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Cells get progressively smaller from the base Tightly swirled mature
to the center of the proliferation, becoming hyperplastic cells
nearly pyknotic in the middle.
Peripheral irregular slit-like spaces.
Cytokeratin 5/6
Heterogeneous positivity
Usual ductal hyperplasia
Essential features
• Component of fibrocystic changes
• Mild cytologic variability
• Streaming growth pattern with fenestrated spaces and lack of cellular polarity
• Immunoreactive for high molecular weight cytokeratins
• Associated with slight increase in subsequent breast cancer risk (1.5 - 2 times)
Usual ducatal hyperplasia note:
DCIS:
Referred to as “cookie cutter” or “punched out” lesions
No streaming
DCIS
What is the risk for subsequent breast cancer associated with the illustrated lesion?
A. 1.5 - 2 times increased risk
B. 2 - 3 times decreased risk
C. 4 - 5 times increased risk
D. 8 - 11 times increased risk
E. No change in risk compared to control populations
Usual ductal hyperplasia is positive for HMWCK in a mosaic to occasionally diffuse pattern
and demonstrates heterogeneous positivity for ER.
Which of the following is a feature of usual ductal hyperplasia that aids in
distinguishing it from low grade ductal carcinoma in situ?
A. Cellular maturation
B. Monomorphic hyperchromatic nuclei
C. Palisading around fibrovascular cores
D. Polarization around secondary spaces
E. Red macronucleoli
A. Cellular maturation
Many examples of usual ductal hyperplasia demonstrate cellular maturation, where the
cells shrink as they progress from a basal location to the center of the proliferation,
becoming small and nearly pyknotic.
Cellular maturation is not a feature of low grade ductal carcinoma in situ or atypical
ductal hyperplasia.
What is the most useful immunohistochemical stain in the differential diagnosis of usual
ductal hyperplasia and atypical ductal hyperplasia?
A. Calponin
B. CK5/6
C. CK7
D. CK20
E. P63
B. CK5/6
Usual ductal hyperplasia and atypical ductal hyperplasia of the breast may sometimes be difficult to
distinguish morphologically.
Thus, use of CK5/6 immunohistochemical staining may be helpful in the differential diagnosis, as usual
ductal hyperplasia is positive (in a mosaic or patchwork pattern) and atypical ductal hyperplasia is
negative for CK5/6.
Both usual ductal hyperplasia and atypical ductal hyperplasia are typically positive for CK7 and
negative for CK20 (breast ductal epithelium immunophenotype).
Myoepithelial markers p63 and calponin show positive myoepithelial staining in both usual ductal
hyperplasia and atypical ductal hyperplasia
Atypical ductal hyperplasia
• Intraductal clonal epithelial cell proliferation with similar histologic features to (but insufficient
involvement or volume for the diagnosis of) low grade ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
Essential features
• Intraductal clonal epithelial cell proliferation with cytologic and morphologic features similar to low
grade ductal carcinoma in situ
• Differentiated from low grade ductal carcinoma in situ by size (≤ 2 mm) or space occupied by clonal
cells (≤ 2 spaces or only portion of involved space)
• Rigid bridges, polarization around lumen and estrogen receptor (ER) (diffuse, strong) positivity
• Lobular carcinoma.
• Tubular carcinoma.
• Mucinous carcinoma
• Papillary carcinoma.
• Small monotonous cell with less atypia.
• may have intracytoplasmic mucin vacuoles.
• No inflammation or fibroplasia in the background.
• LCIS is no longer classified as Tis because it is considered a risk factor, not
a malignancy.
• Negative for E-cadherin and high molecular Wight CK
gynecomastia
Definition / general
• Benign enlargement of the male breast, typically presenting as a palpable
subareolar mass
Essential features
• Benign myofibroblastic proliferation simulating a vascular lesion
• Usually an incidental finding but may produce palpable or mammographic mass
• Complex interanastomosing spaces in dense collagenous, keloid-like stroma
• Some of these spaces have spindle shaped myofibroblasts at their margins that
simulate endothelial cells
• Spindle cells are positive for ER, PR and CD34 but negative for other vascular
markers, e.g. CD31
answer :
C. CD34+, CD31-, ER+, factor VIII-
The immunoprofile in option D is most consistent with angiosarcoma or other vascular lesions,
with positive vascular markers.
Option A is the immunoprofile for fibromatosis with positive nuclear beta catenin. It is important
to note that fibromatosis is negative for CD34 as it does not arise from myofibroblasts.
Option B is the classic staining pattern for a spindle cell carcinoma with positive AE1 / AE3.
Angiosarcoma
ER-/ ERG1, CD34+, CD31+, factor VIII+
Essential features
• Rare overall tumor of the breast (0.05% of all primary breast malignancies)
but most common sarcoma of the breast
• Occurs most frequently secondary to prior radiation therapy for breast
carcinoma, typically in older patients
• May arise as primary (de novo) sarcoma of the breast, typically in younger
patients
• Worst prognosis of all breast sarcomas
• Postive for Vascular markers (ERG, CD31, CD34, Factor VIII)
• ER : Negative (-ve)
Angiosarcoma
ER-/ ERG1, CD34+, CD31+, factor VIII+
Micropapillary carcinoma
ER+/ HER-2+( cup shaped basolateral staining).
• Tumors often present at high stage with lymph node involvement. (Q)
• Tumor cells show reverse polarity, also known as inside out pattern with
apical surface placed towards the stroma.
• Lobular carcinoma.
• Tubular carcinoma.
• Mucinous carcinoma
• Papillary carcinoma.
• Excellent prognosis is restricted to tumors with 70%+ tubules, pure grade
1 nuclei and no / rare mitoses.
Differential diagnosis
• Benign sclerosing lesion:
– overall lobular architecture, compression of glandular structures,
– positive for myoepithelial markers p63 and CD10 or smooth muscle
actin
• 90%+ tubules with low grade features,
• irregular angulated contours of glands ("teardrop-like"),
• open lumina with apocrine-like snouts and basophilic secretions /
columnar cell lesions in almost all cases usually with flat epithelial atypia.
• No myoepithelial layer, no mitotic figures, no necrosis, no angiolymphatic
or perineural invasion and no basement membrane after PAS or type IV
collagen staining
Microglandular adenosis
• Disordered proliferation of small open glands comprised of bland epithelial cells
• Retains basement membrane but lacks myoepithelium
• Infiltrates adipose and fibrous stroma without a stromal response
• S100+, ER-, PR-
• Potential precursor to triple negative invasive breast cancer
• No apocrine snouts, no nucleoli, no myoepithelial layer but thick basement
membrane
The closely packed glands are comprised of uniform cuboidal cells with small nucleoli and
cytoplasmic vacuolization. Eosinophilic secretions are seen within the lumen.
Histologically composed of closely packed glands lined by actively secreting cuboidal or hobnail
shaped cells
Lactating adenoma Secretory carcinoma
Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma of Breast
• MYB-NFIB fusion gene (t(6;9)(q22-23;p23-24))
• Lobular carcinoma.
• Tubular carcinoma.
• Mucinous carcinoma
• Papillary carcinoma.
Almost always ER positive:
(Her-2 –ve)
• Lobular carcinoma.
• Tubular carcinoma.
• Mucinous carcinoma
• Papillary carcinoma.
• Mucinous carcinomas are ER+, PR+ and largely HER2-, making them a
luminal A lesion, which is associated with a favorable prognosis
• Luminal cells show varying immunoreactivity for p63 (highlighting squamous differentiation)
• Glandular component often shows core staining, where luminal cells demonstrate greater
intensity of cytokeratin staining compared with the basal cells.
– CK AE1 / AE3 (57%)
– CK5/6 (58%)
– CK7 (50%)
NOTE from article
• In case of absence of residual tumor by gross and microscopic evaluation, if tumor bed and
biopsy site changes are not identified, additional sections should be submitted to prove
the absence of invasive carcinoma by higher probability.
• In this case try to cover the pretreatment size of the tumor including one full face of the
cross section of the suspected area (pretreatment location of tumor) per 1 cm of pretreatment
size of the tumor for small tumors and 5 representative sections per full face per 1-2 cm of
the larger suspicious area to maximum of 25 blocks.
• The other approach that is recommended by FDA is to put one section per 1 cm of
pretreatment tumor size or at least 10 blocks in total (whichever is greater) to rule out the
presence of residual tumor.
Per AJCC 8th edition, measurement of the tumor size (ypT size for staging) :
is based on the largest focus of contiguous residual invasive carcinoma.
• If there is any residual tumor identified after treatment, the largest cross section
of residual tumor, including the adjacent fibrotic area is the “residual tumor
bed”. It can be larger, smaller or the same size as tumor bed
Pathologic Complete Response (pCR) is the absence of the residual invasive
tumor (ypT0) if it associated with the absence of metastatic carcinoma in lymph
nodes (ypN0) and lymphovascular invasion.
• Pathologic Complete Response (pCR) :
No residual invasive tumor (ypT0) + NO metastatic carcinoma in lymph nodes (ypN0) +
NO lymphovascular invasion.
For example:
1-NO residual tumor,
2-presence of isolated tumor cells in a lymph node (ypN0(þi))
preclude the diagnosis or categorization of the lesion as pCR.
The other example that does not correlate to a pCR is when there is
1- no invasive disease in breast (ypT0),
2- no lymph nodes involvement (ypN0),
3-but there are foci of LVI in the specimen.
Presence of LVI is associated with worse prognosis,
and does not categorize as pCR.
On the other hand presence of only DCIS (ypTis) in the tumor bed without an invasive
component does not change the diagnosis of pCR and is not a prognostic finding and the
survival rate is comparable to patients with no residual tumor (invasive and in situ)
NOTE:
-The surgical margins should be evaluated and reported.
-The presence of any residual tumor or DCIS is associated with a higher recurrence rate.
• In a normal breast, NAT can cause atrophy of the terminal duct lobule units (TDLU),
attenuation of the lobules’ epithelial cells, and subsequently prominent myoepithelial cells,
stromal sclerosis and cytological atypia including large vacuolated cytoplasm, large
hyperchromatic nuclei and presence of nucleoli.
• The residual tumor morphology in post NAT specimen, have to be reported especially if it is
different and especially has a higher grade in compare to the primary tumor obtained by core
needle biopsy.
• The best way to evaluate any changes in the size of the tumor after treatment is to compare the
post NAT tumor size with the imaging size of the primary tumor.
• It is very important to recognize the post treatment stromal changes at tumor bed especially
when there is no residual tumor . There are no normal ducts, lobules or TDLU in the tumor
bed.
• The stromal changes include an edematous fibrosis ,myxoid changes, remaining tumor
angiogenesis in the area that the tumor used to be, foreign body giant cells, cholesterol clefts,
chronic inflammatory cells and histiocytes, some with hemosiderin pigment. Sometimes the
histiocytes can mimic treated tumor cells and a cytokeratin immunostain is necessary to
differentiate them.
Her-2
• When the
ratio of HER2/CEP17 was ≥2.0 or
the average HER2 gene copy number/tumor cell was ≥6.0 with a
ratio of HER2/CEP17 <2.0, the HER2 status was classified as
positive.
• Lobular carcinoma.
• Tubular carcinoma.
• Mucinous carcinoma
• Papillary carcinoma.
Silicon granuloma
• Features are not specific:
– Chronic inflammatory cells, foreign body giant cell reaction and fibrosis
– Fat necrosis → histiocytes containing clear, refractile, nonpolarizable material
within cytoplasmic vacuoles
– Extracellular silicone can also be seen as nonbirefringent crystals or particles
within empty spaces
ER+/ CD34+/CD31-/Factor VII-/Pan-
CK-/ B-Catanin-
ER+/ CD34+/CD31-/Factor VII-/Pan-
CK-/ B-Catanin-
p63 stain for myoepithelial cells is positive throughout the lesion,
including in the fibrovascular cores and at the periphery of the
involved duct
Circumscribed solid growth pattern with
interspersed delicate fibrovascular cores