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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each

of the following exchanges.


Question 1:
Lan and Mai are discussing a recent movie.
- Lan: “The horror movie Exhuma in theaters is truly terrifying.”
- Mai: “_________. It made my hair stand on end.”
A. I beg to differ. B. I don’t think so.
C. I can’t say I liked it. D. That’s for sure.
Question 2: Lily is thanking her neighbor Tom for watering her plants while she was on vacation.
- Lily: “I'm so grateful for you watering my plants, Tom.”
- Tom: “_________.”
A. That’s alright. B. Never mind.
C. Glad to help. D. I’m sorry.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Bao Lam always tries to prove that he is _______ than Hieu.
A. more handsome B. as handsome C. the more handsome D. the most handsome
Question 4: Mai Phuong garnered significant public _______ when she went to India to compete in the
Miss World 2023 beauty pageant in early February.
A. encouraging B. courageous C. encourage D. encouragement
Question 5: The new regulations have brought about improvements, _______ to efficiency among the
employees.
A. to lead B. led C. leading D. are led
Question 6: My sister went to _______ United States to pursue higher education and broaden her cultural
experiences.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: After years of traveling and exploring different cities, Mark decided it was time to _______
and start a family in his hometown.
A. drop out B. settle down C. take on D. turn off
Question 8: The new advertising campaign _______ positively by foodies across social media
platforms.
A. has been praised B. was praising C. has praised D. praised
Question 9: I would advise ________ the hiking trail if you enjoy outdoor activities.
A. try B. to try C. trying D. to trying
Question 10: Students are required to submit their assignments online, ________?
A. don’t they B. are they C. aren’t they D. do they
Question 11: After completing her training, she felt confident and ________ in her new role as a project
manager.
A. respectful B. sensitive C. competent D. insecure
Question 12: Peter ________ the homework before he went to bed.
A. was finishing B. has watched C. finishes D. had finished
Question 13: The cashier detected the ________ money and immediately alerted the authorities.
A. counterfeit B. artificial C. mock D. fake
Question 14: The musician will release her album ________.
A. as soon as she had recorded the final track B. as soon as she will record the final track
C. as soon as she records the final track D. as soon as she recorded the final track
Question 15: Thai Cong selling his old household items at exorbitant prices has ________ the
A. caught B. given C. paid D. brought
Question 16: Mary’s completely crazy ________ trying out different recipes in the kitchen.
A. for B. about C. at D. in
Question 17: As the lightning struck, he turned as ________ as a ghost, terrified by the sudden flash
and loud thunder.
A. red B. blue C. white D. black

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. homage B. honor C. honey D. herald
Question 19: A. think B. mice C. improve D. children

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. intervene B. understand C. determine D. overwhelm
Question 21: A. happen B. police C. tutor D. money

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Regular exercise is vital for maintaining good physical and mental health.
A. indispensable B. essential C. unnecessary D. compulsory
Question 23: Realizing the gravity of the situation, he decided to roll up his sleeves and tackle the
problem head-on.
A. prolong the deadline B. avoid responsibility C. delegate the task D. confront the challenge

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Her excellent communication skills gave her an edge over other job candidates.
A. impediment B. drawback C. advantage D. motivation
Question 25: The HR team planned a meeting to address any issues brought up by the employees.
A. avoid B. reform C. resolve D. maintain

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
People have been recording information in the form of writing since ancient times, Latin - the
language of religion, and French - the language of the rich and powerful, were the preferred languages
in the Middle Ages in Europe. Subjects were usually connected to religion, trade and government
although historians have also come across love letters which (26) _________ people wrote to stay in
touch. After the invention of the printing press, books and documents became readily (27) _________.
This, together with improvements in education and the spread of postal services, permitted families and
friends to (28) _________ messages to each other by letters. Maintaining contact was much easier than
it had ever been.
In recent years, though, everything has changed. Mobile phones, emails and text messages (29)
_________ have been increasingly popular are replacing letters. Why bother writing a letter when you
can make a small talk on the phone for very little cost? (30) _________, most people would agree that
there is something very special about receiving a handwritten letter.
(Adapted from High Note)

Question 26: A. many B. each C. every D. another


Question 27: A. available B. constant C. vacant D. occupied
Question 28: A. expand B. transform C. lengthen D. convey
Question 29:A. when B. where C. who D. which
Question 30:A. Although B. Moreover C. However D. Because

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The Japanese love inventing and they are very good at it. But there is one inventor who has
invented more things than anyone else in Japan - Dr. Nakamats. He has designed over 4,000 new
inventions over the last fifty years. He is most well-known for his unusual inventions.
He designed many strange things such as glasses which look like eyes so you can’t notice them,
shoes which have steel springs so that you can jump in them, and a pillow which stops you from falling
asleep when you are driving.
How does he come up with these ideas? He finds listening to Beethoven helpful. But the thing
that makes him most creative is holding his breath underwater. He dives into his swimming pool every
day and stays underwater as long as he can. He believes that less oxygen in the brain is good for new
ideas. He also dives with a pencil and a notebook which he invented. He needs to write down his ideas
immediately in the water because they disappear quickly.
Dr. Nakamats believes that eating the right food is important for creativity, and he has invented
some snacks that he says are good for your brain. He has also invented an armchair which helps to
enhance your brainpower. He sits in the chair every day to give him more good ideas. Dr. Nakamats is
now in his eighties, but he plans to live until he is 144 years old, so he still has plenty of time to develop
even more new ideas.
(Adapted from Get Ahead)
Question 31: The passage is mainly about ______.
A. inventions by famous Japanese inventors
B. Japanese famous inventions by a scientist
C. a famous Japanese scientist and his strange inventions
D. famous Japanese scientists and their more inventions
Question 32: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. Japan B. notebook C. inventing D. invention
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, Dr. Nakamats invented all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. glasses B. shoes C. a pillow D. a book
Question 34: Dr. Nakamats dives with a pencil and a notebook because ______.
A. he can dive more quickly B. he wants to write down his ideas immediately
C. he wants to get oxygen quickly D. he can drive more carefully
Question 35: The word “enhance” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reduce B. decrease C. divide D. improve
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Action movies are exciting and a lot of fun to watch, but they also involve scenes of great risk
and danger. In the language of filmmaking, dangerous actions are called stunts. Who performs these
stunts? This work is too dangerous for regular actors. Movie companies usually hire special stunt people
to stand in for the actors in scenes that are unsafe.
Movie producers don’t like to let actors do their own stunt work. If the actors injure themselves,
it can delay the production schedule. Using stunt people also saves time. Most stunt people have years
of experience, which enables them to perform their stunts with a minimum of risk. It would take too
long to train the actors to perform dangerous scenes safely.
Some people who love the thrill of dangerous sports such as skydiving or rock climbing think it
would be easy to work as a stunt person. But it isn’t enough to be a risk-taker. Stunt performers also
have to know what to do if anything goes wrong.
In addition to risk-taking and meticulous attention to detail and planning, stunt work requires
being in top physical condition. Although there are a few training programmes for stunt performers,
most provide only an overview of the profession. Normally, the people who attend these programmes
already have experience in dangerous sports, rescue work, or the military. So the best way to prepare for
a career in stunt work is to train in an area that involves strong physical conditioning and has an element
of physical danger.
Modern filmmaking techniques have changed the way some dangerous scenes are filmed. For
example, computer-generated images make it possible to show stunts that would be too dangerous or
expensive for real stunt people to perform. Computer-generated images are often used today to create
big fight scenes, car crashes, and explosions. However, they are not always the best choice. Many
audiences want to see real people perform actual stunts. Also, the rising popularity of made-for-TV
movies around the world ensures that there is still plenty for stunt people in the film industry.
(Adapted from Strategic Reading)

Question 36: Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. Stunt work is dangerous and needs to be performed by skilled and strong people.
B. Action movies sometimes comprise non-dangerous work undertaken by the supporting cast.
C. Movie companies use technology for stunts instead of stunt performers.
D. Stunt people have to be physically fit to perform dangerous actions.
Question 37: In the language of filmmaking, stunts are ________.
A. dangerous actions B. regular actors C. action movies D. exciting scenes
Question 38: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. movie producers B. movie actors C. movie scenes D. stunt people
Question 39: The word “thrill” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. convenience B. consequence C. excitement D. arrangement
Question 40: The word “meticulous” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. careful B. harmful C. helpful D. useful
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Movie stunts are often performed by the main actors.
B. Stunt people are hired mostly to undertake dangerous scenes.
C. Stunt performers normally have certain experience in related fields.
D. Stunts need to be performed with great care.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Stunts play an indispensable role in the success of made-for-TV movies.
B. Film directors can take advantage of TV scenes in their movies.
C. Audiences prefer computer-generated images to stunts performed by real people.
D. Modem technology may assist in reducing the cost of film production.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: She missed the bus. She arrived late for the meeting.
A. If she hadn’t missed the bus, she wouldn’t have arrived late for the meeting.
B. If she hadn’t missed the bus, she won’t have arrived late for the meeting.
C. If she hadn’t missed the bus, she will have arrived late for the meeting.
D. If she hadn’t missed the bus, she would have arrived late for the meeting.
Question 44: Tom finished his assignment. He rewarded himself with a slice of cake.
A. No sooner had Tom finished his assignment when he rewarded himself with a slice of cake.
B. Not until Tom finished his assignment did he reward himself with a slice of cake.
C. Only after Tom rewarded himself with a slice of cake did he finish his assignment.
D. Had it not been for Tom's completion of his assignment, he would have been rewarded with a slice
of cake.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: Wechoice is a platform where people can vote for influential figures without having to pay
for them.
A. is B. platform C. influential D. them
Question 46: The company has made appreciative progress in expanding its market share over the
last fiscal quarter.
A. appreciative B. expanding C. share D. fiscal
Question 47: Nowadays, teachers always try to provide their students with history lessons that is not
boring.
A. try B. their C. history D. is
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: You will be suspended from the exam if you cheat during the test.
A. You shouldn’t cheat during the test, and you will be suspended from the exam.
B. You mustn’t cheat during the test, or you will be suspended from the exam.
C. You can’t cheat during the test, although you will be suspended from the exam.
D. You don’t have to cheat during the test, because you will be suspended from the exam.
Question 49: Vu started to study for his Microeconomics exam a few hours ago.
A. The last time Vu studied for his Microeconomics exam was a few hours ago.
B. Vu has been studying for his Microeconomics exam for a few hours.
C. It’s a few hours ago since Vu last studied for his Microeconomics exam.
D. Vu has studied for his Microeconomics exam for a few hours ago.
Question 50: “Don't forget to take the practice exam before the deadline,” my teacher said.
A. My teacher threatened us to take the practice exam before the deadline.
B. My teacher begged me us take the practice exam before the deadline.
C. My teacher reminded us to take the practice exam before the deadline.
D. My teacher encouraged us to take the practice exam before the deadline.
_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Trung and Hoa are discussing a recent concert.
- Trung: “The live performance of Ngot was exceptional.”
- Hoa: “_______. The musicians showcased incredible talent.”
A. You can say that again. B. I don’t think so.
C. I beg to differ. D. It’s nice of you to say so.
Question 2: Tom and Emily are at a restaurant.
- Tom: “What are you planning to order, Emily?”
- Emily: “_______.”
A. Yes, I’m feeling cold. B. I’ll have the steak, please.
C. No, I don’t like the music. D. Sorry, I’m not sure.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Sam is _______ runner on the team.
A. the faster B. the most fast C. the fastest D. the more fast
Question 4: The team members knew their _______ roles and collaborated effectively to complete the
project on time.
A. respectable B. respect C. respective D. respectful
Question 5: M-TP’s song “Chung ta cua tuong lai,” _______ on March 8, has secured the number one
position on social music platforms.
A. is released B. releasing C. released D. to release
Question 6: Many young people these days stay up late, wake up late, and skip _______ breakfast.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: She decided to _______ all her old clothes to charity to help those in need.
A. turn down B. give away C. bring about D. pay off
Question 8: Sadly, Vietnam _______ completely from the AFC Asian Cup right in the group stage.
A. eliminates B. was eliminating C. has eliminated D. was eliminated
Question 9: Mary decided to try _______ for the first time during her winter vacation.
A. to ski B. skiing C. ski D. to skiing
Question 10: You went to Hoa Lo Prison yesterday morning, _______?
A. were you B. weren’t you C. didn’t you D. did you
Question 11: The new scientific research profoundly _______ our understanding of climate change
effects on marine ecosystems.
A. amplified B. dampened C. mimicked D. obscured
Question 12: Double2T _______ with numerous singers in music projects since his victory in Rap
Viet Season 3.
A. is collaborating B. collaborates C. was collaborating D. has collaborated
Question 13: The doctor decided to _______ and provide immediate medical attention to the injured
hiker.
A. interrupt B. intervene C. intercede D. interfere
Question 14: I will help you with your homework _______.
A. once I had completed my tasks B. by the time I completed my tasks
C. as soon as I complete my tasks D. when I was completing my tasks
Question 15: After the CEO was caught embezzling company funds, the board decided to ______ an
example of him by firing him publicly to deter others from engaging in similar misconduct.
A. make B. set C. follow D. give
Question 16: Being a tech enthusiast, Alex was familiar ______ the latest gadgets and software updates.
A. to B. with C. about D. to
Question 17: Amidst a trend of milk tea brands lowering prices to attract more customers, KOI Thé
______ by maintaining its prices.
A. moves with the time B. toes the line C. bucks the trend D. goes with the flow

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. character B. challenge C. school D. chemist
Question 19: A. study B. puppy C. occupy D. ready

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. previous B. condition C. government D. fortunate
Question 21: A. nation B. moment C. apply D. comfort

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The bride looked absolutely stunning in her white gown as she walked down the aisle
toward her groom
A. embarrassed B. beautiful C. confident D. ugly
Question 23: Y Nhi has matured significantly after facing numerous criticisms from the public.
A. commendations B. approval C. condemnations D. assistance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: After the hectic day, she took a quiet moment to compose her thoughts before making any
decisions.
A. collect B. disturb C. calm D. settle
Question 25: After receiving a low score on his exam, John decided not to throw in the towel and
instead focused on improving his study habits.
A. lose hope B. admit defeat C. keep trying D. keep calm

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Getting work experience is a good way for young people who are still at school to see whether
they would enjoy a particular career. Future employers like to know about their work experience (26)
_________ they think is important for them in the process of recruiting employees. And young people
get the chance to consider (27) _________ possibilities for a future career with working professionals.
In addition, they will find these professionals’ advice specially helpful when thinking about the different
choices they will have to (28) _________.
Work experience often involves uncomfortable situations, (29) _________ people who are in
such situations can learn how to behave appropriately in front of clients and how to respond to things in
the workplace. Appearance is also important and they need to dress suitably whether they are going for
a job as an engineer or an IT specialist, or a job which is perhaps less technical but equally (30)
_________, such as medical doctor or a teacher.
(Adapted from Complete First for Schools)

Question 26:A. who B. which C. when D. where


Question 27:A. each B. many C. none D. one
Question 28: A. build B. fill C. do D. make
Question 29: A. nor B. for C. but D. either
Question 30: A. confusing B. commanding C. demanding D. understanding

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Device-centred communication has become almost universal over the past twenty years. More
than three quarters of people in the world now own a mobile device, and more than half communicate
via social networking.
It is now hard to imagine a world without mobile devices consisting of such things as mobile
phones, laptops and tablets. They allow us to stay in touch with a large network of friends, no matter
where they are. But many experts say that communicating with a device is nothing like talking with
someone in person. “Body language, eye contact and tone of voice can tell us so much,” psychologist
Mary Peters says. “And none of those exist on a device. Even video chat removes many subtle clues.”
We don’t know to what extent these technologies will permanently change the way people
interact. People will always want to meet up with others in small and large groups. Indeed, it is fair to
say that social media makes it easier than ever before for people to organise social events. However,
there is still a danger that device-centred communication may have a negative long-term impact on the
way people interact with each other on a day-to-day basis.
We must not, therefore, lose sight of the need to focus on the actual people around us, and
remember that they deserve our real – not virtual – attention. The idea of a culture where people always
have a screen between them sounds a bit funny, because deep understanding comes when we see the
reactions on other people’s faces.
(Adapted from Solutions)
Question 31: The passage is mainly about ______.
A. the development of device-centred communication
B. the impact of device-centred communication
C. the definition of device-centred communication
D. the misunderstanding of device-centred communication
Question 32: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. mobile phones B. tablets C. mobile devices D. laptops
Question 33: In paragraph 2, in her statement about the advantages of communicating in person, Mary
Peters mentioned all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. body language B. eye contact C. handshake D. tone of voice
Question 34: The word “meet up” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. come down B. get together C. get away D. come away
Question 35: According to paragraph 4, deep understanding appears when ______.
A. we communicate through social networking B. we interact with modern technology
C. we care about our virtual friends D. we see the reactions on the faces of other people

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
A recent survey into how teenagers in a Southeast Asian country spend their free time has come
up with what some people regard as a surprising finding: many of those surveyed reported that they
would rather stay at home and do things indoors than go out and experience real-life adventures. One in
four teenagers surveyed believed that online experiences were as fulfilling as real life, and more than
half were actually afraid of trying new experiences. When asked about their most memorable experience
over the previous ten months, nearly 30% of boys said ‘playing a new video game’, while 10% of all
teenagers said it was watching a new TV series. On asking for more detailed information, researchers
found that 20% of boys and 22% of girls said they had never had a real-life adventure.
It would be easy to blame technological advances for these findings. After all, today’s teenagers
have many more indoor activities to choose from than did their parents. About half a century ago,
children were expected to spend more of their free time outside. But researchers do not put the blame
wholly on technology.
To members of older generations, these findings are worrying, because it means that young
people increasingly rely on virtual reality and are consequently missing out on real outdoor activities
such as mountain climbing, kayaking, etc., which have always been regarded as both enjoyable and
character- building. The surveyed adults said they thought today’s youth were more protected than they
had been when they were growing up. Giving examples of this protection, more than half said they would
not let their teenage children hitchhike or go on holiday without an adult. Seven in ten said they would
not even allow teenagers to get into a taxi on their own. It is not clear whether adults believe the world
is more dangerous than it used to be or whether they do not trust today’s youngsters to look after
themselves.
(Adapted from Cambridge English First for Schools)

Question 36: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Thorough research on teenagers’ online games and outdoor activities
B. Teenagers’ free-time activity preferences and adults’ concerns
C. Viewpoints on teenagers’ free-time adventures and online games
D. Fears and tensions encountered by teenagers and adults’ concerns
Question 37: The word “fulfilling” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. frightening B. satisfying C. devastating D. discouraging
Question 38: The word “advances” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. movements B. advantages C. barriers D. developments
Question 39: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. outdoor activities B. young people C. older generations D. surveyed adults
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, the older generations are worried about __________.
A. the young’s preferences for outdoor activities B. the young’s reliance on virtual reality
C. the young’s ignorance about virtual reality D. the young’s lack of indoor activities
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. One fourth of the surveyed teenagers believed online experiences in their free time were as
pleasing as real life.
B. The older generations surveyed thought that today’s teenagers were more protected than they had
been.
C. The majority of teenagers surveyed enjoyed real outdoor activities in their leisure time.
D. Researchers do not put all the blame on technology for causing teenagers’ lack of real-life
experiences.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Many adults think that the present world is as dangerous as it used to be.
B. Many adults are doubtful about their children’s ability to take care of themselves.
C. Virtual life is considered to be more and more challenging for teenagers in the present world.
D. The majority of teenagers surveyed believed virtual reality was as interesting as the real life.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: Sarah missed her flight. She didn’t arrive at the conference on time.
A. If Sarah hadn’t missed her flight, she can’t have arrived at the conference on time.
B. If Sarah hadn’t missed her flight, she could have arrived at the conference on time.
C. If Sarah hadn’t missed her flight, she can have arrived at the conference on time.
D. If Sarah hadn’t missed her flight, she couldn’t have arrived at the conference on time.
Question 44: Tom had just finished his project. He celebrated with his colleagues at a nice restaurant.
A. Only after Tom celebrated with his colleagues at a nice restaurant did he finish his project.
B. Had it not been for Tom’s finishing his project, he would have celebrated with his colleagues at a
nice restaurant.
C. Scarcely had Tom finished his project when he celebrated with his colleagues at a nice restaurant.
D. Not until Tom celebrated with his colleagues at a nice restaurant did he finish his project.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: The WHO strives to improve healthcare infrastructure and facilitate disease prevention
and control measures for their member nations.
A. strives B. facilitate C. control D. their
Question 46: In academic settings, imaginary students who demonstrate competent research skills often
felicitate their peers with innovative and insightful perspectives during group discussions.
A. imaginary B. competent C. felicitate D. insightful
Question 47: Wren Evans, the creative force behind numerous catchy songs, have garnered
attention recently with his album ‘Loi Choi.’
A. force B. numerous C. have D. his
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Taking part in vocational activities this weekend is mandatory for students.
A. Students should take part in vocational activities this weekend.
B. Students need take part in vocational activities this weekend.
C. Students must take part in vocational activities this weekend.
D. Students can take part in vocational activities this weekend.
Question 49: The last time Sarah visited her grandparents was during the summer vacation.
A. Sarah has visited her grandparents during the summer vacation.
B. Sarah hasn’t visited her grandparents since the summer vacation.
C. Sarah started visiting her grandparents during the summer vacation.
D. Sarah didn’t visit her grandparents for the summer vacation.
Question 50: “I will be attending the conference next week,” said Mia.
A. Mia said that I would be attending the conference the next week.
B. Mia said that she would be attending the conference next week.
C. Mia said that she would be attending the conference the following week.
D. Mia said that I would attending the conference the following week.
_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Michael and Sarah are discussing a new restaurant they tried last night.
- Michael: “The food at that new Italian restaurant was absolutely delicious.”
- Sarah: “_______. I particularly enjoyed the pasta dishes.”
A. I’m afraid I have to disagree. B. I beg to differ.
C. You can say that again. D. It’s nice of you to say so.
Question 2: Jake and Emma are discussing plans for the weekend.
- Jake: “What do you feel like doing, Emma?”
- Emma: “_______.”
A. That sounds great. B. Let’s go for a hike in the mountains.
C. Yes, I’m feeling tired. D. No, I don’t like spicy food.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: She is _______ as her sister in playing the piano.
A. as talented B. the most talented C. more talented D. the more talented
Question 4: The chef used her _______ to turn leftover vegetables into a delicious soup.
A. creature B. creation C. creativity D. creative
Question 5: The book I bought yesterday, _______ by my friend, turned out to be an inspiring read.
A. recommended B. to recommend C. is recommended D. recommending
Question 6: Students face _______ six-day school week, with additional classes even on Sundays.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: Several university students _______ each year due to financial constraints and academic
challenges.
A. come across B. take off C. look after D. drop out
Question 8: The project _______ by the team within the given deadline.
A. was completing B. has completed C. completes D. was completed
Question 9: They planned _______ to Yen Bai to admire the breathtaking terrace fields in Mu Cang
Chai.
A. to travel B. traveling C. travel D. to traveling
Question 10: You finished reading that book last night, _______?
A. do you B. don’t you C. didn’t you D. did you
Question 11: The unexpected turn of events significantly _______ our plans for the weekend.
A. concealed B. replicated C. disrupted D. enhanced
Question 12: I came across an old photo album when I _______ out the attic.
A. is cleaning B. cleans C. was cleaning D. has cleaned
Question 13: The tropical rainforest is home to a diverse range of _______, including monkeys, birds,
and insects.
A. residents B. inhabitants C. citizens D. dwellers
Question 14: I’ll meet you at the cafe _______.
A. after I have finish my workout B. once I finished my workout
C. while I’m finishing my workout D. when I had finished my workout
Question 15: During the brainstorming session, Sarah decided to _______ a suggestion regarding the
upcoming project timeline.
A. make B. keep C. set D. give
Question 16: Students are worried _______ the newly announced national exam schedule, set for June
26th and 27th
A. with B. for C. about D. of
Question 17: After careful financial management, the company managed to turn a profit and was finally
in the _______.
A. pink B. red C. black D. dark

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. thought B. thorough C. though D. through
Question 19: A. tasty B. danger C. various D. famous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. introduce B. evident C. regulate D. organize
Question 21: A. include B. happen C. occur D. prefer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Health officials worked tirelessly to contain the outbreak of COVID-19 in the affected
regions.
A. maintain B. spread C. constraint D. restrict
Question 23: Sarah grew tired of dealing with her fickle friend, who constantly changed plans at the last
minute.
A. unpredictable B. consistent C. unreliable D. changeable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The unexpected findings from the study greatly challenged the initial hypothesis about
the effectiveness of the treatment.
A. reinforced B. contradicted C. confirmed D. validated
Question 25: Instead of calmly addressing the minor issue, John tends to make a mountain of a
molehill, causing unnecessary stress for everyone involved.
A. create a fuss B. downplay the issue C. remain calm D. magnify the issue

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Keeping fit and healthy may seem difficult, but there are a few easy-to-follow guidelines. Firstly,
a balanced diet (26) _________ means selecting food that is low in salt and sugar is absolutely essential.
Experts recommend reducing the amount of fat in our diet, as too much can (27) _________ heart
problems.
Secondly, it is important to (28) _________ exercise into your daily routine. This can be done
by simply walking as much as possible and climbing stairs instead of taking the lift. Exercise is necessary
to maintain a healthy body, as well as increasing energy levels and making you feel generally fitter and
happier.
Finally, staying relaxed is (29) _________ reason for good health. Too much stress can lead to a
variety of illnesses, from headaches to high blood pressure. Whenever possible, do things you enjoy and
treat yourself occasionally. (30) _________, the message is simple - enjoy yourself but learn to respect
your body too. It’s all a question of getting a balance right.
(Adapted from FCE Use of English)
Question 26:A. who B. when C. whose D. which
Question 27:A. solve B. improve C. prevent D. cause
Question 28:A. fit B. match C. use D. search
Question 29:A. few B. another C. many D. much
Question 30:A. So B. Or C. Although D. Since

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Sweden can be one of the first countries to stop using cash. In most cities, buses do not take any
cash. Instead, you pay for your ticket by card or mobile phone before you get on. Some businesses only
take cards and there are banks which do not deal with any notes or coins.
Sweden can be one of the first countries to stop using cash. In most cities, buses do not take any
cash. Instead, you pay for your ticket by card or mobile phone before you get on. Some businesses only
take cards and there are banks which do not deal with any notes or coins.
In a cashless society, you do not need to worry about having enough change for the bus. You
will feel much more secure as well. Statistics show that since the decrease in the cash economy, there is
not as much crime in Sweden.
However, not all Swedes like the idea. Elderly people complain much about the problems of
paying by card. Small businesses are also unhappy because they have to pay a little money to the bank
each time somebody pays them using a card.
It is not just richer countries that are becoming cashless. Many countries in the developing world
have found that mobile phones are perfect for transferring money. For example, in Kenya, only a few
people have a bank account, but lots of Kenyans have a mobile phone. Now people can pay for things
in shops, pay their bills and their children’s school fees, and receive their salary with their phones. Kenya
has led a revolution in mobile banking.
(Adapted from Navigate)
Question 31: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Bank Notes Then Cash? B. Why Once Again Sweden?
C. The End of Cash? D. A New Currency Unit for Kenya?
Question 32: According to the passage, in a cashless society, __________.
A. people will travel more by bus B. elderly people will become more active
C. you will feel much safer D. businesses will earn more money
Question 33: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. the problems B. all Swedes C. small businesses D. elderly people
Question 34: The word “revolution” in paragraph 4 mostly means __________.
A. an important change B. an unsuccessful attempt
C. a frequent movement D. a violent struggle
Question 35: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. People in Sweden can pay for bus tickets by mobile phone.
B. Few people in Kenya own a mobile phone.
C. People in Kenya can pay school fees with their phones.
D. Sweden may be among the first countries to stop using cash.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
It is often held that technology in general does little to help family relationships as, in many
cases, family members are more interested in their smartphones and the TV than they are in each other.
Before smartphones, the TV was blamed the most for breakdowns in communication between parents
and children. It was argued that ‘the box’ stopped them from talking to each other, and clashes between
family members over what programmes to watch created barriers and caused resentment.
However, TV programmes can be both informative and entertaining. They often provide topics
for family members to discuss, bringing them closer together rather than driving them further apart.
What is more, twenty-first century families do not need to watch the same programme at the same time.
The fact that people can watch what they want results in more time for families to be together rather than
less.
The smartphone has taken over from the TV as the major reason for a lack of communication
between family members. Parents often do not see why their children spend so much time online and
fail to see the importance of having an online identity while most teens feel their online image is part of
who they are. They often criticise the amount of time their children spend online rather than attempting
to understand why they do it. In fact, adults are often not very good examples themselves. Who has not
witnessed a table at a restaurant where all the family members are silently focused on their mobile
devices?
Broadly speaking, smartphones do have some negative effects on family relationships. This
technology is still relatively new, so many families have not yet learned how to deal with it. Parents and
children should discuss how they use technology to help them all make the most of technology instead
of blaming it for their problems.
(Adapted from High Note)

Question 36: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. How to Deal with Generation Gap in the Family
B. How Technology Affects Family Relationships
C. Negative Impacts of Technology on Schoolchildren
D. TV and Smartphone as Means of Communication
Question 37: The word “clashes” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. chances B. benefits C. arguments D. worries
Question 38: According to paragraph 1, the TV ________.
A. makes family members become more interested in each other
B. is often believed to be greatly helpful in fostering family bonds
C. encouraged more communication among family members
D. was claimed to prevent parents from conversing with children
Question 39: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. family members B. barriers C. topics D. TV programmes
Question 40: The word “negative” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. positive B. minimal C. interesting D. harmful
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The lack of communication in the family is now mostly blamed on the TV.
B. The majority of teenagers regard their online image as important to their identity.
C. The TV can serve as a source of both information and entertainment.
D. Parents and children should work on how to utilise technology to their advantage.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most families prefer talking to one another to using smartphones in restaurants.
B. Twenty-first century families are generally not in favor of watching television together.
C. Parents in the past did not criticise their children for watching too much television.
D. A lot of families are still incapable of making good use of smartphones.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: John forgot his presentation materials. He couldn’t give his speech at the seminar.
A. If John hadn’t forgotten his presentation materials, he could have given his speech at the seminar.
B. If John hadn’t forgotten his presentation materials, he can have given his speech at the seminar.
C. If John hadn’t forgotten his presentation materials, he couldn’t have given his speech at the
seminar.
D. If John hadn’t forgotten his presentation materials, he can’t have given his speech at the seminar.
Question 44: Emily finished writing her novel. She decided to take a vacation to the mountains.
A. Scarcely had Emily finished writing her novel than she decided to take a vacation to the mountains.
B. Had it not been for Emily’s decision to take a vacation to the mountains, she would have finished
writing her novel.
C. Only after Emily finished writing her novel did she decide to take a vacation to the mountains.
D. Not until Emily decided to take a vacation to the mountains did she finish writing her novel.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: It seemed unlikely that the debt would ever be repaid, so we simply forgot about them.
A. unlikely B. repaid C. simply D. them
Question 46: The collaboration between the two departments resulted in a comprehensible report that
thoroughly highlighted their complementary strengths and expertise.
A. departments B. comprehensible C. thoroughly D. complementary
Question 47: My sister always dedicate her evenings to tutoring underprivileged children at the
community center.
A. dedicate B. her C. underprivileged D. community
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Completing the online safety training module is compulsory for all new employees.
A. New employees should complete the online safety training module.
B. New employees must complete the online safety training module.
C. New employees can complete the online safety training module.
D. New employees will complete the online safety training module.
Question 49: The last time John attended a concert was at the end of last year.
A. John didn’t attend a concert for the end of last year.
B. John has attended a concert at the end of last year.
C. John hasn’t attended a concert since the end of last year.
D. John started attending a concert at the end of last year.
Question 50: “I will provide you with 5 million dong per month to care for our child,” Jack said to An.
A. Jack said to An that I would provide you with 5 million dong per month to care for our child.
B. Jack told An that he would provide her with 5 million dong per month to care for their child.
C. Jack said An that he would provide her with 5 million dong per month to care for their child.
D. Jack told An that I would provide you with 5 million dong per month to care for our child.
_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Laura and James are discussing the best mode of transportation for their upcoming trip.
- Laura: “I think we should take the train. It’s eco-friendly and scenic.”
- James: “__________. I believe driving would be more convenient and flexible.”
A. I quite agree. B. I don’t think so.
C. You can say that again. D. It’s nice of you to say so.
Question 2: Tom is at Jane’s house.
- Jane: “Would you like something to eat, Tom?”
- Tom: “_________.”
A. No, I’m not hungry. B. Yes, I’d like to watch a movie.
C. Pizza, please. D. Sure, I’ll help with the dishes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: The blue whale is significantly _______ than any other mammal on Earth.
A. the most large B. the largest C. larger D. the larger
Question 4: Foreigners are often impressed by the _______ of Vietnamese people.
A. friendly B. friendship C. befriend D. friendliness
Question 5: The girl _______ late to class yesterday was reprimanded by the teacher.
A. to arrive B. arrived C. arriving D. was arrived
Question 6: Last month, Mia bought _______ piano to fulfill her lifelong dream of learning to play
music.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: Ha Khau sausages have _______ recently, with hundreds of people eagerly buying and
enjoying them.
A. called off B. caught on C. gone over D. broken down
Question 8: Receiving a one-year suspended sentence for disrupting public order, Ngoc Trinh _______
free afterwards with a two-year probation.
A. was setting B. has set C. sets D. was set
Question 9: Many young people looked forward _______ the event hosted by the Ninh Anh Bui couple
at the shopping mall.
A. attending B. attend C. to attending D. to attend
Question 10: Young people shouldn’t use social networks excessively, _______?
A. should they B. shouldn’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 11: Initially, she was _______ about beginning her new job, uncertain about the challenges
that awaited her.
A. indifferent B. dedicated C. apprehensive D. disinterested
Question 12: While I was drinking milk tea, Nhi _______ hard for the exam.
A. is studying B. studied C. was studying D. studies
Question 13: His discriminatory remark against the LGBT+ community _______ harsh criticism from
the public.
A. evoked B. provoked C. revoked D. invoked
Question 14: Isla will call her parents _______.
A. by the time she will go to bed B. once she had gone to bed
C. as soon as she went to bed D. before she goes to bed
Question 15: After hours of studying, he decided to _______ a break and go for a walk in the park.
A. lay B. take C. make D. catch
Question 16: According _______ the weather forecast, it’s going to rain heavily tomorrow afternoon.
A. for B. with C. at D. to
Question 17: After years of hard work, Jack finally _______ when his innovative idea turned into a
successful business venture.
A. kicked the bucket B. cut corners C. hit the jackpot D. burned bridges

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. machine B. beach C. achieve D. teach
Question 19: A. light B. right C. knife D. live

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. advertise B. general C. attention D. interview
Question 21: A. forget B. permit C. enjoy D. receive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The city implemented various measures to mitigate the effects of air pollution on its
residents’ health.
A. worsen B. reduce C. improve D. increase
Question 23: Professor Johnson is a distinguished scholar in the field of astrophysics, known for his
groundbreaking research.
A. similar B. prominent C. different D. ordinary

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The economic downturn led to a period of stagnation, with little growth or development
in the market.
A. reconstruction B. maintenance C. standstill D. advancement
Question 25: John visits his hometown only once in a blue moon, as he now lives abroad.
A. occasionally B. virtually C. frequently D. locally

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Imagine you are buying an apple in a supermarket. Which do you choose, one with a small
brown mark, or one without? Be honest - you’d go for the apple (26) _________ looks perfect.
Supermarkets do this too, but on a much larger scale when buying fruit and vegetables from farmers.
And what (27) _________ of the ones with marks on them? They are thrown away. So are the ones that
are a funny shape or size.
(28) _________ reason for waste is that people buy more food than they can eat and
supermarkets do everything they can to encourage this, for example with offers like ‘Buy one, get one
free’. Developed countries waste about 650 million tons of food each year and so do developing
countries. (29) _________, the waste happens for very different reasons. As the world’s population
grows, this problem will only (30) _________, so we need to take action urgently.
(Adapted from Navigate)
Question 26: A. when B. who C. whose D. which
Question 27: A. happens B. depends C. applies D. becomes
Question 28: A. Few B. Another C. Other D. Many
Question 29: A. As a result B. For example C. Although D. However
Question 30: A. adjust B. worsen C. improve D. postpone
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The concept of traffic-free shopping areas goes back a long time. During the Middle Ages,
traffic-free shopping areas were built in Middle Eastern countries to allow people to shop in comfort
and, more importantly, safety. As far back as 2000 years ago, road traffic was banned from central Rome
during the day to allow for the free movement of pedestrians.
The modern, traffic-free shopping street was born in Europe in the 1960s, when both city
populations and car ownership increased rapidly. Dirty exhaust from cars and the risks involved in
crossing the road were beginning to make shopping an unpleasant and dangerous experience. Many
believed the time was right for experimenting with car-free streets, and shopping areas seemed the best
place to start.
At first, there was resistance from shopkeepers. They argued that people would avoid streets if
they were unable to get to them in their cars. When the first streets in Europe were closed to traffic, there
were even noisy demonstrations, as many shopkeepers predicted they would lose customers.
With the arrival of the traffic-free shopping street, many shops, especially those selling things
like clothes, food and smaller luxury items, prospered. Unfortunately, shops selling furniture and larger
electrical appliances actually saw their sales drop. Many of these were forced to move elsewhere, away
from the city centre.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS)

Question 31: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. A Need for Cashless Shopping B. A Need for Street Shopping
C. Pedestrians Only D. Shopkeepers Only
Question 32: According to paragraph 2, shopping became an unpleasant and unsafe experience due to
pollution and ________.
A. the decrease in car ownership B. the appearance of car-free shopping areas
C. the risks involved in crossing roads D. the experiment of car-free streets
Question 33: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. demonstrations B. streets C. cars D. shopkeepers
Question 34: The word “prospered” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. enriched B. constructed C. widened D. succeeded
Question 35: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The idea of constructing traffic-free shopping areas is not a new one.
B. The modern, traffic-free shopping street was first built in the Middle East in the 1960s.
C. 2000 years ago, central Rome banned road traffic during the day to allow for the free movement
of pedestrians.
D. Shopkeepers were not happy with the construction of traffic-free shopping areas at first.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Machines already perform a lot of tasks that were usually done by humans, such as building cars,
doing complex calculations, and even marking exam papers. But now it seems that ever more intelligent
machines are straying into areas where we never envisaged they would go. We have always taken pride
in having a unique kind of intelligence that machines could never match, one which allows us to think
of new ideas and produce creative and artistic works. But it seems that even here, computers are lining
up to compete with us.
Machines can easily be trained to do the physical work of producing art. About ten years ago, a
painting robot known as e-David was created at a university in Germany. And recently in New York,
the painting ‘Portrait of Edmond de Belamy’ has been auctioned for nearly half a million dollars. What
made it a bit unusual was that the idea, and the image itself, was produced entirely by a computer. A
group of young French artists gave instructions to the computer, aiming simply to show that computers
can be creative.
Some artists are now working with computers to produce a new kind of art. Computer-generated
works of art are certainly interesting, and make us think about the limits of what machines can and cannot
do. But not everyone would accept that they qualify as art. Some enthusiasts would argue they do, and
the collectors willing to pay high prices for these works would suggest there is definitely a market for
computer art. Others, however, would disagree.
Many ‘real’ artists would claim that art is an expression of human intelligence and human
emotions. More importantly, it is about a desire to communicate with other people. These things, they
argue, are part of being human and can never be produced by a machine.
(Adapted from Formula - Exam Trainer)

Question 36: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. World Famous Computer Artists B. Can Computers Become Artists?
C. Can Human Brains Work like Machines? D. Artworks by Prominent Artists
Question 37: The word “envisaged” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. encouraged B. imagined C. prepared D. experienced
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, the painting ‘Portrait of Edmond de Belamy’ ________.
A. was painted ten years ago B. was painted by some French artists
C. was created by e-David D. was created by a computer
Question 39: The word “unusual” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. uneasy B. strange C. simple D. complicated
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. other people B. these things C. human emotions D. ‘real’ artists
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. People’s opinions are divided on whether computer-generated artworks qualify as genuine art.
B. Humans are proud of possessing a unique kind of intelligence that enables them to be creative.
C. Computers have been competing with humans in the creation of a new kind of art.
D. The physical work of producing art can be learned by the computer with ease.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Works of art created by computers have gradually satisfied humans’ desire to communicate with
one another.
B. Artworks generated by computers are regarded by some as incapable of conveying human feelings.
C. It is a matter of time before human artists can outperform their computer counterparts.
D. The market for computer art proves to be more competitive and profitable than that for human art.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: He didn’t follow the recipe. The dish didn’t turn out as expected.
A. If he had followed the recipe, the dish won’t have turned out perfectly.
B. If he had followed the recipe, the dish would have turned out perfectly.
C. If he had followed the recipe, the dish wouldn’t have turned out perfectly.
D. If he had followed the recipe, the dish will have turned out perfectly.
Question 44: John completed his training. He received a promotion.
A. Had it not been for John’s completion of training, he would have received a promotion.
B. Not until John received a promotion did he complete his training.
C. Hardly had John completed his training when he received a promotion.
D. Only after John received a promotion did he complete his training.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: The musician streamed their performance online for fans around the world to enjoy.
A. musician B. their C. online D. enjoy
Question 46: The implementation of the new policy represents a momentary step forward for the
organization, as it signifies a considerable shift in strategy aimed at fostering greater efficiency.
A. implementation B. momentary C. considerable D. efficiency
Question 47: He completed his master’s degree last year, and he gained valuable work experience since
then.
A. completed B. degree C. gained D. experience

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Employees are not allowed to use their personal electronic devices during working
hours.
A. Employees shouldn’t use their personal electronic devices during working hours.
B. Employees needn’t use their personal electronic devices during working hours.
C. Employees mustn’t use their personal electronic devices during working hours.
D. Employees don’t have to use their personal electronic devices during working hours.
Question 49: The last time Amber went to the library was a week ago.
A. Amber has been going to the library for a week.
B. Amber hasn’t been to the library in a week.
C. Amber started going to the library a week ago.
D. Amber didn’t go to the library for a week.
Question 50: “My parents have recently bought a new house,” said Emily.
A. Emily said that her parents have recently bought a new house.
B. Emily said that my parents had recently bought a new house.
C. Emily said that her parents had recently bought a new house.
D. Emily said that my parents have recently bought a new house.

_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Sarah and Rachel are discussing their favorite TV show.
- Sarah: “I’m a huge fan of ‘The Crown.’”
- Rachel: “__________. It offers a fascinating glimpse into royal history.”
A. Of course not. B. That’s for sure.
C. I don’t think so. D. It’s nice of you to say so.
Question 2: Peter and Emily are attending a concert.
- Peter: “Would you mind saving our seats while I go grab some snacks?”
- Emily: “_________.”
A. Sorry, I can’t do that right now. B. Yes, but make it quick, please.
C. Sure, I’ll save them for you. D. No, I’m not comfortable with that.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: The new restaurant is not _______ as the one downtown.
A. the most crowded B. so crowded C. more crowded D. the more crowded
Question 4: The heat in the poorly ventilated room became _______ after several hours without air
conditioning.
A. tolerant B. intolerable C. tolerate D. tolerated
Question 5: Krystyna Pyszková, _______ Miss World 2024, has captured significant global attention
with her beauty and talent.
A. was crowned B. to crown C. crowned D. crowning
Question 6: I met my husband on _______ rainy Sunday when I was browsing through books at the
local bookstore.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: The police _______ investigations into the embezzlement case involving Truong My Lan,
chairwoman of Van Thinh Phat
A. carried out B. kept on C. set up D. gave off
Question 8: The concert hall _______ by the maintenance crew yesterday afternoon.
A. was inspecting B. inspects C. has inspected D. was inspected
Question 9: We had to stop _______ some groceries on our way home from work.
A. buying B. to buy C. buy D. to buying
Question 10: Everyone but Tom came to the meeting, _______?
A. didn’t they B. did he C. didn’t he D. did they
Question 11: It is important not to leave luggage _______ in public places to prevent any potential
security risks or theft.
A. inattentive B. careless C. unattended D. neglectful
Question 12: When I arrived at her house, she _______ a film starring Harry Lu.
A. is watching B. watches C. was watching D. has watched
Question 13: After retiring from his long career in the military, he began receiving a generous _______
to support his living expenses in his golden years.
A. dole B. pension C. salary D. income
Question 14: Emily will call her parents _______.
A. as soon as she had reached home B. as soon as she reached home
C. as soon as she reaches home D. as soon as she will reach home
Question 15: The video of the cute puppy playing with a butterfly _______ viral on social media,
garnering millions of views within just a few hours.
A. gained B. took C. went D. gave
Question 16: The new policy is primarily concerned _______ improving employee welfare and
enhancing workplace safety measures.
A. about B. with C. for D. of
Question 17: Many high school leavers remain on the _______ about whether to pursue higher education
immediately or to enter the workforce.
A. nose B. fence C. level D. record

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. honor B. happy C. honest D. hour
Question 19: A. black B. dark C. bad D. chat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. consider B. innocent C. decision D. performance
Question 21: A. knowledge B. inform C. disease D. report

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The teacher used interactive activities to engage the students in the lesson.
A. employ B. detach C. captivate D. discharge
Question 23: The astute investor was able to predict market trends accurately.
A. slow B. foolish C. quick D. naive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The young man recklessly squandered his inheritance on gambling and extravagant
parties.
A. wasted B. managed C. depleted D. husbanded
Question 25: Ever since her team lost the championship game, Camille has been feeling down in the
dumps.
A. satisfied B. depressed C. cheerful D. discontented

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Since the invention of the Internet, the world has become a different place. People are sending
messages, apparently up to 60 billion a day, and it usually takes only seconds to deliver them. (26)
_________ are we now forgetting how to communicate face-to-face?
Without a doubt there are (27) _________ challenges, but there are also examples of when the
Internet has changed someone’s life for the better. Look at Tara Taylor’s case, a mother (28) _________
lives in the USA: when she uploaded a photo of her daughter to Facebook, a facefriend (29) _________
a problem with one of the child’s eyes, so Tara took her to the doctor. It turned out that the girl had a
rare disease, but her sight was saved! The story of communication is, in many (30) _________, the story
of the human race: we have always shared knowledge and built relationships, whatever means of
communication we use.
(Adapted from High Note)

Question 26: A. Since B. Although C. For D. But


Question 27: A. much B. some C. another D. every
Question 28: A. when B. whose C. who D. which
Question 29: A. avoided B. spotted C. developed D. created
Question 30: A. routes B. roads C. ways D. paths

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
As Australia’s largest and oldest city, Sydney carries many traces of its history. Time seems to
stand still in the city’s old streets and in its many magnificent, ancient buildings, such as the Sydney
Town Hall, the Queen Victoria Building, and St. Mary’s Cathedral. To explore the city’s present and
past, head for The Rocks - the oldest neighbourhood in Australia and Sydney, where sandstone houses
built in the 18th century still stand. You can stroll through the pretty streets, visit a traditional pub for
some craft beer, and try delicious local dishes.
Sydney is blessed with natural gifts that few cities can rival. This city is full of greenery. Parks
and nature reserves mingle with urban areas. Thanks to this, you need not travel far to see rare species
in numerous city zoos; or enjoy fresh air and a range of plants from all corners of the world, all gathered
in boundless parks. For those visitors keen to explore the sea, Sydney is heaven with over 70 spectacular
bays and beaches. These include beautiful Bondi Beach, which is said to be the loveliest on the planet,
where visitors can sunbathe, and play various water sports.
Sydney is said to be a miniature world of attractions, captivating visitors. It is a must-go
destination on every tourist’s bucket list, should they visit the beautiful land of Australia.
(Adapted from Heritage)

Question 31: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Sydney - The Present and The Past B. Sydney - A City that Never Sleeps
C. Sydney - A Must-go Destination D. Sydney - The World’s Oldest City
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, The Rocks __________.
A. has the most beautiful streets in Australia
B. is the oldest area in Sydney and Australia
C. has traces of houses destroyed in the 18th century
D. offers the most delicious local dishes
Question 33: The word “rival” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. enjoy B. satisfy C. agree D. match to
Question 34: The word “These” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. water sports B. bays and beaches C. boundless parks D. visitors
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE about Sydney according to the passage?
A. Sydney was established in the 18th century.
B. Visitors prefer Sydney’s beaches to its parks.
C. In Sydney, urban areas are mixed with parks and nature reserves.
D. Tourists have to travel long distances to reach Sydney’s zoos.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
When I saw her name on the screen, it took me right back to the moment she had moved away
with her family ten years before. We had been such close friends at primary school. To begin with, she
and I had not hit it off, perhaps because we were both timid. We had quickly got over that, though, and
as time went on, we had become really good friends, until you almost never saw one of us without the
other.
And now after so much time apart, there was her name. She had sent me a friend request. I knew
she had been living abroad, and her profile picture showed her on the beach. I had been expecting her to
look different after ten years. The girl in the photo was the same old Lauren, though.
Nowadays, it is easy to find old friends thanks to social networking sites. There are lots of stories
about long lost friends getting back in touch after years apart. It was odd because I had been thinking
about our friendship too and now here she was!
She told me about the place where she had been living for the past ten years, and I told her about
things that had happened to me. Before long, the years melted away and we were the same two girls who
had spent so much time together. Of course, true friends are loyal and listen to you when you are down.
And they are the people you have fun with. But deep down, I realised that the truest friends are those
you are most yourself with. And that is something that never changes. That is what Lauren and I learned
that day, the day we realised our friendship was so precious and had never really ended in the first place.
(Adapted from Optimise)

Question 36: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Why Do Friends Stay Apart? B. How to Make Friends Online?
C. Long Lost Friends D. Online Friendships That Last
Question 37: The phrase hit it off in paragraph 1 mostly means __________.
A. progressing slowly B. arguing with each other
C. disliking each other D. becoming friends immediately
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, the author __________.
A. did not recognise Lauren in her profile picture
B. thought Lauren’s appearance had changed over time
C. was unaware of Lauren living in another country
D. did not accept Lauren’s friend request at once
Question 39: The word “odd” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. common B. strange C. quick D. lonely
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. years B. things C. two girls D. true friends
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. True friends are loyal and lend a sympathetic ear when you are in low spirits.
B. Social networking sites have enabled old friends to get back in contact with one another.
C. The author learned that the truest friends are those you act most naturally with.
D. Very few long lost friends have got back in touch after years apart.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The time they were apart was hard for both Lauren and the author.
B. Before Lauren’s reappearance, the author thought that their friendship had ended.
C. Lauren had lived in many places since she left the country.
D. Both the author and Lauren had changed in many ways over the last ten years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: She forgot to set her alarm. She woke up late for work.
A. If she had set her alarm, she won’t have woken up late for work.
B. If she had set her alarm, she would have woken up late for work.
C. If she had set her alarm, she wouldn’t have woken up late for work.
D. If she had set her alarm, she will have woken up late for work.
Question 44: Tom finished his marathon training. He felt confident about his upcoming race.
A. Not until Tom felt confident about his upcoming race did he finish his marathon training.
B. Only after Tom finished his marathon training did he feel confident about his upcoming race.
C. Hardly had Tom felt confident about his upcoming race when he finished his marathon training.
D. Had it not been for Tom’s confidence about his upcoming race, he would have finished his
marathon training.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: The survey reveals that two-thirds of married women earn less than her husbands.
A. reveals B. two-thirds C. married D. her
Question 46: The manager was criticized for his negligible oversight of critical project details, which
led to significant setbacks in the completion timeline.
A. negligible B. critical C. significant D. timeline
Question 47: Mark finished writing his novel, which is immediately published by a renowned publishing
house.
A. his B. is C. published D. renowned

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Students are required to wear safety goggles in the laboratory.
A. Students must wear safety goggles in the laboratory.
B. Students need wear safety goggles in the laboratory.
C. Students can wear safety goggles in the laboratory.
D. Students should wear safety goggles in the laboratory.
Question 49: He has been studying French for two years.
A. He didn’t study French two years ago.
B. He started studying French two years ago.
C. He studied French two years ago.
D. The last time he studied French was two years ago.
Question 50: “My future wife must have long black hair,” said Nam.
A. Nam said that my future wife had to have long black hair.
B. Nam said that his future wife must have long black hair.
C. Nam said that my future wife must have long black hair.
D. Nam said that his future wife had to have long black hair.

_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Alice and David are discussing travel plans.
- Alice: “I believe we should explore more off-the-beaten-path destinations.”
- David: “_________. I prefer sticking to popular tourist spots.”
A. That sounds great. B. You can say that again.
C. I’m not so sure about that. D. Interesting idea.
Question 2: Sarah is hosting a movie night with her friend Tom.
- Sarah: “Would you like to watch a comedy or a thriller tonight, Tom?”
- Tom: “_________.”
A. I’m not in the mood for movies. B. A thriller sounds exciting.
C. How about we play board games instead? D. I think I’ll just head home.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Emma is _______ employee in her department.
A. the more experienced B. more experienced C. the most experienced D. experienced as
Question 4: The health department issued a warning about the spread of a _______ disease in the
community.
A. communicative B. communication C. communicable D. communicate
Question 5: The new initiative has brought about positive changes, _______ opportunities for growth
and development in the region.
A. created B. creating C. to create D. is created
Question 6: Arthur was born in the USA in _______ 2000s after his parents migrated there.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: The marketing team needs to _______ a new advertising campaign for the upcoming
product launch.
A. come in for B. put up with C. go back on D. come up with
Question 8: The new software _______ by our team last week.
A. develops B. has developed C. was developed D. was developing
Question 9: The company decided to postpone _______ its new product until market conditions
improved.
A. launching B. to launch C. launch D. to launching
Question 10: She has a remarkable talent for painting, _______?
A. does she B. hasn’t she C. doesn’t she D. has she
Question 11: The British government said on Monday it will explore making social media executives
personally _______ for harmful content published on their platforms.
A. accessible B. liable C. compatible D. available
Question 12: She _______ in Paris for five years before she moved to London last month.
A. was living B. has lived C. is living D. had lived
Question 13: I need to submit a copy of my birth _______ as proof of my identity for the job application.
A. degree B. certificate C. diploma D. license
Question 14: Anna will attend the meeting _______.
A. as soon as she accomplishes her project B. as soon as she accomplished her project
C. as soon as she had accomplished her project D. as soon as she will accomplishe her project
Question 15: It demanded that the Vietnamese government _______ drastic measures to prevent robbery
at sea and ensure safety for Vietnamese fishermen.
A. lay B. take C. make D. have
Question 16: Many young people are struggling _______ living expenses, especially in expensive cities
where housing costs are high.
A. with B. for C. against D. to
Question 17: My brother’s constant whistling drives me up the _______ whenever I’m trying to
concentrate.
A. floor B. wall C. roof D. ceiling

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. certain B. cancel C. circle D. circus
Question 19: A. brought B. ought C. though D. thought

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. general B. interrupt C. dedicate D. popular
Question 21: A. caution B. autumn C. canal D. laughter

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The company offers legitimate products that have undergone thorough testing and
certification.
A. genuine B. legal C. fake D. artificial
Question 23: The loud noise from the fireworks can trigger anxiety in some people with PTSD.
A. diminish B. initiate C. suppress D. heighten

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: A plan was implemented to rectify the manufacturing error and ensure the quality of the
product.
A. amend B. compound C. ignore D. better
Question 25: Despite practicing for weeks, Sarah lost her nerve when it was her turn to give the
presentation.
A. lost hope B. became fearful C. stay motivated D. remained calm

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Television is still one of our most popular forms of entertainment. It brings people closer. (26)
_________ families still watch shows or enjoy live sports programmes together. Television gives people
something to talk about at school and at work and it often gets us talking about important issues. (27)
_________, television - like everything else in the world today - is changing.
The most important (28) _________ on television recently has been technology. Computers and
the Internet have completely changed the way we get information and entertainment. Watching films
and videos online is becoming more and more popular. Computers and smartphones, (29) _________
are much cheaper than ever before, help people choose their favourite programmes quickly and more
effectively. Today, as life is getting faster, our mobile screens are the best way to watch programmes
anywhere we like. Therefore, television stations have to change the way they make shows in order to
give (30) _________ what they want.
(Adapted from Gateway by Spencer and Edwards)

Question 26: A. Every B. Much C. Each D. Many


Question 27: A. Although B. Otherwise C. However D. For example
Question 28: A. ability B. influence C. advantage D. strength
Question 29: A. where B. which C. who D. when
Question 30: A. presenters B. visitors C. viewers D. spectators

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Today we hear more and more about the importance of getting enough sleep. Sleep can give
energy to both our bodies and our brains. It can also affect our feelings, behaviour, and memory.
Studies have shown that people in some countries spend less time sleeping and more time
working. But our bodies cannot work well without enough sleep. Losing just one or two hours of sleep
a night, over a long period of time, can badly affect our health. We cannot work for many hours; we can
get angry easily; and we can even lose our IQ points. That explains why, without enough sleep, an
intelligent person may have difficulty doing daily tasks.
Studies have also shown that the time of year seems to affect how much sleep we need. People
usually sleep longer in the winter, sometimes as much as 14 hours a night. However, in the summer,
they sometimes sleep as little as six hours, without having any problems.
(Adapted from Strategic Reading by Richards and Eckstut-Didier)

Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Benefits of getting up early B. Ways to sleep better
C. Causes of losing sleep D. The importance of sleep
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as something that can be affected
by sleep?
A. memory B. feelings C. behaviour D. diet
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, which of the following can be a consequence of losing sleep?
A. Our health becomes worse. B. People have less time to work.
C. People can finish their daily tasks. D. Our bodies can work better.
Question 34: The word intelligent in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. clever B. ugly C. careful D. angry
Question 35: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. hours B. people C. problems D. hours
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
As the Internet has become more and more popular, we may be reading a great deal more than
we used to. However, the way we are reading materials on the Internet, or online reading, is very different
from the way we traditionally read printed materials.
In the traditional way of reading, we would start at the beginning of a book and read through to
the end. In online reading, in contrast, we start reading a page, but may never finish it because a link on
that page leads us to a passage on a different page, and so on. As we go from one page to another, we
have to remember lots of different ideas at the same time. This new way of reading is quite different
from the traditional one.
There are both advantages and disadvantages of online reading. In online reading, the brain gets
better than ever at doing many tasks at the same time, or multitasking; and thanks to this, we can work
quickly and think creatively. Multitasking is useful in certain working environments, but it also makes
it more difficult for us to read at a deep level. We are, therefore, much less likely to analyse what we
read in a critical way, or gain any real insight into the contents we are reading. This might lead to a
future when a whole new generation lacks the ability to think critically and deeply about what they are
reading.
The world is changing and our brains are probably changing to meet new demands in the modern
world, just as they have always done throughout history. However, it is important for us to consider how
to maintain our critical, deeper reading skills, while still dealing with online reading materials.
(Adapted from Insight by Roberts and Sayer)

Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. More Reading, Less Analysis? B. Is Technology Changing Writing?
C. Less Reading, More Problems? D. Is Reading Changing Technology?
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, ambition __________.
A. may not finish reading the whole page
B. always read from the beginning till the end
C. never read the first part of the page
D. tend to read the last part before anything else
Question 38: The word “tasks” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. interviews B. exams C. jobs D. talks
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. what we read B. online reading C. multitasking D. the brain
Question 40: The word “insight” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. status B. understanding C. respect D. attitude
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. We read online materials in the same way as we read printed materials.
B. Possibly our brains are changing to meet new demands in the modern world.
C. Multitasking enables us to work quickly and think creatively.
D. In the traditional way of reading, we would read from the beginning through to the end.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The brain does not play an important role in the traditional way of reading.
B. The traditional way of reading allows people to read at a deep level.
C. We used to read much more in the past than we do now.
D. Online reading maintains critical and deeper reading skills.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: Isabella didn’t study hard for the exam. She didn’t achieve a high score.
A. If Isabella had studied hard, she could have achieved a high score.
B. If Isabella had studied hard, she can’t have achieved a high score.
C. If Isabella had studied hard, she couldn’t have achieved a high score.
D. If Isabella had studied hard, she can have achieved a high score.
Question 44: Tom received a promotion at work. He started taking on more responsibilities.
A. Only after Tom started taking on more responsibilities at work, did he receive a promotion.
B. Had it not been for Tom’s promotion at work, he wouldn’t have started taking on more
responsibilities.
C. Barely had Tom received a promotion than he started taking on more responsibilities at work.
D. Not until Tom started taking on more responsibilities, did he receive a promotion at work.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: All students are prohibited from bringing his electronic devices to the exam room.
A. prohibited B. his C. electronic D. exam
Question 46: With doggy determination and unwavering commitment, the team undertook numerous
endeavors, resulting in successful outcomes across various projects.
A. doggy B. unwavering C. numerous D. successful
Question 47: The research team conducted experiments to test the hypothesis and present their findings
at the conference last week.
A. experiments B. present C. their D. conference

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Employees are not allowed to use their personal devices during working hours.
A. Employees needn’t use their personal devices during working hours.
B. Employees shouldn’t use their personal devices during working hours.
C. Employees mustn’t use their personal devices during working hours.
D. Employees won’t use their personal devices during working hours.
Question 49: Aria last went on vacation with her friends was two years ago.
A. Aria started going on vacation with her friends two years ago.
B. Aria hasn’t gone on vacation with her friends for two years.
C. Aria didn’t go on vacation with her friends for two years.
D. Aria has gone on vacation with her friends for two years.
Question 50: “My friend completed her internship at the hospital,” said Freya.
A. Freya said that her friend completed her internship at the hospital.
B. Freya said that my friend completed her internship at the hospital.
C. Freya said that her friend had completed her internship at the hospital.
D. Freya said that my friend had completed her internship at the hospital.

_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Emily and David are debating the ideal cuisine for their dinner party.
- Emily: “I suggest we go for Italian food. It’s always a crowd-pleaser and offers plenty of options.”
- David: “__________. I think Mexican cuisine would be more exciting and flavorful.”
A. It’s nice of you to say so. B. I don’t think so.
C. That sounds great. D. You can say that again.
Question 2: Alex and Sarah are at a theme park.
- Alex: “Could you hold onto my bag while I go on this roller coaster?”
- Sarah: “_________.”
A. Sorry, I’m busy right now. B. Of course, I’ll keep an eye on it for you.
C. I’m not sure about that. D. No, I’d rather not be responsible for it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Despite being paternalistic, Nam is __________ than any boys I know.
A. the most handsome B. more handsome C. the more handsome D. the handsomer
Question 4: His artwork captivated everyone with its __________ and unique perspective.
A. origin B. original C. originality D. origination
Question 5: Harry Potter, __________ by J.K. Rowling, enchants readers with its magic and timeless
themes.
A. was written B. to write C. written D. writing
Question 6: She was __________ only person to reach the summit of the treacherous mountain in the
midst of a fierce blizzard.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: During my hike in the forest, I __________ an old abandoned cabin hidden among the trees.
A. made up B. came across C. put off D. got along
Question 8: The mung bean cake from Hai Duong, Vietnam, __________ as a must-try delicacy in the
travel guidebook.
A. was listing B. is listed C. has listed D. lists
Question 9: To maintain good hydration levels, it’s advisable to avoid __________ beverages high in
caffeine or sugar late in the evening.
A. drink B. drinking C. to drink D. to drinking
Question 10: She has just finished reading her favorite book for the third time this month, _______?
A. doesn’t she B. has she C. hasn’t she D. does she
Question 11: The students _______ participated in the group project, eager to contribute their ideas and
collaborate with their peers.
A. ineffectively B. reluctantly C. willingly D. productively
Question 12: Yesterday, while preparing for Tet, my teacher unexpectedly visited my home while I
_______ up.
A. has tidied B. was tidying C. tidied D. is tidying
Question 13: As the magician performed his tricks, a crowd of curious _______ gathered to watch in
amazement.
A. spectators B. viewers C. onlookers D. witnesses
Question 14: My coach will provide feedback on my performance ________.
A. while I was completing the training program B. after I completed the training program
C. once I have completed the training program D. when I will complete the training program
Question 15: We had to cancel our outdoor plans due to the _______ rain that swept through the area
all afternoon.
A. jogging B. driving C. jumping D. riding
Question 16: Pam has been known _______ her adorable “Here I am” response to her mother.
A. for B. with C. of D. to
Question 17: Leo felt in his _______ when he was playing his favorite song on the guitar.
A. component B. ingredient C. element D. feature

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. school B. architect C. parachute D. scheme
Question 19: A. hasty B. nasty C. tasty D. wastage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. advertise B. influence C. history D. consumption
Question 21: A. suffer B. instance C. current D. police

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The lost puppy caused turmoil in the house as everyone searched for it.
A. calmness B. tranquility C. anger D. confusion
Question 23: Her decision to ignore the initial problem only served to compound the difficulties she
faced later.
A. worsen B. challenge C. correct D. improve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The local shops collectively decorated their windows for the holiday season to draw in
customers.
A. jointly B. regularly C. individually D. rarely
Question 25: The ambassador, aware of the potential for diplomatic tension, refused to make light of
the recent border disagreements.
A. completely ignore B. totally approve C. treat as important D. severely challenge

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Teenagers having exams may feel stressed for different reasons. Their future may depend on
their exam results. And many of them will probably be afraid that their performances will not be as good
as their friends’ and may feel worried about being (26) _________ negatively to them. They may feel
so (27) _________ by the amount of studying which they need to do. To obtain a good result, they may
have to give up (28) _________ leisure activities such as doing sports and listening to music. Teenagers
(29) _________ suffer from exam stress may show a variety of symptoms including loss of appetite,
being unable to sleep and a lack of motivation to study. (30) _________, it is important for teachers and
parents to watch out for these signs and to be as supportive and encouraging as possible.
(Adapted from Complete First for Schools by Brook - Hart, Hutchison, Passmore and Uddin)

Question 26: A. agreed B. compared C. closed D. suggested


Question 27: A. relaxed B. exhausted C. excited D. embarrassed
Question 28: A. each B. many C. much D. every
Question 29: A. which B. where C. who D. when
Question 30: A. Therefore B. However C. Although D. Moreover

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Many children have music classes when they attend school. And it is thought that music can help
them learn other subjects better. Research has shown that it can improve children’s performances in
certain subjects.
Some studies have shown that music training can help you understand your own language better.
It could also help you with learning a second one. Moreover, young people who have studied music also
seem to get higher scores in other subjects like maths. So it could be that these school subjects are
connected in some way.
Music also helps you think of new ideas, and believe more in yourself. If you are learning the
guitar, for example, it can be really exciting when you are able to start composing your own pieces of
music. One of the biggest benefits, of course, is that listening to music can reduce your stress. And
composing music can make you feel the same way. Maybe your musical knowledge will even open up
a great career path for you in the future!
(Adapted from Preliminary for Schools Trainer)

Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage?


A. Benefits of learning music B. New ideas in music
C. Ways to write a piece of music D. Ways to teach music
Question 32: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. research B. child C. music D. school
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, students who learn music seem to ________.
A. got higher marks in maths B. know only one language
C. dislike learning other subjects D. dislike learning a second language
Question 34: The word “composing” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. learning B. sharing C. writing D. copying
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of music?
A. It helps you make more friends. B. It helps you believe more in yourself.
C. It helps you reduce stress. D. It helps you think of new ideas.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
When it comes to ambition, no two people are alike. Every class has its outstanding students,
every company has its wonderful employees, and every family has its successful members. Then there
is someone who is happy with whatever life brings. So, what makes us different?
A person’s desire to succeed depends on so many factors. He or she may have goals, but without
the ambition to get started, they never take the first steps to achieve them. Similarly, those with an
ambition but no clear goals tend to begin many projects, but do not ever follow them till the end.
Although there are not any strict rules about how to ‘teach’ ambition or what decides it, many
successful people do share some things. Most scientists agree that it helps to have parents who encourage
their children to try new experiences, praise their successes, and accept their failures. In those families,
kids often have much higher confidence levels. They know how to set goals and keep trying until they
achieve them. Money also plays an important role. Those who are not very rich often want to earn
money. It forces them to work hard all the time to improve their life.
However, the desire for success can create its own stress. Working too hard to achieve success
can lead to illnesses. These days, even teens and young adults are feeling the stress. Trying to get into
good colleges and find good jobs has forced high school students to study harder than ever. For many,
it is difficult to find the balance. One solution may be to get together with family and friends, and do the
things we enjoy. Most would agree that those values are far more important than any wealth or success.
(Adapted from Skillful Reading & Writing by Bixby and Scanlon)

Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. An Interesting Life Story B. Ways to Teach Ambition
C. The Desire for Success D. A Life without Stress
Question 37: The word “outstanding” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. honest B. terrible C. excellent D. pleasant
Question 38: According to paragraph 1, ambition __________.
A. differs from person to person B. is achieved by all people
C. is the same for all people D. is shared by different people
Question 39: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. families B. goals C. kids D. levels
Question 40: The word “illnesses” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. money problems B. health problems C. good feelings D. wonderful results
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Money does not play a role in people’s success.
B. Some people are pleased with whatever life brings.
C. The desire to succeed can badly affect people’s health.
D. A person’s desire for success depends on so many factors.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The combination of ambition and clear goals is essential to success.
B. Teenagers in the past had to work harder to enter colleges.
C. People in modern society do not care about the values of family.
D. Poor people do not work hard enough to improve their life.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: The store was out of stock. We couldn’t buy the item we wanted.
A. If the store hadn’t been out of stock, we can’t have bought the item we wanted.
B. If the store hadn’t been out of stock, we could have bought the item we wanted.
C. If the store hadn’t been out of stock, we can have bought the item we wanted.
D. If the store hadn’t been out of stock, we couldn’t have bought the item we wanted.
Question 44: After finishing her meal, Maria left the restaurant. She remembered she had left her
phone on the table.
A. Had Maria not left the restaurant, she would have remembered she had left her phone on the table.
B. Not until Maria left the restaurant did she remember she had left her phone on the table.
C. Only when Maria remembered she had left her phone on the table did she leave the restaurant.
D. No sooner had Maria left the restaurant when she remembered she had left her phone on the table.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: The organization always strives to instill strong leadership skills in its employees,
emphasizing its value in driving success.
A. strives B. instill C. its D. driving
Question 46: The government is allocating significant funding to support conversational efforts aimed
at preserving endangered species and their habitats.
A. allocating B. conversational C. endangered D. habitats
Question 47: The mayor has made a speech at the dedication ceremony for the new school last week.
A. has made B. speech C. dedication D. new

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Students are encouraged to participate in extracurricular activities.
A. Students can participate in extracurricular activities.
B. Students would participate in extracurricular activities.
C. Students should participate in extracurricular activities.
D. Students must participate in extracurricular activities.
Question 49: The last time Lisa traveled abroad was two years ago.
A. Lisa hasn’t traveled abroad for two years.
B. Lisa didn’t travel abroad for two years.
C. Lisa has traveled abroad for two years.
D. Lisa started traveling abroad two years ago.
Question 50: “My cousin is planning a surprise birthday party,” said Tony.
A. Tony said that my cousin is planning a surprise birthday party.
B. Tony said that his cousin was planning a surprise birthday party.
C. Tony said that my cousin was planning a surprise birthday party.
D. Tony said that his cousin is planning a surprise birthday party.

_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Sophia and Max are discussing travel plans.
- Sophia: “I believe we should explore South America this summer.”
- Max: “__________. It’s a continent full of diverse cultures and breathtaking landscapes.”
A. That sounds boring. B. I don’t think so.
C. Of course not. D. Absolutely!
Question 2: The teacher asks the students about their weekend plans.
- Teacher: “What are you planning to do this weekend, Michael?”
- Michael: “_________.”
A. That sounds like a fun trip! B. I have no idea yet.
C. I finished all my homework already. D. History is my favorite subject!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Peter answered this question the most __________.
A. the most accurate B. the more accurately C. the more accurate D. the most accurately
Question 4: Her _______ to the charity event was invaluable, helping to raise funds for those in need.
A. contributing B. contributor C. contribution D. contribute
Question 5: After work, Olivia relaxed with a stroll in the park, _______ the peaceful sunset.
A. is enjoyed B. enjoying C. to enjoy D. enjoy
Question 6: I don’t like winter, but I loved _______ winter in 2020 when I experienced my first snowfall
while visiting the mountains with my family.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: He promised to help me with the project, but then he _______ his word and left me to
handle it alone.
A. came up with B. went back on C. came in for D. went down with
Question 8: The report _______ to the supervisor by the team members before the deadline.
A. was submitting B. has submitted C. was submitted D. submits
Question 9: It took me some time to get used _______ up early for work every day.
A. wake B. to wake C. to waking D. waking
Question 10: Caroline needs to finish the project by tomorrow, _______?
A. needn’t she B. does she C. need she D. doesn’t she
Question 11: As a vegetarian, Luna is very _______ about the ingredients in her food, always checking
labels carefully before buying anything.
A. dominant B. specific C. particular D. special
Question 12: When I entered the library, she _______ a book on ancient history.
A. is reading B. has read C. reads D. was reading
Question 13: After completing his degree, Jack decided to _______ to a different university to pursue a
specialized program in robotics.
A. transfer B. transform C. transmit D. transport
Question 14: My teacher will offer guidance with the assignment _______.
A. as soon as I assessed the requirements B. while I was assessing the requirements
C. after I have assessed the requirements D. by the time I had assessed the requirements
Question 15: She ______ her voice in protest when she saw the group of friends teasing her younger
sister.
A. gave B. took C. caught D. raised
Question 16: The breakup resulted ______ the couple’s inability to resolve their differences.
A. from B. in C. for D. to
Question 17: The upgrade to the company’s software was just what they needed, a shot in the ______
to boost productivity.
A. light B. hand C. dark D. arm

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. measure B. sugar C. version D. treasure
Question 19: A. pride B. bright C. link D. thrive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. minister B. document C. connection D. resident
Question 21: A. author B. museum C. period D. record

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She grew up in an affluent neighborhood, surrounded by luxurious homes and well-
manicured gardens.
A. generous B. wealthy C. destitute D. selfish
Question 23: The recent economic downturn has led to layoffs and financial uncertainty for many
families in the region.
A. recovery B. recession C. crisis D. growth

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: After returning from his trip, he contracted a severe case of the flu and had to stay in bed
for a week.
A. declined B. recovered C. developed D. accepted
Question 25: After years of feuding, the two neighbors decided to bury the hatchet and work together
to improve their neighborhood
A. hold a grudge B. forge relationships C. resolve differences D. make enemies

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Many people say that schooldays are the best days of their life, and they often feel that this should
be a period of enjoyment. (26) _________, exams often make them unhappy, and many students prefer
having no exams at all. They say the exams (27) _________ they have to take often make them worried,
and they have no time to relax. Others, on the other hand, say that exams help students study better. They
will have to study throughout the year, and if they do well, they will become more (28) _________ in
studying. There are (29) _________ students who prefer only final exams. They say that they have to
work hard for two months a year and so they have more time for their leisure activities. They think that
this is a better way of (30) _________ students’ knowledge and ability in the subjects they are studying.
(Adapted from Complete First for Schools by Brook - Hart, Hutchison, Passmore and Uddin)

Question 26: A. Although B. Moreover C. Therefore D. However


Question 27: A. where B. who C. when D. which
Question 28: A. bored B. nervous C. friendly D. interested
Question 29: A. each B. another C. some D. few
Question 30: A. accessing B. assessing C. assisting D. accepting

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Since the 19th century, companies have looked for better and cleaner ways of creating electricity.
One UK company has created a special type of floor made of square tiles. Under each square, there is a
system that can create electricity very cheaply when someone steps on it!
The design of the floor works very well when it is used in very busy areas. And the reason is that
a lot of energy is created simply because of the large numbers of people walking across the floor.
The floor can have other uses too; one of them is to record how many people visit a shopping
center. This kind of information is very useful for shop owners because very often they want to know
at which times of days they have the highest number of customers, so the next time you visit shopping
center, have a careful look at the floor that you are walking across!
(Adapted from Preliminary for Schools Trainer)

Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?


A. A shopping centre that sells electricity. B. A new way to build houses.
C. A special floor that creates electricity. D. A difficulty in creating electricity.
Question 32: According paragraph 1, the special floor creates electricity when______.
A. someone covers it B. someone steps on it C. someone looks at it D. someone cleans it
Question 33: The phrase “useful” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. kind B. false C. helpful D. careful
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to________.
A. people B. times C. days D. shop owners
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a good thing about the floor in the passage?
A. It helps shops attract more customers. B. It is good for shop owners.
C. It creates electricity very cheaply. D. It works very well in very busy areas.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Today, text-messaging has probably become young people’s most common form of
communication. Some teachers think that because of this, young people are not writing correctly at
school. They fear that once students get used to it, they will find it hard to switch back to using correct
grammar and spelling. How did things begin this way?
It all began with e-mail, online chat rooms, and games. Then step by step young people made
sentences, phrases and words shorter. As text-messaging continued to become popular, people invented
more and more words. Today, it is like a real language with its own grammar and vocabulary. The growth
of text-messaging has raised an important question: As students become fluent in text-messaging, do
their writing skills suffer?
People have different ideas about the effects of text-messaging on students’ writing skills. Some
say that students are losing the ability to write long, correct sentences. Others say that text-messaging is
having a good effect on the language students use in their schoolwork. It shows that they are creative
and good at expressing themselves. And if students can keep the two systems separate - one for text--
messaging and one for school - this will help students appreciate reading and writing more.
Some people suggest that one way to reduce the bad effects of text-messaging is to find ways to
use technology as a positive learning tool. For example, students can be allowed to type their assignments
in a cell phone message and send them to their teachers, but they must type correctly. In this way,
students are using the technology that they are familiar with to communicate in a form of language
suitable for schoolwork. It shows students that text-messaging is fine for social communication, but
correct grammar and spelling are necessary for communication in school.
(Adapted from Strategic Reading by Richards and Eckstut-Didier)

Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. What is Text-messaging Doing to Students’ Writing?
B. How have Schools Changed Technology?
C. What can be Done to Increase the Quality of Text-messaging?
D. How can Teachers Teach Text-messaging?
Question 37: The word “switch” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. give B. change C. look D. send
Question 38: The word “invented” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. explained B. created C. described D. guessed
Question 39: According to paragraph 3, how can text-messaging affect students’ writing?
A. Students no longer use handwriting for their schoolwork.
B. Students’ ability to write long, correct sentences is gradually decreasing.
C. Students will lose interest in their school writing.
D. Students are losing their creativity in writing.
Question 40: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. effects B. people C. students D. assignments
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. People have different opinions about the effects of text-messaging on students writing.
B. Correct grammar and spefiing are important for communication in school.
C. Text-messaging has probably become the most common form of communication for young people.
D. Text-messaging is like a real language with its own grammar and vocabulary.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Text-messaging has been accepted as an official language.
B. Text-messaging can help students write more correctly.
C. Students should know how to use standard language in all circumstances.
D. Students should know how to use text-messaging properly for their purposes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: He had to work on the night shift. He couldn’t go to my party.
A. If he hadn’t had to work on the night shift, he couldn’t have gone to my party.
B. If he hadn’t had to work on the night shift, he can have gone to my party.
C. If he hadn’t had to work on the night shift, he could have gone to my party.
D. If he hadn’t had to work on the night shift, he can’t have gone to my party.
Question 44: We came back home. We realized that we had not set the burglar alarm in the office.
A. Hardly had we come back home when we realized that we had not set the burglar alarm in the
office.
B. Only after we realized that we had not set the burglar alarm in the office did we come back home.
C. Had it not been for us coming back home, we would have realized that we had not set the burglar
alarm in the office.
D. Not until we realized that we had not set the burglar alarm in the office did we come back home.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: My students are very industrious and they always finish her homework before going to
school.
A. are B. industrious C. her D. going
Question 46: Implementing responsible and successive strategies in project management can lead to
beneficent outcomes for both the organization and its stakeholders.
A. responsible B. successive C. beneficent D. stakeholders
Question 47: Last year, Tim works as a delivery driver, earning twice as much as his brother.
A. works B. delivery C. twice D. his

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: It is likely that the flight will be delayed due to the storm.
A. The flight should be delayed due to the storm.
B. The flight may be delayed due to the storm.
C. The flight would be delayed due to the storm.
D. The flight must be delayed due to the storm.
Question 49: My family last went on a vacation to the beach two years ago.
A. My family didn’t go on a vacation at the beach for two years.
B. It’s been two years ago since my family last went on a vacation to the beach.
C. My family hasn’t gone on a vacation at the beach for two years.
D. The last time my family went on a vacation was two years.
Question 50: “My wife bought a computer last year,” said he.
A. He said that his wife had bought a computer last year.
B. He said that his wife had bought a computer the previous year.
C. He said that my wife had bought a computer the previous year.
D. He said that his wife has bought a computer last year.
_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Jack and Maya are discussing their recent shopping experiences.
- Jack: “I can’t believe how much Thai Cong sells household items for. It’s exorbitant.”
- Maya: “__________. Only wealthy people can purchase them.”
A. I don’t think so. B. That’s for sure.
C. Are you sure about that? D. It’s very nice of you to say so.
Question 2: Sarah and Michael are at a café.
- Sarah: “What do you recommend from the menu, Michael?”
- Michael: “_______.”
A. Yes, I prefer tea. B. No, I’m not hungry.
C. Sorry, I didn’t hear you. D. I think the pasta is delicious.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Jack is among _______ men in the music industry.
A. the most reliable B. more reliable C. the more reliable D. most reliable
Question 4: The weather in this region is notoriously _______, making it challenging to plan outdoor
activities.
A. unpredictable B. predict C. predictable D. prediction
Question 5: Khanh Dung, _______ in ‘Way to Mount Olympia’ last month, gained attention for
introducing herself fluently in five languages.
A. to appear B. appeared C. appearing D. was appeared
Question 6: Although my mother has a car, she often goes to work on _______ bus.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: Despite their differences, the new neighbors seem to _______ quite well with each other.
A. put on B. get along C. take in D. fall out
Question 8: Philosophy _______ as one of the most challenging subjects.
A. is regarding B. regards C. has regarded D. is regarded
Question 9: I remember _______ Paris for the first time; it was a truly unforgettable experience.
A. visiting B. visit C. to visit D. to visiting
Question 10: John will attend the conference tomorrow to present his research findings, _______?
A. doesn’t he B. won’t he C. does he D. will he
Question 11: She received a warning from her doctor about the _______ consumption of sugary snacks.
A. delicate B. excessive C. minimal D. rational
Question 12: When the alarm rang, she _______ breakfast in the kitchen.
A. is cooking B. has cooked C. was cooking D. cooks
Question 13: The stadium has a seating _______ of 50,000 people for concerts and sporting events.
A. capability B. possibility C. ability D. capacity
Question 14: _______, I will start working on the next one.
A. When I will finish this project B. Once I had finished this project
C. As soon as I finish this project D. By the time I finished this project
Question 15: They need to _______ the date for their wedding soon so they can start planning the details.
A. make B. lay C. set D. take
Question 16: Vietnamese people suffer _______ a vicious cycle of overthinking and excessive worry,
making it difficult to be productive.
A. for B. from C. with D. about
Question 17: John always procrastinates and tends to finish his tasks at the _______ hour, causing
unnecessary stress for himself.
A. eighth B. tenth C. ninth D. eleventh

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. complex B. city C. ceiling D. cycle
Question 19: A. column B. bottle C. volume D. author

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. recognize B. appearance C. magazine D. photograph
Question 21: A. public B. involve C. narrow D. purpose

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The school has a code of conduct that all students must follow.
A. uniform B. rules C. behaviour D. fees
Question 23: The manager made a decision on the spot to resolve the customer’s complaint and ensure
their satisfaction.
A. eventually B. immediately C. previously D. punctually

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Despite his wealth, he was known for being tight-fisted and rarely contributed to
charitable causes.
A. stingy B. wealthy C. needy D. generous
Question 25: The manager decided to reinforce the team’s training by providing additional resources
and support.
A. neglect B. strengthen C. impair D. safeguard
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
THE BEST STUDENTS
According to most professors, mature students are ideal students because they are hard-working
and become actively involved in all aspects of the learning process. The majority of mature students
have a poor educational (26) _________ but they manage to do exceptionally well at tertiary level. (27)
_________ many of them have a job and children to raise, they are always present at seminars and
lectures and always hand in essays on time. They like studying and writing essays and they enjoy the
class discussions (28) _________ take place. Consequently, they achieve excellent results. In fact, as
they have experienced many of life’s pleasures, they are content with their lives and this has a positive
effect on their attitude, making them eager to learn.
On the other hand, despite their enthusiasm and commitment, mature students suffer from
anxiety. The fact that they have made (29) _________ sacrifices to get into university puts extra pressure
on them to succeed. Nevertheless, completing a degree gives mature students a sense of achievement,
(30) _________ their confidence and improves their job prospects.
(Adapted from Use of English for All Exams by E. Moutsou)

Question 26: A. development B. background C. basement D. institution


Question 27: A. Although B. But C. So D. And
Question 28: A. whom B. which C. where D. when
Question 29: A. every B. another C. much D. many
Question 30: A. arises B. boosts C. mounts D. surges
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Marcel Bich, a French manufacturer of traditional ink pens, was the man who turned the ballpoint
pen into an item that today almost anyone can afford. Bich was appalled at the poor quality of the
ballpoint pens that were available, and was also shocked at their high cost. However, he recognised that
the ballpoint was a firmly established invention, and he decided to design a cheap pen that worked well
and would be commercially successful.
Bich went to the Biro brothers and asked them if he could use the design of their original
invention in one of his own pens. In return, he offered to pay them every time he sold a pen. Then, for
two years, Bich studied the detailed construction of every ballpoint pen that was being sold, often
working with a microscope. By 1950, he was ready to introduce his new wonder: a plastic pen with a
clear barrel that wrote smoothly, did not leak and only cost a few cents. He called it the ‘Bic Cristal’.
The ballpoint pen had finally become a practical writing instrument. The public liked it immediately,
and today it is as common as the pencil. In Britain, they are still called Biros, and many Bic models also
say ‘Biro’ on the side of the pen, to remind people of their original inventors.
Bich became extremely wealthy thanks to his invention, which had worldwide appeal. Over the
next 60 years his company, Societe Bic, opened factories all over the world and expanded its range of
inexpensive products. Today, Bic is as famous for its lighters and razors as it is for its pens, and you can
even buy a Bic mobile phone.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS Workbook by Rawdon Wyatt)
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. From Mobile Devices to Ballpoint Pens
B. From a Luxury Item to an Everyday Object
C. Ballpoint Pen’s New Design - For Better or Worse?
D. Biros - A Business Model in Britain
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, Marcel Bich was shocked because _______.
A. a cheap pen could be designed with great commercial success
B. a firm was not established to produce high-quality ballpoint pens
C. most people could not afford such a firmly established invention
D. the ballpoint pens available were expensive despite their poor quality
Question 33: The phrase “practical” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. accurate B. traditional C. sharp D. useful
Question 34: The word “which” in paragraph 4 refers to________.
A. factories B. company C. invention D. range
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as products of Bich’s
company?
A. mobile phones B. lighters C. pencils D. razors

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
A study was set up to examine the old marriage advice about whether it’s more important to be
happy or to be right. Couples therapists sometimes suggest that in a bid to avoid constant arguments,
spouses weigh up whether pressing the point is worth the misery of marital discord. The researchers,
who are doctors and professors at the University of Auckland, noticed that many of their patients were
adding stress to their lives by insisting on being right, even when it worked against their well-being.
The researchers then found a couple who were willing to record their quality of life on a scale of
1 to 10. They told the man, who wanted to be happy more than right, about the purpose of the study and
asked him to agree with every opinion and request his wife had without complaint, even when he
profoundly didn’t agree. The wife was not informed of the purpose of the study and just asked to record
her quality of life.
Things went rapidly downhill for the couple. The man’s quality-of-life scores fell, from 7 to 3,
over the course of the experiment. The wife’s scores rose modestly, from 8 to 8.5, before she became
hostile to the idea of recording the scores. Rather than causing harmony, the husband’s agreeableness
led to the wife becoming increasingly critical of what he did and said (in the husband’s opinion). After
12 days he broke down, made his wife a cup of tea, and the study was called off because of “severe
adverse outcomes.”
The researchers concluded, shockingly, that humans need to be right and acknowledged as right,
at least some of the time, to be happy. They also noted this was further proof that if given too much
power, humans tend to “assume the alpha position and, as with chimpanzees, they become very
aggressive and dangerous.” It is often said that there can be no peace without justice, and that’s true of
domestic sphere.
Obviously the results are to be taken with extreme caution, since this was just one couple with
who-knows-what underlying issues beforehand. But the study’s chief author, Dr. Bruce Arroll, maintains
that the question of happiness vs. rightness, theoretically, could be settled by scientific inquiry with a
wider sample. “This would include a randomized controlled trial,” he says. “However we would be
reluctant to do the definitive study because of the concern about divorce.”
(Adapted from https://healthland.time.com)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Expert Advice: It Pays to be Kind rather than to be Right
B. It’s Worth Listening to Experts for a Happy Marriage
C. Marriage Experiment: It’s Better to be Right than Happy
D. It Makes Sense to Avoid Marriage Conflicts
Question 37: The word “discord” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. disagreement B. status C. understanding D. disloyalty
Question 38: In paragraph 1, the study was conducted in order to __________.
A. illustrate how to live a happier life B. test an old piece of advice on marriage
C. find out the best advice for couples D. see if people are happy in their marriage
Question 39: The word “critical” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. agreeable B. disapproving C. unequal D. encouraging
Question 40: The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. researchers B. results C. chimpanzees D. humans
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The woman in the study was kept in the dark about its aim.
B. It was anticipated that people need to be regarded as right to be happy.
C. Having too much power in hand may lead to aggression among people.
D. In domestic sphere, peace can hardly be maintained without justice.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?
A. The findings of the study are inconclusive due to its limited sample.
B. Studies of this kind will ultimately lead to divorce among the subjects.
C. Further research on the issue will definitely be conducted with a larger sample.
D. The researchers are willing to continue the study despite its bad influence.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: She stayed up late last night. She missed her morning flight today.
A. If he hadn’t stayed up late last night, he wouldn’t have missed her morning flight today.
B. If he hadn’t stayed up late last night, he would miss her morning flight today.
C. If he hadn’t stayed up late last night, he would have missed her morning flight today.
D. If he hadn’t stayed up late last night, he wouldn’t miss her morning flight today.
Question 44: Michael had just finished culinary school. He was offered a position at a renowned
restaurant.
A. Not until Michael was offered a position at a renowned restaurant did he finish culinary school.
B. Only after Michael was offered a position at a renowned restaurant did he finish culinary school.
C. No sooner had Michael finished culinary school than he was offered a position at a renowned
restaurant.
D. Had it not been for Michael finishing culinary school, he would have been offered a position at a
renowned restaurant.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: All students are required to wear his identification badges at all times on campus.
A. are B. his C. badges D. campus
Question 46: The lecturer delivered the material in a clear, intelligent manner, ensuring that it was
comprehensible to all attendees and facilitating a deep understanding of the subject matter.
A. delivered B. intelligent C. comprehensible D. understanding
Question 47: Some kids spend excessive time playing computer games, which harm their mental and
physical health.
A. excessive B. computer C. harm D. physical
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: It’s not compulsory for guests to wear formal attire in the dining hall.
A. Guests can’t wear formal attire in the dining hall.
B. Guests mustn’t wear formal attire in the dining hall.
C. Guests don’t have to wear formal attire in the dining hall.
D. Guests wouldn’t wear formal attire in the dining hall.
Question 49: David last went on a hiking trip in the mountains four years ago.
A. David hasn’t been on a hiking trip in the mountains for four years.
B. David started going on hiking trips in the mountains four years ago.
C. David didn’t go on a hiking trip in the mountains for four years.
D. David has gone on a hiking trip in the mountains for four years.
Question 50: “Our team has finally completed the construction of the new library,” said Mr. Johnson.
A. Mr. Johnson said that our team has finally completed the construction of the new library.
B. Mr. Johnson said that his team has finally completed the construction of the new library.
C. Mr. Johnson said that his team had finally completed the construction of the new library.
D. Mr. Johnson said that our team finally completed the construction of the new library.

_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Jane and Tom are discussing their upcoming trip.
- Jane: “I believe we should explore the local cuisine and culture while we’re there.”
- Tom: “__________. It allows us to immerse ourselves in the destination.”
A. I don’t think so. B. That’s right.
C. Absolutely not. D. I doubt it.
Question 2: Minh is at David’s birthday party.
- David: “Would you like a piece of cake, Minh?”
- Minh: “__________.”
A. No, I’m feeling tired. B. A glass of water, please.
C. Yes, I’d love some tiramisu. D. No, I prefer coffee.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Emily is _______ pianist in her music school.
A. the most good B. the better C. the more good D. the best
Question 4: The museum offers a variety of _______ programs designed to engage students and enhance
their learning experience.
A. uneducated B. education C. educate D. educational
Question 5: The cake _______ by my sister and her friends for the bake sale was beautifully decorated.
A. was baked B. to bake C. baking D. baked
Question 6: Many tourists dream of traveling to _______ Philippines to explore its stunning landscapes.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: She found it difficult to _______ her childhood belongings when moving to a new city.
A. take on B. part with C. cut off D. chip in
Question 8: The decision _______ by the committee after careful consideration of all proposals.
A. was made B. makes C. has made D. was making
Question 9: He attempted _______ the difficult puzzle but couldn’t figure it out.
A. solve B. solving C. to solve D. to solving
Question 10: You are coming to the party tonight, _______?
A. don’t you B. are you C. do you D. aren’t you
Question 11: The feedback from the customer satisfaction survey positively _______ the company’s
commitment to improving service quality.
A. relinquished B. subverted C. bolstered D. preserved
Question 12: When she entered the classroom, the teacher _______ on the whiteboard.
A. was writing B. has written C. was writing D. writes
Question 13: Unfortunately, Huyen Baby was _______ from the ‘Beautiful Sisters Riding The Wind
and Turning Waves’ before reaching the final round.
A. abolished B. eradicated C. erased D. eliminated
Question 14: I will call you back _______.
A. once I returned home from the supermarket
B. by the time I will return home from the supermarket
C. when I return home from the supermarket
D. as soon as I had returned return home from the supermarket
Question 15: He decided to _______ reparation to his neighbor by repairing the fence he accidentally
damaged.
A. bring B. make C. lay D. do
Question 16: Vietnam is dedicated to fighting _______ embezzlement cases through stringent legal
measures.
A. with B. against C. at D. for
Question 17: As a talented musician, she feels like she has the world at her _______ with endless
opportunities for success.
A. fingers B. arm C. feet D. toes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. channel B. chimney C. champagne D. chirpy
Question 19: A. middle B. divide C. issue D. finish

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. decorate B. especial C. organize D. versatile
Question 21: A. timeless B. country C. exist D. climate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Despite his efforts, his performance in the competition was unremarkable.
A. overrated B. mediocre C. exceptional D. underestimated
Question 23: After the team’s recent loss, the coach tried to put the heat on the players during practice,
pushing them to perform better.
A. exert influence B. raise expectations C. relieve pressure D. lower salaries

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: She eagerly anticipated the arrival of her family for the holiday gathering.
A. prepared B. expected C. overlooked D. ignored
Question 25: The old house has weathered many storms over the years, standing strong against the
elements.
A. broadened B. collapsed C. sustained D. narrowed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
TEENAGERS AND DIGITAL TECHNOLOGY
In many countries, there is a widespread perception that teenagers’ lives nowadays are dominated
by technology. However, the information (1) _________ was gathered in a recent study of Australian
teenagers’ use of and attitudes towards technology suggests that this view doesn’t reflect the reality of
their everyday existence. The research by academics from the University of Canberra in Australia found
that, while most teenagers had ready access to home computers, mobile phones and (2) _________
electronic devices, they generally spent more time on traditional (3) _________ such as talking to family
and friends, doing homework, and enjoying hobbies and sports than on using technology. Accessing
social media and playing computer games ranked as low as ninth and tenth respectively among the ten
most common after-school activities.
Fifteen-year-old Laura Edmonds is one of the teenagers surveyed. She admits to being very (4)
_________ to her smartphone and makes full use of various apps, (5) _________ if she needs to unwind
after a hard day at school, she tends to “hang out with my friends, listen to music or chat with my mum
and dad”.
(Adapted from Exam Essentials Practice Tests - Cambridge English
by Tom Bradbury and Eunice Yentes)
Question 26: A. when B. which C. where D. who
Question 27: A. one B. every C. other D. another
Question 28: A. operations B. pursuits C. events D. incidents
Question 29: A. enclosed B. attached C. related D. conformed
Question 30: A. nor B. till C. like D. but

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
More and more young people are choosing to take a gap year between finishing school and
starting university. Alternatively, they may decide to take a gap year between graduating from university
and starting a career feeling the need for some time out before joining the rat race. Most students see the
time as an opportunity to travel. The idea of travelling to as many foreign places as possible appeals
greatly.
A large percentage of gap-year students have wealthy parents who can easily subsidize their
travel. Others have to save up before they go, or look for some form of employment while travelling.
For example, they may work on local farms or in local hotels. By doing so, they not only earn some
money, but they are likely to meet local people and acquire some understanding of their culture.
There are some students who choose to work for the whole of their gap year. A number may
decide to get work experience, either at home or abroad, in an area which they hope to make their career,
such as medicine or computers. A large proportion of students are now choosing to work with a charity
which arranges voluntary work in various parts of the world. The projects provide hands-on experience
of a very varied nature, from teaching to helping build roads or dams.
The gap year is not just an adventure. Young people can benefit greatly from encountering new
and varied experiences and from communication with a wide range of people. Perhaps most importantly,
gap-year students have to learn to stand on their own two feet.
(Adapted from Thematic Vocabulary & Comprehension by Betty Kirkpatrick and Rebecca Mok)
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Working for Life B. Taking Time Out
C. Studying Overseas D. Contributing to the Community
Question 32: The word “subsidize” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______.
A. ask for B. pay for C. work for D. apply for
Question 33: The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. local farms B. local hotels C. local people D. gap-year students
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The number of students taking a gap year between high school and university is falling.
B. None of the students choose to work for the whole of their gap year to get experience.
C. Most students consider a gap year as a chance to travel.
D. Students can take a gap year only before starting university.
Question 35: According to the passage, what is perhaps the most important benefit of
students’ taking a gap year?
A. They learn how to become independent.
B. They receive practical training for their future careers.
C. They have an opportunity to meet local people.
D. They earn money to support their further studies.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
“I have not paid a single electricity bill since the year 1970,” says Richard Perez with noticeable
glee. He can afford to be smug. He lives “off-grid” - unconnected to the power grid and the water, gas
and sewerage supplies that most people in the world rely on. He generates his own electricity, sources
his own water and deals with his own waste disposal - and he prefers it that way. “There are times when
the grid blacks out,” he says. “I really like the security of having my own electricity company.”
Perez is not alone. Once the preserve of mavericks, hippies and survivalists, there are now
approximately 200,000 off-grid households in the United States of America, a figure that Perez says has
been increasing by a third every year for the past decade. For all of the people who live off-grid, self-
sufficiency means guilt-free energy consumption and peace of mind. “It feels brilliant to make use of
clean, free energy that is not from fossil fuels,” says Suzanne Galant, a writer who lives off-grid in rural
area in Wales. “And if something goes wrong, we can fix it ourselves.” Now even urbanites are seeing
the appeal of generating some if not all of their own power needs. So is energy freedom an eco pipe-
dream or the ultimate good life?
Well, there is only one way to find out: begin to explore the possibilities of solar, wind or hydro-
power. But unless you live on a sunny, south-facing hillside with access to a nearby river or stream, that
might prove prohibitively expensive!
There is no doubt that being off-grid has its problems, and it is not always the cheapest way to
get the energy you need. Even so, pioneers like Perez have proved that it can be done, and without giving
up a 218-century lifestyle: “I have got five personal computers, two laser scanners, two fridge-freezers,
a microwave, a convection oven, vacuum cleaners - you name it,” says Perez, “There is an external beam
antenna on the roof for the phone and a satellite dish for an Internet connection have got 70 kWh in
batteries that could last me five days. I have too much electricity.” Too much electricity and no more
bills. That has got to be worth aiming for.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Doff and Ben Goldstein)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Unplugging from the Grid B. No Water, No Life!
C. A Day in the Life of an ‘Off-gridder’ D. Living without Electricity
Question 37: The phrase “blacks out” in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. serves many purposes B. fails to work
C. has no functions D. is able to run
Question 38: According to paragraph 1. Richard Perez has managed to _______.
A. provide energy for people in his neighborhood B. save a lot of money with his own company
C. stay independent of certain public utilities D. pay off his electricity bills since 1970
Question 39: The word “pipe-dream” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. a terrible situation B. an impractical hope C. a promising vision D. a real nightmare
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. being a pioneer B. giving up a 21st century lifestyle
C. being off-grid D. getting the energy
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The number of ‘off-gridders’ in the US is said to have risen by 33% over the past 10 years.
B. Some city dwellers have shown an interest in producing their own electricity.
C. ‘Off-gridders’ enjoy not doing harm to the environment.
D. People opting for off-grid living used to be considered quite eccentric.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Adopting an off-grid lifestyle is only suitable for low-income people.
B. Leading a 21st century lifestyle means consuming a great deal of electricity.
C. Many ‘off-gridders’ have made a fortune selling their own electricity.
D. Most people living in temperate regions are against the idea of living off-grid.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: Mary didn’t devote enough time to studying. She didn’t achieve high grades.
A. If Mary had devoted enough time to studying, she couldn’t have achieved high grades.
B. If Mary had devoted enough time to studying, she could have achieved high grades.
C. If Mary had devoted enough time to studying, she can’t have achieved high grades.
D. If Mary had devoted enough time to studying, she can have achieved high grades.
Question 44: He carefully studied the recipe. He then began cooking.
A. No sooner had he carefully studied the recipe when he began cooking.
B. Only after he began cooking did she carefully study the recipe.
C. Not until he carefully studied the recipe did be begin cooking.
D. Had it not been for his carefully studying the recipe, he would have begun cooking.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: The shelter offers support to the homeless, addressing its needs for housing and healthcare.
A. shelter B. homeless C. its D. healthcare
Question 46: The breathtaking view from the mountaintop at sunset created a forgetful moment for all
who witnessed it, etching a vivid memory in their minds for years to come.
A. breathtaking B. mountaintop C. forgetful D. vivid
Question 47: Last year, environmental organizations are advocating for stricter regulations to protect
endangered species.
A. environmental B. are C. regulations D. endangered

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: It was irresponsible of you to leave the door unlocked while you were away.
A. You could have locked the door before leaving.
B. You needn’t have locked the door before leaving.
C. You should have locked the door before leaving.
D. You must have locked the door before leaving.
Question 49: Emma completed her last marathon race two years ago.
A. Emma has been running marathon races for two years.
B. The last time Emma ran a marathon race was two years ago.
C. Emma started running marathon races two years ago.
D. Emma didn’t run marathon races for two years.
Question 50: “I’m sorry, I can’t attend the meeting,” Tom said.
A. Tom refused to attend the meeting.
B. Tom agreed to attend the meeting.
C. Tom regretted not attending the meeting.
D. Tom apologized for not attending the meeting.

_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Emma and Jack are discussing which movie to watch on their movie night.
- Emma: “I think we should watch a romantic comedy. They’re always enjoyable and light-hearted.”
- Jack: “__________. I believe an action-packed thriller would be more thrilling and engaging.”
A. You can say that again. B. That sounds great.
C. It’s nice of you to say so. D. I don’t think so.
Question 2: Tom and Lucy are browsing through a bookstore.
- Tom: “What book do you suggest, Lucy?”
- Lucy: “__________.”
A. I think ‘The Godfather’ is a great choice. B. No, I’m not interested.
C. Sorry, I didn’t hear you. D. Yes, I prefer mysteries.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: I consider myself _______ person because I have my parents by my side.
A. the most happy B. the happiest C. the more happy D. the happier
Question 4: The new product launch attracted fierce _______ from rival companies eager to gain market
share.
A. competition B. compete C. competitor D. competitive
Question 5: The novel _______ by Isaac Asimov captivated readers worldwide.
A. is published B. to publish C. published D. publishing
Question 6: Yesterday, I went to _______ school to meet with my daughter’s teacher and discuss her
progress.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: Amelia _______ with her best friend after a misunderstanding about the party invitation.
A. broke down B. fell out C. got along D. turned away
Question 8: Ben _______ with a brand new bicycle on his birthday by his father.
A. was presenting B. presents C. has presented D. was presented
Question 9: James and Linda can’t wait _______ their engagement to family and friends.
A. announce B. to announce C. to announcing D. announcing
Question 10: You didn’t forget to lock the front door, _______?
A. do you B. didn’t you C. did you D. don’t you
Question 11: The fireworks display on New Year’s Eve was truly _______, lighting up the night sky
with brilliant colors and patterns.
A. ostentatious B. spectacular C. vulnerable D. extravagant
Question 12: Hoa Lo Prison _______ in thousands of foreign visitors since it opened.
A. is drawing B. has drawn C. was drawing D. draws
Question 13: Despite his meticulous planning, he _______ a crucial detail in the project, leading to
unexpected complications.
A. neglected B. omitted C. overlooked D. ignored
Question 14: Mary had been residing in her old apartment for 10 years _______.
A. once she will move to a new one B. before she moved to a new one
C. by the time she moves to a new one D. as soon as she had moved to a new one
Question 15: During their trip to Paris, they decided to _______ a visit to the Louvre Museum to admire
famous artworks.
A. stand B. take C. pay D. make
Question 16: Ever since she read the first book in the series, she’s been hooked _______ fantasy novels.
A. for B. on C. at D. to
Question 17: John claimed he knew all about the topic, but it was clear he was talking through his
_______ as he couldn’t answer any of the questions.
A. pant B. hat C. shirt D. collar

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. happen B. helmet C. honor D. heaven
Question 19: A. contract B. comment C. contain D. complete

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. develop B. quantity C. paperback D. evidence
Question 21: A. failure B. engine C. reason D. machine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Despite the loud noise around her, she remained oblivious to her surroundings as she was
engrossed in her book.
A. unconscious B. relieved C. anxious D. mindful
Question 23: Despite their different cultural backgrounds, they seem to speak the same language when
it comes to their shared love for music.
A. start an argument B. conceal the issue C. share similar views D. amplify the concern

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The company must comply with safety regulations to ensure the well-being of its
employees.
A. violate B. follow C. maintain D. adjust
Question 25: The lack of funding proved to be a significant impediment to the completion of the project.
A. validation B. assistance C. obstacle D. disapproval

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
SOCIAL NETWORKING SITES
Social networking sites are now estimated to have over 700 million users worldwide. As users
can create their own profiles, you might expect them to portray themselves in the best possible light.
When putting up a profile, it would be (1) _________ for them to present flattering images, choose
sophisticated and discerning interests, and carefully express their thoughts to appear more intelligent
than in real life. (2) _________, according to a recent study conducted on 250 Facebook users, this is
not the case. Far from being idealised versions of themselves, most users’ profiles (3) _________ closely
to what they are really like and show their true personalities including their both psychological
weaknesses and natural physical flaws.
It’s not entirely clear why online profiles depict users’ personalities so accurately. It could be
that users want to portray themselves as they really are, or that people attempt to present an ideal image
of themselves but fail to do so. One thing seems clear: social networking sites can in no way be
considered a false online world (4) _________ is idealised and removed from reality, rather, they are
simply (5) _________ way in which people choose to interact with each other.
(Adapted from English United by Adrian Doff and Ben Goldstein)

Question 26: A. controversial B. exceptional C. believable D. reasonable


Question 27: A. Besides B. Therefore C. Furthermore D. However
Question 28: A. conform B. comply C. abide D. follow
Question 29: A. that B. who C. where D. when
Question 30: A. other B. another C. few D. many

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
For many years, schoolchildren in the US have been taken on ‘field trips to cultural institutions
and historical sites. Despite these trips involving some expense and disruption to class timetables,
educators arrange them in the belief that schools exist not only to teach economically useful skills, but
also to produce civilised young people who appreciate the arts and culture.
However, there have been increasing signs in recent years that the attitude towards field trips is
changing, with a significant decrease in the number of tours organised for school groups. A survey
carried out by a group of school administrators found that over half the schools they asked had decided
to cancel trips planned for the next academic year.
So what are the reasons for this change? The most obvious one is the issue of finance. Because
there are increasing demands on their funds, schools are forced to make a difficult choice about how to
spend the limited money they have. Field trips are an obvious thing to cut since they are seen by many
as a luxury. A large number of school heads also consider days spent away from school a waste of time,
believing that the only worthwhile use of students’ time is spent preparing for exams in the classroom.
But why should anybody worry if schoolchildren go on fewer trips? Those that believe this is a
negative development in education would say that cultural field trips contribute to the development of
students into well-educated adults who have a healthy interest in history and the arts. Researchers warn
that if schools cut field trips, then valuable opportunities to broaden and enrich children’s learning
experiences are lost.
(Adapted from Exam Booster by Helen Chilton, Sheila Dignen, Mark Fountain and Frances Treloar)

Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Positive changes in American schools B. Valuable academic learning experiences
C. New trends in educational development D. Field trips for schoolchildren
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, educators believe that through field trips, children can ______.
A. practise some outdoor activities B. enjoy their time at school
C. learn to value the arts and culture D. develop economically useful skills only
Question 33: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. school administrators B. the schools C. field trips D. school groups
Question 34: The phrase “a luxury” in paragraph 3 mostly describes something which is ______.
A. difficult and important B. new and common
C. expensive but not essential D. cheap but comfortable
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The number of field trips organised for school groups is growing.
B. Cutting field trips may mean fewer opportunities for students’ cultural learning.
C. Most school heads find it not worthwhile for students to spend time preparing for exams.
D. Schools no longer have to pay for their students’ field trips.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
One day, a middle-aged man asked a taxi to take him to see Chelsea play Arsenal at football. He
told the driver “Stamford Bridge”, the name of Chelsea’s stadium, but he was delivered instead to the
village of Stamford Bridge in Yorkshire. Of course, he missed the match.
What had happened? With the Sat-Nav system in place, the driver in this story felt he did not
need to know where he was going. He confidently outsourced the job of knowing this information to
the Sat-Nav. Using an Internet search engine takes a broadband user less than a second. And with
smartphones at hand, people will be online almost all of the time.
The same could be true of university education. Today, the average student seems not to value
general knowledge. If asked a factual question, they will usually click on a search engine without a
second thought. Actually knowing the fact and committing it to memory does not seem to be an issue,
it’s the case with which we can look it up.
However, general knowledge has never been something that you acquire formally. Instead, we
pick it up from all sorts of sources as we go along, often absorbing facts without realising. The question
remains, then: is the Internet threatening general knowledge? When I put that to Moira Jones, expert in
designing IQ tests, she referred me to the story of the Egyptian god Thoth. It goes like this: Thoth offers
writing as a gift to the king of Egypt, declaring it an “elixir of memory and wisdom.” But the king is
horrified, and tells him: “This invention will induce forgetfulness in the souls of those who have learned
it, because they will not need to exercise their memories, being able to rely on what is written.”
Who wants to be a millionaire finalist David Swift, responding to the same question, recognizes
that there was a problem of young people saying: “I don’t need to know that, but he is far more excited
about the educational potential of the Internet. “There is so much more information out there, giving
people opportunities to boost their general knowledge.” After all, the Internet might just help us to forget
more and more. But meanwhile, the continuing popularity of quizzes and game shows shows us that
general knowledge is strong enough to remain.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Doll and Ben Goldstein)

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Age of the Robot? B. Novel Applications of the Sat Nav System
C. New Perspectives on Tertiary Education D. The End of General Knowledge?
Question 37: Why did the middle aged man miss the football match?
A. Because the Sat-Nav in his car was out of order
B. Because the taxi driver was over-dependent on technology
C. Because he did not remember the directions to the stadium
D. Because the search engine in the taxi failed to work
Question 38: The word “outsourced” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. exchanged B. lessigned C. submitted D. imposed
Question 39: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. general B. knowledge C. the Internet D. the question
Question 40: The word “induce” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. ease B. limit C. promote D. cause
Question 41: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Young people do not seem to bother themselves with memorising factual information.
B. General knowledge tends to have been mainly acquired through formal schooling.
C. The majority of undergraduates are reluctant to look for answers to factual questions online.
D. On being offered the gift of writing, the king of Egypt was hopeful about its potential.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Many universities worldwide have switched to virtual platforms for learning and teaching.
B. Moira Jones is not positive about the potential of the Internet in general knowledge acquisition.
C. When it comes to IQ tests, the ability to recall factual information is of little importance.
D. David Swift believes that informal acquisition of knowledge has been overrated these days.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: He got involved in trafficking drugs. He was put in prison.
A. If he hadn’t got involved in trafficking drugs, he would have been put in prison.
B. If he hadn’t got involved in trafficking drugs, he wouldn’t have been put in prison.
C. If he hadn’t got involved in trafficking drugs, he won’t have been put in prison.
D. If he hadn’t got involved in trafficking drugs, he will have been put in prison.
Question 44: Minh graduated from university. He was invited to become a professor.
A. Not until Minh was invited to become a professor did he graduate from university.
B. Hardly had Minh graduated from university when he was invited to become a professor.
C. Only after Minh was invited to become a professor did he graduate from university.
D. Had it not been for his graduation from university, Minh would have been invited to become a
professor.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: The man inquires workers about the facilities available in his workplace.
A. inquires B. facilities C. available D. his
Question 46: The successful entrepreneur found a highly profitable company that strictly adheres to
strict confidentiality measures to safeguard sensitive information.
A. successful B. found C. confidentiality D. sensitive
Question 47: My mother works diligently as a nurse in the bustling hospital of our city during the 1990s.
A. works B. diligently C. bustling D. our

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Students are not allowed to touch the equipment in the laboratory.
A. Students won’t touch the equipment in the laboratory.
B. Students mustn’t touch the equipment in the laboratory.
C. Students wouldn’t touch the equipment in the laboratory.
D. Students needn’t touch the equipment in the laboratory.
Question 49: Sarah has been watching TikTok videos for 3 hours.
A. Sarah hasn’t watched TikTok videos for 3 hours.
B. The last time Sarah watched TikTok videos was 3 hours ago.
C. Sarah started watching TikTok videos for 3 hours ago.
D. Sarah didn’t watch TikTok videos for 3 hours.
Question 50: “My brother is working as the president of a multinational,” said Mary.
A. Mary said that her brother is working as the president of a multinational.
B. Mary said that my brother is working as the president of a multinational.
C. Mary said that her brother was working as the president of a multinational.
D. Mary said that my brother was working as the president of a multinational.

_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Minh and Linh are discussing recent music news.
- Minh: “I was very depressed to hear the Ngot band decided to disband.”
- Linh: “__________. They were one of my favorite bands, too.”
A. That sounds upsetting. B. I don’t think so.
C. Of course not. D. I beg to differ.
Question 2: Giang and Mary are discussing evening plans.
- Mary: “Would you like to go to the cinema to watch ‘Mai’ by Tran Thanh tonight?”
- Giang: “__________.”
A. Yes, I’d like some popcorn. B. No, I prefer staying in.
C. No, I prefer tea. D. Yes, I’m feeling hungry.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Julia is _______ of the two sisters.
A. the most beautiful B. more beautiful C. the more beautiful D. as beautiful
Question 4: After finishing her exams, Grace felt a sense of relief and enjoyed a _______ day at the
beach.
A. careless B. carefree C. careful D. caring
Question 5: The new factory opened in the area, _______ employment opportunities for the locals.
A. is increased B. to increase C. increased D. increasing
Question 6: Let’s have _______ together at the new cafe downtown.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: Daisy decided to _______ painting as a hobby after being inspired by her friend’s artwork.
A. take up B. give away C. turn off D. bring out
Question 8: After a successful recovery, the patient _______ from the hospital and allowed to return
home.
A. was discharging B. discharges C. has discharged D. was discharged
Question 9: After completing his bachelor’s degree, Oliver went on _______ a master’s degree in
computer science.
A. pursuing B. to pursue C. pursue D. to pursuing
Question 10: She didn’t apply for the job, _______?
A. didn’t she B. was she C. did she D. wasn’t she
Question 11: As the interviewer entered the room, Lily quickly _______ her features into a confident
and friendly expression.
A. compacted B. contained C. composed D. contracted
Question 12: When I knocked on his door, Alfie _______ his teeth.
A. is brushing B. has brushed C. brushes D. was brushing
Question 13: Mia was _______ when she heard the news of her grandfather’s passing.
A. devastated B. demolished C. spoilt D. destroyed
Question 14: Jack will go to West Lake _______.
A. as soon as he had finished his homework B. as soon as he will finish his homework
C. as soon as he finished his homework D. as soon as he finishes his homework
Question 15: As the storm clouds gathered overhead, the sky opened up and began to _______ with
rain.
A. jump B. pour C. drop D. set
Question 16: Maya was so engrossed _______ her book that she didn’t notice the time passing by.
A. in B. with C. at D. to
Question 17: After turning down the job offer, she made sure not to burn her _______ with the company,
maintaining good relations for potential future opportunities.
A. corners B. pockets C. candles D. bridges

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. bring B. broad C. debt D. bright
Question 19: A. mine B. piece C. light D. shine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. discourage B. accident C. responsive D. committee
Question 21: A. damage B. driver C. disease D. decide

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The industrious student completed all her assignments ahead of schedule, impressing her
teachers.
A. lazy B. commercial C. hard-working D. easy
Question 23: Winning the lottery was beyond her wildest dreams, as she had never imagined having
such a large sum of money.
A. straightforward B. inconceivable C. predictable D. ambiguous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Despite suffering from a mild ailment, she continued to work diligently.
A. strength B. wealth C. poverty D. illness
Question 25: As he sat on the park bench, he began to contemplate his future career path.
A. reflect B. overlook C. criticize D. applause

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
YOUR ONLINE IDENTITY
Presenting yourself in the best possible light to a prospective employer is what job applications
are all about. (26) _________ when you put together a compelling CV, write your concise covering letter
and check your Linkedin profile, you might also want to ‘Google’ yourself and see what comes up,
because increasingly that’s what employers are doing. Your online identity, in (27) _________ your
Facebook profile, could in fact be considered the ultimate CV- a personal, honest and spontaneous
description of how you see yourself and bow those (28) _________ know you see you.
That’s not to say that a potential employer is necessarily going to disapprove of your silly
behaviors on a night out with friends, indeed, they might be looking for an extrovert character. But it
does mean they will be examining your real interests and motivations and mining (29) _________ sites
for clues to your true character. So if you say in your CV that you’re a motivated, loyal team player and
then criticize your employer to friends on Facebook, that’s probably not going to go (30) _________.
Try Googling yourself and then ask: “Would you hire you?”
(Adapted from Keynote by Paul Dummett, Helen Stephen und Lewis Lansford)

Question 26: A. Till B. Or C. Nor D. So


Question 27: A. particular B. short C. all D. general
Question 28: A. what B. who C. which D. where
Question 29: A. every B. each C. much D. such
Question 30: A. unchanged B. unjustified C. unnoticed D. unattended

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Most of us have taken a selfie at one time or another, be it a photo of ourselves in a beautiful
place, during a performance by our favourite band, or on a memorable night out with friends. But today,
more and more people are putting their lives at risk in an attempt to get the most shocking pictures to
share on social media. In several cases, this action has had disastrous consequences.
Take, for example, the Spaniard who was killed by a bull while he was taking a selfie during the
annual bull run in a village near his hometown, or the Singaporean tourist who died when he fell from
cliffs on the coast of Bali. Such incidents have led to the death toll from selfie-related incidents reaching
double figures for the first time in 2015, overtaking the number of victims of shark attacks.
Despite the risks, social media is full of pictures featuring near misses that could have been fatal
under other circumstances. Under the caption ‘Most dangerous selfie ever’, a woman posing at a stadium
can be seen narrowly avoiding being hit in the head by a baseball approaching her. Yet the photo has
received thousands of “likes”, and the comments below it suggest that this behavior is something to be
admired.
In response to the increasing threat posed by the selfie, the authorities have started to take action.
The Russian Interior Ministry, for instance, and launched a public education campaign advising selfie-
takers against balancing on dangerous surfaces or posing with their pets, among other things. But if
instructions like this are really necessary, then perhaps it is about time we asked ourselves which is more
important, a ‘like’ or a life?
(Adapted from Solution – Third Edition by Tim Falla and Paul A Davies)
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Posing with Animals B. Dying for a Selfie
C. A Ban on Selfie-taking D. Positive Trends in Photography
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, selfie-takers try to get shocking pictures mainly to ______.
A. upset other people B. share them with others
C. have lovely memories with friends D. show off their beautiful lives
Question 33: The word “overtaking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. dealing with B. becoming greater than
C. competing with D. becoming better than
Question 34: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the photo B. the head C. a baseball D. a stadium
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Taking a selfie with pets is considered the most dangerous.
B. Pictures of near misses are popular on social media.
C. Action has been taken to warn selfie-takers against dangerous situations.
D. There was an increase in the number of selfie-related deaths in 2015.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Oxford University has released a sample of interview questions – including what a rock looks
like and how you listen to music - to help students who want to study at the top institution. Among the
list of questions are: “What can historians not find out about the past?”, “Is religion of value whether or
not there is a God?” and “How can we estimate the mass of the atmosphere?”. Prospective earth sciences
students could be asked what a rock handed to them looks like, meanwhile chemistry candidates are
asked to calculate how many different molecules can be made from six carbon atoms and 12 hydrogen
atoms.
In efforts to make the interview process more transparent, the prestigious university has released
advice on how to answer the example questions just days after the deadline for applications closed. Dr
Samina Khan, director of admissions and outreach, said: “Interviews will be an entirely new experience
for most students, and we know many prospective applicants are already worried about being in an
unfamiliar place and being questioned by people they have not met.”
She added: “We want to underscore that every question asked by our tutors has a purpose, and
that purpose is to assess how students think about their subject and respond to new information or
unfamiliar ideas. No matter what kind of educational background or opportunities you have had, the
interview should be an opportunity to present your interest and ability in your chosen subject, since they
are not just about reciting what you already know.”
Laura Tunbridge, from St Catherine’s College, explained why a music candidate might be asked
to explain the different ways they listen to music. “The question allows students to use their own musical
experiences as a starting point for a broader and more abstract discussion about the different ways people
consume music, the relationship between music and technology, and how music can define us socially,”
she said.
Candidates who successfully clear the first hurdle with their written application will be invited
to interview. “We know there are still misunderstandings about the Oxford interview, so we put as much
information as possible out there to allow students to see the reality of the process,” added Dr Khan.
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Oxford University: Lowering Standards in Times of Change!
B. The History of Oxford’s Interviewing Schemes
C. Oxford University Interview Questions: Would You Pass the Test?
D. The Oxford’s Guide to Success in Job Interviews
Question 37: The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. prospective earth sciences students B. historians
C. chemistry candidates D. questions
Question 38: Why has Oxford University publicised its sample interview questions and related advice?
A. To prepare students for unfamiliar questions in their job interviews
B. To familiarise potential applicants with their interview process
C. To test public reaction to their novel interview process
D. To reduce confusion among most of their current students
Question 39: The word “reciting” in paragraph 3 most probably means __________.
A. repeating B. reassessing C. releasing D. revising
Question 40: According to Laura Tunbridge, the question about a candidate’s ways of listening to music
is intended to ______.
A. judge the candidate’s ability to react to familiar situations
B. set the context for a more abstract discussion on music-related topics
C. encourage the candidate to elaborate on their individual preferences
D. measure their understanding of how technology affects entertainment choices
Question 41: The word “clear” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. pass B. face C. give D. skip
Question 42: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Dr Khan advises candidates to focus more on showing their general knowledge at the interview.
B. Oxford University plans to use the same set of questions for all candidates.
C. Oxford University only releases sample interview questions for earth sciences and music.
D. Dr Khan understands how the notion of attending the Oxford interview may affect prospective
candidates.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: George cheated in the exam. His exam results were not recognized.
A. If George hadn’t cheated in the exam, his exam results would have been recognized.
B. If George hadn’t cheated in the exam, his exam results won’t have been recognized.
C. If George hadn’t cheated in the exam, his exam results wouldn’t have been recognized.
D. If George hadn’t cheated in the exam, his exam results will have been recognized.
Question 44: Henry finished his lunch. He realized that he was allergic to one of the ingredients.
A. Only after Henry finished his lunch did he realize that he was allergic to one of the ingredients.
B. No sooner had Henry finished his lunch when he realized that he was allergic to one of the
ingredients.
C. If Henry hadn’t finished his lunch, he would have realized that he was allergic to one of the
ingredients.
D. Not until Henry realized that he was allergic to one of the ingredients did he finish his lunch.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: The depreciation of the company’s assets over time led to a decrease in their overall value.
A. depreciation B. assets C. led D. their
Question 46: Continual assessment is used to assess student progress regularly, and educators are
appreciative of the benefits it provides in tracking and enhancing learning outcomes.
A. Continual B. assess C. appreciative D. outcomes
Question 47: The company makes a considerable profit last quarter, exceeding everyone’s expectations.
A. makes B. considerable C. exceeding D. expectations

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Students are obliged to attend at least 3 workshops in a semester.
A. Students can attend at least 3 workshops in a semester.
B. Students should attend at least 3 workshops in a semester.
C. Students must attend at least 3 workshops in a semester.
D. Students will attend at least 3 workshops in a semester.
Question 49: The last time Thao went to the school cafeteria was two days ago.
A. Thao started going to the school cafeteria two days ago.
B. Thao hasn’t gone to the school cafeteria for two days.
C. Thao didn’t go to the school cafeteria for two days.
D. Thao has gone to the school cafeteria for two days.
Question 50: “My family will go on a vacation to Melbourne next month,” said Ana.
A. Ana said that my family will go on a vacation to Melbourne next month.
B. Ana said that her family would on a vacation to Melbourne the following month.
C. Ana said that my family would on a vacation to Melbourne the following month.
D. Ana said that her family would go on a vacation to Melbourne next month.
_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Bob and Khanh are chatting.
- Bob: “I think we should cut down on carbon footprints.”
- Khanh: “_________. It’s essential for reducing global warming.”
A. I beg to differ. B. I don’t think so.
C. That sounds amazing. D. You can say that again.
Question 2: Mary and Giang are discussing about weekend plans.
- Mary: “Would you like to go hiking this weekend, Giang?”
- Giang: “_________.”
A. No, I prefer to stay at home. B. I’d love to, but I’m not available this weekend.
C. Yes, I’d like to go to the beach instead. D. Maybe, let me think about it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: The more you practice, _______ you become.
A. the goodest B. the best C. the better D. the more good
Question 4: John’s _______ stories have inspired many aspiring business owners to pursue their dreams.
A. successive B. succeed C. successful D. success
Question 5: John was in the middle of cooking dinner when the power went out, _______ him in
darkness.
A. was left B. leaving C. to leave D. left
Question 6: In _______ library, students were quietly studying for their exams.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: Emily _______ criticism after her remarks during the meeting sparked controversy among
the team members.
A. looked up to B. got away with C. went back on D. came in for
Question 8: Young people _______ to explore their interests and pursue their passions to discover their
true potential.
A. are encouraging B. encourage C. are encouraged D. have encouraged
Question 9: After much negotiation, the two parties finally agreed _______ the contract.
A. to sign B. signing C. to signing D. sign
Question 10: Nobody was late for the interview, _______?
A. wasn’t he B. were they C. weren’t they D. was he
Question 11: During the Tet holiday, the National Cinema Center of Vietnam had to _______ the high
ticket demand by adding extra showtimes and expanding seating capacity.
A. inundate B. accommodate C. accentuate D. deliberate
Question 12: When I started learning abroad in 2011, my girlfriend _______ in a different city.
A. was living B. has lived C. lives D. is living
Question 13: The designer carefully _______ the suit to the client’s specific requirements, ensuring a
perfect fit and style.
A. adjusted B. tailored C. adapted D. modified
Question 14: Julie will go for a walk _______.
A. after she had finished her chores B. when she has finished her chores
C. as soon as she finished her chores D. by the time she will finish her chores
Question 15: Alexis, with her keen eye for detail, could always _______ the difference between genuine
and counterfeit artwork.
A. tell B. split C. make D. give
Question 16: Jessica found a job that was suitable _______ her skills and interests.
A. for B. on C. with D. to
Question 17: Despite being born with a _______ spoon in her mouth, she chose to work hard and make
a name for herself rather than relying on her family’s wealth.
A. golden B. silver C. bronze D. wooden

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. commit B. certain C. cereal D. city
Question 19: A. moon B. cook C. choose D. loose

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. apprehend B. previous C. afternoon D. employee
Question 21: A. behave B. polite C. former D. obey

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Because he left the door unlocked, he is liable for any items that may have been stolen
from his house.
A. responsible B. willing C. innocent D. reluctant
Question 23: During the holiday season, the staff at the retail store were rushed off their feet trying to
keep up with the influx of customers.
A. overwhelmed B. speedy C. sluggish D. leisurely

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The lack of rainfall during the dry season only served to exacerbate the already dire
situation.
A. intensify B. aggravate C. ameliorate D. reinforce
Question 25: Recent advancements in technology have revolutionized the way we communicate and
access information.
A. investments B. breakthroughs C. setbacks D. expenditures

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
INTERNSHIPS
In many countries going through difficult economic times, job openings for new graduates can
be few and far between. In this competitive environment, relevant work experience can help job seekers
stand out from the crowd, and (26) _________ organisations now offer temporary placements, called
internships. The problem with numerous internships, (27) _________, is that they are unpaid, and this
often puts young people off applying for them.
Employers and interns sometimes come to mutually beneficial arrangements, however. Dinesh
Pathan, applying for an internship with an IT company, negotiated a deal in which he would be given
travel (28) _________ only for two weeks, and then, as long as he could show his marketing work was
adding value, he would be paid a wage. The arrangement worked well: Dinesh had a(n) (29) _________
to work hard, and he ended up feeling “not so much an intern as a temporary staffer”. HR consultant
Denise Baker says similar arrangements are common. What is more, “if interns do well, employers
would often rather make them full employees than recruit people (30) _________ they don’t know”.
(Adapted from Exam Essential Practice Tests - Cambridge English by Tom Bradbury and
Eunice Yeates)

Question 26: A. much B. every C. another D. many


Question 27: A. instead B. therefore C. moreover D. however
Question 28: A. companions B. restrictions C expenses D. destinations
Question 29: A. profit B. incentive C. persuasion D. promotion
Question 30: A. who B. when C. where D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the Staying in hotels and resorts has been a traditional part of travel since the beginning of mass tourism.
But nowadays, many tourists want a more intimate experience. For this reason, they are choosing to ‘go
native’. This often means staying in the kinds of places that local people inhabit. In big cities, you can
try staying with the friend of a friend. You may end up sleeping on the couch or floor, but the advantages
outweigh the discomfort. The biggest plus is that you’ll be staying with a local and seeing the city from
a local perspective.
Another option is house-swapping. Several websites allow you to connect with people who want
to trade living situations. It’s usual to exchange emails about favourite places in the city before the swap,
meaning you can have a truly local experience. But of course, you can only do this if you don’t mind
having strangers staying in your house.
For the more adventurous, staying in a native structure in an African village or a hut on the water
in Vietnam or Thailand can be a real thrill. These might not even include plumbing or electricity, and
that is part of the charm. The experience of dealing with oil lamps and carrying water really gives you
a sense of how the people live.
No matter how unadventurous you feel, you might want to consider crossing hotels off your list.
Getting to know the local way of life is the most valuable part of travel. And what better way is there to
do this than staying where the local people actually live?
(Adapted from Solutions - Third Edition by Tim Filla and Paul A Davien)

Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?


A. New holiday accommodation trends B. Adventurous holiday activities
C. World heritage sites D. Main tourist attractions in Asia
Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. resorts B. hotels C. local people D. tourists
Question 33: What is the biggest advantage of tourists’ going native?
A. It enables them to experience the local lifestyle.
B. It offers them opportunities to make new friends.
C. It is more comfortable than staying in hotels and resorts.
D. It is cheaper than staying in other kinds of accommodation.
Question 34: The word “charm” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. price B. attraction C. safety D. danger
Question 35: Which of the following is mentioned in the passage?
A. There are several websites used for house-swapping purposes.
B. Tourists to Thailand prefer staying in a native structure to staying in a hut.
C. Staying with local people is more popular than staying in hotels and resorts.
D. Dealing with oil lamps is the most thrilling experience for tourists to Vietnam.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The United Nations recently outlined the extent of the global water crisis, saying that 2.7 billion
people would face severe water shortages by 2025 if consumption continues at current rates. Today, an
estimated 1.2 billion people drink unclean water, and about 2.5 billion lack proper toilets or waste
disposal systems. More than five million people die each year from diseases related to unclean water.
Humans are pumping water out of the ground faster than it can be replenished. In this difficult situation,
a water conservationist, Neil MacLeod in South Africa, has found innovative ways to improve his local
water situation.
Neil MacLeod took over as head of Durban Metro Water Services in 1992. The situation he found
was a catastrophe. Durban had one million people living in the city and another 1.5 million people who
lived in poverty just outside it. The entire city was rife with broken water pipes, leaky toilets, and faulty
plumbing whereby 42 percent of the region’s water was simply being wasted.
MacLeod’s crews began repairing and replacing water pipes. They put water meters on
residences, replaced eight-liter toilets with four-liter models, and changed wasteful showers and water
taps. To ensure that the poor would receive a basic supply of water, MacLeod installed tanks in homes
and apartments to provide 190 liters of water a day free to each household. Water consumption in Durban
is now less than it was in 1996, even as 800,000 more people have received service. Through sensible
water use, Durban’s conservation measures paid for themselves within a year. No new reservoirs will be
needed in the coming decades, despite the expected addition of about 300,000 inhabitants.
MacLeod has also turned to water recycling. At the water recycling plant, wastewater is turned
into clean water in just 12 hours. Most people are unable to discern a difference between the usual city
drinking water and the treated wastewater, although it is actually intended for industrial purposes.
Some people still hope that new technology, such as the desalination of seawater, will solve the
world’s water problems. “But the fact is, water conservation is where the big gains are to be made,” says
Sandra Postel of the Global Water Policy Project. The dedication and resourcefulness of people like Neil
MacLeod offer inspiration for implementing timely and lasting solutions to the world’s water concern.
(Adopted from “Reading Explorer 4” by Paul MacIntyre and David Bohlke)

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. South Africa to Successfully Desalinate Seawater
B. Tackling Water Problems: A Story from South Africa
C. The United Nations to Address Local Water Situations
D. Drinkable Seawater – A Dream Turning Sour?
Question 37: According to the passage, how many people have to drink unclean water worldwide?
A. 2.5 billion B. About 5 million C. 2.7 billion D. Around 1.2 billion
Question 38: The word “catastrophe” in paragraph 2 is mostly a situation which is_______.
A. unlikely B. disastrous C. local D. familiar
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to_______.
A. Durban B. water consumption C. household D. service
Question 40: The word “discern” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _______.
A. recognize B. emphasize C. examine D. appreciate
Question 41: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Over forty percent of Durban’s water was wasted through faulty plumbing, leaks and bursts.
B. Money saved from sensible water use helped cover the cost of reservoir construction in Durban.
C. In Durban, treated wastewater is provided free of charge to meet the residents’ daily needs.
D. Provision of desalinated seawater is the ultimate solution to the world’s water problems.
Question 42: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Each Durban household is not allowed to use more than 190 liters of water per day.
B. Water shortages are the most severe in areas with substandard toilet facilities.
C. It used to take about half a day to convert wastewater into drinkable water.
D. A growth in population normally necessitates a rise in the number of reservoirs.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: Jacob forgot to save the document. He had to redo the entire project.
A. If Jacob had saved the document, he wouldn’t have had to redo the entire project.
B. If Jacob had saved the document, he would have to redo the entire project.
C. If Jacob had saved the document, he would have had to redo the entire project.
D. If Jacob had saved the document, he wouldn’t have to redo the entire project.
Question 44: I had just brushed my teeth. My roommate invited me to have some barbecue.
A. If I hadn’t brushed my teeth, my roommate wouldn’t have invited me to have some barbecue.
B. Scarcely had my roommate invited me to have some barbecue when I brushed my teeth.
C. Not until my roommate invited me to have some barbecue did I brush my teeth.
D. Only after I brushed my teeth did my roommate invite me to have some barbecue.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: The band members were pleased with his performance at the concert last night.
A. band B. were C. his D. concert
Question 46: The company, formally reliant on conventional methods of production, has since
transitioned to utilizing cutting-edge technology to stay competitive in the market.
A. formally B. conventioned C. cutting-edge D. competitive
Question 47: Despite her initial reluctance, Sarah find herself becoming increasingly addicted to social
media.
A. her B. find C. increasingly D. addicted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Visitors are banned from taking photographs in this area.
A. Visitors can take photographs in this area.
B. Visitors should take photographs in this area.
C. Visitors must take photographs in this area.
D. Visitors will take photographs in this area.
Question 49: My cousin started learning English when he was four.
A. My cousin hasn’t learnt English since he was four.
B. My cousin has been learning English since he was four.
C. My cousin didn’t learn English when he was four.
D. The last time my cousin learnt English was when he was four.
Question 50: “My sister went to France to study abroad last week,” said John.
A. John said that my sister had gone to France to study abroad last week.
B. John said that his sister had gone to France to study abroad the previous week.
C. John said that my sister had gone to France to study abroad the previous week.
D. John said that his sister had gone to France to study abroad last week.

_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Linda and James are chatting.
- Linda: “I believe students should prioritize focusing solely on their coursework.”
- James: “__________. Extracurricular activities are crucial for holistic development.”
A. I can’t agree with you more. B. I beg to differ.
C. Of course not. D. Maybe, it depends.
Question 2: Two friends are at a shopping mall.
- Ngan: “Do you want to check out the new shoe store?”
- Hoai: “__________.”
A. No, I prefer shopping for clothes. B. Yes, I’m thinking of getting a new handbag.
C. Sure, I need to buy some new sneakers. D. Maybe, I’m not sure what I’m looking for.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Lin is _______ than her sister when it comes to cooking.
A. the better B. the best C. better D. more good
Question 4: Alex couldn’t help but feel _______ as he waited for the results of his college entrance
exam.
A. apprehension B. apprehensive C. apprehend D. apprehensible
Question 5: The living costs in big cities have risen substantially, _______ it difficult for people to cover
their living expenses.
A. to make B. is made C. making D. made
Question 6: She loves to play _______ violin in the orchestra every Saturday evening.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: Emma prefers to _______ in the morning before starting her day.
A. set up B. take off C. work out D. turn down
Question 8: The SAT scores _______ available yesterday at 6 PM.
A. make B. were making C. have made D. were made
Question 9: The new marketing campaign aims _______ increased brand awareness in the market.
A. generate B. to generate C. generating D. to generating
Question 10: James and Mary went to the new exhibition, _______?
A. did he B. did they C. didn’t he D. didn’t they
Question 11: Hailey took a(n) _______ approach to solving the company’s budgetary issues, focusing
on practical solutions rather than theoretical concepts.
A. elaborate B. obstinate C. pragmatic D. fortuitous
Question 12: The film had just reached its thrilling middle when I _______ to leave the theater due to
an urgent phone call.
A. had B. has had C. was having D. is having
Question 13: In the hiring process, it’s essential not to _______ against candidates based on their race,
gender, or ethnicity.
A. discriminate B. distinguish C. separate D. differentiate
Question 14: Peter will celebrate with us _______.
A. by the time he finished his assignment B. when he will finish his assignment
C. as soon as he has finished his assignment D. once he had finished his assignment
Question 15: After years of planning and saving, Isla finally decided to ______ a business selling
handmade jewelry online.
A. take B. set C. run D. stand
Question 16: Working for yourself means you’re in charge and don’t have to answer ______ anyone
else.
A. for B. on C. with D. to
Question 17: John has a memory like a(n) ______; he can never remember where he puts his keys.
A. zebra B. elephant C. sieve D. goldfish

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. kitchen B. church C. chick D. machine
Question 19: A. think B. swim C. quick D. twice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. difficult B. dangerous C. religious D. tolerate
Question 21: A. finish B. extreme C. although D. degree

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The government decided to curtail spending on non-essential services to manage the
budget more efficiently.
A. restrict B. minimize C. allow D. increase
Question 23: The prohibitive cost of housing in the city makes it challenging for many people to secure
decent accommodation.
A. exorbitant B. obtainable C. affordable D. unavailable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Despite the treacherous terrain, the intrepid explorer ventured into the jungle to discover
its hidden secrets.
A. fat B. slim C. timid D. brave
Question 25: Despite the challenges, she went to great lengths to ensure the success of her project,
working day and night to meet the deadline.
A. took it easy B. lost control C. made efforts D. stay tranquil

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Ecotourism
The primary aim of ecotourism is to educate the traveller and bring him or her closer to nature.
Participants are given the chance to visit parts of the world (26) _________ are untouched by human
intervention and to engage in conservation work and various other kinds of environmental projects.
Visitors benefit by gaining an appreciation of natural habitats and an (27) _________ into the
impact of human beings on the environment. Local communities gain financially but also in (28)
_________ ways, since not only monuments but other buildings as well, such as bridges or windmills,
are restored in order to attract more visitors.
(29) _________, there are also disadvantages to this type of tourism. There have been cases in
which tourism has been allowed to develop with no control or limits. As a result, (30) _________
cultures have been affected or even threatened by foreign lifestyles. Many people today support that our
approach to the development of ecotourism has to be reconsidered. It is essential that this type of tourism
be environmentally, socially, and culturally friendly.

Question 26:A. who B. that C. when D. why


Question 27:A. advent B. intent C. access D. insight
Question 28: A. other B. another C. every D. one
Question 29: A. Although B. Therefore C. However D. Moreover
Question 30: A. primary B. peculiar C. indigenous D. exotic

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Parents complain that it is difficult to live with teenagers. Then again, teenagers say exactly the
same thing about their parents! According to a recent survey, the most common arguments between
parents and teenagers are those regarding untidiness and household chores. On the one hand, parents go
mad over untidy rooms, clothes dropped on the floor and their children’s refusal to help with the
housework. On the other hand, teenagers lose their patience continually when parents tell them off for
dropping the towel in the bathroom, not cleaning up their room or refusing to do the shopping at the
supermarket.
The survey, conducted by St George University, showed that different parents have different
approaches to these problems. However, some approaches are much more successful than others. For
example, those parents who yell at their teens for their untidiness, but later clear up after them, have
fewer chances of changing their teens’ behaviour. On the contrary, those who let teenagers experience
the consequences of their actions are more successful. For instance, when teenagers who don’t help their
parents with the shopping don’t find their favourite food in the fridge, they are forced to reconsider their
actions.
Psychologists say that the most important thing in parent-teen relationships is communication.
Parents should talk to their teens, but at the same time they should listen to what their children have to
say. Parents should tell their teens off when they are untidy, but they should also understand that their
room is their own private space. Communication is a two-way process. It is only by listening to and
understanding each other that problems between parents and teens can be solved.

Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Teen Issues B. Family Rules
C. Parents’ Advice D. Parents’ Anger
Question 32: The phrase “go mad” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. get bored B. feel sad C. remain calm D. become angry
Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a cause of arguments between teenagers and
parents?
A. Teenagers drop their clothes on the floor. B. Teenagers go shopping a lot.
C. Teenagers refuse to do the housework. D. Teenagers do not tidy their rooms.
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, parents have a better chance of changing their children’s
behaviour by _______.
A. shouting at them whenever they do something wrong
B. cooking them their favourite food
C. doing the household chores for them
D. letting them experience the bad results of their actions
Question 35: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to________.
A. parents B. teens C. psychologists D. children
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
For over 300 years since its appearance in Britain in 1621, newspapers were written and read by
only a tiny minority. In 1896, a new newspaper was produced in large numbers and at such low prices
that ordinary people could buy it on every street corner, and it was an instant success. The Daily Mail,
which is still running today, was the mother of the modern tabloid, and the beginning of a whole new
subculture in the British press. Today more than twice as many tabloids are sold than the so-called
“quality press” titles such as The Times or The Guardian.
Originally, the word tabloid referred to the size and format. But today, for most people, the word
tabloid has nothing to do with shape and size. What makes a tabloid a tabloid is content, and above all,
style. Tabloids follow a special formula: they report the news, but only certain kinds. Tabloids dedicate
most of their pages to stories about celebrities. This involves photographing them in embarrassing
situations, gossiping about their private lives and generally making them look a bit silly. However, the
tabloids are not simply an irritation for celebrities; they are also a vehicle for self-promotion.
Though they have millions of devoted readers, tabloids are also widely criticised in Britain. They
are accused of being sensationalist, in bad taste, and of having no ethical standards in their reporting and
“researching” methods. They may tap celebrities’ phones or even break into their houses just to get a
story. When criticised, the tabloids state that the public has a right to know about everything, but
celebrities have no rights to privacy at all.
So why does Britain, which has access to the best press agencies and the highest journalistic
standards, consume tabloids like chocolate? Maybe the reason is that we have enough news on the
television, the radio and in the quality newspapers. Tabloids are not actually about news at all; tabloids
are just about gossip. And when it comes to gossip, what matters is not what is true or what is kind, but
what is entertaining and what is funny. The more in bad taste a story is, the funnier it seems. And bad
taste is what the British tabloids have made into an art.
(Adapted from “Oxford Exam Excellent” by Danuta Gryca et al.)

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Art of Bad Taste: The British Tabloid
B. Tabloids: Too Kind to Be True
C. Tabloids versus Broadsheets: An Ongoing War
D. The Guardian: Feeding Bad Taste for Gossip
Question 37: The word “formula” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. method B. design C. sequence D. readership
Question 38: The phrase “a vehicle” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. a method of researching something B. a set of instructions on how to do something
C. a means of transporting something D. a way of achieving something
Question 39: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. houses B. people C. readers D. tabloids
Question 40: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 as an accusation against tabloids?
A. They gain entry into celebrities’ houses illegally.
B. They bug celebrities’ phone conversations.
C. They violate the public’s rights to privacy.
D. They feature sensational news stories.
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what explains the popularity of tabloids in Britain?
A. They are deemed to be more aesthetic than “quality press”.
B. They are governed by the highest journalistic standards.
C. They provide thorough accounts of current issues.
D. They contain light-hearted stories that entertain readers.
Question 42: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found in a modern tabloid?
A. Miss Universe lying about her A level results
B. A Premier League footballer failing his dope test
C. Future changes in European economies
D. An Oscar winner accused of tax evasion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: Linda didn’t revise the lessons before going to class. She received an F.
A. If Linda had revised the lessons before going to class, she wouldn’t have received an F.
B. If Linda had revised the lessons before going to class, she will have received an F.
C. If Linda had revised the lessons before going to class, she would have received an F.
D. If Linda had revised the lessons before going to class, she won’t have received an F.
Question 44: Peter graduated from high school. He decided to work straight away.
A. Had it not been for Peter’s decision to work straight away, he would have graduated from high
school.
B. Not until Peter decided to work straight away did he graduate from high school.
C. Hardly had Peter graduated from high school when he decided to work straight away.
D. Only after Peter decided to work straight away did he graduate from high school.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: Everyone should be treated fairly and have the same opportunities regardless of her
background or identity.
A. fairly B. opportunities C. her D. identity
Question 46: It is imperative that all individuals are protected by lawful measures against prosecution
and discrimination based on any factor, as such actions violate fundamental principles of equality and
human rights.
A. imperative B. prosecution C. discrimination D. principles
Question 47: After I have finished my homework, I went out to meet my friends for dinner.
A. have B. homework C. went D. my

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Spectators are encouraged to keep their seats clean.
A. Spectators may keep their seats clean.
B. Spectators should keep their seats clean.
C. Spectators must keep their seats clean.
D. Spectators can keep their seats clean.
Question 49: Alice last practiced playing any musical instruments a week ago.
A. Alice started practicing playing any musical instruments a week ago.
B. Alice didn’t practice playing any musical instruments for a week.
C. The last time Alice practiced playing any musical instruments was a week ago.
D. Alice has practiced playing any musical instruments for a week.
Question 50: “My teacher never forgets to assign homework before the class ends,” said Sarah.

A. Sarah said that my teacher never forgets to assign homework before the class ends.
B. Sarah said that her teacher never forgets to assign homework before the class ends.
C. Sarah said that my teacher never forgot to assign homework before the class ended.
D. Sarah said that her teacher never forgot to assign homework before the class ended.

_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Emma and Jack are discussing which type of music to play at their party.
- Emma: “I think we should play some upbeat pop songs. They always get people dancing and in a good
mood.”
- Jack: “__________. I believe some classic rock tunes would really get the crowd energized and
excited.”
A. You can say that again. B. I don’t think so.
C. It’s nice of you to say so. D. That sounds great.
Question 2: John and Sarah are planning their vacation itinerary.
- John: “What tourist destination do you suggest, Sarah?”
- Sarah: “__________.”
A. No, I’m not interested. B. I think Paris would be a great choice.
C. Yes, I prefer beaches. D. Sorry, I didn’t hear you.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Mark is not _______ as he was last semester.
A. the most hard-working B. as hard-working
C. the more hard-working D. more hard-working
Question 4: The trip to Europe was certainly _______, filled with unexpected adventures and
memorable experiences at every turn.
A. eventful B. eventual C. event D. eventuality
Question 5: The new educational program has proven beneficial, _______ learning opportunities for
students of all ages.
A. is enhancing B. enhancing C. to enhance D. enhanced
Question 6: She decided to work as _______ MC for the event, entertaining the audience with her
charisma and public speaking skills.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: The plan to go on a picnic _______ due to the sudden rainstorm.
A. looked after B. turned down C. fell through D. brought up
Question 8: “Tien Quan Ca” _______ by the choir at the cultural festival last night.
A. was singing B. has sung C. was sung D. sings
Question 9: We regret _______ you that your application for the position has been unsuccessful.
A. inform B. to informing C. to inform D. informing
Question 10: They were late to the meeting, _______?
A. didn’t they B. were they C. did they D. weren’t they
Question 11: She devised a(n) _______ solution to the complex problem, impressing her colleagues
with her creativity and innovation.
A. ambiguous B. capacious C. ingenious D. strenuous
Question 12: When I arrived at the company, everyone _______ their morning meetings.
A. is starting B. has started C. was starting D. had started
Question 13: The _______ provides temporary housing and support for homeless individuals in need of
assistance.
A. house B. accommodation C. shelter D. lodging
Question 14: I will have finished household chores _______.
A. once my mother will come home B. by the time my mother comes home
C. before my mother had come home D. as soon as my mother came home
Question 15: She _______ a cold after being exposed to the chilly weather without wearing a coat.
A. took B. caught C. went D. made
Question 16: Ava spent the whole weekend preparing _______ her upcoming exams.
A. for B. on C. at D. about
Question 17: He didn’t hesitate to take _______ with the new policy, expressing his concerns during
the meeting.
A. trouble B. issue C. matter D. affair

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. scheme B. second C. sugar D. sister
Question 19: A. weather B. feature C. leather D. feather

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. connection B. hospital C. organize D. serious
Question 21: A. violence B. action C. disease D. shelter

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The dearth of rainfall led to crop failures in the farming community.
A. scarcity B. excess C. adequacy D. surplus
Question 23: She worked tirelessly to procure sufficient evidence to prove her innocence in the court
case.
A. release B. dismiss C. gather D. embrace

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The noisome fumes from the factory filled the air, causing discomfort to nearby residents.
A. offensive B. light C. pleasant D. dense
Question 25: After explaining the new project several times, Sarah finally got the picture and knew
what needed to be done.
A. confused B. persisted C. understood D. abandoned

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The importance of fairy tales for children
Fairy tales are the stories that adults, especially parents, tell young children. In view of their
name, it is surprising that hardly any of them are actually about fairies. (26) _________ most fairy tales
have happy endings, the stories usually deal with very (27) _________ situations - children abandoned
in the forest, terrifying giants, cruel stepmothers. However, despite being scared when they are told the
stories, children will often ask to hear them over and over again.
Many psychologists believe that what fairy tales do, in addition to (28) _________ children’s
imagination, is to show that there are problems in the world and they can be overcome. Just like adults,
children have fears and worries: theirs are of things such as abandonment, loss, injuries, witches. Fairy
tales present real problems in a fantasy form (29) _________ children are able to understand. This, it is
claimed, allow them to (30) _________ their fears and to realise, if ever in their unconscious mind, that
no matter how difficult the circumstances, there are always ways of coping.
(Adopted from “Richmond Practice Tests for Cambridge English: Advanced “)

Question 26: A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Therefore


Question 27: A. frightening B. frighteningly C. frighten D. fright
Question 28: A. motivating B. stimulating C. speculating D. inciting
Question 29: A. where B. why C. that D. who
Question 30: A. confront B. alter C. nurture D. suffer

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Norwich is the capital of East Anglia, an area on the east coast of England which is famous for
its natural beauty and impressive architecture. Norwich is a wonderful city to explore and is popular
with tourists all year round.
Norwich is not a city of luxurious hotels, but it has a good selection of reasonably priced places
to stay in, both in the city centre and further out. The Beeches Hotel, for example, next to the cathedral,
has a beautiful Victorian garden. Comfortable accommodations costs £65 for two nights’ bed and
breakfast per person. Norwich is famous for its magnificent cathedral. The cathedral has a summer
programme of music and events which is open to the general public. One event, “Fire from heaven”, is
a drama and musical performance with fireworks, a laser light show and a carnival with local people
dressed in colourful costumes.
Norwich is also home to the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts, a world-class collection of
international art in a building at the University of East Anglia. This is well worth a visit and there is a
lovely canteen with an excellent selection of hot and cold snacks. It also specializes in vegetarian food.
In addition, the city has a new professional theatre, the Playhouse, on the River Wensum. The city’s
annual international arts festival is from 10 to 20 October.
Finally, if you fancy a complete break from the stresses of everyday life, you could hire a boat
and spend a few days cruising along the river of the famous Norfolk Broads National Park. In our
environmentally friendly age, the emphasis has moved forwards the quiet enjoyment of nature and
wildlife. You can buy hire a boat, big or small, for an hour or two or even up to a week or two. This
makes a perfect day out or holiday for people of all ages.
(Adopted from “Succeed in Cambridge English Preliminary” by Andrew Betsis and Lawrence
Mamas)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Daily Life in Norwich B. Holidays in Norwich
C. A Destination Guide to England D. England’s Famous Cities
Question 32: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the Beeches Hotel B. the city centre C. selection D. Norwich
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, which is NOT part of “Fire from Heaven”?
A. A laser light show B. A campfire C. A carnival D. A fireworks display
Question 34: The word “cruising” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. moving on land B. travelling by boat C. surfing D. swimming
Question 35: According to the passage, where is the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts located?
A. In a building at the University of East Anglia
B. In a new professional theatre on the River Wensum
C. In an international art museum
D. In the Norfolk Broads National Park

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The first impressions are rather menacing. Visitors must sign in and show identification before
being allowed into the building. Such tight security gives one the feeling of entering a prison or some
other dangerous place. But what a deceptive first impression! Manhattan Comprehensive Night High
School may be the friendliest, most caring institution in all of New York City. A school of last resort for
many of its students, it is their best opportunity to turn their lives around and make friends in the process.
Manhattan Comp, as it is called, is the first full-time night high school in America.
High school is compulsory until the age of sixteen in America, but many students drop out, either
before or after they reach sixteen, and before receiving their high school diplomas. Until now, night
education programs for dropouts only provide the basics and then award an equivalency certificate. But
now, Manhattan Comp offers the total high school experience, complete with a ‘lunch’ break, physical
education and clubs. The students receive an academic diploma, which they say is more helpful in getting
a job than an equivalency certificate. More than sixty percent of Manhattan Comp’s students go on to
the college.
Most of the school’s 450 students have either been expelled from or dropped out of other high
schools. Some have been in two or three schools before this one. What seems to make this school work
for these hard-to-place students is the staff and, most importantly, the principal. All students call him
Howard. As he walks through the building, he greets students by name, asks about their families or jobs
and jokes with them about the lack of variety in the school cafeteria.
Most students at Manhattan Comp are between eighteen and twenty-two years old. You must be
at least seventeen to enroll. The classes run from 5 to 11 pm, Mondays through Thursdays, with all-day
enrichment programs on Sundays which explore topics like playwriting, art and video production.
School terms are ten weeks long, which gives students the opportunity to take time off for family matters
or jobs. Most students already have some academic credits from previous schools, so instead of the
normal four years in high school, they spend between six months and two years at Manhattan Comp.
(Adapted from “ Oxford Exam Excellence “ by Danuta Gryca et al.)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Day in the Life of a Manhattan Comp Student
B. Manhattan Comp: One of a Kind
C. Night Schools: A Passing Fad
D. The Success Story of a Typical American School
Question 37: The word “deceptive” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. misleading B. unwelcoming C. subjective D. lasting
Question 38: What do Manhattan Comp students say about their academic diploma?
A. It demonstrates their superior academic competence.
B. It ensures their admission to well-known colleges.
C. It reflects a more thorough schooling experience.
D. It improves their chances of getting employed.
Question 39: The word “expelled from” in paragraph 3 mostly means _______.
A. invited to attend B. asked to stay C. forced to leave D. qualified to graduate
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. schools B. years C. credits D. students
Question 41: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Visitors to Manhattan Comp are required to go through certain security procedure.
B. The schooling experience at Manhattan Comp is likely to change the students’ lives for the better
C. Many students at Manhattan Comp have never had any formal schooling before.
D. All of the students at Manhattan Comp are seventeen or above.
Question 42: What can be inferred about Manhattan Comp from the passage?
A. It plays down the importance of extra-curricular activities.
B. It has recently been equipped with state-of-the-art facilities.
C. Its principal is well-liked among the students for his amiability.
D. Its students are required to work part-time while pursuing their studies there.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: Minh didn’t study for the exam. He failed to achieve a passing grade.
A. If Minh had studied for the exam, he can’t have achieved a passing grade.
B. If Minh had studied for the exam, he could have achieved a passing grade.
C. If Minh had studied for the exam, he couldn’t have achieved a passing grade.
D. If Minh had studied for the exam, he can have achieved a passing grade.
Question 44: Oliver had just finished the morning classes. He continued with a new study session.
A. Had it not been for his continuation with a new study session, Oliver would have finished the
morning classes.
B. Barely had Oliver finished the morning classes when he continued with a new study session.
C. Only after Oliver continued with a new study session did he finish the morning classes.
D. Not until Oliver continued with a new study session did he finish the morning classes.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: She worked diligently to achieve his goals, overcoming obstacles and setbacks along the
way.
A. worked B. his C. overcoming D. setbacks
Question 46: Due to budget constraints, we have decided to all together reassess the allocation of
resources among different departments.
A. constraints B. all together C. allocation D. departments
Question 47: His job application rejected, but he didn’t let it discourage him from pursuing other
opportunities.
A. rejected B. discouraged C. pursuing D. opportunities

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: It is compulsory for students to submit the completed form by the deadline.
A. Students will submit the completed form by the deadline.
B. Students should submit the completed form by the deadline.
C. Students must submit the completed form by the deadline.
D. Students can submit the completed form by the deadline.
Question 49: The last time I went on a vacation with my parents was last summer.
A. I started going on a vacation with my parents last summer.
B. I have gone on a vacation with my parents for last summer.
C. I didn’t go on a vacation with my parents last summer.
D. I haven’t gone on a vacation with my parents since last summer.
Question 50: “My sister is going to visit Times Square next month,” said Freya.
A. Freya said that her sister is going to visit Times Square the next month.
B. Freya said that my sister is going to visit Times Square the following month.
C. Freya said that her sister was going to visit Times Square the following month.
D. Freya said that my sister was going to visit Times Square the next month.
_____THE END_____
1.D 2.C 3.A 4.D 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.C
11.C 12.D 13.A 14.C 15.A 16.B 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.C
21.B 22.C 23.B 24.C 25.C 26.A 27.A 28.D 29.D 30.C
31.C 32.C 33.D 34.C 35.D 36.A 37.A 38.D 39.C 40.A
41.A 42.D 43.A 44.B 45.D 46.A 47.D 48.B 49.B 50.C

1.A 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.C 6.C 7.B 8.D 9.B 10.C
11.A 12.D 13.B 14.C 15.A 16.B 17.C 18.B 19.C 20.B
21.C 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.C 26.B 27.B 28.D 29.C 30.C
31.B 32.C 33.C 34.B 35.D 36.B 37.B 38.D 39.D 40.B
41.C 42.B 43.B 44.C 45.D 46.A 47.C 48.C 49.B 50.C

1.C 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.D 7.D 8.D 9.A 10.C
11.C 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.A 16.C 17.C 18.C 19.C 20.A
21.B 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.D 26.D 27.D 28.A 29.B 30.A
31.C 32.C 33.C 34.A 35.B 36.B 37.C 38.D 39.A 40.D
41.A 42.D 43.C 44.C 45.D 46.B 47.A 48.B 49.C 50.B

1.B 2.C 3.C 4.D 5.C 6.D 7.B 8.D 9.C 10.A
11.C 12.C 13.B 14.D 15.B 16.D 17.C 18.A 19.D 20.C
21.B 22.B 23.B 24.D 25.C 26.D 27.D 28.B 29.D 30.B
31.C 32.C 33.D 34.D 35.B 36.B 37.B 38.D 39.B 40.D
41.C 42.B 43.B 44.C 45.B 46.B 47.C 48.C 49.B 50.C

1.B 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.C 6.D 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.A
11.C 12.C 13.B 14.C 15.C 16.B 17.B 18.B 19.B 20.B
21.A 22.C 23.C 24.D 25.C 26.D 27.B 28.C 29.B 30.C
31.C 32.B 33.D 34.B 35.C 36.C 37.D 38.B 39.B 40.D
41.D 42.B 43.C 44.B 45.D 46.A 47.B 48.A 49.B 50.D
1.C 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.B 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.A 10.C
11.B 12.D 13.B 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.B 19.C 20.B
21.C 22.C 23.C 24.A 25.B 26.D 27.C 28.B 29.B 30.C
31.D 32.D 33.A 34.A 35.B 36.A 37.A 38.C 39.C 40.B
41.A 42.B 43.A 44.B 45.B 46.A 47.B 48.C 49.B 50.C

1.B 2.B 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.B 9.B 10.C
11.C 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.A 17.C 18.C 19.B 20.D
21.D 22.D 23.A 24.C 25.C 26.B 27.B 28.B 29.C 30.A
31.A 32.C 33.A 34.C 35.A 36.C 37.C 38.A 39.B 40.B
41.A 42.A 43.B 44.B 45.C 46.B 47.A 48.C 49.A 50.B

1.D 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.B 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.C 10.D
11.C 12.D 13.A 14.C 15.D 16.A 17.D 18.B 19.C 20.C
21.B 22.C 23.D 24.C 25.C 26.D 27.D 28.D 29.C 30.B
31.C 32.B 33.C 34.D 35.A 36.A 37.B 38.B 39.B 40.D
41.B 42.D 43.C 44.A 45.C 46.C 47.A 48.B 49.C 50.B

1.B 2.D 3.A 4.A 5.C 6.D 7.B 8.D 9.A 10.B
11.B 12.C 13.D 14.C 15.C 16.B 17.D 18.A 19.D 20.C
21.B 22.C 23.B 24.A 25.C 26.B 27.A 28.B 29.D 30.B
31.B 32.D 33.D 34.C 35.C 36.A 37.A 38.B 39.B 40.A
41.D 42.C 43.D 44.C 45.B 46.B 47.C 48.C 49.A 50.C

1.B 2.C 3.D 4.D 5.D 6.B 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.D
11.C 12.A 13.D 14.C 15.B 16.B 17.C 18.C 19.B 20.B
21.C 22.C 23.C 24.B 25.C 26.B 27.C 28.B 29.B 30.D
31.B 32.B 33.C 34.C 35.A 36.A 37.B 38.C 39.B 40.C
41.A 42.B 43.B 44.C 45.C 46.C 47.B 48.C 49.B 50.A
1.D 2.A 3.B 4.A 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.D 9.B 10.C
11.B 12.B 13.C 14.B 15.C 16.B 17.B 18.C 19.B 20.A
21.D 22.A 23.C 24.A 25.C 26.D 27.D 28.A 29.A 30.B
31.D 32.C 33.A 34.C 35.B 36.D 37.B 38.B 39.D 40.D
41.A 42.B 43.B 44.B 45.D 46.B 47.A 48.B 49.C 50.C

1.A 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.D 6.C 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.C
11.C 12.D 13.A 14.D 15.B 16.A 17.D 18.C 19.B 20.B
21.B 22.A 23.C 24.D 25.A 26.D 27.A 28.B 29.D 30.C
31.B 32.B 33.B 34.A 35.A 36.C 37.A 38.B 39.A 40.B
41.A 42.D 43.A 44.A 45.D 46.A 47.A 48.C 49.B 50.B

1.D 2.B 3.C 4.D 5.B 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.A 10.B
11.B 12.A 13.B 14.B 15.A 16.A 17.B 18.A 19.B 20.B
21.C 22.A 23.A 24.C 25.C 26.D 27.D 28.C 29.B 30.A
31.A 32.D 33.A 34.B 35.A 36.B 37.D 38.B 39.B 40.A
41.A 42.D 43.A 44.D 45.C 46.A 47.B 48.C 49.B 50.B

1.B 2.C 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.C 8.D 9.B 10.D
11.C 12.A 13.A 14.C 15.C 16.D 17.C 18.D 19.D 20.C
21.A 22.D 23.C 24.D 25.C 26.B 27.D 28.A 29.C 30.C
31.A 32.D 33.B 34.D 35.A 36.A 37.A 38.D 39.D 40.C
41.D 42.C 43.A 44.C 45.C 46.B 47.A 48.B 49.C 50.D

1.B 2.B 3.B 4.A 5.B 6.A 7.C 8.C 9.C 10.D
11.C 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.C 19.B 20.A
21.C 22.A 23.C 24.C 25.C 26.A 27.A 28.B 29.C 30.A
31.B 32.D 33.B 34.B 35.A 36.B 37.A 38.D 39.C 40.D
41.C 42.C 43.B 44.B 45.B 46.B 47.A 48.C 49.D 50.C

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