22/11/2023 Code-C

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MM : 720 Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C Time : 200 Min.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A
1. (3) 19. (2)

2. (3) 20. (1)

3. (2) 21. (3)

4. (3) 22. (3)

5. (4) 23. (3)

6. (2) 24. (4)

7. (4) 25. (2)

8. (4) 26. (3)

9. (4) 27. (1)

10. (1) 28. (3)

11. (2) 29. (4)

12. (1) 30. (4)

13. (4) 31. (1)

14. (3) 32. (2)

15. (2) 33. (4)

16. (3) 34. (2)

17. (3) 35. (2)

18. (3)

SECTION-B

36. (3) 44. (3)

37. (2) 45. (3)

38. (1) 46. (1)

39. (4) 47. (3)

40. (2) 48. (2)

41. (4) 49. (4)

42. (3) 50. (1)

43. (2)

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
51. (2) 69. (3)

52. (2) 70. (4)

53. (1) 71. (3)

54. (1) 72. (3)

55. (3) 73. (2)

56. (4) 74. (4)

57. (2) 75. (2)

58. (2) 76. (2)

59. (2) 77. (1)

60. (2) 78. (4)

61. (3) 79. (3)

62. (1) 80. (1)

63. (4) 81. (4)

64. (1) 82. (1)

65. (3) 83. (1)

66. (2) 84. (2)

67. (3) 85. (2)

68. (1)

SECTION-B

86. (2) 94. (4)

87. (3) 95. (1)

88. (2) 96. (1)

89. (2) 97. (2)

90. (3) 98. (4)

91. (2) 99. (1)

92. (3) 100. (2)

93. (4)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. (2) 119. (2)

102. (2) 120. (2)

103. (1) 121. (3)

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

104. (2) 122. (4)

105. (2) 123. (4)

106. (2) 124. (3)

107. (3) 125. (1)

108. (4) 126. (2)

109. (2) 127. (2)

110. (2) 128. (2)

111. (1) 129. (1)

112. (1) 130. (2)

113. (2) 131. (2)

114. (3) 132. (2)

115. (3) 133. (3)

116. (2) 134. (3)

117. (4) 135. (1)

118. (3)

SECTION-B
136. (4) 144. (2)

137. (4) 145. (4)

138. (2) 146. (3)

139. (1) 147. (4)

140. (4) 148. (1)

141. (3) 149. (1)

142. (3) 150. (1)

143. (2)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. (3) 169. (3)

152. (2) 170. (3)

153. (3) 171. (2)

154. (1) 172. (4)

155. (4) 173. (4)

156. (2) 174. (4)

157. (4) 175. (3)

158. (2) 176. (4)

159. (3) 177. (1)

160. (3) 178. (2)

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

161. (1) 179. (4)

162. (2) 180. (4)

163. (3) 181. (1)

164. (1) 182. (3)

165. (4) 183. (3)

166. (2) 184. (3)

167. (2) 185. (1)

168. (4)

SECTION-B
186. (4) 194. (2)

187. (2) 195. (2)

188. (3) 196. (3)

189. (2) 197. (1)

190. (2) 198. (2)

191. (2) 199. (2)

192. (3) 200. (1)

193. (1)

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION-A
(1) Answer : (3)
Solution:
mgh
ΔU =
h
here, h = 3R
(1 + )
R

3mgR 3
ΔU = = mgR
(1 + 3) 4

(2) Answer : (3)

Hint:
R
Use position of centre of mass for a hollow hemisphere from base (0, 2
) .
Solution:

R
Position of centre of mass = (0, 2
) = (0, 10) cm

(3) Answer : (2)

Hint:
For symmetric body having uniform mass distribution, centre of mass lies at line of symmetry.
Solution:

L
M× +M ×0
2 L
x
CM = M +M
=
4
L
M ×0+M ×
2 L
y
CM = M +M
=
4
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
2 2
L L L
Distance (r) = √(
4
− 0) +(
4
− 0) =
2√2

(4) Answer : (3)

Solution:
−−−−
GM
v > √
R+h
−−−−
2GM
v < √
R+h

Here speed of projection is greater than orbital speed but less than escape speed
∴ Path → ellipse

(5) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Friction acting on the sphere is directed up the plane whether it is rolling up or down.

(6) Answer : (2)

Hint:
1
Y ⋅ ( Strain )
2
E = ×A ×L
2

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

Solution:
−3
2
1 11 10 −6
E = × 10 ( ) × 5 × 10 ×4
2 4

−6
11 10 −6 5 −1
E = 10 × × 5 × 10 = × 10 J
8 8

500
E = mJ = 62.5 mJ
8

(7) Answer : (4)

Solution:
By conservation of M.E.
−GM m 1 2 −GM m
+ mV =
R 2 R
(R+ )
4

−GM m 1 2 −4GM m
+ mV =
R 2 5R
1 2 GM m 4GM m
mV = −
2 R 5R
1 2 GM m
mV =
2 5R
−−−
2gR
V = √
5

(8) Answer : (4)

Solution:
2
−G 2 2 2 11Gm
U = [2m + 6m + 3m ] = −
a a

(9) Answer : (4)

Solution:
In the absence of external force, centre of mass of a system does not shift if initially at rest.
(10) Answer : (1)
Hint:
2
F ℓ F ℓ
Y = =
A Δℓ V Δℓ

[Y and Δl are same]

Solution:
1
F ∝
2
ℓ
2
ℓ
2 (ℓ+ )
F1 ℓ2 2

= ( ) =
2
F2 ℓ1
(ℓ)

4
F2 = F
9

(11) Answer : (2)

Solution:
(vcm)i = (vcm)f
So, vcm = 0

(12) Answer : (1)

Solution:
→
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
R = (2 i + 4 j ) × ( i + 2 j ) =0

(13) Answer : (4)

Solution:
2
Gm1 m2 m1 v
=
3
R R

1
v ∝
R

(14) Answer : (3)

Solution:
GM
g =
2
R
Δg ΔR
× 100 = −2 × 100
g R

= –2(–2) = 4%
(15) Answer : (2)
Solution:

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

2 2
30 × r = mr α
3

90
= α
2 mr
90
= α
−2
2×1×10×10
−2
α = 450 rad s

(16) Answer : (3)

Solution:

From mechanical energy conservation

L L 1 2
Mg = Mg cos θ + Iω
2 2 2
−−
6g θ
ω = √ sin ( )
L 2

(17) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Diamond is more elastic than ruller

(18) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Max. tension is independent of length.

(19) Answer : (2)

Solution:

Assume disk is rolling with will speed v, then

speed of C , vc = v
speed of Q , vQ = v – rω
Speed of P , vp = v + rω

(20) Answer : (1)

Hint:
−−−
3
R
T = 2π√
GM

Solution:
−−−−
3
(2r)
T = 2π√
GM

2 3
2 4π 8r
T =
GM
2 3
32π r
M =
2
GT

(21) Answer : (3)

Solution:

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

FL
Δl =
AY
2
Δl1 A2 3 9

Δl2
=
A1
= (
1
) =
1
.

(22) Answer : (3)

Solution:
change in dimension
Strain = =
Original dimension
∴ strain is dimensionless
(23) Answer : (3)
Solution:
As stress is shown on x axis and strain on y axis
1 1
We can say that Y = cot θ = tan θ =
slope
So elasticity of wire P is minimum and wire R is maximum
(24) Answer : (4)
Solution:
→ →
→ a 1 m1 + a 2 m2
Hint : a cm =
m1 +m2

Sol.: For 3 kg block, 3g – T = 3a …(1)

for 2 kg block, T – 0.5 (2g) = 2a …(2)
From eqn (1) and (2)
3g – g = 5a
2 2
a =
5
g = 4 m/s
ˆ ˆ
2×4 i +3(−4 j )
→
a cm =
3+2
ˆ ˆ
8 i −12 j 2
ˆ ˆ
=
5
= (1.6 i − 2.4 j ) m/s

(25) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Due to force couple
acom = 0 and vcom = constant
∴ Translation KE = constant.

(26) Answer : (3)

Hint:
−−−−
2GM
ve = √
R

Solution:
−−
M
ve ∝ √
R
−−−−−−− −−−−−−
v1 M1 R2 2 27 3
= √ × = √ × =
v2 M2 R1 3 8 2

(27) Answer : (1)

Solution:
→ →
P = τ ⋅ ω

= (5ˆ ˆ ˆ
i + 2 j + 3k).
ˆ ˆ ˆ
(2 i + j + 5k)

= 10 + 2 + 15 = 27 W
(28) Answer : (3)
Solution:

2
MR
I = (M = mass of disc
4

R = radius of disc)
MR2 = 4I …(1)
2
MR 2
It = + M (R)
2
2 2
M R +2M R 3 2
= = MR
2 2

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

3
It = (4I) = 6I
2

(29) Answer : (4)

Solution:
→
ˆ ˆ ˆ
r = ( i + j − k)m

→
ˆ ˆ ˆ
F = (5 i + 7 j − 3k)N

∣ˆ ˆ ˆ ∣
i j k
→ ∣ ∣
→ →
τ = r × f = ∣ 1 1 −1 ∣
∣ ∣
∣ 5 7 −3 ∣

ˆ ˆ ˆ
= i (−3 + 7) − j (−3 + 5) + k (7 − 5)

ˆ ˆ ˆ
= (4 i − 2 j + 2k)N m

(30) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Since the external force on the system is due to gravity only, therefore the COM will continue to move on the
same parabolic path.
(31) Answer : (1)
Solution:
When energy of the body planet system is positive then system becomes unbounded and body will escape out
the planet.
(32) Answer : (2)
Solution:
1 2
Energy for unit volume = 2
Y (Strain)
S
Strain = Y
2
1 S
Energy per unit volume = 2 Y

(33) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Mg
M gn =
2
h
(1+ )
R

63 63 4
∴ w =
2
=
2
=
9
× 63 = 28 N
R/2 (3/2)
(1+ )
R

(34) Answer : (2)

Solution:
G(2m) G(4m)
Gm
E = + + +…
2 2 2
1 2 4
1 1
E = Gm (1 + + + …)
2 4

E = 2Gm
(35) Answer : (2)
Solution:
Mass of body never changes with depth or height.

SECTION-B
(36) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Hint & Sol.:
•

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

(37) Answer : (2)

Solution:
When no external torque acts on system angular momentum will remain conserved.
(38) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Moment of inertia increases.
I↑ω↓
2π
So,↓ω =
T↑

Length of day increase

(39) Answer : (4)
Hint:
Centre of mass of a body depends on its mass distribution

(40) Answer : (2)

Solution:
3 3

= 9.8 × 1010
Δp hpg 10 ×10 ×9.8
B = ⇒ B = =
Δv 0.01 −4
10
v
100

(41) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Net external force on the system is zero therefore centre of mass of the system remains at the same position.
They will meet at the centre of mass.

m×0+2m×X0
Xcm =
3m
2X0
Xcm =
3
from lighter person
X0
Xcm =
3
from heavier person

(42) Answer : (3)

Solution:
g
Use g ′ = 2
h
(1+ )
R

2
gR
′
g =
2
(R+h)
2
g gR
⇒ 2
=
2
(R+h)
–
⇒ R + h = √2R
–
⇒ h = ( √2 − 1)R

(43) Answer : (2)

Solution:
′ ′
VS − VC = V S −V C
Gm 3Gm
− + = 0 − VC
R 2R
Gm
Vc = −
2R

(44) Answer : (3)

Solution:
T R = Iα
2
MR
TR = ∝
2

⇒T
M Rα
=
2

For mass
Mg − T = Ma

a = Rα
M Rα
Mg − = Ma
2

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

Ma
Mg − = Ma
2
2
⇒a =
3
g

(45) Answer : (3)

Solution:
I = ml2 /12 + ml2 /12 + m(l/2)2 + m(l/2)2
I = 2/3 ml2
(46) Answer : (1)
Solution:
If C ⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
= A × B ⇒ A ⊥ C and B ⊥ C
⃗

⃗
As τ ⃗ = r⃗ × F
→
→ → →
∴ τ ⊥ r and τ ⊥ F
→ →
⇒ τ ⋅ r =0
⇒ –10 + 30y – 80 = 0 ⇒ 30y = 90 ⇒ y = 3

Also F ⃗ ⋅ τ ⃗ = 0
–5x + 60 – 20 = 0 ⇒ 5x = 40 ⇒ x−8

(47) Answer : (3)

Hint:
τ = Iα

Solution:

The point A is the point of zero acceleration then consider pure rotation about point A.
τ=Iα
2
ℓ mℓ
mg = α
2 3
3 g
= α
2 ℓ

a = αR
3g 2
a =
2×2
= 7.5 m/s

(48) Answer : (2)

Hint:
⃗ ⃗
L = r⃗ × P

⃗
|L| = rP sin θ

Solution:

∣ ⃗∣
L = mvr⊥
∣ ∣
– ∘
= 4 × 10 × 2√2 cos 45

= 4 × 10 × 2
= 80 kg m2 s–1
(49) Answer : (4)
Solution:
→ →
F
ext = 0 ⇒ (Δ P ) = 0
system
Pi = 0 ⇒ Pf = 0

(50) Answer : (1)

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

Hint:
1
KE = 2
Iω
2

Solution:
I1 ω1 2 = I2 ω2 2
k1 2 ω1 2 = k2 2 ω2 2
k1 ω2
= = 2
k2 ω1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
(51) Answer : (2)
Solution:

x x
( )×P ( )P
1+x 1+x

Kp =
1−x
( )×P
1+x

2
1

2
( )
x 3

⇒ Kp =
2
×P =
2
×P
1−x 1
1−( )
3

⇒ Kp = 9 ×
1 9
×P
8

⇒ P = 8Kp

(52) Answer : (2)

Solution:

As it is basic buffer solution

0.08
pOH = pKb + log 0.04
pOH = –log (5 × 10–5 ) + log 2
pOH = 4.30 + 0.3010 = 4.602
pH = 14 – 4.60 = 9.4
(53) Answer : (1)
Hint:
Apply Le Chatelier’s principle.
Solution:
High temperature favours endothermic equilibrium, in forward direction.
(54) Answer : (1)
Solution:
For M(OH)2 , Ksp = 4s3

(55) Answer : (3)

Solution:
NaOH dissociates into Na+ & OH– , so it an electgrolyte
(H3 O+ and H2 O) and (H2 O & OH– ) are conjugate acid base pair.

(56) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Removing gaseous product from equilibrium, shifts the equilibrium in forward direction.
(57) Answer : (2)
Solution:

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

For salt of weak acid and weak base

1
pH = 7 + 2 [pKa – pKb ]
1
=7+ 2
[4.5 – 4.69]
−0.19
=7+( 2
)

= 7 – 0.095
= 6.905
(58) Answer : (2)
Solution:

= 2 mol L–1
(1)
So, Keq = 0.5

(59) Answer : (2)

Solution:
−3 −4 −5

= 3.7 × 10–4 M
+ 10 +10 +10
[H ] =
3

(60) Answer : (2)

Hint:
An acidic buffer requires presence of a weak acid and its salt with strong base in the same solution.
Solution:
H2 SO4 is a strong acid. Hence, NaHSO4 + H2 SO4 is not an acidic buffer.

(61) Answer : (3)

Solution:
(38% by mass) aqueous H2 SO4 is used as an electrolyte.

(62) Answer : (1)

Solution:
+ −
AgCl ⇌ Ag + Cl
+ −
Ksp = [Ag ] [Cl ]
Ksp
+
[Ag ] =
−
[Cl ]

−10
1.8×10
=
−3
4×10

mol L–1
−8
= 4.5 × 10

(63) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Solution of NH4 Cl is acidic in nature.

(64) Answer : (1)

Solution:
CaOCl2 ⇒ Ca(OCl)Cl

(65) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Same element undergoes oxidation and reduction in a disproportionation reaction.
0 +1 −1
− − −
Cl2 + 2OH → Cl O + Cl + H2 O

(66) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Higher the standard reduction potential of species, higher will be the oxidising power.
(67) Answer : (3)
Solution:
+2 +1

2H gCl2 → Hg2 Cl2

(68) Answer : (1)

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

Solution:
7+ 2+
Mn + 5e
−
→ Mn (acidic medium)
M
Equivalent weight (KMnO4 ) = 5

(69) Answer : (3)

Hint:

Solution:
H2 S2 O8 : 2(+1) + 2 x + 6(–2) + 2(–1) = 0
x = +6
(70) Answer : (4)
Hint:
Sum of oxidation states of all atoms in a neutral molecule is zero.
Solution:
For A3 (BC3 )2
Net charge = 2 × 3 + [3 × 1 + 3 × (– 2)] × 2 = 0

(71) Answer : (3)

Hint:
Cr2 O 7 is oxidising agent and Fe2+ is reducing agent.
2−

Solution:
2- 2+ + 3+ 3+
Cr2 O7 + 6Fe + 14H → 2Cr + 6Fe + 7H2 O

(72) Answer : (3)

Solution:
In redox reaction, oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneously.
Δ
+2 2
CaCO3 ( s) ⟶ C − 2 ( s) + CO2 ( g)

∵ No oxidation and no reduction takes place

∴ It is not a redox reaction.

(73) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Carbon suboxide : C3 O2 : O = C = C = C = O

(74) Answer : (4)

Solution:
+
H
3+ 3+ 2−
FeSO4 + K2 Cr2 O7 → Fe + Cr + SO
4

O.S. change for Fe is from +2 to +3

hence valency factor of FeSO4 = 1
O.S. change for Cr is from +6 to +3
hence valency factor of K2 Cr2 O7 = 6
according to law of equivalence,
nK Cr 2 O7 × 6 = nFeSO ×1
2 4

1
nK Cr 2 O7 =
2
6

(75) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Cathode :
2H2 O(l) + 2e– → H2 (g) + 2OH– (aq)
Anode :
2H2 O(l) → O2 (g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e–

(76) Answer : (2)

Solution:
1
κ =
77
κ×1000 1000 2 −1
Λm = = = 130 S cm mol
C 77×0.1

(77) Answer : (1)

Solution:

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

Cell reaction, Ni(s) + 2H+(aq) → Ni2+(aq) + H2 (g)

o o o
E = E +
−E 2+
= 0.236
cell H ∣
∣H2 Ni ∣Ni
∣

2+
[p ][N i ]
H
2
o 0.0591
Ecell = E − log 10
cell n +
2
[H ]

0.0591 1×1
⇒0 = 0.236 −
2
log 10
+
2
[H ]

0.0591 1
⇒ −0.236 = −
2
× 2 × pH (∵ log 10
+
= pH)
[H ]

⇒ pH
0.236
= = 4
0.0591

(78) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Metallic conduction decreases with increase in temperature
Electrolytic conduction increases with increase in temperature.
(79) Answer : (3)
Hint:
Apply Kohlrausch’s Law.
– +
Λ°m CH 3 COOH = Λ°m CH 3 COO +Λ°m H .

Solution:
Λ°m CH 3 COOH = Λ°m CH 3 COONa + Λ°m HCl – Λ°m NaCl

=y+z–x
(80) Answer : (1)
Solution:
In a galvanic cell, chemical reaction (Redox) produces electrical energy.

(81) Answer : (4)

Solution:
∘ 0.059
E = log 10 KC
cell 2
0.236×2
= log KC
0.059 10

8 = log Kc
10
8
or, KC = 10

(82) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Nernst equation
∘ RT
⇒ E
cell = Ecell − nF
ln Q

(83) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Fe2+ + 2e– → Fe; ΔG01 = −2 F x1 .....(i)
Fe3+ + 3e– → Fe; ΔG2 = −3 F x2 .....(ii)
0

Fe3+ + e– → Fe2+; ΔG0 = − F y .....(iii) 3

∴ (ii) – (i) = (iii), ΔG03 = ΔG

0
2
− ΔG
0
1

Y = 3x2 – 2x1

(84) Answer : (2)

Hint:
− − 2+
+
MnO4 + 8H +5 e → Mn + 4H2 O

Solution:
n-factor = 5
Number of Faraday required = 0.5 × 5 = 2.5 F
Electricity required = 2.5 × 96500 C
(85) Answer : (2)
Solution:
According to Faraday’s first law
W = Zit
120 1
11.2 = × × 5 × 60 × 60
x 96500

x = 1.99 ≈ 2
So tin is present as Sn2+

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

SECTION-B
(86) Answer : (2)
Solution:
Maximum and minimum oxidation state of N is +5 and –3 respectively.
(87) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Metals having positive standard reduction potential value, do not liberate H2 gas on reaction with dil HCl.

(88) Answer : (2)

Solution:
1
KO2 is superoxide so oxidation state of oxygen is − 2 .

(89) Answer : (2)

Solution:
For pure water
pH = pOH = 5
pKw = pH + pOH = 10
Kw = 10–10

(90) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Fe3 O4 is FeO·Fe2 O3 where Fe is present as +2 and +3.

(91) Answer : (2)

Hint:
Lewis acids are electron pair acceptors.
Solution:
B2 H6 is an electron deficient species.

(92) Answer : (3)

Hint:
+
H
2− 2− 3+
Cr2 O
7
+ C2 O
4
−
→ Cr + CO2 .
Solution:
meq. of K2 Cr2 O7 = meq. of C2 O2−
4

Mole of K2 Cr2 O7 × 6 = 1 × 2
1
Mole of K2 Cr2 O7 =
3

(93) Answer : (4)

Solution:
2H2 O(l) ⇌ H3 O+(aq) + OH– (aq)
Kw =[OH– ] [H3 O+]
= 10–14
Now, [H3 O+] = 10–8 + x
Also [OH– ] = x
So, Kw = (10–8 + x) (x) = 10–14
x = 9.5 × 10–8 = [OH– ]
pOH = 7.02
pH = 6.98
(94) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Strongest acid (HCl) will give the weakest conjugate base (Cl– )
(95) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Ka × Kb = Kw (for conjugate acid base pair)
−14
Kw 10 −10
Ka = = = 5 × 10
−5
Kb 2×10

(96) Answer : (1)

Solution:
conceptual
(97) Answer : (2)
Hint:
0.0591
Ecell = E°cell − n log Q

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

Solution:
+ 2+
A(s) + 2 B ⇌ A + 2B(s)
0.1 M 0.1 M

2+
[A ]
(0.1)
Q= + 2
=
2
= 10
[B ] (0.1)

0.0591
5 = E°cell – 2
log 10

E°cell = 5.03 V

(98) Answer : (4)

Solution:
More the reduction potention (E0RP ) , lesser will be reducing power.

(99) Answer : (1)

Solution:
E1 W1
=
E2 W2

(100)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Zn can not displace Na+ ion from its salt solution as oxidation potential of sodium is more W.R.T. zinc.

BOTANY

SECTION-A

(101)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Periderm includes phellogen, phellem and phelloderm.
(102)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Companion cells control the activities of sieve elements as sieve elements lack nucleus.
(103)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Metaxylem is later formed primary xylem.
(104)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Stele includes pericycle, vascular bundle and pith. Endodermis is not included in stele. All the tissues inside
endodermis are included in stele.

(105)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Water containing cavities are seen inside vascular bundles of monocot stem.

(106)Answer : (2)
Solution:
At some places, the cambium forms a narrow band of parenchyma, which passes through the secondary
xylem and the secondary phloem in radial directions. These are secondary medullary rays.
(107)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Heartwood is dead and has depositions of aromatic compounds, lignin etc.
It provides mechanical support to the stem and cannot conduct water and minerals. Sapwood is lighter in
colour and conducts water. Tracheids in both heartwood and sapwood are lignified.

(108)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Mesophyll of dicot leaves is divided into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
(109)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Suberin deposited barrel shaped cells are found in endodermis of roots.
(110) Answer : (2)
Solution:
A large number of vascular bundles are arranged in a ring. This ring arrangement of vascular bundle is a
characteristic of dicot stem.

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

(111) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Few epidermal cells, in the vicinity of the guard cells become specialised in their shape and size and are
known as subsidiary cells.
(112) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Intercalary meristems are intercalated in between the permanent tissues.
(113) Answer : (2)
Solution:
At maturity, phloem fibres lose their protoplasm and become dead.
(114) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Root hair – Unicellular, unbranched
Trichome – Unicellular/multicellular and branched/unbranched
Both are epidermal appendages.
(115) Answer : (3)
Solution:
In stems, protoxylem lies towards centre which is called endarch arragement.

(116) Answer : (2)

Solution:
The endodermis is also known as starch sheath in dicot stem

(117) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Embryo sac represents female gametophyte in angiosperms.

(118) Answer : (3)

Solution:
In flowering plant, zygote further divides to form embryo.
(119) Answer : (2)
Solution:
Double fertilization and triple fusion are advance phenomenon found in the most advance plant group. Double
fertilization and triple fusion events are unique to angiosperms.
(120)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Anteriorly placed, equal, 2-8 flagella are characteristic of members of Chlorophyceae.
(121)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Sequoia is tallest gymnosperm.

(122)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Sporophyte is diploid. Psilotum is a pteridophyte with dominant sporophyte.
(123)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Pteridophytes can be homosporous or heterosporous. They do not produce seed. The spores germinate to
give rise to inconspicuous, small but multicellular free living, mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophyte called
prothallus.
(124)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Gametophytes of pteridophytes require cool, damp and shady places to grow.
(125)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Agar is obtained from red algae. Example: Gelidium.
(126)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Chemotaxonomy includes DNA sequencing to identify or classify organisms.
(127)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Volvox is a colonial green alga. Chlamydomonas is a unicellular alga. Fucus and Laminaria are brown algae.
(128)Answer : (2)
Solution:

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

Gemmae are green, multicellular, asexual buds which develop in small receptacles called gemma cups
located on the thalli.

(129)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Microphylls are found in heterosporous pteridophyte Selaginella .
(130)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Egg apparatus comprises of two synergids and one egg cell thus is 3-celled.
(131)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Organism given in the figure is Porphyra.
(132)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Spirogyra and the members of class Rhodophyceae do not form motile gametes.
(133)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Rhodophyceae has floridean starch as the reserve food material which is structurally similar to amylopectin
and glycogen.
(134)Answer : (3)
Solution:
First stage of mosses is the protonema stage which directly develop from a spore. It Is a creeping, green,
branched and frequently filamentous stage.
(135)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Megasporophylls are reproductive leaves which bear ovules.

SECTION-B

(136)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Bark includes periderm, primary and secondary phloem, pericycle, primary and secondary cortex.
(137)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Interfascicular meristem is secondary meristem.

(138)Answer : (2)
Solution:
In dicotyledonous stems, cambium is present between phloem and xylem. Such vascular bundles because of
the presence of cambium possess the ability to form secondary xylem and phloem tissues, and hence are
called open vascular bundles.

(139)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Autumn wood is late wood. it is darker in colour and has narrow lumen vessels.

(140)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Gymnosperms have sieve cells and albuminous cells.

(141)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Open vascular bundle means cambium is present between xylem and phloem. Such vascular bundles are
present in dicot stem.
(142)Answer : (3)
Solution:
In dicot root, vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin.

(143)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Tissue is a group of cells having common origin, common or correlated function. Structurally they can be
similar or dissimilar. They can be meristematic or permanent.
(144)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The first vascular terrestrial plant group is Pteridophyta.
(145)Answer : (4)

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

Solution:
Floridean starch is the stored food in red algae, e.g., Porphyra.
(146)Answer : (3)
Solution:
In red algae (e.g. Gracilaria) complex post-fertilization developments occur.
(147)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Seeds in gymnosperms are naked.
In gymnosperms due to absence of fruit, seeds are not covered in fruit wall.
(148)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Fucus has diplontic life cycle.
(149)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Algin and carrageen are hydrocolloids obtained from brown and red algae respectively.
(150)Answer : (1)
Solution:
In algae, water is the medium for gamete transfer.

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

(151)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The circulatory system of humans as other higher vertebrates is divided into two separate circuits, the systemic
circuit and pulmonary circuit.
Systemic heart refers to the left auricle and left ventricle.

(152)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Stroke volume is the volume of blood that enters into the aorta with each ventricular systole.
The stroke volume multiplied by the number of heart beats per minute (heart rate) gives the cardiac output.
Cardiac cycle refers to the repeating pattern of contraction and relaxation of the heart.

(153)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Plasma without the clotting proteins is known as serum.

(154)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Bicuspid valve is also known as mitral valve which is present between left atrium and left ventricle.
Tricuspid valve is present between right atrium and right ventricle.

(155)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Reduction in number of WBCs cause immunity disorder.
Reduction in number of RBCs can cause imbalance in transport of respiratory gases.

(156)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Neutrophils are responsible for phagocytosis.
(157)Answer : (4)
Solution:
The end of T wave marks the end of ventricular systole
(158)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood which then enters into right ventricle from where it is pumped in
order to enter pulmonary artery.
(159)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Aorta, heart, venacava are parts of systemic circulation.
(160)Answer : (3)

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

Solution:
Largest amount of urea is in hepatic vein.

(161)Answer : (1)
Solution:
During and after ventricular systole semilunar valves get opened and about 70 ml blood is pumped by each
ventricle into large arteries
(162)Answer : (2)
Solution:
70% blood filling of ventricles is done by the end of joint diastole.
(163)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Protonephridia or flame cells are excretory structures in platyhelminthes such as Planaria and
cephalochordates such as Amphioxus.
(164)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Maximum reabsorption of substances takes place in PCT.
Solution:
Glucose, amino acids, Na+ are reabsorbed by active transport in PCT.

(165)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Urine concentration is based on the length of loop of Henle.
Presence of longer loop of Henle is characteristic feature of mammalian kidneys.
(166)Answer : (2)
Hint:
JGA releases Renin
Solution:
JGA – Juxta glomerular apparatus is formed by cellular modifications in DCT and afferent arteriole

(167)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Renal tubule begins with Bowman’s capsule which encloses glomerulus and includes PCT(Proximal
convoluted tubule), loop of Henle and DCT (Distal convoluted tubule).
(168)Answer : (4)
Solution:
On an average, 1100-1200 ml of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute which constitute roughly 1/5th of
the blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart per minute.
(169)Answer : (3)
Hint:
GFR = 125 mL/min
Solution:
In a healthy individual, the glomerular filtration rate is 125 mL/minute or 180 litre/day or 7.5 litre/hour.

(170)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Antennal glands or green glands perform the excretory function in crustaceans like prawns.
Protonephridia or flame cells are present in platyhelminthes, rotifers, some annelids and cephalochordates
(Amphioxus).

(171)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Artificial kidney
Solution:
In hemodialysis, the dialysing fluid have the same composition as that of plasma except the nitrogenous
wastes.

(172)Answer : (4)
Hint:
Sternum is placed on same side as human heart.
Solution:
Sternum is placed ventrally in the human body. Myasthenia gravis affects skeletal muscles of the human body.
(173)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Gout is a metabolic disease caused due to deposition of uric acid crystals in the region of joints.

(174)Answer : (4)
Hint:

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

Mammals are ureotelic.

Solution:
Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects secrete nitrogenous wastes as uric acid in the form of pellet or paste
with a minimum loss of water and are called uricotelic animals. Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians and
marine fishes mainly excrete urea and are called ureotelic animals.
(175)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Acromion process of scapula articulates with clavicle (collar bone).
(176)Answer : (4)
Solution:
−
DCT reabsorb HCO3 and selectively secrete hydrogen and potassium ions and NH3 to maintain the pH and
sodium-potassium balance in blood.

(177)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Paramecium performs ciliary movement.
(178)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Ion involved in muscle contraction
Solution:
Tetany is the rapid spasm (wild contraction) of muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid.
(179)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Muscle fibre is the anatomical unit of a muscle. Each muscle fibre has many parallely arranged myofibrils.
(180)Answer : (4)
Hint:
These are called sutures.
Solution:
Fibrous joints in cranium prevent any movement in skull bones.

(181)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Ribs not connected ventrally.
Solution:
In human body, total number of floating ribs and collar bones are respectively 4 and 2, false ribs are 6 in
number while true ribs are 14.

(182)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The myosin, releasing ADP and Pi goes back to its relaxed state and when new ATP binds, the cross bridge is
broken.

(183)Answer : (3)
Hint:
Locomotion results in displacement.
Solution:
Talking involves movement of muscles but the person does not essentially have to move from one place to
another. Change in location occurs if a person walks, climbs and swims.
(184)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Synovial fluid is present in perfect movable joints. The synovial membrane secretes synovial fluid which
lubricates and provides nourishment to articular cartilage.

(185)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Myoglobin content is high in some of the muscles called the red muscle fibres. These muscles also contain
plenty of mitochondria which can utilise the large amount of oxygen stored in them for ATP production. These
muscles, therefore, can also be called aerobic muscles. On the other hand, some of the muscle fibres possess
very less quantity of myoglobin and are called the white muscle fibres. Number of mitochondria are also few in
them, but the amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high. They depend on anaerobic process for energy.

SECTION-B

(186)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Parasympathetic nerve endings release acetylcholine which decreases the rate of heart beat, speed of
conduction of action potential and thereby the cardiac output.

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

(187)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Pacemaker of human heart is sino atrial node which is a modified cardiac muscle.
(188)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The bone narrow in some bones is the site of production of blood cells.
(189)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Semilunar valves prevent backward flow of blood into ventricles from arteries.
(190)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Hypertension – High blood pressure.
(191)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in urine are the symptoms of diabetes mellitus
(192)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Extension of renal cortex in between medullary pyramids is known as renal column or column of Bertini.
(193)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Since, the human heart is autoregulated by the patches of nodal tissues (SA node, AV node) which are made
of cardiac muscles, it is said to be myogenic in nature.
(194)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Atrial natriuretic factor is released when there is high blood volume whereas RAAS is activated at low blood
volume or low GFR.

(195)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Our lungs remove CO2 approximately 200 mL/min.

(196)Answer : (3)
Solution:
206 bones are present in adult human body. Axial (80) + Appendicular (126) = Total (206).
(197)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Carpals are the bones of the upper limb.
(198)Answer : (2)
Solution:
‘H’ zone lies in the centre of A band.
(199)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Endoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre also known as sarcoplasmic reticulum is a rich source of calcium ions in
a muscle fibre.
(200)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Filtration slits are called slit pores.

23