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1- 1+g1 n
1+r Pn
P0 = D1 +
r - g1 (1+r)n
WHERE
Pn D1 (1+g1)n-1 (1+g2) 1
=
(1+r)n r - g2 (1+r)n
1.20 6
1 -
1.15 2.40 (1.20)5 (1.10) 1
P0 = 2.40 +
.15 - .20 .15 - .10 (1.15)6
= 13.968 + 65.289
= RS.79.597
ga
gn
Dividends
High Payout Ratio
ga
gn
H 2H
D0
PO = [(1+gn) + H (ga - gn)]
r - gn
D0 (1+gn) D0 H (ga - gn)b
= +
r - gn r - gn
D0 = 1 ga = 25% H=5
gn = 15% r = 18%
1 (1.15) 1 x 5(.25 - .15)
P0 = +
0.18 - 0.15 0.18 - 0.15
= 38.33 + 16.67 = 55.00
IF E = 2 P/E = 27.5
Limitations
Firms may build cash balances (on which equity
shareholders have a claim but not pay dividends)
FREE CASH FLOW TO EQUITY (FCFE) VALUATION
So far our focus was on valuing the firm (or the enterprise) as a whole. If you are
interested in determining the equity value, you can derive it as follows:
Equity value = Firm value – Debt value
Alternatively, you can look at the free cash flow to equity (FCFE) and discount it
at the cost of equity.
The FCFE is the cash flow left for equity shareholders after the firm has covered
its capital expenditure and working capital needs and met all its obligations
toward lenders and preference shareholders. It is defined as follows:
FCFE = (Profit after tax – Preference dividend)
- (Capital expenditure – Depreciation)
- (Change in net working capital)
+ (New debt issue – Debt repayment)
+ (New preference issue – Preference repayment)
- (Change in investment in marketable securities)
The equity value is the present value of the FCFE stream, where the discounting
rate is the cost of equity (rE)
FCFEt
Equity value = (32.4)
t=1 (1+ rE)t
Centre for Financial Management , Bangalore
MATRIX LIMITED DATA
To illustrate the FCFE valuation, let us look at the data for Matrix Limited for year 3, the year
that has just ended, and for the next five years, years 4 through 8. This data has been extracted
from Exhibits 32.3 and 32.5.
The first component on the right hand side of the above equation is the
present value of the firm’s operating cash flows. Since the operating cash
flows do not depend on how the firm is financed, they may be referred to
as the unlevered equity free cash flows. The second component on the
right hand side of the above equation is the present value of the interest
tax shields arising from the use of debt financing. By decomposing the
enterprise value in this way, the APV approach captures easily the impact
of changing capital structure.
Step in Implementing the APV
Approach
1. Estimate the present value of the cash flow during
the planning period. The planning period cash flow
comprises of (a) unlevered equity free cash flow and
(b) interest tax shield.
The unlevered equity free cash flow is the same as the
free cash flow to the firm.
So,
The present value of the cash flow during the planning
period is:
n FCFFt n It x T
+
t=1 (1 + rUE)t t=1 (1 + rD)
Step 2 : Estimate the terminal value of the firm at the end of the
planning period.
The terminal value of the firm at the end of the planning period is:
FCFFn (1 + g)
WACC - g
where FCFFn is the free cash flow to firm at the end of the planning period,
g is the perpetual growth rate in FCFF beyond the planning period, and
WACC is the weighted average cost of capital, beyond the planning period.
Note that the above formula for the terminal value of the firm at the end
of the planning period assumes that: (a) after the planning period, the
capital structure of the firm remains constant, and (b) the firm’s cash
flows beyond year n would grow at a constant rate of g which is less than
WACC.
Step 3 : Add the present values of cash flows
during the planning period and terminal value
The enterprise value, as per the APV approach,
is:
Present value
of planning n FCFFt n It x T
period cash : ∑ + ∑
Flows t = 1 (1 + rUE)t t = 1 (1 + rD)t
+
FCFFn (1+g) 1 n
Present value of the
terminal value :
WACC – g 1 + rUE
You have developed the following projections for Optex Limited :
in million
Years
1 2 3 4 5
Free cash flow to the firm 200 250 300 340 380
Interest-bearing debt 500 400 300 200 100
Interest expense 60 48 36 24 12
Beyond year 5, the free cash flow to the firm of Optex will grow at a constant
rate of 10 percent per annum.
Optex’s unlevered cost of equity is 14 percent.
After year 5, Optex will maintain a debt-equity ratio of 4:7.
The borrowing rate for Optex will be 12 percent.
The tax rate for Optex is 30 percent.
The risk-free rate is 8 percent.
The market risk premium is 6 percent.
The present value of the unlevered equity free cash flow (which is the
same as the free cash flow to firm) during the planning period is:
The present value of the interest tax shield during the planning period is:
n It x T 60 x 0.3 48 x 0.3 36 x 0.3 24 x 0.3 12 x 0.3
= + + + + = 41.9 million
t = 1 (1 + rD)t (1.12) (1.12)2 (1.12)3 (1.12)4 (1.12)5
The present value of the terminal value at the end of the planning period is :
FCFFn (1 + g) 1 n
WACC – g 1 + rUE
380(1.10 ) 1 5
= 6220.5 million
0.1349 – 0.10 1.14
1. Given that is rUE is 14 percent, UE, the unlevered equity beta, was calculated by
solving the following equation:
14 = 8 + UE x 6
UE = 1
3. Given LE= 1.4, rLE, the cost of levered equity was calculated:
4. Given rLE = 16.4 percent, WACC, the weighted average cost of capital was calculated.
WACC = 7/11 x 16.4 + 4/11 x 12 x (1 – 0.3)
= 10.44 + 3.05
= 13.49 percent
Economic Profit Model
The enterprise DCF model is endorsed by academics
and practitioners alike because it focuses squarely on
cash flows in and out of the business. However, it has
a shortfall in the sense that the cash flow of a single
year hardly provides any insight into the
performance of the firm. A declining free cash flow
may mean deteriorating performance or investment
for future returns. In this respect, the economic profit
model is more informative. While it produces a
valuation that is identical to that of the enterprise
DCF model, it also gives a clear picture of how and
where the firm creates value.
Economic profit (EP) is simply the surplus left after making an appropriate
charge for the capital invested in the business. The EP of a single period is
defined as:
EP = IC x (ROIC – WACC)
where IC is the invested capital, ROIC is the return on invested capital, and WACC
is the weighted average cost of capital.
Since ROIC is equal to NOPLAT (net operating profit less adjusted taxes)
divided by IC, we can rewrite the equation for EP.
EP = NOPLAT - IC x WACC
According to the EP model, the value of a firm (Vo) is equal to the current
invested capital plus the present value of the future economic profit stream. In
symbols
The horizon value at the end of six years, applying the constant growth model,
is:
FCFH +1 4.68
VH = = = 156.0 crore
WACC-g 0.11-0.08
156.0
= 83.4 crore
(1.11)6
Adding the present value of free cash flow during the planning period and
present value of horizon value, gives the enterprise DCF value:
EP Projection
in million
Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Invested capital (Beg) 50.00 60.00 72.00 86.40 96.77 108.38 117.05
NOPLAT 6.00 7.20 8.64 10.37 11.61 13.00 14.05
Cost of capital (%) 11 11 11 11 11 11 11
Capital charge 5.50 6.60 7.92 9.50 10.64 11.92 12.88
EP 0.50 0.60 0.72 0.87 0.97 1.08 1.17
Growth rate (%) 20 20 20 12 12 8 8
The present value of the EP stream is :
Adding the invested capital to the present value of EP stream gives the enterprise value:
Vo = 50 + 24 = 74 crore
Where Bo is the current book value of equity, ROEt, is the book rate of
return on equity defined as expected earnings in year t divided by expected
book value in year t-1, r is the return required by equity investors, and g is
the rate at which residual earnings are expected to grow after year 3.
RESIDUAL EARNINGS MODEL
The residual earnings model is equivalent to the dividend discount model for going
concerns. So it is congruent with the principle that value is the present value of expected
dividends.
The residual earnings model can be rearranged as follows:
Dividend1 Dividend2 B2 (ROE3 – r) B2
Value of equityo = + + +
1+r (1+r)2 (1+r)2 (1+r)2 (r-g)
Example The various valuation metrics for Maxima Limited for year 0,1,2, and 3 are as
follows: 0 1 2 3
• Book value per share (BPS) 100 111 122.66 134.93
• Book return on equity (ROE) 22% 21% 20%
• Earnings per share (EPS) 22 23.31 24.53
11 11.65 12.26
7 6.66 6.13
Beyond year 3, the ROE will be 20 percent, the required return by equity investors will be
15 percent, and the growth rate will be 10 percent. What ill be the value of equity?
The value of equity as per Eq (4.28) is:
In his book Accounting for Value, Stephen Penman illustrates the residual
earnings approach using the following financial numbers of Microsoft
after it published its annual report for the fiscal year ending June 30,
2008.
• Price per share $ 25
• Market capitalisation $ 228.8 billion
• Book capital $ 36.286
billion
• Net operating assets $ 12.624 billion
• Cash $ 23.662
billion
• After- tax operating income from the business $16.835 billion
• Interest income after taxes $ 846 million
• Total net income $ 17.681 billion
Assuming a 9 percent discount rate and applying a residual earnings no-growth valuation,
Penman estimated the equity value as follows:
Equity value = Value of operation + Value of cash
Residual operating income 2009
= Net operating assets 2008 + + Cash 2008
0.09
16.835 - (0.09 x 12.624)
= 12.624 + + 23.662
0.09
MAINTAINABLE PROFITS METHOD