FCF - Introduction to the Threat Landscape 2.

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Lesson 03: Principles of Information SecurityLesson 03: Principles of Information Security

Which is the most accurate definition of authentication in cybersecurity?

Select one:
The process of controlling access to resource
The act of certifying that someone can perform an action
The practice of verifying activities on computer devices
The act of identifying and verifying a person or thing

Which definition accurately describes information systems security?

Select one:
The control of physical access to a building or room where sensitive data is stored
The management of information systems, including disaster recovery (DR) and high
availability (HA)
The practice of protecting computer networks, devices, and digital information
The protection of information systems against unauthorized access, modification, and
so on

What is one of the first things that you need to do before implementing safeguards to
information?

Select one:
Carry out a data integrity check on all sensitive data.
Determine what information needs to be protected.
Verify with government regulations if information requires protection.
Conduct criminal record checks on all employees.

Which two elements of cybersecurity must be addressed when defending computer

networks? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Human behavior
Computer technology vulnerabilities
Physical access points
Information left on desks or in public places

Which is the most accurate definition of authorization in cybersecurity?

Select one:
The act of certifying that someone can perform an action
The practice of verifying activities on computer devices
The act of identifying and verifying a person or thing
The process of controlling access to resources

Which three principals make up the DAD triad? (Choose three.)

Select one or more:

Domain spoofing
Anonymized data
Denial
Disclosure
Alteration

Which definition accurately describes information security (InfoSec)?

Select one:
The practice of protecting computer networks, devices, and digital information, whether on-
premises or in the cloud.
The control of physical access to a building or room where sensitive data is stored, either
digitally or physically.
The management of critical infrastructure, such as pipelines, electrical power grids, and data
centers in the cloud.
The processes for preventing, detecting, and remediating attacks on sensitive
information, both digital and physical.

Which is the most accurate definition of authentication in cybersecurity?

Select one:
The act of certifying that someone can perform an action
The practice of verifying activities on computer devices
The act of identifying and verifying a person or thing
The process of controlling access to resource

What are the three principles of information security (InfoSec), also known as the CIA
triad? (Choose three.)

Select one or more:

Confidentiality
Incorruptibility
Availability
Accountability
Integrity

What are two categories of cybersecurity? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Building access security
Network security
Security accreditation for employees
Critical infrastructure

Which cybersecurity term does one of the letters in AAA stand for?

Select one:
Acceptability
Accounting
Alerts
Anonymity

Which definition accurately describes cybersecurity?

Select one:
The management of critical infrastructure, such as pipelines and electrical power grids
The practice of protecting computer networks, devices, and digital information
The protection of information systems against unauthorized access, modification, and so on
The protection of all information that has been deemed sensitive

Which is the most accurate definition of authorization in cybersecurity?

Select one:
The practice of verifying activities on computer devices
The act of identifying and verifying a person or thing
The process of controlling access to resources
The act of certifying that someone can perform an action

In addition to the five categories of cybersecurity, what else do you need to consider
when defending the cyber space?

Select one:
ISO standards
People and processes
Executive strategic planning
Computer code
Which cybersecurity threat category would a trojan horse be an example of?

Select one:
System design failure
Unauthorized access
Social engineering
Malware

Which bad actor type is motivated by ideology?

Select one:
Hacktivist
Cyber ideologue
Cyber warrior
Explorer

What are the two ingredients of a successful social engineering attack? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Stealing the victim’s credentials by watching them as they log in
Denying the victim access to a server or service
Compelling the victim to act, such as instilling a sense of urgency
Gaining the trust of the victim
Breaching the victim’s computer by exploiting a weakness in an application

Which definition best represents the Cyber Kill Chain?

Select one:
Illustrates how a cyber attack is killed
Details how to respond at each stage of a cyber attack
Describes the stages of a cyber attack
Chronicles the chain reaction of a cyber attack

Which sequence of a Cyber Kill Chain show the events occurring in the correct order?

Select one:

Weaponization, reconnaissance, delivery, installation, exploitation, command and control,

exfiltration

Reconnaissance, delivery, weaponization, exploitation, installation, command and control,

exfiltration

Reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, command and

control, exfiltration

Weaponization, reconnaissance, delivery, exploitation, installation, command and control,

exfiltration

What is a benefit of using MITRE ATT@CK?

Select one:
Provides a common taxonomy for understanding and mitigating cyberattacks
Offers off-the-shelf security software solutions
Presents more cyber attack details than other methods, such as Cyber Kill Chain
Supplies superior services at a lower cost than its competitors

Which step is the final action in the threat intelligence process?

Select one:
Disseminating threat information
Eliminating threats
Providing feedback and a review of lessons learned
Identifying which threats must be mitigated

Manipulating people to do something contrary to their interests is an example of

which cybersecurity threat category?

Select one:
Unauthorized access
System design failure
Malware
Social engineering

Which system or organization assigns a severity score to help you identify the most
dangerous cyberthreats to your organization?

Select one:
Cyberthreat rating system unanimous (CRSU)
Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
Common vulnerability scoring system (CVSS)

Which two attack vector categories characterize a ransomware attack? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Pre-exploit
Human
Post-exploit
Computer technology

Which expression would best qualify as threat intelligence?

Select one:
Data feeds from a Security Information and Event Manager (SIEM)
News of a cyberattack on another organization’s network
Security implications and actionable advice
A list of malicious IP addresses and domain names

Which three requisite qualities must information have for it to be threat intelligence?
(Choose three.)

Select one or more:

Timely
Actionable
Relevant
Detailed
Contextual
Which hacker type is someone employed by a computer security consulting firm who
could be hired to do penetration testing?

Select one:
Green hat
Blue hat
Black hat
Grey hat

Which bad actor type prefers ransomware as an attack method?

Select one:
Cybercriminal
Cyber terrorist
Cyber warrior
Cyber extortionist
Which technique most accurately describes social engineering?

Select one:
Zero-day attack
Quid pro quo
Exploiting computer weaknesses
Psychological manipulation

Which attack method relies on a telephone or voice-over-IP to target individuals or

small groups, such as members of a finance department?

Select one:
Whaling
Smishing
Honeypot
Vishing

Which attack vector does an influence campaign rely upon?

Select one:
Messaging service
Email
Social media
Zero-trust software exploit

What type of attack method is used by a blue hat to study the tactics of bad actors?

Select one:
Honeypot
Sandboxing
Waterholing
Deception

Which definition best describes insider threat?

Select one:

Employees who are angry at their employer

A person posing a threat to an organization from within

IT security fails to protect its network

An unknown vulnerability on a computer network

Which two reasons explain why influence campaigns are often effective?

Select one or more:

The bad actor can remain anonymous using fake accounts
Social media offers an inexpensive means to influence a large number of people
People are known to respond favorably to a well-reasoned argument
Blackmail and bribery are effective in influencing people’s behavior

Which two insider types are considered malicious insider threats? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Lone wolves
Pawns
Moles
Rats

What objective is accomplished by the last two stages of an influence campaign?

Select one:
Theft of information or money
Clarification of the narrative
Amplification of the message
Access to the target’s network

What social engineering attack uses an online site frequented by the target or targets
to attack them?

Select one:

Waterholing

Quid pro quo

Pretexting

Phishing

Which three attack methods are examples of social engineering? (Choose three.)

Select one or more:

Copycat
Tailgating
Zero day
Whaling
Honeypot

Which description best explains pharming?

Select one:

Cultivating trust between a bad actor and the target through chance encounters**
Exploiting an unknown vulnerability in computer software

Recruiting employees through various means to carry out an insider attack**

Computer traffic redirected from a legitimate website to a malicious one

Which threat indicator could be an indication of an active insider threat?

Select one:

Two employees disagree on the interpretation of a security policy

An employee shows contempt for an organization’s policies

An open pot of honey is suspiciously left on a kitchen countertop**

A USB drive is found abandoned in an organization’s parking lot**

What type of insider threat is an individual who believes they are exempt from their
organization’s security policies and bypasses them?

Select one:

Collaborator

Pawn

Goof

Lone wolf**
What type of malware do these characteristics describe?
User activated
Malware inserts or attaches itself to legitimate programs
Spreads to other computers

Select one:
Virus
Keylogger
Rootkit
Worm

What is the mechanism part of an attack vector in a DDoS attack?

Select one:
Routers
Public IP address
Bots
Web service
Which two symptoms might indicate that your computer is infected with malware?
(Choose two.)
Select one or more:
OS updates automatically
Sudden degraded performance
Failing hard drive
Self-executing programs
Which type of malware does not need a host system and spreads to other computers
without user action?

Select one:
Potentially Unwanted Program (PUP)
Worm
Ransomware
Virus

Which three components comprise a threat vector? (Choose three.)

Select one or more:

Payload
Mechanism
Vulnerability
Pathway
Threat landscape

Which statement best describes an attack surface?

Select one:
The total number of bad actors
The number of pathways to a vulnerability
The method to exploit a vulnerability
The sum of vulnerabilities

Which type of malware secretly steals information about computer activity?

Select one:

Browser hijacker

Worm

Spyware

Rootkit
 Getting Started in Cybersecurity

Which three traits are characteristics of a next generation firewall (NGFW)? (Choose
three.)

Select one or more:

Uses AI to enforce security policies
Controls network traffic based only on network address
Can segment a network based on user, device, and application type
Inspects only unencrypted packets
Delivers high-performance inspection
Which identifying feature differentiates an NGFW firewall from earlier types of
firewalls?

Select one:
Filters by protocol
Examines data in the packets
Monitors IP addresses and ports
Uses rule-based decision-making

Which three elements does a stateful firewall track when determining whether to
allow or deny a TCP/IP connection? (Choose three.)

Select one or more:

Protocol in use
Source IP address
User behavior
Type of application connected to
Destination port

What was a limitation of first-generation firewalls?

Select one:
Opened random ports and used multiple connections
Granular policy capability made managing the firewall too complex
Filtered only at Layer 3 of the OSI model
Produced many false positives, thereby overwhelming IT security

In a UTM firewall, which component monitors protocols, such as FTP and HTTP?

Select one:
Web filter
Transport layer filter
Protocol filter
Application layer filter

Complete the sentence: A packet filter firewall controls network traffic based on
___________.

Select one:

filtering layers 2–7 of the OSI model.

application behavior or characteristics.**

the behavior of the network connections.**

network addresses, protocols, and ports.

Which type of firewall was the first generation of firewalls?

Select one:

Next-generation firewall (NGFW)

Stateful**

Application layer**

Packet filter

How does NAC effectively segment a network?

Select one:
Utilizing device profiles
Using user roles
Routers
Using IP addresses
What action do you typically need to do to join a public network, such as one in a
coffee shop?

Select one:
Submit your personal digital certificate
Register your handheld device
Provide biometric information
Agree to the legal terms for using the network

Which three parties participate in network authentication, according to the IEEE

802.1X standards? (Choose three.)

Select one or more:

Client device
Router
Authentication server
Certification authority
Authenticator

Why are IoT devices potential conduits of contagion?

Select one:

Does not support two-factor authentication**

IoT devices are often cheaply made**

There are too many incompatible IoT security standards in use**

Not able to install security software

What drives organizations to buy IoT devices?

Select one:

Required as part of an air-gap solution

Provide valuable data to the CFO

Can save time and money

Mandated by government
What is a zero-day attack?

Select one:
Malware that converts all data bits to zeros
A new and unknown computer virus
A cyberattack that exploits an unknown software vulnerability
A computer virus that receives instructions from a Command and Control server

Within the computer security context, what is a sandbox?

Select one:
A segment of the network reserved for testing unknown programs
An isolated virtual environment to test suspicious files and hyperlinks
A process used to identify, describe, and categorize malware
A service in the Cloud used to collect and share threat intelligence

Which failing characterized early sandbox technology?

Select one:
Slowed network traffic
Lack of integration with other security devices
Failed to categorize malware
Could not stop zero-day attacks

Which feature characterizes third-generation sandbox technology?

Select one:
Faster network speeds
Streamlines manual testing
Scanning of encrypted data streams
Automation and artificial intelligence

Which feature characterizes third-generation sandbox technology?

Select one:
Faster network speeds
Scanning of encrypted data streams
Automation and artificial intelligence
Streamlines manual testing

Which new development in malware caused sandbox technology to automate and

introduce artificial intelligence learning?

Select one:
Polymorphic viruses
AI-driven attacks
Trojan horse
Ransomware
Which three features are characteristics of the latest generation WAF? (Choose three.)

Select one or more:

DLP
Network segmentation
IP reputation
DDoS defense
SPU

Which protocol traffic does a web application firewall (WAF) monitor?

Select one:
IP
TCP
HTTP
CLNP

Which event was the motivation for web application firewall (WAFs)?

Select one:
The debut of the World Wide Web
ARPANET was brought online
The first wide area network (WAN)
The development of the hypertext transfer protocol

Which new feature characterized second-generation WAFs?

Select one:
Machine learning without human supervision
Heuristics
Packet analysis
Port and protocol blocking

Which action can a modern WAF do?

Select one:
Survey the network and calculate a value to represent the security posture**
Segment the network based on device type and user role
Stop any user action should it exceed their network permissions
Connect all tools in the security stack into defined workflows

Which Domain Name Service (DNS)-based content filter determines if a user can
access content or not?

Select one:
Allowlists and blocklists categorized by domain name or IP address
Header content collation with a database of known threat actors
A machine learning (ML) algorithm
A list of allowed and blocked MAC addresses

Which three things do email filters check? (Choose three.)

Select one or more:

Attachments

The body of the message

Browser or application types

MAC addresses

Headers

Which three filters are examples of content filters? (Choose three.)

Select one or more:

VPN filters
DNS-based content filters
Email filters
Blackhole filters
Search engine filters

What does machine learning (ML) reduce in search engine filters?

Select one:
False positives
SPAM
Time needed to process
Accuracy

Which Domain Name Service (DNS)-based content filter determines if a user can
access content or not?

Select one:
A machine learning (ML) algorithm
Allowlists and blocklists categorized by domain name or IP address
Header content collation with a database of known threat actors
A list of allowed and blocked MAC addresses

How do content filters improve computer security?

Select one:
They test URLs in segregated virtual machines (VMs) to see what they do.
They block adware, spam, and malware.
They block lewd websites.
They prevent denial-of-service (DoS) attacks.

Which method do search engine filters use to determine a content classification?

Select one:
They compare known good content with the examined content.
They check headers against a blackhole list.
They assign a weighting based on text and images.
They filter by pretagged words and images.

Which two methods are used by threat actors to compromise your device when
conducting phishing campaigns? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Click bait
An infected thumb drive
An attachment to an email
An embedded hyperlink within an email

Which option identifies the trend of email spamming and phishing?

Select one:
Erratic
Plateaued
Declining
Increasing

Which technique used by a threat actor is known as spam?

Select one:
Fraudulent messages that target a specific role or person within an organization
Irrelevant or inappropriate messages sent on the Internet to a large number of
recipients
Weaponized emails that claim to come from a legitimate sender
An attacker observes websites that a targeted group visits, and herds them into an infected
website

Which method did the earliest spam filter use to stop spam?

Select one:
Identified specific words or patterns
Detected unusual behaviour
Tested emails in a sandbox environment
Detected illegitimate email addresses
In addition to a spam filter, which two technologies are often a part of secure email
gateway (SEG)? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Firewall
Email emulator
Sandbox
Antivirus scanner

Which challenge caused secure email gateway (SEG) to adopt automation and
machine learning?

Select one:
Data loss
Success of click-bait
Delay in implementing the sender policy framework
Volume of attacks

Which technique used by a threat actor is known as phishing?

Select one:
Irrelevant or inappropriate messages sent on the Internet to a large number of recipients
An attacker observes websites that a targeted group visits, and herds them into an infected
website
Fraudulent messages that target a specific role or person within an organization
A fraudulent practice of sending emails purporting to be reputable in order to steal
personal information
Which change that was introduced in Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) strengthened
encrypted Wi-Fi communications?

Select one:
Enforcement of stronger passphrases
Encryption digital certificate
Hardware Security Modules (HSM)
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm

Which two features of Wi-Fi Protected Access 3 (WPA3) strengthened security?

(Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Complex passphrases were enforced.
Digital signatures were introduced to help identify valid access points (APs).
The encryption key size was lengthened.
The handshake for establishing connections became more secure.

What weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) made it unsuitable to secure Wi-Fi
communications?

Select one:
The RC4 encryption algorithm was easily defeated.
It did not support digital signatures.
It did not enforce complex passwords.
It was susceptible to man-in-middle attacks.

Wi-Fi is based on which standard?

Select one:
IEEE 802.11
ISO 5750
RFC 826
10Base-T

Which two security practices make your home wireless network safer? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Pick passphrases that are hard to guess.
Keep your router firmware up to date.
Consult with NIST as to the latest security strategies.
Install antivirus software on all Wi-Fi devices.

What is Wi-Fi?

Select one:
An Ethernet networking protocol

Quality audio technology

Fiber that makes wireless technology possible

Technology for radio wireless local area networks

Which technique allows you to recover content from a lost, stolen, damaged, or
compromised device?

Select one:
Encrypt the disk
Buy insurance
Install antivirus software
Back up the data

Which two techniques harden endpoints using common administrative controls?

(Choose two.)

Select one or more:

User restrictions

Passwords

Policy checks

Backups

Which technique hardens endpoints as a part of endpoint maintenance?

Select one:
Startup hardening
Data loss prevention (DLP)
Boot management
Automatic-updates and patching

Which two techniques can prevent access to information on stolen portable

devices? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Encrypt the data stored on the device
Ensure strong password protection
Use data loss prevention (DLP)
Install antivirus software

Which technology has caused the number of endpoints to multiply exponentially?

Select one:
Virtualization
Cloud services
Internet of things (IoT)
Artificial intelligence (AI)
Which platform can preemptively block new, undiscovered attacks?

Select one:
Next generation firewall
Endpoint detection and response
Endpoint management system
Zero trust network access

Which feature is a function of endpoint detection and response (EDP)?

Select one:

Enforces strong passwords

Data loss prevention

Enforces security policies

Predicts malware using large databases of known attacks

Which two elements are a part of the endpoint monitoring category? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Data loss prevention (DLP)
Endpoint auditing
Endpoint protection platform (EPP)

Which feature is a function of both EPP and EDR?

Select one:

Enforcement of security policies

Antivirus scanning

Administrative top-down visibility

Data loss prevention

Which two features are functions of an endpoint protection platform (EPP)? (Choose
two.)

Select one or more:

Verifies versions of software and firmware
Predicts malware using large databases of known attacks
Updates a malware detection rule based on a CVE alert
Enforces security policies

Which three strategies help secure unknown endpoints? (Choose three.)

Select one or more:

Force devices onto an isolated network until they are secured and registered
Configure network security devices to prevent unauthorized devices from accessing
the network
Upgrade antivirus software on all known network devices
Enforce the principle of least privilege
Migrate network assets from a local physical network to the cloud
What are playbooks used for?

Select one:
To plan a set of manual tasks to be completed by analysts
To describe the order in which analysts complete tasks
To provide a set of scenarios of predicted cyberattack methods
To automate the actions that an analyst would typically do manually

Which statement best describes SOAR?

Select one:
SOAR collects logs from all security tools to improve network visibility
SOAR connects all security tools together into defined workflows that can be run
automatically
SOAR orients the security team by defining and categorizing cyberattacks
SOAR plays out potential cyberattacks to improve network security preparedness

Which is a benefit of SOAR?

Select one:
It increases security team efficacy by automating repetitive processes
It reports on which endpoints require patching and have security vulnerabilities
It analyzes and generates a security score to measure improvements in network security
It deflects DDoS attacks and identifies the Command and Control source
What is alert fatigue?

Select one:
Measures the time lag to resolve alerts
The SOAR system is overloaded by the amount of network traffic
Analysts are overwhelmed by the number of alerts
Analysts reduce the number of alerts using SOAR

What are three reasons SOAR is used? (Choose three.)

Select one or more:

Reduce alert fatigue
Accelerate response times
Collaborate with other analysts
Compensate for the skill shortage
Analyze workload

Which feature provides SIEM greater visibility into the entire network?

Select one:
Analyzing logs and alerts from a single-pane-of-glass
Complying with regulations
Deciphering encrypted logs and alerts
Sharing of logs by IoTs and BYODs

Which feature is a characteristic of later SIEMs?

Select one:
User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA)
Deciphering encrypted data flows
Collect, normalize, and store log events and alerts
Automatic backups and integrity checking
What is one method that SIEM uses to analyze data?

Select one:
Watch for known indicators of compromise (IoC)
Decipher encrypted logs and alerts
Decipher encrypted data flows
Apply security controls
What does SIEM do primarily?

Select one:
Collect, normalize, and store log events and alerts
Connect all security tools together into defined workflows
Manage network events and alerts
Manage network information and alerts

Which problem was a barrier to the general acceptance of first-generation SIEM?

Select one:
Cost to purchase was prohibitive
Did not have the features needed by organizations
The point solution approach to network security
High-level of skill was required

What was the impetus for more automation and machine learning in later SIEM
devices?

Select one:
Need to improve MIS efficiency
Requirement to manage Big Data
Demand to reduce MIS costs
Shortage of trained personnel

Which two requirements were the motivation for SIEM? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Remaining competitive
Increasing number of alerts
Complying to regulations
Exploiting Big Data
Which business trend caused greater latency to the internet in the network model for
the single, dedicated service provider?

Select one:
Demand for more cloud applications and services
Moving from physical appliances to virtual appliances
A focus on more capital expenditures
Greater expenditures on research and development

Earlier businesses used a single, dedicated service provider to connect to the internet.
What was the primary weakness of this design?

Select one:
Overly complex
Unreliable
Inexpensive
Unsecure

Which two benefits are gained from using an SD-WAN centralized management
console? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Greater data protection
An ability to prioritize business-critical applications
Greater network visibility
A diversity of management consoles and processes

Complete the sentence. WAN is a computer network that

Select one:
is a hybrid of on-premise devices and virtual servers across multiple cloud vendors.
uses primarily virtual computers, thus expanding the east-west axis.
spans a large geographic area and typically consists of two or more LANs.
limits the number of switches and routers to reduce maintenance and administration.

Why might managing multiple point products cause greater complexity for IT
security? (Choose two.)

Select one or more:

Understaffed IT security teams who lacked expertise

Usually, multiple management consoles are required

Lack of integration between security products

Greater streamlined security processes

How does the ZTNA client identify itself to the ZTNA access proxy?

Select one:
Using a network user ID and password
Using device-specific information
Using a MAC address
Using a digital certificate

Which network device can function as a ZTNA access proxy?

Select one:
Policy server
Router
Firewall
Authentication server

Which statement best describes the zero-trust approach that is the basis for ZTNA
design?

Select one:
Remote devices and users cannot be trusted.
IoT and BYOD devices must be authenticated before they are trusted.
No device or user can be trusted inside or outside the network.
After devices are authenticated, they are always trusted.

What is a benefit of the ZTNA access proxy?

Select one:
Limits connections to on-premises clients
Protects servers and resources
Accelerates speed throughput
Simplifies network administration

Which type of information or object can be embedded in a ZTNA tag?

Select one:
Security posture of the device
Encrypted user ID and password
Client digital certificate
Authentication token
What is an example of SaaS?

Select one:
Google mail
OS patching
AWS
FortiWeb

Identify the correct description for IaaS.

Select one:
Allows you to rent virtualized data infrastructure without having to physically manage
it on premises
Integrates multi-cloud environments with the on-premises network
Provides an online platform for developing software delivered over the internet
Allows you to rent, or use for free, software, like Google Mail

Who has ultimate responsibility for the safety of the customer’s data and services
hosted in the cloud?

Select one:
The customer
The cloud security syndicate
The Interpol cloud security service
The cloud service provider

Which two cloud services are types of cloud computing? (Choose two.)
Select one or more:
Integration as a Service (IaaS)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Security as a Service (SaaS)

Complete the sentence. Cloud computing is the practice of

Select one:
simultaneously running multiple datacenters using centralized mainframe computing.
connecting various computers and other network devices together using switches and
routers.
using a network of remote servers hosted on the internet to store, manage, and
process data.
building LANs comprised of virtual servers and connected by routers to form a virtual WAN.

What does the term “Thin Edge” refer to?

Select one:
Remote users
A poorly protected network
An organization that consumes little to no cloud-based services
branch locations with minimal security that are attached to a core network

Which two cloud capabilities are combined to deliver SASE? (Choose two)

Select one or more:

Security-as-a-Service
API-as-a-Service
Network-as-a-Service
Database-as-a-Service

For network security, which three challenges have emerged as a result of rapid and
disruptive digital innovation? (Choose three)

Select one or more:

Evolving compliance requirements
Too few security vendors to choose from
Resistance to multi-cloud adoption from the enterprise
Expanding attack surface
Growing number of off-network users accessing the central data center, without
proper security

What are three core capabilities of SASE? (Choose three)

Select one or more:

Next-Generation firewall
Threat intelligence sharing
Zero-Trust network access
Data loss prevention
Security Fabric management

What is a result of outdated network security solutions requiring all traffic running
through the core data center for inspection?

Select one:

Higher capital expenditure

Decreased time for event analysis and remediation

Increased deployment time

Latency