Genetics

01. Select the statement which is incorrect regarding VNTR:

1. It show high degree of polymorphism 2. It belongs to mini – satellite calss of DNA
3. It usually codes for few proteins 4. It varies in size from 0.1 to 20kb

02. The last step of DNA fingerprinting is:

1. Blotting 2. Hybridisation 3. Electrophorosis 4. Autoradiography

03. The number of base pairs in a diploid human cell is:

1. 4.6 X 106 bp 2. 3.3 X 109 bp 3. 6.6 X 109 bp 4. 6.6 X 106 bp

04. HGP was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called:
1. Bioinformatics 2. Biostatistics 3. Biotechnology 4. Biopiracy

05. Correctly match Column – I with column – II:

Column – I Column – II
A Minisatellites I. 0.1 to 20 kb
B SNPs II. Due to single base DNS differences
C Frederick Sanger III. Developed method to determine amino acid sequence in
proteins
D VNTR IV. Does not show polymorphism
1. A, B and C only 2. A and D only 3. D only 4. B and C only

06. Read the following statements and identify the correct pair with respect to salient features of
human genome:
I. The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp.
II. The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000 – much lower than previous estimates of
80,000 to 1,40,000 genes.
III. More than 2 [er cent of the genes codes for proteins.
IV. Repeated sequeces make up very small portion of human genome.
1. I and II 2. III and IV 3. II and IV 4. I and III

07. Which of the following statements are related to the blind approach followed in human genome
project:
1. Sequence annotation
2. Sequencing the whole set of genome that contains coding and non – coding sequences.
3. Both 1 and 2 4. Expressed sequence tags.

08. What is the correct sequence of DNA finger printing:

A. Separation of DNA fragments by Gel electrophoresis.
B. Digestion by restriction endonucleases.
C. Isolation of DNA.
D. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.
E. Southern blotting.
1. A – B – C – D – E 2. B – D – E – A – C
3. C – B – A – D – E 4. C – B – A – E – D

09. Allelic frequency variations has traditionally been described as a DNA polymorphism if more
than one variant (allele) at a locus occurs in human population with a frequency ________.
1. Less than 0.01 2. Greater than 0.01 3. Less than 0.1 4. Greater than 0.1
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10. The average human gene consists of:

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 1. 30,000 bases 2. 3164.7 bases 3. 3000 bases 4. 80,000 bases

11. Polymorphism in DNA sequence arises due to:

1. Fragmentation 2. Mutation 3. DNA replication 4. Transcription

12. Which of the following statements with reference to the features of human genome is/are not
true:
I. The average gene consists of 30000 bases.
II. Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins.
III. Chromosome X has most genes and the Y has the fewest.
IV. There are about 1.4 million locations where SNPs occur.
1. I, III and IV 2. Only III 3. I and IV 4. I and III only

13. In the schematic representation, few representative chromosomes have been shown to contain
different copy number of VNTR. Identify the criminal from the given representation:

1. Individual ‘A’ 2. Individual ‘B’ 3. Can’t be predicted

4. Neith ‘A’ nor ‘B’, any other individual.

14. The largest known human gene:

1. Has 3000 bases 2. Has 30000 base pairs
3. Is present on ‘Y’ chromosome 4. Is dystrophin

15. All the genes that are expressed as RNA are referred to as:
1. BAC 2. EST 3. VNTR 4. Sequance annotation

16. Which of the following chromosomes has the least number of genes in a human genome:
1. X – chromosome. 2. Chromosome – 1 3. Y – chromosome 4. Chromosome – 11
2

17. VNTR are:

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1. Belong to micro – satellite

08.04.2025 DR. SHAFEEK ABDUL

 2. Vary in size from 0.1 to 20 kb.
3. Show very less degree of polymorphism.
4. Copy number remains same among different chromosomes in the same individual.

18. Which of the following statements quotes the importance of satellite DNA.
1. It forms only 2% of the human genome.
2. It codes for the enzyme needed for DNA replication.
3. It shows high degree of polymorphism, which is heritable from parents to children.
4. It is found only on 1.4 million locations in human genome as SNPs.

19. Identify the correct increasing order with reference to organisation of genetic material:
A, Gene B. Chromosome C. Nucleotide D. Genome
1. A – B – C – D 2. B – A – D – C 3. C – B – A – D 4. C – A – B – D

20. Which of the following statements about HGP are correct

A. Two major approaches ‘expressed sequence tags’ and ‘sequence annotation’ are used in
Human Genome Project
B. Fredrick Sanger developed the method for determination of aminoacid sequence in proteins
C. Chromosome ‘1’ was the first human chromosome to be sequenced
D. More than 98% of the genome donot code for any proteins
E. Total number of genes estimated are 3000.
1. A, B and D 2. A, D and E 3. A, C and D 4. A, B and C

21. Read the following statements carefully:

I. Development of breast i.e., gynecomastia is a feature of human male suffering from
Klinefelter’s syndrome.
II. Turner’s syndrome is caused due to the absence of one of the X – chromosome in human
female.
III. The genetic disorder developed due to the presence of an additional copy of chromosome
number 21 was described for the first time by T. H. Morgan.
IV. Palm Crease is a characteristic feature of person suffering from Down’s syndrome.
Identify the correct statements among the following:
1. Only I 2. II and III 3. All except III 4. Only IV

22. The chromosome complement of egg & sperm whose unior results in Klinefelter’s syndrome is”
1. (22 + XX) X (22 + Y) 2. (23 + X) X (22 + Y)
3. (22 + X) X (22 + O) 4. (23 + X) X (22 + X)

23. In humans, a male cannot be the carrier for the disease:

1. Haemophilia 2. Sickle cell anemia 3. Phenylketonuria 4. Thalassemia

24. Sickle cell anemia:

I. Is an example of point mutation
II. Is caused by transversion mutation of the gene which synthesizes the β – chain of
hemoglobin.
III. Involves the replacement of amino acid valine by glutamic acid.
The correct ones are:
1. I and II 2. II and III 3. I and III 4. I, II and III

25. In ZZ – ZW type of sex determination:

1. Male individuals are heterogametic
2. Female individuals have two types of sex chromosomes
3. Male individuals produce some gametes without sex chromosomes.
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4. Male and female individuals both have two types of sex chromosomes.
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 26. Match the following columns and choose the correct one
Column – I Column – II
A Birds I. Male heterogametic with XO type of sex determination
B Honey Bee II. Female heterogametic with ZO type of sex determination
C Grasshopper III. Female heterogametic with ZW type of sex determination
D Butterflies IV. Haplo – diploidy sex determination
1. A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV 2. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
3. A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I 4. A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I

27. Below are two statements given. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Colourblindness occurs in about 8 per cent of females and only about 0.4% of
the males.
Reason (R): The gene that led to red – green colourblindness is present on the autosomes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Both A and R are true. R is clear explanation to A.
2. Both A and R are true. R is not a clear explanation to A.
3. A is true and R is false
4. A is false and R is true.

28. Select the incorrect statements with respect to phenylketonuria:

A. It is an example of pleiotrophy.
B. Phenotypic expression is characterized by mental retardation and increase in hair and skin
pigmentation.
C. It is an autosomal dominant trait
D. Thyrosine is accumulated in the brain due to the lack of an enzyme that converts tyrosine to
phenylalanine.
E. This is an inborn error of metabolism.
1. A, C and E only 2. A and D only 3. C, D and E only 4. B, C and D only

29. Match the following columns and choose the correct one
Column – I Column – II
A Multiple allelism I. Inheritance of flower colour in dog flower
B Recombination II. Height in man
C Incomplete dominance III. Human blood group
D Polygenic inheritance IV. Generates non – parental gene combinations
1. A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV 2. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
3. A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I 4. A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I

30. Read the following statements about colour blindness and choose the correct option.
Statement – I: Thalassemia differs from sickle cell anaemia as the former is a quantitative
problem of synthesizing too few globin molecules.
Statement – II: In haemophilia, a single protein that is a part of cascade of proteins involved in
blood clotting is affected.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement – I is correct, but statement – II is incorrect
2. Both statements are incorrect
3. Both statements are correct
4. Statement – I is incorrect, but statement – II is correct

31. Which of the following statements are correct about Down’s syndrome:
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I. Develops due to trisomy of chromosome number 21.

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II. Affected individual lack any of the sex chromosome.

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 III. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
IV. It is a chromosomal disorder that follows mandelian law of inheritance.
In the light of the above statements, select the correct option:
1. II, III and IV only 2. I and III only 3. I, II and III only 4. I and IV only

32. Below are two statements given. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In honeybees, development of drones occur by the means of parthenogenesis.
Reason (R): Male honey bee do not have a grandfather but can have sons.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Both A and R are true. R is clear explanation to A.
2. Both A and R are true. R is not a clear explanation to A.
3. A is true and R is false
4. A is false and R is true.

33. In the given below pedigree chart, the mutant trait is shaded black. The gene responsible for
the trait is:

1. X – linked recessive trait 2. X – linked dominant trait

3. Autosomal recessive trait 4. Autosomal dominant trait

34. Select the correctly matched pair:

1. Down’s syndrome: Small and wrinkled tongue.
2. Drosophila melanogaster: Has only four morphologically distinct chromosomes.
3. Snapdragon: Flower colour shows codominance.
4. Polygenic inheritance: Bell shaped normal distribution curve

35. Human skin colour is an example of:

1. Quantitative inheritance 2. Incomplete dominance
3. Codominance 4. Pleiotrophy

36. Males and females are heterogametic in (X) and (Y) respectively:
Select the correct option of (X) and (Y):
1. X – Drosophila, Y – Birds 2. X – Birds, Y – Drosophila
3. X – Human beings, Y – Grasshopper 4. X – Grasshopper, Y – Human beings

37. Read the following statements and choose the correct options:
I. Sickle cell anaemia is a classical example of frame shift mutation.
II. Radiations can also acts as mutagens.
III. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.
1. I and II 2. II and III 3. I and III 4. I, II and III
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38. Thalassemia differs from sickle – cell anemia in that the former is:
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1. A quantitative problem of synthesizing too few globin molecules

08.04.2025 DR. SHAFEEK ABDUL

 2. A qualitative problem of synthesizing too few globin molecules.
3. A qualitative problem of synthesizing an incorrectly functioning globin.
4. A quantitative problem of synthesizing an incorrectly functioning globin

39. A couple has two daughters and two sone. Among two daughters one is normal and other is
carrier for haemophilia. Among two sons, one is normal and other is haemophilic. What would
be the genotypes of the parents:
1. XX and XY 2. XX and XhY 3. XXh and XY 4. XXh and XhY

40. Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in:
1. Aneuploidy 2. Polyploidy 3. Point Mutation 4. Gene mutation

41. Male honeybees

1. Are diploid organisms
2. Produce gametes by mitosis
3. Are developed by fusion of male gametes with egg.
4. Do not have fathers but can produce sons.

42. Below are two statements given. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Drone bees do not have fether and thus cannot have sons, but have a
grandfather and can have grandson.
Reason (R): Drones directly develop from unfertilized eggs but can also produce sperms by
mitosis, which fertilise eggs to form females.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Both A and R are true. R is clear explanation to A.
2. Both A and R are true. R is not a clear explanation to A.
3. A is true and R is false
4. A is false and R is true.

43. Given below is the diagram related to sickle cell anemia, which is a autosomal recessive trait.
In this identify A, B and C:

1. A – CAC, B – GTG, C – Val 2. A – CAC, B – GTG, C – Phe

3. A – GTG, B – CAC, C – Val 4. A – CAC, B – GTC, C – His

44. Match the following columns and choose the correct one
Column – I Column – II
A XX – XO method of sex determination I. Turner’s syndrome
B XX – XY method of sex determination II. Female heterogamety
C Karyotype – 45 chromosomes III. Grasshopper
D ZW – ZZ type of sex determination IV. Female homogametic
1. A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I 2. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
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3. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I 4. A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I

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 45. Select the incorrect statement with reference to Haemophilia.
1. It is an autosomal recessive disorder.
2. Shows its transmission from nonaffected carrier female to some of the male progeny.
3. In this disease, a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteinsinvolved in clotting of
blood is affected.
4. The possibility of female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare.

4825 + 45 (805) ## 603 + 7 Dr. Abdul Shafeek

Name: __________________________
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