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Introduction to Biochemistry
(CHEM 501)
Exam II
10/29/08

1. One of the enzymes involved in glycolysis, aldolase, requires Zn
2+
for catalysis. Under
conditions of zinc deficiency, when the enzyme may lack zinc, it would be referred to as the:

A) apoenzyme.
B) coenzyme.
C) holoenzyme.
D) prosthetic group.
E) substrate.

2. Enzymes are potent catalysts because they:

A) are consumed in the reactions they catalyze.
B) are very specific and can prevent the conversion of products back to substrates.
C) drive reactions to completion while other catalysts drive reactions to equilibrium.
D) increase the equilibrium constants for the reactions they catalyze.
E) lower the activation energy for the reactions they catalyze.

3. Which of the following is true about zymogens?

A) Proproteins are one type of zymogen.
B) Zymogens are inactivated by inhibitor proteins.
C) Zymogens are enzymatically inactive.
D) Zymogens cleave proteases.
E) Zymogens catalize the formation of Zymogenase

4. To calculate the turnover number of an enzyme, you need to know:

A) the enzyme concentration.
B) the initial velocity of the catalyzed reaction at [S] >> K
m
.
C) the initial velocity of the catalyzed reaction at low [S].
D) the K
m
for the substrate.
E) both A and B.

5. In competitive inhibition, an inhibitor:

A) binds at several different sites on an enzyme.
B) binds covalently to the enzyme.
C) binds only to the ES complex.
D) binds reversibly at the active site.
E) lowers the characteristic V
max
of the enzyme.



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6. A metabolic pathway proceeds according to the scheme, R ! S ! T ! U ! V ! W. A
regulatory enzyme, X, catalyzes the first reaction in the pathway. Which of the following is most
likely correct for this pathway?

A) Either metabolite U or V is likely to be a positive modulator, increasing the activity of X.
B) The first product S, is probably the primary negative modulator of X, leading to feedback
inhibition.
C) The last product, W, is likely to be a negative modulator of X, leading to feedback inhibition.
D) The last product, W, is likely to be a positive modulator, increasing the activity of X.
E) The last reaction will be catalyzed by a second regulatory enzyme.

7. Compare the two reaction coordinate diagrams below and select the answer that correctly
describes their relationship. In each case, the single intermediate is the ES complex.



A) (a) describes a strict lock and key model, whereas (b) describes a transition-state
complementarity model.
B) The activation energy for the catalyzed reaction is #5 in (a) and is #7 in (b).
C) The activation energy for the uncatalyzed reaction is given by #5 + #6 in (a) and by #7 + #4
in (b).
D) The contribution of binding energy is given by #5 in (a) and by #7 in (b).
E) The ES complex is given by #2 in (a) and #3 in (b).













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8. Michaelis and Menten assumed that the overall reaction for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction
could be written as
k
1
k
2

E + S ES ! E + P
k
-1

Using this reaction, the rate of breakdown of the enzyme-substrate complex can be described by
the expression:

A) k
1
([E
t
] " [ES]).
B) k
1
([E
t
] " [ES])[S].
C) k
2
[ES].
D) k
-1
[ES] + k
2
[ES].
E) k
-1
[ES].
9. In the following diagram of the first step in the reaction catalyzed by the protease
chymotrypsin, the process of general base catalysis is illustrated by the number ________, and
the process of covalent catalysis is illustrated by the number _________.


A) 1; 2
B) 1; 3
C) 2; 3
D) 2; 3
E) 3; 2











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10. Which of these statements about enzyme-catalyzed reactions is false?

A) At saturating levels of substrate, the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is proportional to
the enzyme concentration.
B) If enough substrate is added, the normal V
max
of a reaction can be attained even in the
presence of a competitive inhibitor.
C) The rate of a reaction decreases steadily with time as substrate is depleted.
D) The activation energy for the catalyzed reaction is the same as for the uncatalyzed reaction,
but the equilibrium constant is more favorable in the enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
E) The Michaelis-Menten constant K
m
equals the [S] at which V = 1/2 V
max
.

11. The double-reciprocal transformation of the Michaelis-Menten equation, also called the
Lineweaver-Burk plot, is given by
1/V
0
= K
m
/(V
max
[S]) + 1/V
max
.
To determine K
m
from a double-reciprocal plot, you would:

A) multiply the reciprocal of the x-axis intercept by "1.
B) multiply the reciprocal of the y-axis intercept by "1.
C) take the reciprocal of the x-axis intercept.
D) take the reciprocal of the y-axis intercept.
E) take the x-axis intercept where V
0
= 1/2 V
max
.

12. The basic structure of a proteoglycan consists of a core protein and a:

A) glycolipid.
B) glycosaminoglycan.
C) lectin.
D) lipopolysaccharide.
E) peptidoglycan.

13. In starch and glycogen, the glucose monomers are joined by (#1 ! 4) linkages, whereas in
cellulose, the glucose monomers are joined by ($1 ! 4) linkages. What is a biological
consequence of this difference in sugar linkage?

A) Cellulose is generally not digestible by animals, whereas starch is easily digestible.
B) Cellulose takes on a helical structure and starch forms fibers.
C) Starch has more tensile strength than cellulose.
D) Glycogen is unbranched, while cellulose is highly branched.
E) None of the above

14. Lectins are

A) carbohydrates that can bind a protein.
B) proteins linked to carbohydrates.
C) proteins that bind carbohydrates.
D) the oligosaccharide moieties on glycoproteins.
E) None of the above.



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15. Which of the following is true about reducing ends?

A) All polysaccharides have an equal number of reducing ends as nonreducing ends.
B) Polysaccharides grow in the direction of the nonreducing end.
C) Disaccharides are named starting with the reducing end.
D) All disaccharides have one reducing end.
E) None of the above.

16. When two carbohydrates are epimers:

A) one is a pyranose, the other a furanose.
B) one is an aldose, the other a ketose.
C) they differ in length by one carbon.
D) they differ only in the configuration around one carbon atom.
E) they rotate plane-polarized light in the same direction.

17. Which of the following pairs is interconverted in the process of mutarotation?

A) D-glucose and D-fructose
B) D-glucose and D-galactose
C) D-glucose and D-glucosamine
D) D-glucose and L-glucose
%) #-D-glucose and $-D-glucose

18. Which of the following statements about starch and glycogen is false?

A) Amylose is unbranched; amylopectin and glycogen contain many (#1 ! 6) branches.
B) Both are homopolymers of glucose.
C) Both serve primarily as structural elements in cell walls.
D) Both starch and glycogen are stored intracellularly as insoluble granules.
E) Glycogen is more extensively branched than starch.

19. Which of the following is a heteropolysaccharide?

A) Cellulose
B) Chitin
C) Glycogen
D) Hyaluronate
E) Starch


20. Which of the following statements about membrane lipids is true?

A) Glycerophospholipids are found only in the membranes of plant cells.
B) Glycerophospholipids contain fatty acids linked to glycerol through amide bonds.
C) Lecithin (phosphatidylcholine), which is used as an emulsifier in margarine and chocolate, is
a sphingolipid.
D) Some sphingolipids include oligosaccharides in their structure.
E) Triacylglycerols are the principal components of erythrocyte membranes.

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21. Which of the following is true of sphingolipids?

A) Cerebrosides and gangliosides are sphingolipids.
B) Phosphatidylcholine is a typical sphingolipid.
C) They always contain glycerol and fatty acids.
D) They contain two esterified fatty acids.
E) They may be charged, but are never amphipathic.

22. Which of the following best describes the cholesterol molecule?

A) Amphipathic
B) Nonpolar, charged
C) Nonpolar, uncharged
D) Polar, charged
E) Polar, uncharged

23. Identify the molecule(s) derived from sterols.

A) Arachidonic acid
B) Gangliosides
C) Phosphatidylglycerol
D) Prostaglandins
E) Vitamin D

24. Which of these statements about the composition of biological membranes is false?

A) In a given eukaryotic cell type (e.g., a hepatocyte), all intracellular membranes have
essentially the same complement of lipids and proteins.
B) The carbohydrate found in membranes is virtually all part of either glycolipids or
glycoproteins.
C) The plasma membranes of the cells of vertebrate animals contain more cholesterol than the
mitochondrial membranes.
D) The ratio of lipid to protein varies widely among cell types in a single organism.
E) Triacylglycerols are not commonly found in membranes

25. Membrane proteins:

A) are sometimes covalently attached to lipid moieties.
B) are sometimes covalently attached to carbohydrate moieties.
C) are composed of the same 20 amino acids found in soluble proteins.
D) diffuse laterally in the membrane unless they are anchored
E) have all of the properties listed above.

26. Peripheral membrane proteins:

A) are generally noncovalently bound to membrane lipids.
B) are usually denatured when released from membranes.
C) can be released from membranes only by treatment with detergent(s).
D) may have functional units on both sides of the membrane.
E) penetrate deeply into the lipid bilayer.
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27. An integral membrane protein can be extracted with:

A) a buffer of alkaline or acid pH.
B) a chelating agent that removes divalent cations.
C) a solution containing detergent.
D) a solution of high ionic strength.
E) hot water.

28. The shortest # helix segment in a protein that will span a membrane bilayer has about _____
amino acid residues.

A) 5
B) 20
C) 50
D) 100
E) 200

29. Which of these statements about facilitated diffusion across a membrane is true?

A) A specific membrane protein lowers the activation energy for movement of the solute through
the membrane.
B) It can increase the size of a transmembrane concentration gradient of the diffusing solute.
C) It is impeded by the solubility of the transported solute in the nonpolar interior of the lipid
bilayer.
D) It is responsible for the transport of gases such as O
2
, N
2
, and CH
4
across biological
membranes.
E) The rate is not saturable by the transported substrate

30. When a mixture of 3-phosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycerate is incubated at 25 C with
phosphoglycerate mutase until equilibrium is reached, the final mixture contains six times as
much 2-phosphoglycerate as 3-phosphoglycerate. Which one of the following statements is most
nearly correct, when applied to the reaction as written? (R = 8.315 J/molK; T = 298 K)

3-Phosphoglycerate ! 2-phosphoglycerate

A) &G' is 4.44 kJ/mol.
B) &G' is zero.
C) &G'is +12.7 kJ/mol.
D) &G'is incalculably large and positive.
E) &G' cannot be calculated from the information given.









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31. The reaction A + B ! C has a &G' of 20 kJ/mol at 25 C. Starting under standard
conditions, one can predict that:

A) at equilibrium, the concentration of B will exceed the concentration of A.
B) at equilibrium, the concentration of C will be less than the concentration of A.
C) at equilibrium, the concentration of C will be much greater than the concentration of A or B.
D) C will rapidly break down to A + B.
E) when A and B are mixed, the reaction will proceed rapidly toward formation of C.

32. For the following reaction, &G' = +29.7 kJ/mol.

L-Malate + NAD
+
! oxaloacetate + NADH + H
+


The reaction as written:

A) can never occur in a cell.
B) can occur in a cell only if it is coupled to another reaction for which &G' is positive.
C) can occur only in a cell in which NADH is converted to NAD
+
by electron transport.
D) cannot occur because of its large activation energy.
E) may occur in cells at some concentrations of substrate and product.

33. The standard free-energy changes for the reactions below are given.

Phosphocreatine ! creatine + P
i
&G' = 43.0 kJ/mol
ATP ! ADP + P
i
&G' = 30.5 kJ/mol

What is the overall &G' for the following reaction?
Phosphocreatine + ADP ! creatine + ATP

A) 73.5 kJ/mol
B) 12.5 kJ/mol
C) +12.5 kJ/mol
D) +73.5 kJ/mol
E) &G' cannot be calculated without K
eq
'.

34. All of the following contribute to the large, negative, free-energy change upon hydrolysis of
high-energy compounds except:

A) electrostatic repulsion in the reactant.
B) low activation energy of forward reaction.
C) stabilization of products by extra resonance forms.
D) stabilization of products by ionization.
E) stabilization of products by solvation.







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35. The standard reduction potentials (E') for the following half reactions are given.

Fumarate + 2H
+
+ 2e

! succinate E' = +0.031 V

FAD + 2H
+
+ 2e

! FADH
2
E' = 0.219 V

If you mixed succinate, fumarate, FAD, and FADH
2
together, all at l M concentrations and in the
presence of succinate dehydrogenase, which of the following would happen initially?

A) Fumarate and succinate would become oxidized; FAD and FADH
2
would become reduced.
B) Fumarate would become reduced, FADH
2
would become oxidized.
C) No reaction would occur because all reactants and products are already at their standard
concentrations.
D) Succinate would become oxidized, FAD would become reduced.
E) Succinate would become oxidized, FADH
2
would be unchanged because it is a cofactor.



KEY


1 a 11 a 21 a 31 c
2 e 12 b 22 a 32 e
3 c 13 a 23 e 33 b
4 e 14 c 24 a 34 b
5 d 15 b 25 e 35 b
6 c 16 d 26 a
7 a 17 e 27 c
8 d 18 c 28 b
9 a 19 d 29 a
10 d 20 d 30 a