ue ee) 417.Single membrane bound and non membrane bound cell organelles in animals are respectively (1) Lysosime and vacuole (2) Mitochondria and Golgl apparatus (3) Lysosome and centriole (4) Ribosome and Lysosome 118, Nucleolus (1) Is site for active FRNA synthesis (2) |s surrounded by a membrane {3) Is involved in cilia formation (4) Is absent in eukaryotes 119.Select the incorrect match. (1) Chloroplast — Contains carotenoids (2) Amyloplast - Stores carbohydrates (@) Elaioplast - Stores proteins (4) Chromoplast ~ Contains carotenoids 120.Stroma of the chloroplast contains all, except (1) Enzyme for synthesis of proteins (2) Ribosomes (3) Chlorophyll pigments (4) Circular DNA 121. Cilia differ from flagella in (1) Structure of axoneme (2) Having microtubules 3) Being smaller in size (4) Arising from basal body 122. Incase of acrocentric chromosome, the centromere is situated (1) Close to its end (2) In middle of the chromosome (3) Atterminal position of the chromosome (4) Beyond secondary constriction called satellite 123, Select the incorrect statement about interphase: (1) Most active stage of cell eycle (2) Also called the resting phase (3) inthis stage cell prepares itself for division Tost 1147 iat emer fect Fret a ree aT: (1) eget er art (2) Higa genera atest em (3) wage aera (4) create en ergata 118. 2am (1) Bar FRNA Bg aT ETE (2) wes Perea Pad aie (3) verre tre Hamner ehh S 4) ata i getter tia ® 119. rere Frenne AAP (1) aac - F Aetterties stare (2) wargeiveares - areterggz wr eae ae (3) Uttar - stderr ar (4) wins Hi Aes ror 120, aches ear Paes atte ah Gta 2 (1) Siete eae S fore Care (2) wear (3) seiterer aoa (4) qaret DNA 424mm fave ame aeTTaT S SreTT RP (1) wasn tee (2) qaritrantga are @) aadtoeR aa (4) Serdar re 8 ses OA TET 122, safe ore A reg (1) eae FRC Fhene fra tars (2) or wea F fers ta (3) orga At sic fear ater 8 (4) fettres aishtofa & arnt fear ath ot erTge ae 123, Sierra 3s ety BE erent per aT aT aS (1) Sifter aa At eae ate sees (2) 32 rare sree sft er TAT S (3) 3a rarer tira, Fenroer & fee ert = atte (4) $e over area after aon tar 8 ex (4) In this stage actual cell division occurs Garnarate Office: Aakash Tower, @, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 011-47623456 Z TCT 124,State true (T) oF falso (F) for tho following statamants and solact tho correct option. ‘A. In an animal cell, DNA replication begins in the nucleus. B. In S phase, the number of chromosomes remains the same. a B at F QF T @)T T @)F F 125, Semi-autonomous organelles duplicate during (1) G1 phase (2) S phase (3) M phase (4) Ge phase 126. The correct sequence of sub stages of prophase! s (1) Leptotene > Pachytene > Zygotene —> Diplotene > Diakinesis (2) Leptotene + Zygotene + Pachytene > Diplotene -> Diakinesis (3) Leptotene > Zygotene > Diplotene — Diakinesis + Pachytene (4) Zygotene > Leptotene + Diplotene + Diakinesis + Pachytene 127. Find the incorrect match. (1) Prophase— Chromatin condensation begins (2) Metaphase ~ Chromosomes align themselves to equator Chromatids move towards the poles Spliting of centromere takes place 128, Mitosis does not (1) Maintain size of the cells, (3) Anaphase — (4) Telophase — (2) Bring about reproduction in unicellular ‘organisms @) Introduce variations in progeny (4) Maintain same type and number of chromosomes in two daughter cells, 429, What will be the total number of mitotic divisions required in the formation of 128 daughter cells from 4 parent cel? (1) 32 (2) 64 @) 128 (a) 127 UTES 124, Fae =e ges (Tr) 7 rere (F) aa Te eT fraser at rr =A A. sig aifirar Hf DNA afarplarrs, iam Ht ape a2 B.S wraear i yeep A eer mr ah lB A B QT F (2) F T ()T T (4) F F +25, xara ais a ere ra (1) Gisrreat (2) Surrear (9) Marea (4) Gearaear 126, face :oy rent eh RH eT (1) ada dH orate faci = area (@) eter ord teed — fend rma (@) dda arash feck — sree = teee ) Bead 9 Sede oats sete tides ‘27 era er aa AR () Gin ARATE EE @) sore Agregar ect are (ere = Halters ottewett (4) sicarmen =H etig Res ar 8 128. Famer (1) Bier & sree ae cae (2) epic ste ara a (3) Raa ferns ere 8 (4) a areata as ea eC eT Baar et aT 129.1. ser em & 128 eat aifrarett & Far re RE Porat oper eae ah? (1) 32 (3) 128 (2) 64 (4) 127 Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110008, Phone: 01 LATGZI460 24 '30, Double metaphasie plates ar seon during (1) Metaphase II (2) Telophase tI (9) Telophase | (4) Metaphase | a1. The longast phase of melosis | Is (1) Prophase | (2) Tolophase | (3) Metaphase | (4) Anaphase | 132, During interkinesis, there is (1) No duplication of centrioles in animal coll {@) No synthesis of RNA and proteins (3) No replication of DNA (4) Double amount of DNA as compared to S phase 433. Meiosis Il differs from mitosis as former (1) Always occurs in haploid cells (2) Is always followed by DNA replication {Q) Is called equational division (4) Produces identical daughter cells 434.If there are 20 chromosomes in G1 phase, then ‘what will be the number of bivalents and chromatids in zygotene stage? Bivalents Chromatids (y) 10 40 (2) 10 20 (3) 20 40 (4) 20 20 136, Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. Its main function isto (1) Prevent segregation of chromosomes (2) Trigger the transition from metaphase to anaphase (3) Replicate the DNA in S phase (4) Promote the cell from G2 to $ phase SECTION -B 136. The main arena of various types of activilas of @ cells (1) Nucleoplasm (3) Ribosome 187. Mark the Incorrect about glyoxysomes. (1) Originate from ER (2) Are bounded by single membrane (3) Found in germinating seeds (4) Contain enzymes which convert carbohydrates into fats. (2) Cytoplasm (4) Peroxisome Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, 430, det emer gta Prag 2 8? (1) Sem I (2) Sierra I (3) sfeererear | (4) wearer | 434, sade Pore | tere a sre (1) gafaear (2) sfenreeat | (3) eae | (4) verre | 4192, starrer 3 2H (a) ga ect fer at (2) RNA ere sara ee et Ble 3) DNA at af feers aet Bre (4) «5 wraer oqerar it NA oft ra hg ate ex, aig, ogni a & fr EET (1) wear orga afr ea (2) warner DNA sfagferar tra & (9) Bre nara et (4) Sane daft ArH ar sere eras 434.0% Gy wraeen 20 ras & dt series sear gi ar eg eet ae aiahege (1) 10 40 @ 10 20 @) 20 40 (4) 20 20 196.54q Aftrorott & afer eR Foner 4 fore TaTTET siteerees vigge (APO) STE 81 FAT ST HE () engi a qesrerat ter (2) sear 8 were ore a ea wT (3) Ssraem 4 DNA ar faqyrr eT (4) Ararat Ges waa ST : ws-B Fon ge ae te aeh eT a (1) RRR (2) Afar (3) weet (4) seoiteetcer 437, Tergaiteettete 3 wet rere Pafeea ifr () ERM ITATAAE (2) Waratah 8 FR ha E (3) fgets ora ara (4) araerege a ae tea ra eae a ga Pusa Road, New Dalhi-110005. Phone: 011-47623456 Test (x) 498. The number of microtubule doublets and triplets in flagella and centriole are respectively (1) Sand9 (2) Send 2 (3) 20and9 (4) Sand 27 139.Which of the following seals the ends of chromosome and prevents their shortening or chromosome loss? (1) Kinetochore (2) Telomere (8) Centromere: (4) Centrosome 140. Endomembrane system does net include (1) Endoplasmic reticulum (2) Golgi apparatus (8) Peroxisome (4) Vacuole 141. Microflaments do not (1) Help in pseudopodia formation (2) Help in formation of cleavage furrow during cell division (3) Provide support to plasma membrane (4) Help in spindle and astral rays formation 142. Disc shaped structures, present on the sides of the centromere are called (1) Centrosome (2) Telomere (3) Centriole (4) Kinetochores 143.Read the following statements and select the correct option, ‘A. Chromatin contains DNA and histones. B. Polyribosome refers to the chain of ribosomes. altached {o single mRNA, (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements A and B are correct, (4) Both statements A and 8 are incorrect 1144. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex takos place during (1) Leptotene (2) Pachytone ) Zygotene (4) Diplotone 1145. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis | product ifthe meiocyle has 50 pg DNA In Gz phase? (1) 50 pa (2) 259 @) 1259 (4) 100 pg CUE 138. ranfieR war areas Ht yearafera feet a Firat A dena: ? (1) 9aen9 (2) 9am2 (3) 2079 (4) 9ar27 1439, Preafertae i & ait, rove fetta aia aa Sa ae aI arpeg afra trarb? (1) sagaerate (2) ier (3) reg (4) aroma 140. ote faceit a emir gt era (1) siesta (2) est over (9) voiteetar (4) wearer 14 a (1) ewe rar emer ne wd E (2) tr Poa she reer a She PTT adie t (3) core Reet at wera were eT ae E (4) wef cer are Pare Ses wera ae aE jaarnpfigh fort wafiuc fend ran ini aaa sero a? (1) wer (2) sits (3) wer (4) arparae 143, Prefer ae at afer et Perera aT ATC A. BART ONA zara . B. Sictagshets, Get mRNA & ge uel & aaa seer rar a (iy Soar as A met (2) FTA Bae (3) BETA TUTE ate E (4) er A aur B Area 144, erp Re edhe? (oteian (@ tear (9) sent (4) facet 148.aft snip after ii G, srrear tt 50 pg ONAE# sonlegh Romer 3 srae i ona sare al? QS (2) 2509 8) 12.5 pg (4) 100 pg Corporate Otlee: Askssh Tower, 8, Pura Rood, New Delt T0005, Pane: OTTATSISISS 146, Match tho following columns nd soinet the eorract option Column Column. A, | Zyaotono | ())_ | Torminatisntion of ehlasminia 8. | Pachytone | (i) | First sub stago of prophaso | . | Diakinosis | (i) | Synopsis occurs D. | Leptotene | (iv) | Crossing over takos al. |__| place (1) Act), Bet), C-(), D-(iy (2) Acti), Beiv), C-4), D-(iy (3) Adil, BC), C+), D0) (4) Activ), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(i) 147. There is separation of homologous chromosomes but no chromatids separate as there is no splllting of centromere, ‘Above statement is true for the stage called (2) Anaphase | (4) Metaphase | (1) Anaphase I (3) Metaphase I! 148.Read the following statements and solect the correct option. ‘A. Nucleic acid is synthesized during S phase in a eukaryotic cell, B. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called bivalent. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect 149.Best stage to study morphology and shape of chromosomes are respectively (1) Prophase and Anaphase (2) Metaphase and Prophase (3) Mataphase and Anaphase (4) Anaphase and Metaphase 140, fet ote an fn Aa, ae a Pree amt “Ay Tater arr | a. fami | B. | ede i c. | armen | cy | ateiees | (iv) | Ht Pater a8 (1) Av), Bi), C+), D-t) (2) Acti), BW), C-(, D-Ci) @) Aci), B-Qv), Ci), D+) (4) Activ), Bi), C-, O-0) 47. ores ar errr the & ig acs rere aR Es oraalg Fe ae er awn ery Pre areca & Fare rea 8? (1) saree th (2) sere | (3) seamen (4) Bee | 448, Preafattaaraerit at ofa wen eet Fare ar as FTC A, Gated fiver Hafan a, S wT ahr cate Sher Baral rare re a aA a TAT rete ra (1) Fara A TAT (2) Fac aes B wee (3) RA Te B at eee (4) We A eB Atl TA E 40. yr 8s trae ae onan ser sro we 3 fee ay orereur ATA: (1) aferenn ear sere (2) were er waa (3) Hemereat een ware (4) Serene ear HRT 150. 4AfRran Siam 3 Sher safer afar ar Reger Fee 150.0uing cell cycle most of the coll arganolos | a 4 7 duplicate in (1) S phase (2) Gz phase (1) Saree (2) Gesrren (3) Gs phase (4) Mphase (3) Gs sree (4) M sree bx oH OH (1) Glucose (2) Fruttose (@) Ribose (4) Deoxyribose 194.Read the following statements and select the correct answer from the options given below. ‘Statement I: Co-enzymes are organic compounds but their association with the apoenzyme is’ only transient, ‘Statement Il: Prosthetic groups are tightly bound to the apoenzyme. (1) Statement |is correct and statement lis incorrect, (2) Statement I is correct and statement lis incorrect, (8) Both statements | and Il are correct (4) Both statements | and Il are incorrect 4195.The prosthetic group and pari of active site of enzyme peroxidase is (1) Nicotinamide (2) Haom (@) Nab (4) NADP cy in 196. The most important form of energy currency living system is the bond energy in chemical called (1) Profine (2) Glucose (3) Guanosine (4) Adenosine triphosphate 192, ter ar i aif a0 ator, fine Are card et a Ran oats Prater at sara Helis teh 87 (1) fetter (2) ferent (3) ditt (4) fret 193.598 at ng sorpht at ceeafae otk eet Ferret at aa A Hoch, H OH H (1) a (2) acter (3) Ta, (4) Stoitaetagett 194, Prarie ate fee me Fare Riera afi were ears ard aoe wa eA eT 5 are gear eee eae area ha 8 wer Tee Eng, wr a egos ATE (1) er |e 8 site ae TEATS (2) oer ee S site aRET ITE - (9) er steamer ara (4) err | CRT Si ere 196.6 Woitedta ara AR st Fa afer agar are (1) Bettas (2) & (3) NAD (@) NADP 196. ar ar wa eel yaw ea ‘wal sor F freer 8, fad wer sree (1) seta 2) Ria (3) "ari (4) Waris gestae Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, Now Deli-110006. Phone: 011-47623456 At Hace {dey OM Wee cao aed Peto 4 ANGI 197. Select tho option inctuding Ingorroct slatomeonts | 197, ered weet =r fa only. (ay set ei it glo fa) Annbolle pathways, sacttoaghre 4s 10 oi 6) -SUPReRD Hy 4 (hy vn oneray. vy ea apron ave ferent (©) Glycolysis is «10 stop motabolic avant. () se raf te serene (c) Living state is stendy stato in oquilbrlum, (a) sree Fert i (@) Living stato is possibio avon without (1) (a), (b) 38 (0) . metabolism, 2) (6) 30" (a) (a), (b) an (1) (@), (b) and (o) (3) by fon. 9th) (2) (@)and (d) \ ay), (g) se (@) (3) (b), (¢) and (a) - Hs rr (4) @). (6) and (a) TOeyeee vite eeniifean cameisa, caffe 198. In the human body carbonic anhydrase iximali| \>~

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