Name: ____________________________

IMMUNOLOGY

EXAM 1

October 18, 2010

9:30-10:30 AM

54 Questions, 172 Total Points

10 pages total


INSTRUCTIONS

1. Use only a No. 2 pencil.

2. Write your name legibly at the top of the FIRST PAGE of the exam.

3. Write and code entire student ID number on the Scantron form.

4. Write in NAME, IMMUNO E1, October 18, and your row and seat number on the
front of the form.

5. Fill answer boxes on the Scantron completely; printed numeral should not be
visible. Do not make extraneous marks on the form.

6. Mark box A through E, one only. Use A for TRUE and B for FALSE. Each
question is intended to have a single best answer.

7. Erase carefully and completely; if in doubt, get a new Scantron.

8. Check your Scantron form before handing it in to see that all questions have been
answered.

9. When you are done turn in your exam together with your Scantron.



2
QUESTIONS 1-6: [4 POINTS] MULTIPLE CHOICE Choose the single best answer


1. The process of isotype switching occurs during the differentiation of:

a) B-cells
b) T-cells
c) both
d) neither


2. Complement components with important opsonizing activity include:

a) C1qrs
b) C3b
c) C5a
d) both b and c
e) all of the above


3. A mother is blood type A,Rh+, her newborn child is O, Rh. The newborns blood is
likely to contain substantial levels of antibodies to:

a) anti-A
b) anti-B
c) anti-A and anti-B
d) anti-Rh
e) none of the above


4. Development of a GvH reaction would be most likely if whole blood from a donor
who is HLA (A22/A22) is transfused into a recipient who is HLA:

a) A22/A22
b) A13/A22
c) A13/13
d) A14/17


5. As a nave B-cell differentiates into a plasma cell, the amount of DNA in its nucleus:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) may or may not change depending on the isotype being secreted

3
6. A plasma cell which secretes IgA dimers is also producing:

a) J-chain
b) S-piece
c) both
d) neither


QUESTIONS 7-11: [2 POINTS] MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose from the following;
each choice may be used once, more than once or not at all

a) transferred across the placenta
b) exists in serum in both monomeric and multimeric forms
c) exists predominantly as membrane bound form
d) predominant Ig in primary responses
e) sensitive to heat-treatment

7. _____ IgA
8. _____ IgG
9. _____ IgM
10. _____ IgE
11. _____ IgD


QUESTIONS 12-18: [4 POINTS] MULTIPLE CHOICE Choose the single best
answer

12. In studying a case of Rh incompatibility, you would carry out an Indirect Coombs
Test on:

a) fathers serum
b) childs RBCs
c) mothers RBCs
d) mothers serum
e) childs serum


13. F(ab)2 fragments prepared from an IgG antibody to sheep red blood cells should still
be able to carry out:

a) hemolysis
b) agglutination
c) both
d) neither
4

14. The process of somatic hypermutation increases the diversity of antigen-combining
sites in:

a) IgM
b) IgG
c) both
d) neither


15. If an IgM anti-DNP antibody is broken up into its IgG-like subunits, which of the
following would be observed?

a) Decreased affinity, no change in avidity.
b) Decreased avidity, no change in affinity.
c) Increased affinity, no change in avidity.
d) Decreased avidity, decreased affinity.
e) No change in either affinity or avidity.


16. Carbohydrate is always present on normal immunoglobulin:

a) H-chains
b) L-chains
c) both
d) neither


17. A deficiency of complement component C6 will affect the:

a) classical pathway
b) alternate pathway
c) MBL pathway
d) a and b only
e) all of the above


18. Disease symptoms are most directly the result of the presence of M-protein in:

a) MGUS
b) Multiple myeloma
c) Waldenstrms macroglobulinemia
d) B cell lymphoma


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a b c d
2.5kb
QUESTIONS 19-22: [2 POINTS] MULTIPLE CHOICE Choose the single best
answer

DNA from various sources was digested with the restriction enzyme EcoRI, separated by
electrophoresis and hybridized with a radioactive probe specific for human C, resulting
in the Southern blot shown on the right. The germ-line band at 2.5kb is indicated. Which
of the four lanes in the blot represents the pattern you would most likely see using DNA
from each of the following sources?


19. ______ Normal peritoneal macrophages

20. ______ Normal spleen lymphocytes

21. ______ Myeloma secreting IgE.

22. ______ Leukemia of NK cells





QUESTIONS 23-36: [4 POINTS] MULTIPLE CHOICE Choose the single best
answer


23. Nicole Kidman has been allotyped as G1m(3);G3m(2,17), and her husband Keith
Urban as G1m(10,14);G3m(21,24). Their young daughter Rose is
G1m(3,14);G3m(2,21). Which of the following is the least likely phenotype for their
next child?

a) G1m(3,14);G3m(17,21)
b) G1m(3,14);G3m(2,21)
c) G1m(3,10);G3m(2,21)
d) G1m(3,10);G3m(2,24)
e) G1m(3,10);G3m(17,24)


24. The symptoms of One-Shot Serum Sickness typically last no longer than a week or
two because:

a) antibodies have a relatively short half-life
b) antigen is removed
c) complement is consumed
d) all of the above

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25. As part of the team working on the world-wide eradication of polio, youre carrying
out Complement Fixation assays to determine the titers of anti-viral antibody in the
serum of subjects following vaccination. The assay is a conventional one in which
you add a standard amount of viral antigen and complement to serial dilutions of the
subjects sera, then add indicator cells. Your results for three subjects are shown
below:

Lysis with Lysis with
Test added no added
Sample Dilution antigen antigen
--------------------------------------------
#1 1:10 - +
1:20 + +
1:40 + +
1:80 + +

#2 1:10 - +
1:20 - +
1:40 - +
1:80 + +

#3 1:10 - -
1:20 - -
1:40 + +
1:80 + +

Based only on these results, which of the following is a valid conclusion?

a) subject #3 has more antibody than #1
b) #2 has more antibody than #3
c) #3 has less antibody than #1
d) #1 has more antibody than #2
e) none of the above is a valid conclusion

26. Based on the principles of MHC-restricted recognition, Homer Simpsons cytotoxic
T-cells specific for measles virus should be able to kill virus-infected cells derived
from:

a) his father Abe
b) his daughter Lisa
c) both
d) neither


27. The MLR (Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction) is used to help determine donor/recipient
compatibility for :

a) HLA-B
b) HLA-D
c) both
d) neither
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BSA
SUL-HSA
SUL-BSA
Antiserum
a b c
e
r
r _
c
2 4
r
r _
c
1 2
r
r _
c
1 2
r
r _
c
2 4
d
r
r _
c
5 10
28. The antibiotic sulfadiazine may act as a hapten and trigger a humoral immune
response following its covalent binding to serum proteins. You are studying the anti-
sulfadiazine response in such a patient, and have affinity-purified specific antibody
from her saliva. If you were to analyze this antibody using Equilibrium Dialysis,
which of the following patterns would you expect to see?













29. During the cell interactions involved in generating a cytotoxic T-cell response, the T-
helper cell receives the necessary Signal 2 from an antigen-presenting cell through
which of the following interactions?

a) IL-2 with IL-2R
b) B7 with CD28
c) TCR with MHC Class I
d) IgD with antigen


30. Peripheral neuropathy is most frequently associated with?

a) IgM MGUS
b) IgG MGUS
c) IgA MGUS
d) Multiple myeloma


31. The Ouchterlony pattern below might have been generated using an antiserum
produced by immunizing a rabbit with which of the following? (SUL is the hapten
sulfadiazine.)

a) HSA
b) BSA
c) SUL-HSA
d) SUL-BSA
e) none of the above would generate this pattern

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32. Human RAG-1 Deficiency is caused by an autosomal recessive mutation which
destroys the Recombinase Activating Genes. This results in a lack of ability to
produce:

a) immunoglobulin
b) T-cell receptor (TcR)
c) both
d) neither


33. Microbial polysaccharides may bind to TLR (Toll-Like Receptors) on macrophages
and stimulate their phagocytic activity. This is an example of:

a) adaptive immunity
b) innate immunity
c) passive immunity
d) both (a) and (b)
e) all of the above


34. Complement receptors on human erythrocytes are important for:

a) complement fixation
b) innate immunity
c) clearance of immune complexes
d) opsonization
e) isotype switching


35. A mouse immune to Listeria will resist infection by a combined dose of Listeria and
Mycobacteria. This is because:

a) TH cells cannot distinguish the two organisms.
b) activated macrophages can kill either organism.
c) both
d) neither

36. Youve immunized a rabbit with a human IgG4 myeloma protein and collected its
serum. If you want to prepare an absorbed antiserum that is class-specific, you would
begin by passing it over column bearing:

a) IgA2
b) IgG4
c) IgG4
d) IgA1
e) IgM
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QUESTIONS 37-41: [4 POINTS] ANSWER USING THE FOLLOWING KEY:

a) If 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) If 1 and 3 are correct
c) If 2 and 4 are correct
d) If only 4 is correct
e) If all are correct

37. An immunochemist determines the amino acid sequence of the entire light chain of a
purified myeloma protein. This sequence:

1. represents the entire Fab fragment
2. is sufficient to determine the class of the myeloma protein
3. includes all of the structure contributing to the idiotype
4. is sufficient to determine the light chain isotype

38. Which of the following would be suitable antigens to use in an agglutination test?

1. sheep red blood cells
2. BSA-coated latex particles
3. human lymphocytes
4. DNP-HSA

39. Which of the following cells may eventually differentiate into an immunoglobulin-
bearing memory cell?

1. nave B-cell
2. hematopoietic stem cell
3. memory B-cell
4. nave T-cell

40. Serum from a healthy donor of blood type A,Rh- should be able to cause
agglutination if mixed with erythrocytes of which of the following types?

1. AB,Rh-
2. A,Rh+
3. B,Rh+
4. A,Rh-

41. An epithelial cell in the skin will normally express which of the following?

1. HLA-A
2. HLA-C
3. HLA-B
4. HLA-D

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QUESTIONS 42-54. TRUE/FALSE [2 points] A = TRUE, B = FALSE


42. _____ A B-cells choice of whether to produce the membrane-bound versus the
secreted form of an antibody involves no change in its DNA.

43. _____ The antibody response to a hapten such as DNP is usually monoclonal.

44. _____ Innate immunity, but not cell-mediated immunity, can be transferred with
immune serum.

45. _____ The human HLA complex includes genes encoding Class I and Class II
molecules as well as 2-microglobulin.

46. _____ Antibodies are protective primarily against invading extracellular organisms.

47. _____ Donor and recipient for a human kidney transplant should be matched for
ABO blood groups as well as for HLA and Rh.

48. _____ Alternative mRNA processing is a mechanism which cells use only during the
expression of immunoglobulin.

49. _____ In the Ada & Byrt hot antigen suicide experiment, specific B-cells are killed
before they have begun proliferating.

50. _____ The mature mRNA for an immunoglobulin heavy chain is produced by
combining two or more separate RNA molecules.

51. _____ Because cytotoxic T cells require recognition of self MHC Class I, a mouse
cannot reject a skin graft coming from a completely unrelated inbred strain.

52. _____ Cytotoxic T-cells kill their targets by complement-mediated lysis.

53. _____ Allelic exclusion applies to heavy chain but not light chain alleles.

54. _____ Microbial superantigens produce the symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome
by causing excessive activation of CD4+ T cells.