14/01/2024 Code-A_Phase-1&2

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MM : 720 NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A Time : 200 Min.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A
1. (2) 19. (1)

2. (4) 20. (4)

3. (4) 21. (2)

4. (4) 22. (3)

5. (2) 23. (3)

6. (3) 24. (3)

7. (1) 25. (2)

8. (3) 26. (2)

9. (1) 27. (1)

10. (3) 28. (4)

11. (1) 29. (4)

12. (2) 30. (1)

13. (2) 31. (1)

14. (1) 32. (4)

15. (4) 33. (2)

16. (1) 34. (2)

17. (4) 35. (1)

18. (3)

SECTION-B

36. (1) 44. (1)

37. (4) 45. (1)

38. (4) 46. (2)

39. (1) 47. (1)

40. (1) 48. (1)

41. (3) 49. (3)

42. (4) 50. (1)

43. (1)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
51. (1) 69. (3)

52. (3) 70. (3)

53. (2) 71. (2)

54. (2) 72. (1)

55. (3) 73. (2)

56. (2) 74. (4)

57. (4) 75. (3)

58. (4) 76. (2)

59. (4) 77. (2)

60. (1) 78. (3)

61. (2) 79. (4)

62. (4) 80. (3)

63. (3) 81. (3)

64. (1) 82. (3)

65. (1) 83. (3)

66. (2) 84. (1)

67. (2) 85. (1)

68. (3)

SECTION-B

86. (3) 94. (4)

87. (3) 95. (3)

88. (3) 96. (3)

89. (2) 97. (3)

90. (3) 98. (2)

91. (1) 99. (2)

92. (4) 100. (1)

93. (4)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. (4) 119. (3)

102. (4) 120. (2)

103. (2) 121. (4)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

104. (2) 122. (3)

105. (2) 123. (3)

106. (2) 124. (3)

107. (3) 125. (2)

108. (4) 126. (3)

109. (3) 127. (3)

110. (4) 128. (4)

111. (1) 129. (4)

112. (3) 130. (3)

113. (1) 131. (4)

114. (4) 132. (2)

115. (2) 133. (2)

116. (3) 134. (3)

117. (2) 135. (1)

118. (2)

SECTION-B
136. (2) 144. (1)

137. (2) 145. (3)

138. (3) 146. (3)

139. (2) 147. (1)

140. (3) 148. (3)

141. (1) 149. (4)

142. (2) 150. (2)

143. (1)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. (3) 169. (3)

152. (1) 170. (1)

153. (3) 171. (3)

154. (1) 172. (2)

155. (3) 173. (4)

156. (3) 174. (4)

157. (2) 175. (4)

158. (4) 176. (3)

159. (1) 177. (1)

160. (3) 178. (2)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

161. (2) 179. (3)

162. (1) 180. (3)

163. (3) 181. (3)

164. (3) 182. (1)

165. (2) 183. (2)

166. (2) 184. (3)

167. (2) 185. (2)

168. (4)

SECTION-B
186. (3) 194. (2)

187. (3) 195. (4)

188. (2) 196. (1)

189. (3) 197. (3)

190. (2) 198. (2)

191. (4) 199. (1)

192. (1) 200. (2)

193. (4)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION-A
(1) Answer : (2)
Solution:
In uniform circular motion, magnitude of velocity that is speed remains constant.
(2) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Real forces are frame independent while pseudo force exist only in non-inertial frame of reference.
(3) Answer : (4)
Solution:

For maximum acceleration:

900 – 60 g = 60 × a0
a0 = 5 m s–2
Since 8 m s–2 > a0 , therefore monkey will not be able to climb safely on the rope for 8 m s–2 .

(4) Answer : (4)

Hint:
System is moving with constant velocity therefore net force on the system will be zero.
Solution:
F. B. D of 4m mass

Fnet = 0
T – 4mg = 0
⇒ T = 4mg
(5) Answer : (2)
Solution:
2
v 2×2
μ =
rg
= 2×10
= 0.2

(6) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Since speed remains constant in UCM, therefore kinetic energy will remain constant.

(7) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Let the acceleration of the system is a.
T1 (2+3)a 5
Then T2
=
3a
=
3

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

(8) Answer : (3)

Solution:

At t = 2 s
Change in velocity is Δ v = −20 m/s
Δ P = m Δ v = 6 × (−20) = – 120 kg m s–1
Δ P = −120 Ns

(9) Answer : (1)

Solution:

N = 2 × 10 = 20 N
fsmax = μ × N = 0.5 × 20 = 10 N
T + fsmax = F ⇒ T + 10 = 30 ⇒T = 20 N

(10) Answer : (3)

Solution:
→
→ F Ne t
a Net =
m
ˆ ˆ
→ 5 i +5 j
a Net =
1

∣→ ∣ – 2
∣
a Net = 5√2
∣
m/s

(11) Answer : (1)

Hint:
→
→ ∣ ∣
∣→∣ ∣ ∣ d p
a = 0 when ∣F ∣ = ∣ ∣ = 0
∣ ∣ dt
∣ ∣ ∣ ∣

Solution:
→
∣ →∣ ∣ d p ∣
∣F ∣ = ∣ ∣ = 2t − 2
∣ ∣ ∣ dt
∣

⇒ 2t – 2 = 0
⇒t=1s
(12) Answer : (2)
Solution:
√2g×16
4 2
e = = =
√2g×20 2√5 √5

(13) Answer : (2)

Solution:
1 2
kx
U1 2
U1 1
= ⇒ =
1
U2 2 U2 9
k(x+2x)
2

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

(14) Answer : (1)

Solution:
dF
For stable equilibrium, dx
< 0

So, x = –x1 is position of stable equilibrium.

(15) Answer : (4)

Solution:
→ →
P = F . V

ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
= ( i + j + 2k). (4 i + j − k)

=4+1–2
=3w
(16) Answer : (1)
Solution:
For equilibrium F = 0,
du d
F = − = − (x
2
− 4x + 2) = − 2x + 4 ,
dx dx

x = 2 m

(17) Answer : (4)

Solution:
When a man walks on horizontal surface with constant velocity, work done by both friction force and normal
force is zero.

(18) Answer : (3)

Solution:
→ →
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
A = 2i + 3j − k and B = i + j + ak ,
→ → → →
If, A ⊥ B then, A . B = 0 ,
→ →
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
A . B = (2 i + 3 j − k)( i + j + a k) = 0 ,

5−a = 0 ⇒ a = 5

(19) Answer : (1)

Solution:
In an inelastic collision, only linear momentum remain conserved.
(20) Answer : (4)
Solution:
When two equal masses collide elastically, their velocity interchanged.
(21) Answer : (2)
Solution:
The centre of mass of a body may lie within, outside, on the surface of the body.

(22) Answer : (3)

Solution:
−−−−
∵ P = √2mk
−
−
P ∝ √m

(23) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Let rated power P
(400) (100) (10)
0.8 × P =
20
4 4
40×10 2×10
P = = = 25 kW
20×0.8 0.8

(24) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Work = Area = Change in K.E.
1 1 1 2
⇒ × (3 + 1) × 10 − × (2 + 1) × 10 = mv −0
2 2 2
−−
v = √10 m/s

(25) Answer : (2)

Solution:
L0 = Iω
2 2
= MR ω
5

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

(26) Answer : (2)

Solution:
∣^ ^ ^∣
i j k
∣ ∣
⃗ ⃗
A ×B = ∣1 2 1∣
∣ ∣
∣1 1 −1 ∣

^
=^ ^
i (−2 − 1) − j (−1 − 1) + k(1 − 2)

= −3^ ^ ^
i + 2j − k
→ → → → → →
λ(A × B ) ⊥ A & λ(A × B ) ⊥ B

(27) Answer : (1)

Solution:
⃗
τ ⃗ = r⃗ × F

^ ^ ^ ^ ^
= (2 i − 3 j + 5k) × (2i − 3 j + 5k) = 0

(28) Answer : (4)

Solution:
→ →
→
m1 v 1 +m2 v 2
V cm =
m1 +m2

→ ˆ ˆ
2×3 i +2×3 j –1
V cm =
5
ms
→
6 6 –1
ˆ ˆ
V cm = (
5
i +
5
j) ms
∣→ ∣ 6 – –1
∣ V cm ∣ =
5
√2 ms
∣ ∣

(29) Answer : (4)

Solution:
4 × 0.2 – 8 × 0.2 × sin 30° = 0
(30) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Total kinetic energy of ring,
1 2 1 2
E = Mv + Iω
2 2
2
1 2 1 2 v
E = Mv + MR ( )
2 2 R

E = Mv2
1 2 1 2
E = Mv + Mv ⇒
2 2

(31) Answer : (1)

Hint:
1 2
θ = ω0 t + αt
2

Solution:
2
θ1= 12 α (1)
α
θ1 = 2
1 2
θ
′
= 2
α(3)

′ 9α
θ = 2

9α α
θ2 = θ′ – θ1 = 2
–
2
= 4α
θ2

θ1
=8

(32) Answer : (4)

Solution:
I = mr2 , m = d × AL, L = 2πr
∴ m = d × A × 2πr ⇒ m ∝ r
3

I ∝ r3 ⇒
I1 r1
= ( )
I2 r2

3
r2 I2
∴(r ) =
I1
1

r2 I2 3

∴(r ) = (
I1
)
1

1 2
r2
= (4) 3
= 2 3
r1

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

(33) Answer : (2)

Solution:
I = mk2 .

(34) Answer : (2)

Solution:
ωf −ωi 300 rev/min−0
α = =
t
10 s
300×2π radian/60 s
=
10 s

= π radian/s2
= 3.14 rad/s2
(35) Answer : (1)
Solution:
→ → → 2 2
u sin θ ˆ 2 −1
L = r × P = m(u cos θ) ( ) = −300 ( k) kg m s
2g

SECTION-B
(36) Answer : (1)
Solution:
2F = 5g ⇒ F = 25 N
(37) Answer : (4)
Solution:
1
10×
F cos 60° 2
m/s
2
a = = = 0.5
10 10

(38) Answer : (4)

Solution:

T1 sin37° = mg
3
T1 × = 100
5
500
⇒ T1 =
3
N

(39) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Action and reaction are equal and opposite to each other.
(40) Answer : (1)
Solution:
ma = μmg
a =μg = 0.3 × 10 = 3 m/s2
(41) Answer : (3)
Solution:
vx = ux = 3 m/s
3
vy = euy = 4
×4 = 3 m/s
−−−−−−
–
Speed v =
2
√vx +
2
vy = 3√2 m/s

(42) Answer : (4)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

Solution:
→
→
At the highest point F ⊥ v
→ →
So P = F ⋅ v = 0

(43) Answer : (1)

Solution:
As internal forces cancel out in a system, according to Newton’s III law of motion, they lead to no net force and
hence no net change in momentum.
(44) Answer : (1)
Hint:
work
Use power = T ime

Solution:
w mgh
P = = = 20 × 10 × 150
t t

= 30000 W
Power generated = 80% P = 0.8 × 30000 = 24 kW
(45) Answer : (1)
Hint:
Law of conservation of energy.
Solution:
2
1 2 v 1 2
m [v − ] = kx
2 4 2

3 2 2
mv = kx
4
2
3 mv
k =
2
4 x

(46) Answer : (2)

Hint:
I = Mk2 k → Radius of gyration.
Solution:

2
Ma
2I = 6
2
Ma
I= 12
2

= Mk2
Ma

12

a
k =
2√3

(47) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Work done = Change in rotational kinetic energy

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

(48) Answer : (1)

Hint:
→ → →
v = ω × r
Solution:
→
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
v = (2 i + j ) × ( i + 2 j )

ˆ ˆ ˆ
= 4k − k = 3k m/s
(49) Answer : (3)
Solution:

2
I = I
cm + mx
2 2
mL 2 L 2
= + mx = m( +x )
12 12

1 2 1 1
= 0.6 (
12
+ (0.25) ) = 0.6 (
12
+
16
) = 0.0875

(50) Answer : (1)

Solution:

Iyy ' = MOI of sphere P about yy' + MOI of sphere Q about yy'
2
2 R 2
MOI of sphere P about yy' = 5
m(
2
) + m (2R)

41 2
= mR
10
2 2
2 R mR
MOI of sphere Q about yy' = 5
m(
2
) =
10

2 2
2
41 mR mR 21 mR
∴ Iyy ′ =
10
+
10
=
5

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
(51) Answer : (1)
Solution:
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
at equilibrium
ΔH = TΔS
Δ H
T =
Δ S
3
For A2 +
2
B2 → A2 B3

3
ΔS = 60 − × 20 − 50
2
–1
ΔS = –20 JK
−7500
T =
−20
= 375 K

(52) Answer : (3)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

Solution:
Δng = –2 for N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 (g)

(53) Answer : (2)

Solution:
ΔH° = ΔG° + TΔS°
−3
ΔH° = 60 + 300 × 8 × 10

ΔH° = 62. 4 kJ mol–1

(54) Answer : (2)
Solution:
CO2 (g) + H2 (g) → CO(g) + H2 O (g) ; since ΔHf(H2 ) =0
ΔHr = –110.5 – 241.8 – (–393.5)
= 41.2 kJ/mol–1
(55) Answer : (3)
Solution:
SF6 (g) → S(g) + 6F(g)
ΔHr = 275 + 6 × 80 – (–1100)
= +1855 kJ/mol
ΔHr = 6 × B.E. (S – F)
1855
∴ BE (S – F) = 6

= 309 kJ/mol

(56) Answer : (2)

Solution:
ΔE = q + w
60 = 50 + w
w = 10 J
(57) Answer : (4)
Solution:
H, E and V all are extensive.
(58) Answer : (4)
Solution:
ΔS > 0 for option (4) as Δng > 0

(59) Answer : (4)

Solution:
In vacuum Pext = 0 ∴ W = 0.

(60) Answer : (1)

Solution:
HF + NaOH → Na+F– + H2 O, due to solvation of F– extra amount of heat is evolved.

(61) Answer : (2)

Solution:
For spontaneous process, ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0
(62) Answer : (4)
Solution:
AB2 (s) ⇌ A(g) + 2B(g), Kp = pA × (pB)2
On adding AB2 (s), KP remains same hence no effect on the partial pressure of A and B.

(63) Answer : (3)

Solution:
+ –
2H2 O ⇌ H3 O + OH
x x

+ –
Kw = [H3 O ] [O H]

10–12 = x2
−−−−−
x = √10
−12
= 10
−6
M
+ −6
[H3 O ] = 10 M
−6
pH = − log 10 = 6

and since [OH– ] = [H+]

∴ It is neutral.
(64) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Mixture of weak acid and its salt with strong base behaves as an acidic buffer.

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

(65) Answer : (1)

Solution:
pH = 9.66, pOH = 4.34
For basic Buffer :
[ Salt ]
pOH = pKb + log
[ Base ]
[NH4 Cl]
4. 34 = 4.34 + log
[NH4 OH]

[NH4 Cl]
log = 0
1

[NH4 Cl] = 1 M
= 1 mol L–1

(66) Answer : (2)

Solution:

A(s) ⇌ B(g) + C(g)

p p

p = 5 atm
∴ Kp = 5 × 5 = 25 atm2

(67) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Conjugate acid is formed by addition of one H+

(68) Answer : (3)

Solution:
2
[Z]
QC =
[X][Y]
2
−4
(4×10 )
−4
= = 16 × 10
−2 −2
(1×10 )(1×10 )

∵ QC < KC
∴ Reaction will proceed in the forward direction
(69) Answer : (3)
Solution:
FeO(s) + CO(g) ⇌ Fe(s) + CO2 (g)
– 3–x – x
p
CO
2 x
Kp = = = 0 .5
PCO 3−x

2 x = 3 – x ⇒ x = 1 atm

(70) Answer : (3)

Solution:
According to law of mass action
Rf = Kf[A]2 [B]3

(71) Answer : (2)

Solution:
−14
Ka × Kb = Kw = 10
−14 −14
10 10 −8
Kb = = ⇒ 10
−6
Ka 10

log Kb = –8
pKb = –log Kb = 8

(72) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Catalyst has no effect on extent of reaction.
(73) Answer : (2)
Solution:
At equilibrium ΔG = 0.

(74) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Salts like Na+Cl– do not undergo hydrolysis as both cation/anion are week.

(75) Answer : (3)

Solution:
N2 + 3 H2 ⇌ 2 NH3 Keq = K
1
2 NH3 ⇌ N2 + 3 H2 Keq = K

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

1 3 1
NH3 ⇌ 2
N2 +
2
H2 Keq =
√K

(76) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Kp = Kc (RT)Δng

(77) Answer : (2)

Solution:
N2 O4 ⇌ 2NO2

t = 0 1 mol 0 mol

t = t 0.4 mol 1.2 mol

eq.
0.4×92+1.2×46
(Mavg )eq. = 1.6
= 57.5
57.5
(V.D.)eq. = 2
= 28.75

(78) Answer : (3)

Solution:
In heterogeneous equilibrium phase of components should be different.
(79) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Heat transfer at constant pressure is equal to enthalpy change of a process.
(80) Answer : (3)
(81) Answer : (3)
Solution:
If
kp > Q → Spontaneous reaction
ΔG° < RTlnQ → Non-spontaneous reaction
kp = Q → Equilibrium

→ T is greater ∴ endothermic and spontaneous

ΔH
T >
ΔS

(82) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Statement-I: Number of moles for reactant and product are equal. hence change in pressure will not affect the
reaction.
Statement-II: For endothermic reaction if increase in temperature, then equilibrium constant will increases.
(83) Answer : (3)
Solution:
0 0 0
Δsol H = Δlattice H + Δhyd H

(84) Answer : (1)

Solution:
1
H2 (g) + 2 O2 (g) → H2 O(l)
ΔrH = Δ°Hf (H2 O) = Δ°Hc (H2 )

(85) Answer : (1)

Solution:
ΔH = ΔU + Δng RT and ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
ΔH = 2 × 1000 + (2 – 0) × 2 × 300 = 3200 cal
ΔG = 3200 – 300 × 10 = 200 cal
= 0.2 kcal

SECTION-B
(86) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Pascal is SI unit of pressure.
(87) Answer : (3)
Solution:

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

+ –
AgCN ⇌ Ag + CN

s s

+ –
KCN → K + CN

0. 02 M 0. 02 M

Ksp = [Ag+] [CN– ]

1.0×10–16 = (s) (s+0.02) ≃ s(0 .02)

= 5 × 10–15 M
–16
1.0×10
s =
0.02

(88) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Those cations, which react with water (H2 O) to produce W.B, undergo hydrolysis.

∴ NH4 undergoes hydrolysis.

(89) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Mixture of CH3 COOH and CH3 COONa is an acidic buffer, whose

pOH = 14 – pH
= 14 – 4.74 = 9.26
(90) Answer : (3)
Solution:
2
(PC O ) 8×8
Kp = = = 16.0 atm
PC O 4
2

(91) Answer : (1)

Solution:
2+ −
PbCl2 ( s) + aq ⇌ Pb (aq) + 2Cl (aq)

Ksp = [Pb2+][Cl– ]2 (If 'S' is solubility)

Ksp = (S) (2S)2
4 × 10–6 = 4S3
S = 10–2 mole L–1
(92) Answer : (4)
Solution:
+ −
MX(s) ⇌ M (aq) + X (aq)
S S

For a saturated solution,

KSP = QSP = [M+] [X– ]
⇒ 4 × 10–8 = S.S ⇒ S = 2 × 10–4
2+ −
MX 2 ( s) ⇌ M (aq) + 2X (aq)

KSP = S.(2S)2 ⇒ 4S3 = 3.2 × 10–14

⇒ S = 2 × 10–5
+ −
M3 X(s) ⇌ M (aq) + 3X (aq)

KSP = S.(3S)3 ⇒ 27 S4 = 27 × 10–16

⇒ S = 10–4

(93) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Heat released during the combustion of 12 g C = a kJ
Heat released during the combustion of 0.012 g C

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

a × 0.012
=
12

= a × 0.001 kJ
=aJ

(94) Answer : (4)

Solution:
ΔU (Internal energy change) is measured experimentally using bomb calorimeter.
(95) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Temperature, pressure and enthalpy are state functions while work is a path function.
(96) Answer : (3)
Solution:
For ΔfH°, all the reactants and products must be in their standard state and formation must take place from
constituent elements.
(97) Answer : (3)
Solution:
pH = 10
pOH = 14 – 10 = 4
¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ −4
[OH ] = 10
¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ 100 −4
OH = × 10
1000

= 10–5 mole
(98) Answer : (2)
Solution:
CCl4 → C + 4Cl ΔHa = 450 kJ
∴ C – Cl bond energy =
450
= 112.5 kJ
4

COCl2 → C + O + 2Cl ΔHa = 600 kJ

Energy required to break the molecule
C = O bond + 2C – Cl = 600
C = O bond energy + 2 × 112.5 = 600
C = O bond energy = 600 – 225 = 375 kJ

(99) Answer : (2)

Solution:
ΔH
Cp = as ΔT = 0 Cp is infinite.
ΔT

(100)Answer : (1)
Solution:

∴ Order of stability is
Y>X>Z

BOTANY

SECTION-A
(101)Answer : (4)
Solution:
China rose and mustard both have hypogynous flowers with superior ovary.
In mustard and china rose, leaves show alternate phyllotaxy. Both of them have actinomorphic bisexual
flowers. Mustard shows parietal placentation China rose shows axile placentation.

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

(102)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Largest petals - Standard found posteriorly
Smaller petals - Wings found laterally
Smallest petal - Keel located anteriorly
(103)Answer : (2)
Solution:
A tendril in cucumber is a modified axillary bud.
(104)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Asparagus belongs to Liliaceae and is used as food.
(105)Answer : (2)
Solution:
False septum or, replum is present in the ovary of flower of mustard.
(106)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Sweet potato is modified adventitious root.

(107)Answer : (3)
Solution:
In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as a drupe. They develop from monocarpellary superior ovaries and
are one seeded. In mango the pericarp is well differentiated into an outer thin epicarp, a middle fleshy edible
mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp.
(108)Answer : (4)
Solution:
In opposite phyllotaxy, a pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other as in Calotropis and
guava plants.
(109)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Epigynous flowers are found in ray florets of sunflower. Rose and peach have perigynous flowers. Brinjal has
hypogynous flowers.

(110) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Perianth is not present in legume family.

(111) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Aleurone layer is the covering of endosperm in monocot seeds like maize.

(112) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Carpels may be free or fused. When they are free they are said to be apocarpous.
(113) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Epipetalous stamens are found In Brinjal. Vexillary stamens are found in pea plant. Parietal placentation is
found in mustard. Epiphyllous stamens are present in lily.

(114) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Potato tuber is underground stem. It possesses buds that sprouts to produce new plants.

(115) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Thorns are modified axillary buds whereas spines are modified leaves. Both are the structures for self defence.
(116) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Unicellular elongation of epidermal cells in roots are root hairs.

(117) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Wheat belongs to Gramineae family.
Wheat has parallel venation.
(118) Answer : (2)
Solution:
As they are eukaryotes, they have well defined nucleus, membrane bound cell organelles. They have 80S and
70S ribosomes.

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

(119) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Loose tissue body organisation can be represented by mycelium of fungi.
(120)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Viroids are infectious agents that are smaller than viruses and cause potato spindle tuber disease. They lack
protein coat that is found in viruses.
(121)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Diatoms are the chief producers in the oceans.
(122)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Members of Ascomycetes family are commonly known as sac fungi. Their mycelium consists of septate
hyphae, (except yeast, being unicellular). Ascospores are produced endogenously.
(123)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Double stranded DNA is present in bacteriophage.
(124)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The protozoan which causes sleeping sickness is a flagellated protozoan Trypanosoma.
(125)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Neurospora is extensively used in biochemical and genetic work.
(126)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The main criteria for classification used by R. H. Whittaker include cell structure, body organisation, mode of
nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationship.

(127)Answer : (3)
Solution:
On the basis of five kingdom system of classification, Chlorella and Amoeba belong to kingdom Protista.

(128)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Most of the chrysophytes are photosynthetic.

(129)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Sexual reproduction in fungi involves oospores, ascospores and basidiospores.
(130)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Euglenoids have pigments identical to those present in the higher plants. When deprived of sunlight they
behave like heterotrophs by predating on some other smaller organisms.

(131)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Plasmodium is the most notorious protozoan which causes malaria in humans.
(132)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Gonyaulax is a red dinoflagellate which undergoes rapid multiplication that makes the sea appear red.
(133)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Puccinia is a member of Basidiomycetes and basidiospores are its sexual spores.
(134)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Bacillus is rod shaped bacteria.
(135)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Bacteria have simple structure but they are very complex in behaviour.

SECTION-B
(136)Answer : (2)
Solution:

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

Wheat belongs to Gramineae family and their floral formula is

(137)Answer : (2)
Solution:
In monocotyledonous seed, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinaceous layer
called aleurone layer.
(138)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The covering of the seed is seed coat. The seed coat has two layers, the outer is testa and inner is tegmen.
(139)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Brinjal family or solanaceae have persistent calyx.

(140)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Liliaceae is a monocot family. Plant family liliaceae include genera like Allium and Colchichum.
(141)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Cymose inflorescence may have more than one flower, basipetal arrangement of flowers on floral axis.
(142)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Liliaceae has actinomorphic flowers, endospermous seeds and cymose inflorescence.
(143)Answer : (1)
Solution:
The placentation is called as basal when the placenta develops at base of the ovary.
Basal placentation is seen in sunflower, marigold.

(144)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Fungal component is called mycobiont.
Phycobiont is the autotrophic partner which performs photosynthesis.

(145)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The network of hyphae is known as mycelium.
(146)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Aspergillus belongs to the class ascomycetes.
(147)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Albugo is the parasitic fungi on mustard.
(148)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Conidia – Ascomycetes
Sporangiospores - Zygomycetes
(149)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Heterotrophic bacteria are helpful in making curd from milk.
Chemoautotrophic bacteria help in recycling of nutrients.
(150)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Kingdom Protista includes only unicellular eukaryotic organisms.
Spirogyra - Kingdom Plantae
Nostoc, Anabaena, Mycoplasma - Kingdom Monera
Amoeba, Chlamydomonas, Paramoecium, Chlorella, Euglena, Gonyaulax - Kingdom Protista

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

(151)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The conducting part of the respiratory system is not involved in gaseous exchange.
(152)Answer : (1)
Hint:
70% CO2 is transported in this form.
Solution:
CO2 enters RBCs and reacts with water in the presence of enzyme carbonic anhydrase to form carbonic acid
which dissociates into H+ and HCO3 – . About 20-25% of CO2 is transported as carbaminohaemoglobin.

(153)Answer : (3)
Solution:
2 to 3 percent oxygen in the blood is carried in dissolved state through plasma.
(154)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Functional residual capacity.
Solution:
After forceful expiration, volume of air left is called residual volume (1200 ml).

(155)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The dome-shaped diaphragm is present on the lower side of thoracic cavity.

(156)Answer : (3)
Solution:
ERV : Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a forcible expiration.
This averages 1000 - 1100 mL.

(157)Answer : (2)
Solution:
This sigmoid shaped curve is known as oxygen dissociation curve.

(158)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Epiglottis is responsible to cover glottis during swallowing to prevent the entry of food into larynx.

(159)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers 5 ml of O2 to tissues and every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood
delivers 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

(160)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Internal intercostal muscles becomes active during forceful expiration.

(161)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Earthworms use their moist cuticle for exchange of gases and insects have a network of tubes (tracheal tubes)
to transport atmospheric air within the body.
(162)Answer : (1)
Solution:
High pCO2 , low pH, high H+ concentration and high temperature favour dissociation of O2 from haemoglobin.

(163)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Ventricle exerts maximum pressure leading to opening of semilunar valves. During isovolumetric contraction,
AV valves as well as semilunar valves remain closed.

(164)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Arthropods and molluscs have an open circulatory system whereas most annelids and chordates have a
closed circulatory system.
(165)Answer : (2)
Solution:
During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately 70 mL of blood. This is called stroke volume.
(166)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Sympathetic nervous system increases the rate of heartbeat, strength of ventricular contraction and thereby,
cardiac output. Adrenal medullary hormones can also increase the cardiac output.

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

(167)Answer : (2)
Hint:
These are glycoproteins.
Solution:
Immunoglobulins that are gamma globulins help attack viruses and bacteria. RBCs contain haemoglobin.
(168)Answer : (4)
Hint:
Ventricular diastole is the period of filling of ventricles with blood.
Solution:
Heart in ventricular diastole is relaxed and AV valves are open. When ventricular pressure falls, it causes the
closure of semilunar valves, thereby preventing the back flow of blood into the ventricles.
(169)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Chordae tendinae are attached to the flaps of bicuspid and tricuspid valves at one end and are attached to the
papillary muscles on their other end.
(170)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Rh antibodies from the mother (Rh –ve) can leak into the blood of the foetus (Rh +ve) and destroy the foetal
RBCs. This could be fatal to the foetus or could cause severe anaemia and jaundice to the baby. This
condition is called erythroblastosis foetalis.
(171)Answer : (3)
Hint:
Ventricular repolarisation.
Solution:
The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state.
(172)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Maximum filling of ventricles occurs during joint diastole.
Solution:
70% filling of ventricles occurs during joint diastole and 30% occurs during atrial contraction.
(173)Answer : (4)
Solution:
First heart sound ‘lub’ is due to closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves while second heart sound ‘dub’ is due
to closure of semilunar valves.
(174)Answer : (4)
Solution:
When the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply, this state is called heart attack.
Heart failure is not same as cardiac arrest (when the heart stop beating)
Coronary artery disease, often referred to as atherosclerosis, affects the vessels that supply blood to heart
muscle.
(175)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Neutrophils → 60 – 65%
Basophils → 0.5 – 1%
Monocytes → 6 – 8%
Eosinophils → 2 – 3%

(176)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Uremia – High urea in blood
Renal calculi – Kidney stones
Glomerulonephritis – Inflammation of glomerulus
Glycosuria – Presence of glucose in urine
(177)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Removal of this compound requires large amount of water.
Solution:
Ammonia is the most toxic nitrogenous waste and uric acid is the least toxic nitrogenous waste which is
excreted in the form of pellets.
(178)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidneys per minute is called glomerular filtration rate (GFR). GFR in a
healthy individual is approximately 125 ml/minute, i.e., 180 litres per day.
(179)Answer : (3)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

Solution:
An increase in blood flow to atria stimulates atria of heart to release ANF.

(180)Answer : (3)
Solution:
In the Bowman’s capsule, PCT and DCT are in renal cortex while loops of Henle are in medullary pyramids.

(181)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Tubular secretion occurs in PCT, DCT and collecting duct.
Descending limb of loop of Henle is almost impermeable to electrolytes.
(182)Answer : (1)
Solution:
ANF(Atrial natriuretic factor) inhibits the reabsorption of Na+ by the collecting duct and reduces release of
aldosterone from adrenal gland. It also increases excretion of Na+ in urine.

(183)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Permeable to salts.
Solution:
The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes.
(184)Answer : (3)
Hint:
Insulin deficiency.
Solution:
Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in urine are indicative of diabetes mellitus.
(185)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Renal calculi is the condition in which stone or insoluble mass of crystallised salts (oxalates, etc.) formed
within the kidney.

SECTION-B

(186)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells is called breathing.

(187)Answer : (3)
Solution:
TV + IRV + ERV = VC
VC = Vital capacity can also the written as.
EC + IRV

⇒ ↓

TV + ERV + IRV

(188)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Pneumotaxic centre is situated in pons.
(189)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Fish respire through gills while birds and snakes breathe through lungs.

(190)Answer : (2)
Hint:
‘O’ blood group individuals are called universal donors.
Solution:
RBCs of individuals having blood group ‘O’ lack A and B antigens, therefore, the recipient’s antibodies cannot
cause agglutination of the donor’s RBCs. Individuals with blood group ‘AB’ lack anti – A and anti – B
antibodies therefore, agglutination with donor’s RBCs does not occur. Therefore, such people are called
universal recipients.

(191)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Cardiac arrest is a condition when the heart stops beating.
Hypertension refers to high blood pressure and hypotension refers to low blood pressure.
(192)Answer : (1)
Solution:

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

Bicuspid valve is also known as mitral valve which is present between left atrium and left ventricle.
Tricuspid valve is present between right atrium and right ventricle.

(193)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Lymph is colourless due to the absence of RBCs.
(194)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Identify the most abundant WBCs.
Solution:
Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body.
(195)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Skin acts as an accessory excretory organ by eliminating waste substances through sweat and sebum.
(196)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Part of renal tubule having maximum microvilli.
Solution:
PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium which increases the surface area for reabsorption.
(197)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Nephridia – Earthworm
Antennal glands or green glands – Crustaceans
Malpighian tubules – Cockroach
(198)Answer : (2)
Solution:
A – Renal column of Bertini
B – Medullary pyramid
C – Cortex
D – Calyx
(199)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Renin through RAAS pathway help in regulating blood pressure and GFR.
(200)Answer : (2)
Solution:
pCO2 in alveoli is 40 mm Hg, pCO2 in tissues is 45 mm Hg and pCO2 in deoxygenated blood is 45 mm Hg.

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