Roll No. TOO 00000000 @ ott Cade ALLOK AMASH TEST. SEES i fox ——— —_ Medical Entrance Exam - 2024 ee ee ee ee National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) (XII Passed Students) (Seu ageuken nu Each comect answer caries four marks. One mark wil be Read each question carefully ddedctesor each incre newer tomthe otal sore this mandatory to use Blue/Back Ball Point Pen to darken the ‘opropratecreleintne answer sheet Before hansing over the answer sheet oth ievilatr candidate Mark shouldbe darkand should completely ithe cle Should check tat Rol No, and Cente Code have been filed and Roughwork must notte done on the answershest marked correct. ‘Do not use white-fuid or any other rubbing materia} on answer Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Note itis compulsory to fil Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, chenvse your answer sheet wil not be consideredTOPICS OF THE TE aN) Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane CT ‘Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, The living world Structural Organisation in Animals~Animal Tissues, BiomoleculesCUI Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min. [PHYSICS] 1 SECTION -A A car moves from P to T along the path PORST Shown in figure. The net displacement ofthe car is P__8km og 5 7 ‘mw. E [1 km s| Ie z 7. aan (1) 2km, 60°SofW (2) Skm, 37" Sof If the relation between positon (in m) of @ particle ‘and time (in s) is given by s= 2P + 3¢ + 21+8, then the time at which acceleration ofthe particle is zero (1) 05s Q)2s @) 1s (4) Acceleration can never be zero in this case It linear momentum (P), area (A) and time (7) are taken to be the fundamental quantities, then energy has the dimensional formula (3) 6km,53°E ofS — (4) 10 km, 45° E ofS (1) (PAT) (2) (P? AT] 2. Ma body travels with speed 4 mis during haifofthe | (@) [PA-*T] @) [PANT lime and with speed 6 ris during remaining hal, | 8. Consider the statements with regard to significant then the average speed during its journey is given figures and choose the correct option. a (1) Allnon zero digits are significant (1) Sms (2) 4 mvs (i) Al zeroes appearing between two non-zero (3) 6 mis (4) 1 mis digits are significant 3. x and y coordinates (in m) of @ particle varies witn | (1) Only (I)iscorect time as x = 2f and y = 3¢. The magnitudes of (2) Only (Il) is correct velocity and acceleration at (= 1 s respectively are (3) Both () and (t) ae correct (1) Simis, 4 mis? (2) 6 mis, 2 mis? (4) Both (1) and (Il) are incorrect i Timm remit | oz wenne | & wosyotaette pain dnernr 4 eae as fa eee megcony upward wh ital | Graph wl be (where ayrbols have sul meaning hich of the folowing statements is correct? oe ® (1) Displacement ofthe particle is 30 m (2) Distance covered by the particle is 30 m (8) Distance covered by the partici is 2.5 m (4) Displacement of particle is 2.5 m 3 + 5. The number of significant figures in the value 0.005 ° “ is (yt (2)4 @3 (4) Iniite 2 z ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110008. Phone: 011-a7623456COE 10. "1 12, 13, 14. 15. ies for NEET-2024 Er A ball is released from the top of a building It travels 25 m in last second of its motion before striking the ground, The height of the building is [Take g = 10 mis] (1) 45m (2) 60m (3) 50m (4) 25m A balloon is moving up with an acceleration ao = 4 m/s? starting from rest. A coin is dropped from the balloon 5 seconds after the start of balloon. The intial velocity of the dropped coin is (1) Zero (2) 20 mis, (3) 30 mis (4) 45 mis ‘The path followed by a body projected at an angle wit horizontal is given by y =V/3x- pe lfg= 10 mis? then the angle of projection of the projectile from horizontal is (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 75° Two vectors A=i+j+kand B given, find the value of |A— 26 a) 8 (2) Vi? @) i (4) Wr In a certain system, the units of length, mass and time are chosen to be 1 cm, 100 g and 10 s. The Unit of kinetic energy will be ai+j+2hare (1) 0.1 erg In ) (2) 10 erg te 09 (3) 1erg “od (4) 20erg The distance travelled by a tiger is measured as, $= 100m £0.1 min time, t= 10+ 0.1 s. Its average ‘speed under permissible limit of error can be written as (1) (10 £0.11) mis (2) (1000 + 11) m/s (3) (10+ 1.1) mvs (4) (100 + 0.2) mis 16. 7. 18. 19. 20. .er of significant zeroes present in Mi sured value 20500 fs fh (ay 4 (2)5 (3) 3 (4) 6 Velocity of particle starting from rest varies wit position according to equation v = Vax . Whatis th distance travelled by particle in t second from star ; (1) dat? (2) Gat? 32 ot (3) az (4) 2 The time of flight for a ground to ground projectile ic 40 s and its horizontal range is 800 m, what is the horizontal component of velocity? (1) 20 mis (2) 10 mis (3) 40 mis (4) 20/3 mis The motion of an object falling from rest in a viscous medium can be described by the equation a= a — Bv where a and v are the acceleration and velocity of the object and a and B are constants, Find the initial acceleration of object. m& (2) Bo 3) = @ aa Att= 0, a particle is at rest at origin. Its acceleration is 2 mis? for first 2 s and — 2 m/s? for next 4 seconds as shown in a versus ¢ graph. a (mis*) 2 - 4 Choose the correct g h for ieee eed versus time grapt > t(s) ‘Space for Rough Work(1) speed (ms) CUI 24, 25. 26. The physical quantity that has the same dimensional formula as work is (1) Young's modulus 42) Torque (3) Angular momentum (4) Surface tension AA ball is projected vertically upwards from ground with velocity 12 mis in the presence of air drag whose magnitude always remains constant during motion. If ball takes 1 second to reach the highest point in the presence of air friction then the ‘maximum height reached by ball is (g= 10 mis?) (1) 72m (2) 6m (3) 83m (4) 5m The area under acceleration-time graph gives (1) Velocity at any instant (2) Change in velocity @) Distance travelled (4) Displacement travelled 27. Which ofthe following statements is true? (1) If magnitude of displacement of a particle is zero, then distance covered by it must be zero 6) (2) If the distance covered is zero then the 21, If in a vernier callipers, n VSD coincides with displacement must be zero (0 — 2) MSD, then the least count of the vernier (3) Speed of particle can be positive, negative or calipers is given by (1 MSD = a mm) zer0 (4) Magnitude of displacement is always greater (Oy (2) mm ce) (2) mm {4) Manor equal to datance _ : . 28. Which of the following is incorrect for non-uniform @ | 73) ann 4) (2 3) mm circular motion? \n-2, n-2. (1) Speed of the particle changes continuously 22. A panicle starts moving from rest with acceleration (2) Velocity ofthe particle remains constant 2 mis?. Distance travelled by it in 5® second is (3) Tangential acceleration of the particle is non- (1) 125m (2) 225m zer0 (2) 9m () 12m (4) Acceleration of the particle changes hae continuously 23. A projectile Is given initial velocity of +2]. TR | 25 the osthof a projectie as seen by an observer on equation ofits path is: (g = 10 m/s?) another projectile is a/an (1) y= 2x— 5x2 (2) y=x-5#? (1) Straight ine (2) Parabola (8) 4y= 20-52 (4) y= 2x 25x (3) Ellipse (4) Circle Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aaka' Sh Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: 017-47623456se) CEE Seri 30. For a particle velocity-position graph is given. Find acceleration at x = 3m vias) x(m) (1) 25 mis? (2) 30 mis? (8) 75 mis? (4) 40 mist 31. The acceleration of a moving body is equal to the (1) Slope of distance-time graph (2) Slope of acceleration-time graph (8) Slope of velocity-time graph (4) Area under velocity-time graph 32. A player throws a ball such that maximum range of ball is 500 m then maximum height of the ball attained in the above condition will be (1) 200m (2)'500 m 3) 125m (4) 1000 m 33. A body is projected from ground such that its horizontal range is 1 times of maximum height attained, then angle of projection of the body from gona (2 mtan(4 (1 oatar'(2) a o-tr(4) @) 0= on) @ o=tan(8) 34, The equation of path of projectile is given by y =V3x-5:°, then the time of fight of the particle is a £. ) Bs w Bs 35. Which of the following statements is incorrect fra particle in uniform circular motion? (1) Velocity of particle is not constant (2) Speed of particle is constant (@) Kinetic energy of particle is constant (4) Angular speed of particle is not constant SECTION -B 36. Three persons A, B, C are standing at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 2. If they stat moving simultaneously with same speed (v) such that A always faces towards B, B always faces towards C and C always faces towards A, then time after which they will meet is 2 @ 3 v v 2a 3a @) 3a 2 « 2 wept? a7. if z= and the percentage errors in the measurements of A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% ‘and 1% respectively. Then the percentage error in zis (1) 2% 52) 9% (3) 12% (4) 5% 38. A river of width 1 km is flowing with speed 1 keh. ‘A man can swim with speed 2 kmin instil wet ! he wants to cross a river along shortest path ten time of crossing the river will be o Pu (2) 1h 3 2 Oz Sn 38. A particle is projected with velocity v = (/-+3/) ™® from ground, its velocity when it strikes the 4"? willbe (1) (7+37) mis @) 2(7-3]) ms (2) 2(7+3j) mis (4) (7-37) mis ‘Space for Rough WorkTesi 40. a 42, 43, 45 (Code-E) Angle made by vector A= n r A=31 +4] +5h with zaxis @ vos (4) 60° 3) 45° The energy E of an oscillatin harmonic motion depends on it 1g body in a simple iS mass m, frequency mand amplitude A as E = K(m)(nyy (A). If kis non. dimensional constant then the is value of (2x + y+ 2) ay 4 (2) 22 3) 6 9 A particle is said to have non-zero acceleration (1) Only if its direction of velocity changes (2) Only if its magnitude of velocity changes (3) Either its direction of velocity or magnitude of velocity or both change (4) Neither direction nor magnitude of velocity change ‘The dimensional formula of acceleration is given by (1) IMLT] (2) [MOLT] (3) [M°Le T=) (4) (M2 L213] A ball is thrown up from ground with speed 40 mis and another ball is simultaneously thrown down from a height of 45 m with speed 50 mls. They will collide after time (1) 28 @ ts @) ts (a) 4s A particle is moving on a straight line according to the given acceleration-time graph. If particle starts with velocity 3 mis, then velocity at = 6 sis amis’) a 48, 49. 50 (1) 23 mis (3) 20s (4) 10 mis A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distance ds, de and ds in the first 2 seconds, the next 2 seconds and the further next 2 seconds Tespectively. Then dh : dh : ds is equal to (1) [Link] (2) [Link] (3) [Link] (4) [Link] Position ofa particle moving along x-axis is given by x=4f—3t+ 5. Speed of the particle at = 2 seconds is (xis in metre) (1) 8mis (2) 2mis 3) 13mis (4) Zero ‘Two bodies A (of mass 5 kg) and B (of mass 10 kg) are dropped from same height. The ratio of time taken by them to reach the ground is (2) 13 mis ms a3 12 ae (4) 1 Os (4) A particle is projected vertically upwards from ground with an inital speed of 57 mis. If acceleration due to gravity is taken to be equal to 10 mis®, then the displacement ofthe particle in the sixth second of its motion will be (1) 29m (22m (3) 12m (4) 42m At the maximum height of a body thrown vertically up (1) Velocity is non zero but acceleration is zero (2) Acceleration is non zero but velocity is zero (3) Both acceleration and velocity are zero (4) Both acceleration and velocity are non zero ‘Space for Rough Work(EET [CHEMISTRY] SECTION -A Number of sucrose molecules present in 400 mL of 0.5 M aqueous solution of sucrose is (1) 1.2% 108 (2) 6.02 x 10% (3) 1.2 102 (4) 6.02 x 10% Volume of oxygen required at STP to react completely with 176 g of propane is (1) 2244 (2) 964, (3) 320L (4) 448L . Amixture of 18 g oxalic acid (C2O«H2) and 4.6 g of formic acid is treated with excess concehtrated H2SOz, The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through excess KOH pellets. Mass of remaining gaseous product obtained at STP will be (1) 62g (2) 4.29 (3) 3.19 (4) 84g ‘ ‘Strength (gL-*) of 4 M aqueous solution of NaOH is (1) 80 (2) 16 (3) 160 (4) 40 B* is isoelectronic with which of the following ions? (1) Ht (2) Lit (3) Het (4) Mg? The orbital angular momentum of electron in 3p orbital is (1) A (2) Vn (3) Van (4) 3n Consider the following statements about Dalton's atomic theory (a) Atoms of different elements differ in mass. (b) Matter consists of indivisible atoms. (©) Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction. The correct statements are (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 58. 59. 60. 61 ‘The number of neutrons, electrons and protons 23'Th respectively are (1) 141,231, 90 (2) 90, 231, 141 (3) 141, 90, 90 (4) 90, 141, 90 The energies, E1 and Ez of two radiations a 40 eV and 40 eV respectively. The relation betwee their wavelength i.e. A+ and 22 will be (1) ay at? (2) ka = he 4 x (3) a= 4h2 4) m= Z Ifa particle of mass 4 mg is moving with a velocit of 1800 km/h then the de Broglie wavelengt associated with the moving particle will be (Giver Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 x 10 Js) (1) 3.3% 10m (2) 3.3 x 10m (3) 3.3% 10m (4) 3.3 10-4 m Given below are the two statements Statement | : Azimuthal quantum number (¢) give information about the spatial orientation of th orbital with respect to standard set of co-ordinat! axis. ‘Statement Il : For a given value of n, ¢ can hav (1 +1) values ranging from 0 to n In light of the above statements, choose the corres answer (1) Statement 1 is corr i incorrect ect but statement Il (2) Statement 1 is i in correct ‘correct but statement Il | 3 mi (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct 4) (4) Both statement | and statement Il are incorect Space for Rough WorkSeer 62. 65. 67. 68, 7 The wavenumber for the longest w: tansiton nthe Paschen series of stomichycrosen spectrum is (Rk = Rydberg constant for hydrogen Bu Ry 1) Ba FR mM > (2) 36 TR oF ©) aa (a) Be Correct order of wavelength of the given radiations is (1) UV> X rays > IR > Microwave (2) IR> Microwave > UV > X rays (@) Krays > UV> IR> Microwave (4) Microwave > IR > UV > X rays If the mass ratio of methane and sulphur dioxide is 1:2, then the ratio of their number of atoms will be (1) 2:3 (2st (3) 10:3, (4) 5:6 Number of angular and radial nodes present in 4f orbital respectively are (1) 4and2 (2) Sando (@) 3and1 (4) 4 and3 Mole fraction of solute in its 9.45 molal aqueous solution is (1) 0.225 (2) 0.327 @) 0.025 (4) 0.145 Mass of concentrated nitric acid solution required to prepare 800 mL of 4 M_HNOs solution Is (Concentrated acid is 70% (w/w) HNOs) (1) 208g (2) 3649 (3) 1429 (4) 4249 ‘An element X has the following isotopic 2X : 20%; HEX : 40%. ‘composition; #X : 40%: sof naturally The weighted average atomic mas: ‘occurring element X will be 69. 70. nm 72, 73, INEET-2024 RUE (1) 144.40 (2) 143.8u (3) 144.9 (4) 145.10 If the mass percentage of C, H and N of an organic Compound are 67.9%, 5.7% and 26.4% respectively then empirical formula of the compound will be (1) CHIN (2) CHsN (3) CHeNe (4) CoHsN Correct order of energy of orbitals for mult electronic species is (1) Sd>5p>4f> 5s (2) Sd> 4f> Sp> 5s (3) Sd>5p>Ss>4f (4) 4f> 5d> 5p> 5s Given below are the two statements Statement | : The characteristics of cathode rays depend on the nature of gas present in cathode ray tube. ‘Statement Il : Television picture tubes are cathode ray tubes. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer (1) Statement 1 is correct but statement Il is incorrect (2) Both statement | and statement Il are correct, (3) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect, (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement II is correct In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie. wavelength (in pm) of the electron in the third Bohr orbit is (Given ; Bohr radius, (ax) = 52.9 pm) (1) 952.2 (2) 317.46 (3) 634.85. (4) 105.8 For principal quantum number n = 6, the total number of orbitals having ¢ = 3is (25 (4) 10 ay 14 @)7 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pus = Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 011-47623456‘All india Aakash Test Series for NEET-2( 74. Consider the following set of quantum numbers a m |s t | 2 [1 fo |,4 ols [2 13 [_ ols fo |r |it Cl se i 2 tots fi fi Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are not possible? (1) (¢)and (é) only (2) (a), (6) and (¢) only 8) (), (eyand (4) only (4) (c), (d) and (e) only 75. Frequency of a photon with 3 eV energy will be (1) 73% 10%H2 — 49(2) 25 10H (8) 44 x10%H2 (4) 21 10H 76. Consider the following statements (@) In photoelectric effect, the number of electrons ejected is proportional to the frequency of the light. (b) Work function of sodium is greater than potassium, (c) In photoolectric effect, there is no time lag between the striking of light beam and ejection of electrons from the metal surface. ‘The correct statements are (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (e) (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (c) only Zz Cr) 77. If mass percentage of selenium in an enzyme is 0.2% then the minimum molar mass of the enzyme wil be (Atomic mass of selenium = 79 u) (1) 3950 g mot* (2) 7900 g mot" (3) 39500 mat (4) 79000 g moF* 78. 18g of He and 64 g of Or are reacted in a sealed vessel. The mole of water produced in this reaction, (1) 9 mole (2) 6 mole (3) 4 mole (4) 8 mole 79. Which among the following has maximum number of atoms? (1) 10g of Cacos (2) 209 of SOs (8) 6.72 Lof CHy at STP (4) 4.48 L of NHo at STP 80. If concentrated aqueous H»SOu is 98% by mass and its density is 1.7 g mL then the volume of acid required to make 2500 mL of 0.5 M HzSOs solution will be (1) 125.2 mb (2) 51.7 mL. (3) 89.2 mL (4) 73.5 mt 81. Number of atoms of nitrogen in 5 litres of air ‘containing 78% Nz by volume at STP is (1) 0.35 Na (2) 0.80 Na (3) 1.25 Na (4) 2.75 Na 82, If 25 9 of MgCOs (impure) sample decomposes on heating to give 5.6 L of CO2 gas at STP, then Percentage purity of MgCOs sample will be (1) 92% (2) 75% (3) 88% (4) 84% 83. Which of the following pairs of orbital will not have electron density along the axes? (1) pe andde ye (2) Pr andd,e (3) da ya andd.s (4) dyy and dye ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Phone: O11-A762345686. a7. 88, 84. Match the ions given List configuration given in List with their electronic List4 List-I a, Mn | (i) [Arj3q” [o_ | ce | (iy_| tangas e_| Co® | Gi) | farsa la. Ni (iv) | [Anse (1) afi, bt), c(i), ay (2) ali), BG), ev), ai) (3) alii), Bi), tiv), a4) (4) ativ), BG), c(i), diy Ratio of the radius of first orbit of He* to the second orbit of Li?* will be () 1:4 (2) 3:8 (3) 3:4 (4) 3:16 SECTION -B Mass of calcium carbonate required to react completely with 2 L of 4 M HCI solution is (1) 200g (2) 800g (3) 600 g (4) 4009 Total number of electrons present in 4.8 mg of Mg? ions is (1) 1.2% 102 (2) 1.2 10% (3) 1.2% 102 (4) 1.2 108 100 mL of 0.4 M HNOs solution is mixed with 400 mL of 0.2 M NaOH solution. The molarity of OH- in the resultant solution becomes (1) 015M (2) 0.08 M (3) 0.004 M (4) 0.02M Given below are the two statements Statement | : In Rutherford's a-particle scattering experiment, most of the a-particle passed through the gold foil undeflected 90. ot 92, 93, 94, Statement It and the nucleus are held together by electrostatic forces of attraction In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below (1) Statement 1 is correct but statement II is incorrect, According to Rutherford, electrons (2) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement Il is correct If 36 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of Wavelength 220 nm then the number of photons emitted per second by the bulb will be nearly (n= 66 « 10 Js) (1) 2x 102 (2) 4« 198 @) 8x10" (4) 6x 10% Total number of electrons present in p orbitals of a chlorine atom is, uz ays 29 (3) 6 (4) 14 Energy required to ionise 0.05 g of hydrogen atoms is (1) 27.2kd (2) 65.6 kJ (3) 131.2kJ (4) 90.5 kJ | photon of wavelength 2.2 « 10-7 m strikes on a ‘metal surface then the kinetic energy of the ejected electron will be (Given: Work function of metal = 2eV:h= 66 x 10 Js) (1) 58x 10-94 (2) 25% 1024 (3) 1.410485 (4) 741105 100 mL of 5 M NaOH solution was diluted by adding water to make the final solution having molarity 0.25 M. The volume of water added to the solution was (1) 208 (3) 19L (2) 1.6L (4) 1.8L ‘Space for Rough WorkAll India Aakash Test Series for NEE 95. 96. 97. 101 wy ‘Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two ‘compounds XYs and XYs. If 0.2 mole of XY3 weighs 18.5 g and 0.1 mole of XYs weighs 13.05 g then atomic weights of X and Y respectively will be (1) 35.5 and 19 (2) 80 and 19 (8) 35.5 and 80 (4) 16 and 80 Significant figures in 0.0012 and 300.0 respectively are (1) Sand4 (2) 2and1 (3) Sand4 (4) 2and4 Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Energy of 2s orbital of lithium is ‘more than energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen. Reason (R) : Energies of the orbitals in the same Subshell decreases with increase in the atomic number. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (2) Ais true but R is false (3) Ais false but Ris true (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Test-t( 98. Consider the given experimental phenomenz (i) Photoelectric effect (ii) Blackbody radiation (ii) Diffraction (iv) Interference The phenomena which can be explained by pi nature of electromagnetic radiation are (1) (0, (i) and (iiy (2) (ii) and (ii) only (3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (i) and (i) only 99. Maximum number of electrons that car associated with n=3 and m, =—5 is (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4)9 100. If uncertainty in position and momentum are ec then uncertainty in velocity will be In a) [BOTANY] SECTION - A Select the correct option representing hierarchical arrangement of taxonomic categories in ascending order. (1) Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species (2) Species, genus, family, order, kingdom (3) Kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, species (4) Species, genus, family, kingdom class, phylum, genus, Class, order, phylum, 102. Binomial nomenclature was given by (1) Aristotle (2) Ernst Mayr (3) Carolus Linnaeus (4) Darwin 103. Select the correct match, (1) Herbarium — itis a place having collection Preserved plants and animals (2) Museum — tis a storehouse of conserve plant specimens (8) Zoological - They are the places where v parks animals are kept in protec’ environments (4) Flora — It contains information on < one taxon ‘Space for Rough Work(Code-E) [Link] stage of meiosis (1) Involves crossing over betwe chromosomes (2) Can last for months or years in the 1 ‘en homologous some vertebrates Cocytes of (3) Involves synapsis of chromosomes homologous (4) Represents transition to metaphase | [Link] recombinase activity is seen in (1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene (3) Leptotene (4) Diplotene [Link] column | with column I and select the correct option, Column-t Column-lt a. | S-phase (i)_| Actual cell division Gxphase (i) | Centriole | duplication c. | Gr-phase (ii) | Tubulin protein u synthesis d. | M-phase (iv) | Duplication of most of the cell organelles (1) ati), BUi), c(i), dliv) (2) ai), Bi), ef), dtiv) 3) ali), BU), etiv), aQi) (4) ali), BG), efiv), dQ) 107. All of the following are features of M-phase, except (1) Assembly of mitotic apparatus (2) Synthesis of DNA (3) Reformation of nucleolus (4) Dissolution of nuclear envelope [Link] the odd one out wrt. mesosomes. (1) They help in cell wall formation. (2) They help in DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells. (3) They help in respiration and secretion process. (4) They decrease the surface area of plasma membrane and enzymatic content functions of All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 109, Which of the following cell organelles is bounded by a single membrane? (1) Chloroplasts (2) Mitochondria (3) Vacuole (4) Nucleus 110. (a) They are vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the golgi apparatus. (b) They contain enzymes capable of digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids. Above statements are true for which of the following cell organelles? (1) Nucleosomes (2) Lysosomes (3) Glyoxysomes (4) Spherosomes [Link] many of the following statements is/are correct? (a) The cell wall of a young plant cell is capable of growth. (b) Secondary cell wall holds or glues the different neighbouring cells together. (©) Middle lamella is formed on the inner side of the plant cet. (d) The cell wall and middle lamella may be traversed by plasmodesmata which connect the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells. (1) One (2) Three (3) Four (4) Two 112. The inner mitochondrial membrane forms a number of infoldings called (1) Cisternae (2) Grana (3) Thylakoids (4) Cristae 113. Duration of cell cycle in yeast is about (1) 24 hours (2) 6 hours (3) 60 minutes (4) 90 minutes, 114. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. interphase. (1) It lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle (2) Itis also known as resting phase (3) It starts with nuclear division (4) Itrepresents the phase between two successive M phases ‘Space for Rough WorkAll India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 [Link] the following statements and select the correct option. Assertion (A): Even after S phase the number of chromosomes remains the same. Reason(R): 'S’ or synthesis phase marks the period during which amount of DNA per cell doubles. (1) Only assertion is true (2) Only reason is true (3) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion (4) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion 116. The most dramatic period of the cell cycle is (1) Gr phase (2) M phase (3) Ge phase (4) S phase 117. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell During zygotene stage of meiosis-|, what would be the number of bivalents or tetrads? ae 2) 16 @4 (4) 24 118. Reductional division will occur in (1) Pollen grain (2) Embryo sac (3) Meiocyte (4) Conidia 119. Match list | with lst Il and select the eorrect option H List Vacuole ( [Forms spindle |e Japparatus b.[Amyloplast | (i) | Helps in excretion in amoeba c. [Cytoskeleton | (i) [Stores starch 4.[Centricles | (iv) [Helps in motility (1) ai, Bid, fv), 40) (2) ali, BU, ef), av) (3) aii), DG, ev), dQ) (4) ali), BéiD, eG), div) [Link] of the following is not correct wart chloroplast? (1) The space enclosed by the inner membrane of chloroplast is the stroma. (2) Stroma contains a large number of flattened rnon-membranous sacs called stroma lamellae. Test- Cr 7 (3) Stroma contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates. (4) Thylakoids are arranged in stacks called grana [Link] of the following cell organelles show polymorphism? (1) Golgi apparatus (2) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) Mitochondria (4) Lysosomes 122, Trans face of golgi apparatus (1) Is convex in appearance, directed towards nucleus (2) |s the forming face that receives materials to be modified and packaged (3) Releases golgian vacuoles or vesicles (4) Receives transitional vesicles from ER 123. The algal cell wall is mainly made up of (1) Chitin, a polymer of N-acetyiglucosamine (2) Cellulose only (3) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals, like calcium carbonate (4) Hemiceliulose, pectin and proteins 124. In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte (RBC) has approximately (1) 52 percent proteins and 48 percent lipids (2) 42 percent proteins and 50 percent lipids (3) 40 percent proteins and 52 percent lipids (4) 52 percent proteins and 40 percent lipids 125. Choose the odd one out [Link]. plasmids, (1) They are small circular DNA outside genomic DNA in many bacteria (2) They confer certain _unique characters to such bacteria, (3) The plasmid DNA is used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign ONA. (4) They are enveloped by a nuclear envelope. phenotypic ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: O11-47623456[Link] the following statement. correct option Statement I: Both mitochondria an semi-autonomous organelles, Statement I: Both mitochondria ay are the sites of aerobic respiration, (1) Only statement |is correct (2) Only statement iis correct () Both the statements are correct {4) Both the statements are incorrect. [Link] some photosynthetic prokar ryotes like cyanobacteria, and purple bacteria, there are some other membranous extensions into the cytoplasm which contain pigments, they are called (1) Chloroplasts (2) Chromatins (3) Chromoplasts (4) Chromatophores 128, Capsule of a bacterial cell (1) Is loose sheath of glycocalyx (2) Determines the shape of the cell {@) Protects the cell from loss of water and nutrients, (4) Is responsible for giving gummy and sticky character to the cell 428. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane (1) Polar, hydrophobic heads of phospholipids are arranged towards the outer sides (2) Non-polar, hydrophilic heads of phospholipids are arranged towards inner side (3) Polar, hydrophilic tails of phospholipids are arranged towards the outer side (4) Non-polar, hydrophobic tails of phospholipids are arranged towards inner side 130. Crossing over occurs between (A) Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes chromatids of —non-homologus 'S and select the 'd chloroplast are INd chloroplasts (2) Non-sister chromosomes (@) Sister chromatids of _ non-homologous chromosomes (4) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes DUI 24 131. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 32 prven grains? 4 (2) 16 Be (4) 32 132. The four chromatids of homologous chromosomes become distinct and clearly appear as tetrad in which stage of prophase? (1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene (2) Pachytene (4) Diplotene [Link] of the following gives a cart wheel ‘appearance? (1) Centriote +(2) Centrosome (3) Glyoxysome (4) Peroxisome 14. During protein synthesis, many ribosomes form cchain on a common messenger RNA and form (1) Polyribosomes (2) Residual bodies (3) Dictyosomes (4) Massule 135. Identify the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option ‘A. In plant cells, the vacuoles can occupy up to 80 percent of the volume of the cell B. The mitochondrial matrix contains enzymes for TCA cycle ©. Ribosomes are composed of rRNA and proteins. (1) A(T), BF), CT) <(2) ACT), BIT), CCT) (3) AF), BEF), CCT) (4) AVF), BIT), CLF) SECTION -B 136, The keys (1) Are based on similar characters generally in a pair called couplet (2) Are used for identification of plants only {@) Are separate for each taxonomic category (4) Are not analytical in nature 437 Select the odd one [Link] taxonomic categories of mango. (1) Anacardiaceae (3) Dicotyledonae (2) Poales (4) Angiospermae 7 Pose Road, Space for Rough Work 770005. Phone: 011-47625456 Delies for NEET-2024 kash Test Se crn 198 Choose incorrect statement w.r.t. Go phase. (1) Itis also known as quiescent stage (2) tis metaboticaly inactive stage 3) Cells in this stage no longer proliferate uriless called on to do so (4) Cells that do not divide further exit Gs phase to enter Go phase 139. Terminalisation of X-shaped structures. formed during prophase | of meiosis is a distinctive feature of (1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene (3) Diakinesis (4) Diplotene [Link] the following events of mitosis in the correct sequence. (2) Condensation of genetic material (©) Spliting of centromere (c) Reassembly of nuclear envelope (d) Arrangement of chromosomes at equator (e) Segregation of sister chromatids @>@) > 0) >) 2) (@) +b) > @) > (@) (0) 8) @) > 0) > (@) +0) >) (4) @) > 0) > () > (@) +(e) 141. Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) (1) Are present in prokaryotes only (2) Are the sites of lipid synthesis (3) Contain ribosomes attached to their extra luminal surface (4) Are non-membrane bound structure 142, When the centromere is situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very long arms, the chromosomes is referred as (1) Actocentric (2) Metacentric (3) Telocentric (4) Sub-metacentric Test: CE) 443 Match the following columns and select the correct, option 7 [cotumn 1 Column 1 a] Primary yy | | Kinetochores constriction |b. | Beyond +5 | (i) | Satelite Secondary (ii) constriction c.| Disc shaped | (i structures on the | sides of primary | constriction 1) Telomere 4. | End of the (iv)| Centromere chromosome (1) ati), Bei, ef), i) (2) afiv), b(ii), (iii), di) (8) ai, bev), (i, ai) (4) ati, bli), efi), 144 Select the odd one wrt. significance of mitosis (1) Growth of muticeliular organisms (2) Restore nucleo-eytoplasmic ratio (3) Introduces genetic variations (4) Healing, regeneration and call repair 148 Sites of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells are (1) Golgi bodies (2) Peroxisomes. (3) Ribosomes : (4) Mesosomes 146 Nucleolus (1) Is found in all ving cells (2) Is spherical structure present in cytoplasm (3) Is site for active ribosomal protein synthesis (4) |S nota membrane bound structure ‘Space for Rough WorkTe rar choose the incorrectly matched pai All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 (1) Schwann ~ Presence of cel unique char; Plant cells Report that cells had a in outer layer ie, membrane = Explained that cells divide and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells, Proposed the hypothesis that the bodies of animals and plants are composed I wall is acter of the (2) Schleiden . (3) Rudolf Virchow — (4) Schwann . 148 Which of the following layers of cell envelope Prevents bacteria from bursting or collapsing? (1) Slime tayer (2) Capsule (3) Cell wall (4) Giycocalyx 149 When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis it results in (1) Formation of syncytium 2) Continuous growth of cells (3) Loss of metabolic activity of cells (4) Breakage of chromosomes 180 Which of the following is not a part of bacterial flagell of cats and products of freee (2) Hook @) Pil (4) Basal body [ZOOLOGY] SECTION-A 151. The body of an organism is made of different types of cells and the number of cells in each type can be in thousands. This was first observed in members of which phylum? (1) Aschelminthes (2) Chidaria (3) Platyheiminthes (4) Annelida 152. The type of epithelium that is composed of a single layer of cells perform all of the given functions, except (1) Lining for body cavities (2) Forming diffusion boundary (3) Secretion (4) Protection from chemical stresses 183. The epithelium of PCT of nephrons in the kidneys is made up of __ cells. Select the option that correctly fils the blank. (1) Columnar (2) Flattened (3) Cube-like (4) Polygonal 184. Choose the odd one w.r.t. presence of arr rings in the structure of given amino acids. romatic (1) Phenyiatanine (2) Tryptophan (3) Arginine (4) Tyrosine [Link] of the given elements form higher per cent ‘weight of Earth's crust in comparison to human body, except (1) Sodium (2) Carbon (3) Magnesium (4) Calcium [Link] of the following give an idea of elemental composition of living tissue, except (1) Hydrogen (2) Oxygen (3) Alcohol (4) Carbon 487. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option. Polymeric substance : Rubber :: Toxin: _ (1) Morphine (2) Abrin (3) Curcumin (4) Diterpene 458,Which of the following is not strictly a macromolecule but present in retentate after the chemical analysis of a tissue? (1) Lipids (2) Amino acids (3) Nucleotides (4) Monosaccharides “Space for Rough WorkCUI eed 159, Adult haemoglobin exhibits the quaternary structure that consists of, polypeptide chains Select the correct option to fill n the blank. (1) 2aand2p (2) 2aand2y (8) 2pand2y (4) 3aand 1p 160. Choose the basic amino acid among the following (1) Glutamic acid «(2) Lysine (3) Valine (4) Glycine 161. One full tur of the helical strands in case of B-DNA. involves how many base pairs? as (2) 20 (@) 10 48 162. The stomach which assists in digestion of food is, made up of (2) Epithelial tissue (c) Connective tissue Select the correct option. (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 163. Choose the incorrect match. (b) Muscular tissue (4) Nervous tissue c= Cr [Link] cells get specialised for secretion and are called glandular epithelium. Choose the correct statement [Link]. these cells. (1) Flattened cells with irregular boundaries (2) Similar cells are found in the lining of intestine (3) Characterised by tall and slender cells without nucleus (4) Similar cells are found in the walls of blood! vessels 166. The isolated glandular cells of the alimentary canal assist in secretion of (1) Mucus (2) Hel (3) Pepsinogen (4) Saliva 167. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement A: Three types of cell junctions are found in the epithelium and other tissues. Statement B: All cells in epithelium are held together without intercellular material (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect suppor (1) [Simple squamous|- [Air sacs of lungs ee epinoture (4) Only statement B is correct (2) [Gampomd — [inner fining of ducts) | 198-Match column 1 with column il and select the epithelium of salivary glands a (3) [Brush bordered|— | Lining of stomach comma column columnar a. |Areolar tissue |(i) [Attach skeletal muscles epithelium a) to bones (4) |simple | euboial]—” [Ducts of lands . [Adipose tissue |i) [Serves as epithelium RG framework for epithelium 164. The major function of the epithelium lining the moist surface of buccal cavity, is (1) Forming a diffusion boundary (2) Assisting in movement of particles or mucus in a specific direction (3) To provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses (4) Absorption and secretion jc. |Tendons cy (ii) [Attach one bone tc janother bone (1) ai), biiv), c(i), ai (2) ati, bGv), ef), diy (3) aviv) béi), ef), diy (4) a(i), bai), c(i), dtiv) ‘Space for Rough WorkCEs 180, Consider the given features: a. A secondary metabolite ». Component of cotton fibres © annet hold te 4. Constituent of paper made from plant pulp The above features are true for (1) Starch (2) Glycogen (8) Caliulose (4) Livia 181. Match column | with column il and select the correct option. Columnt | | Column a. | Inulin (| Abundant protein in whole iy_| | biosphere ». | Coltagen | (i) | Storage polysaccharide c. | Glycogen | (iii) | Intercellular ground y__| substance 4, | RuBisCO || () | Polymer of fructose (1) afi), be, efi, ey (2) ati), bei, ei), ativ) (3) aiiv), bi), c(), a) (4) ai, iii), cf), oi) [Link] (A): The smooth muscle fibres. are involuntary in nature. Reason (R): The functioning of a smooth muscle cannot be controlled directly ie, we are not able to ‘make it contract merely by thinking about it In the light of above statements, select the correct ‘answer from the options given below. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct, explanation of (A) (3) (A)is true, (R) is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false 183. Observe the figure given below labelled as ‘A’ ‘C’ and ‘D’. Identify the labelled structures ‘and choose the correct function wrt it 184, 185, 186 (1) A~Secretes antibodies (2) B— Produces and secretes fibres (3) C— Involved in phagocytosis (4) D~—Provides rigidity, excitability and contractity Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement A: The type of co-factor found in peroxidase is actually an organic compound which 's tightly bound to apoenzyme. Statement B: Catalase and carboxypeptidase possess same type of co-factor. (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct °X: belongs to class of enzymes that cleaves the Peptide bonds while "Y’ belongs to the class of enzymes that leads to the formation of Phosphadiester bonds. Identify the class of enzymes to which ‘X’ and ‘Y" belong to respectively and select the correct option. (1) 2.5 23,6 8) 46 42,3 SECTION -B The presence of which of the following structures makes a neural tissue unique? (1) Protoplasmic processes and nucleus (2) Nucleus and ribosomes (3) Neuroglia and neurons (4) Golgi body and nucleus ‘Space for Rough Work "9005. Phone: O11-476254561e7.P\_ IS the complex nitrogen “homopolysaccharide that forms (1) Fungal cell wail (2) Reserve food material in plants (@) Energy storing material in mammals (4) Most abundant organic compound in biosphere 488, The enzyme whose EC number is 1.1 toclass (1) Hydroleses (2) Dehydrogenases (3) Lyases (4) Transferases 189 With the increase in substrate concentration, which of the following changes is observed in the velocity of the enzymatic reaction? (1) The velocity of enzymatic reaction reaches at peak and then decreases (2) The velocity of enzymatic reaction decreases (3) No change is observed (4) The velocity of enzymatic reaction rises at first and then becomes stable 490 The common feature between bone and cartilage among the following is (1) Presence of lameliae (2) Absence of osteocytes (3) Being a hematopoietic tissue (4) Presence of lacunae 191 Select the one that lacks fibres made up of elastin containing 1.1 belongs or collagen. (1) Adipose tissue» (2) Lymph (3) Ligament (4) Areolar tissue 192 The ligament that is responsible for joining tibia and fibula belongs to which category? (1) Loose connective tissue (2) Dense regular connective tissue (@) Dense irregular connective tissue (4) Specialised connective tissue 193 The junction that facilitates the cells to conminin with each other by connecting the cytoplasm adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions is (1) Adhering junction (2) Tight junction (@) Gap junction (4) Macula adherens COE 194. Choose the correct statement. (1) The produets of exocrine glands are secreted direcly into the fuid bathing the gland. (2) Exocrine glands secrete pepsin, gastrin, insulin ‘and glucagon. (3) The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body of complex animals is epithelial tissue. (4) Most ofthe cartilages in vertebrate embryos are feplaced by bones in adults. 195. Two glucose molecules join together with the help of bond "x’to form a disaccharide 'Y'.X'is the result of dehydration, Select the option representing molecular formula of 'Y. (1) Crate (2) CraHOra G3) CrzHaO (4) CraHazOrs 196. Applying the general rule of thumb, calculate the increase in rate of reaction if the temperature rises from 30°C to 80°C in a thermophilic organism. Choose the correct option. the correct (1) 4 times (2) Stimes (3) 8 times (4) 32 times 197. Select the incorrect match (] R= OH =] Present in hospholipid b4,-08 membrane @ | CH¢CH),.- COOH | — | Saturated fatty acid @] Foor = | Simplest amino | ae | acid ba, 14) | HOCH, 0. z Pentose sugar of RNA OH _OH ‘Space for Rough Work kash Tower. Corporate Offic 5 Fuca Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: 017-47625456Ee aed (2) 4 198 Which of the following is not a nucleoside? ays ® ; (1) Cytidine (2) Thymidine @)3 “ (3) Thiamine (4) Guanosine 200 The type of epithelium present in the inner surface 199 How many among the following is/are secondary of bronchioles is also present in the lining of ‘metaboiite(s)? (1) Fallopian tubes (2) Alveoli of lungs Morphine, Insulin, Vinblastin, Cellulose, (3) Blood vessels (4) Ovaries Glucose, Sucrose, Ricin, Anthocyanin gaa ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi T0005 a "hone: 01747623456For Answers & Solutions Please visit our website: [Link] / Scanthe QR Code for Aas : Video Solutions