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Design of Machine Elements QUESTION BANK
Design of Machine Elements QUESTION BANK
AND SCIENCE
Course File
Contents
1. Syllabus
2. Objective
3. Lesson Plan
4. Question
Papers
Mid-semester
examinations
5. Question Bank
6. Previous years question papers JNTUA
Syllabus
2009-10
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY ANANTAPUR
III Year B.Tech. M.E. I Semester
4
0
4
(9A03504) DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS - I
UNIT I
INTRODUCTION: General considerations of design, design process. Selection of Engineering Materials properties Manufacturing considerations in the design. BIS codes of materials. Preferred numbers.
UNIT II
STRESSES IN MACHINE MEMBERS: Simple stresses Combined stresses Torsional and bending Stresses
impact stresses stress -strain relation Various theories of failure factor of safety Design for strength and
rigidity. Concept of stiffness in tension, bending, torsion and Combined cases.
UNIT III
STRENGTH OF MACHINE ELEMENTS: Stress concentration notch sensitivity Design for fluctuating
stresses Endurance limit Estimation of Endurance strength Goodmans line Soderbergs line.
UNIT IV
RIVETED JOINTS: Types of riveted joints, design of riveted joints. Boiler shell riveting, eccentric loading.
UNIT V
BOLTED JOINTS Forms of Screw threads. Stresses in Screw fasteners. Design of bolts with pre-stresses Design
of joints under eccentric loading Bolts of uniform strength.
UNIT VI
COTTERS AND KNUCKLE JOINTS: Design of Cotter joints: spigot and socket, sleeve and cotter, jib and cotter
joints- Knuckle joints.
UNIT VII
SHAFTS: Design of solid and hollow shafts for strength and rigidity Design of shafts for combined
bending and axial loads Shaft sizes BIS code.
UNIT VIII
KEYS AND COUPLINGS: Design of Rigid couplings: Muff, Split muff and Flange couplings-Flexible couplings.
TEXT BOOKS:
1.
Machine design / Schaum Series.
2.
REFERENCES:
1.
Machine design- J.E.Shigley
2.
Machine design- R S Khurmi and J K Gupta
3.
Design Of Machine Elements - M.F.Spotts-PHI
4.
NOTE: Design data books are not permitted in the examinations. The design must not only satisfy strength criteria but also
rigidity criteria.
Question Paper Pattern: 5 questions to be answered out of 8 questions- Each question should not have more than 3 bits.
Objective
This course Design of Machine Elements -1 is designed with the
following objectives in mind:
1.
The student shall gain appreciation and understanding of the design
function in mechanical engineering, the steps involved in designing and
the relation of design activity with manufacturing activity.
2.
Shall be able to choose proper materials to different machine
elements depending on their physical and mechanical properties. Thus he
shall be able to apply the knowledge of material science in real life
usage.
3.
Student shall gain a thorough understanding of the different types
of failure modes and criteria. He will be conversant with various failure
theories and be able to judge which criterion is to be applied in which
situation.
4.
Student shall gain design knowledge of the different types of
elements used in the machine design process. Eg., fasteners, shafts,
couplings etc. and will be able to design these elements for each
application.
C.M.M. Rao
No.of
periods
TOPIC
S.NO
Duration
1.
2.
UNIT
3.
4.
II
5.
No. of
Classes
1
2
4
2
1
2
2
2
3
3
12
10
3
3
2
III
6.
7.
2
IV
8.
2
2
2
9.
10.
11.
10
I mid exams
1
2
2
1
2
1
2
2
2
VII
3
3
3
1
VIII
3
2
2
2
Design of keys
Rigid couplings muff couplings
Split muff couplings
Flange couplings
Flexible couplings
12.
13.
14.
No.of
periods
per unit
15.
16.
17.
II mid exams
10
09
Question Papers
Mid-semester
examinations
Max. Marks : 20
Time : 30 min
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
7.
a)
b) 2
c) 3
d)
]
]
8.
Two shafts A and B are made from the same material; B has double the diameter of A.
The torque B can carry is -------------- times that A can carry.
[
a)
2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
9.
Sresses in X and Y directions in a body are X = 200 MPa and Y= 100 MPa;
The maximum principal stress in the body is
a)50 MPa
b) 100 MPa
c) 150 MPa
d) 200 MPa
a) endurance
ce limits for ductile materials
c) yield stress for elastic materials
d) all materials
15. For steel, the ratio of endurance limit and ultimate strength can be taken as
a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.55
d ) 0.70
16.
Distance
stance between a line joining the centers of rivets and parallel to the edge of
the plate is known as
(a) back pitch
(b) marginal pitch
(c) gauge line
(d) pitch line
18.
A double strap butt joint with equal straps is always in
(a) single shear (b) double shear (c) triple shear (d) no shear failure
19.
Efficiency of the riveted joint is the ratio of .. to the tensile strength
of un riveted plate
(a) tensile strength of perforated plate (b) shear strength or crushing strength of rivets
(c) minimum of the above three strengths (d) maximum
maximum of the above three strengths
20.
According to Indian Boiler Regulations, for double shear , the shear strength of rivet
may be taken as
( = shear stress of a rivet material )
[
(a) 2*(/4)d2 *
(b) 1.875*(/4)d2 *
(c) 0.5*(/4)d2 *
(d) 4*(/4)d2 *
Max. Marks : 20
Time : 90 min
Max. Marks : 20
Time : 30 min
1.
In a steam engine the piston rod is usually connected to the cross head by means of a
a) knuckle joint
b) universal joint c) flange coupling d) cotter joint
2.
A key made from the circular disc having segmental cross section, is known as
a) feather key
b) gib head key c) Woodruff key d) flat saddle key
A keyway reduces
[
a) the strength of the shaft
b) the rigidity of the shaft
c) both the strength and rigidity of the shaft
d) the ductility of the material of the shaft
3.
6.
7.
d) flexible coupling
8.
In designing a sleeve and cotter joint for a shaft of diameter d , the outside diameter of the sleeve is taken
as.
[
]
a) 1.5 d
b) 2.5 d
c) 3 d
d) 4d
9.
10.
Two shafts A and B are made of the same material. The diameter of the shaft A is twice as that of shaft B.
the power transmitted by the shaft A will be . of the shaft B.
[
]
a) twice
b) four times
c) eight times
d) sixteen times
11.
When a nut is tightened by placing a washer below it, the bolt will be subjected to stress
[
]
a) tensile
b) compressive c) bending
d) shear
.
12.
Railway carriage coupling have
a) square threads b) acme threads
c) knuckle threads
13.
A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by
a) keeping the core diameter of the threads is equal to the diameter of the
un-threaded portion of the bolt.
b) keeping the core diameter of the threads smaller than the diameter of the
un-threaded portion of the bolt.
c) keeping the nominal diameter of the threads is equal to the diameter
of the un-threaded portion of the bolt.
d) none of the above
14.
Resilience of a bolt may be increased by
a) increasing its shank diameter
b) increasing its length
c) decreasing its shank diameter
d) decreasing its length
15.
A bolt of M 24X2 means that
a) the pitch of the thread is 24 mm and depth is 2mm.
b) cross sectional area of the thread is 24mm2
c) the nominal diameter of the bolt is 24mm and pitch is 2mm.
d) the effective diameter of the bolt is 24mm and there are two threads per 2cm.
d) buttress threads
16.
a)
b)
c)
d)
When a bolt is very yielding when compared with connecting members, the resultant load is
[
Either the external load or the initial tightening load, whichever is greater
Infinity
External load only
Initial tightening load only
17.
a)
b)
c)
d)
When its connecting members are very yielding when compared with a bolt, the resultant load is [
zero
Approximately the sum of external load and the initial tightening load
External load only
Initial tightening load only
18.
a)
When a mating part, eg. Pulley has to slide on a shaft, the key used is
Woodruff key b) Kennedy key c) feather key
c) saddle key
19.
a)
20.
a)
d) woodruff key
d)castle nut
Max. Marks : 20
Time : 90 min
(a) Explain the reasons for preferring hallow shafts over solid shafts
(b) A shaft, 2m long between bearings, carries a 900N pulley at its mid point. Through a belt
drive, the shaft receives 25 kW at 180 rpm. The belt drive is horizontal and the sum of the belt tensions is
7 kN. Determine the diameter of the shaft and angle of twist, the shaft undergoes. Take G = 80 GN/mm2 .
4.
Design a clamp coupling completely for a shaft diameter of 50mm. The torsional moment to
be transmitted by this coupling taking in to account overloading is 140Nm. The number of
bolts used is 4 and the allowable stress in the material of the bolt is limited to 70 N/mm2.
The coefficient of friction between
between the shaft and muff material is 0.3. Draw sectional
elevation of the designed clamp coupling.
5.
Design a cast iron protective type flange coupling to connect two shafts in order to transmit
7.5kW at 720rpm. The following permissible stresses may be used: Permissible shear stress
for shaft, bolt and key material=33MPa; Permissible crushing stress for shaf
shaft, bolt and key
material=60MPa; Permissible shear stress for cast iron=15MPa.
10
QuestionBank
11
UNIT I
[
]
d) aluminum
2.
According to Indian standard specifications, a grey case iron designated by FG 200
means that the
[
]
2
b)
carbon content is 2%
b) maximum compressive strength is 200 N/mm
c) minimum tensile strength is 200 N/mm2 d) maximum shear strength is 200 N/mm2
3.
According to Indian standard specification, a plain carbon steel designated by 40C8 means
that
[
]
d)
carbon content is 0.04 percent and manganese is 0.08 percent
e)
carbon content is 0.4 percent and manganese is 0.8 percent
f)
carbon content is 0.35 to 0.45 percent and manganese is 0.60 to 0.90 percent
d) carbon content is 0.60 to 0.80 percent and manganese is 0.8 to 1.2 percent
4.
The material commonly used for machine tool bodies is
[
]
a) mild steel
b) aluminium
c) brass
d) cast iron
5.
The material commonly used for crane hooks is
[
]
a) cast iron
b) wrought iron
c) mild steel
d) aluminum
6.
The steel widely used for motor car crankshafts is
[
]
a) nickel steel
b) chrome steel
c) nickel-chrome steel d) silicon steel
7.
18/8 steel contains
[
]
a) 18 percent nickel and 8 percent chromium b) 18 percent chromium and 8 percent nickel c)18
percent nickel and 8 percent vanadium
d) 18 percent vanadium and 8 percent nickel
8.
Ball bearing are usually made from
[
]
a) low carbon steel b) high carbon steel c) medium carbon steel d) high speed steel
9.
The metal suitable for bearings subjected to heavy loads is
[
]
a) silicon bronze
b) white metal
c) monel metal
d) phospher bronze
10.
The metal suitable for bearings subjected to light loads is
[
]
a) silicon bronze
b) white metal
c) monel metal
d) phospher bronze
11.
In a unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on
[
]
a) one side of the actual size
b) one side of the nominal size
c) both sides of the actual size
d) both sides of the nominal size
12.
The algebraic difference between the maximum limit and the basic size is called [
]
a) actual deviation b) upper deviation c) lower deviation d) fundamental deviation
13.
A basic hole is one whose
[
]
a) Lower deviation is zero
b) upper deviation is zero
c) Lower and upper deviations are zero
d) none of these
14.
15.
e)
f)
g)
h)
16.
17.
The energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limit is known as
[
a) resilience
b) proof resilience
c) strain energy
d) impact energy
2.
b)
3.
4.
b)
b) 2
c) 3
d)
5.
Two shafts A and B are made from the same material; B has double the diameter of A.
The torque B can carry is -------------- times that A can carry.
[
b)
2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
6.
Two shafts A and B are made from the same material; B has double the diameter of A.
The power B can transmit is -------------- times that A can transmit.
[
a)
2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
7.
Two shafts A and B are made from the same material; B has double the diameter of A.
The shear stress in A is -------------- times that in B under the same load.
[
]
a)
2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
8.
Strength to weight ratio of a solid shaft of diameter d carrying torque is
directly proportional to
a)
d
b) d
c) d2
d) d3
9.
Sresses in X and Y directions in a body are X = 200 MPa and Y= 100 MPa;
The maximum principal stress in the body is
a)50 MPa
b) 100 MPa
c) 150 MPa
d) 200 MPa
13. The following theory is most widely used for structural analysis of steel parts
a) Rankines b) Guests
c)St. Venants
d) Von Mises
13
a) 0.45
b) 0.65
c) 0.55
d) 0.70
d) all materials
19. For steel, the ratio of endurance limit and ultimate strength can be taken as
a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.55
d ) 0.70
Unit-IV
Bit Questions on Riveted Joints
1.
A rivet is specified by
(a) equal to
3.
(d) twice
4.
According to Prof. UnWins formula, the relation between the diameter of rivet hole (d) and the
thickness of the plate (t) is given by
[
]
(b) d = 6*t1/2
(a) d = t
5.
The center to center distance between two consecutive rivets in a row, is called
(d) d = 6t
Distance between a line joining the centers of rivets and the edge of the plate is known as
(c) d = 2t
(d) pitch
(a) single shear (b) double shear(c) triple shear(d) no shear failure
9.
10.
Which of the following riveted butt joints with double straps should have the highest efficiency as
per Indian Boiler Regulations
[
]
(a)
single riveted
11.
If the tearing efficiency of the riveted joint is 50%, then the ratio of the diameter of the rivet hole
to the pitch of the rivets
[
]
(a) 0.20
12.
(b) 0.30
(c) 0.50
(d) 0.60
The strength of the unriveted or solid plate per pitch length is equal to
14
(a) p *d*t
13.
(b) p *t*t
(c) (p t) *d*t
(d) (p d)t*t
16.
Efficiency of the riveted joint is the ratio of .. to the tensile strength of un riveted plate
[
]
(a) tensile strength of perforated plate (b) shear strength or crushing strength of rivets
(c) minimum of the above three strengths (d) maximum of the above three strengths
17.
According to Indian Boiler Regulations, for double shear , the shear strength of rivet
( Ps ) may be taken as
( shear stress of a rivet material )
(c) 0.5*(/4)d2 *
(a) 2*(/4)d2 * (b) 1.875*(/4)d2*
(d) 4*(/4)d2 *
20.
According to Indian standards , the diameter of rivet hole for a 24mm diameter of rivet, should be
(a) 23mm
(b)24mm
(c) 25mm
(d) 29mm. [
]
3.
A key made from the circular disc having segmental cross section, is known as
a) feather key b) gib head key
c) Woodruff key
d) flat saddle key
3. A feather key is generally
a) loose in shaft and tight in hub
c) tight in both shaft and hub
4.
5.
for a square key made of mild steel, the shear and crushing strengths are
a) shear strength = crushing strength b) shear strength > crushing strength
c) shear strength < crushing strength d) none of the above
6.
A keyway reduces
[
15
c) solid shaft
[
d) hollow shaft
[
d) flexible coupling
12.
13.
14.
In designing a sleeve and cotter joint for a shaft of diameter d , the outside diameter of
the sleeve is taken as.
[
]
a) 1.5 d
b) 2.5 d
c) 3 d
d) 4d
15.
16.
d) 4d
17.
When one gib is used in a gib and cotter joint, then the width of the gib should be taken
as.(B- total width of gib and cotter )
[
]
a) 0.45 B
b) 0.55 B
c) 0.65 B
d) 0.75 B
18.
In a steam engine the piston rod is usually connected to the cross head by means of a
[
a) knuckle joint
b) universal joint c) flange coupling
d) cotter joint
19.
In a steam engine the valve rod is connected to an eccentric by means of a .
[
]
a) knuckle joint
b) universal joint c) flange coupling d) cotter joint
20.
21.
22.
[
[
d) C.I
Which end of the connecting rod is usually provided with gib and cotter joint?
]
a) small end b) big end
c) both the ends
d) none of the ends
16
23.
Two shafts A and B are made of the same material. The diameter of the shaft A is twice
as that of shaft B. the power transmitted by the shaft A will be . of the shaft B. [
]
a) twice
b) four times
c) eight times
d) sixteen times
24.
When a shaft is subjected to combined B.M. M and T.M. T, then the equivalent
twisting moment is equal to
[
]
a) M + T
b) M2 + T2
c) (M2 + T2) d) (M2 - T2)
25.
Following is the material used for shafts
a) mild steel
b) Ni- Cr steel c) Ni V steel d) all the above
26.
27.
28.
d) non-ferrous.
29.
30.
31.
Product of Youngs modulus (E) and moment of inertia (I), in the flexural equation is
Called
[ ]
a) stiffness
b) rigidity
c) section modulus
d) strength
32.
33.
34.
35.
A screw is specified by its
a) major diameter
b) minor diameter
36.
Railway carriage coupling have
a) square threads
b) acme threads
c) pitch diameter
c) knuckle threads
d) buttress threads
37.
A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by
a) keeping the core diameter of the threads is equal to the diameter of the
un-threaded portion of the bolt.
b) keeping the core diameter of the threads smaller than the diameter of the
un-threaded portion of the bolt.
c) keeping the nominal diameter of the threads is equal to the diameter
of the un-threaded portion of the bolt.
d) none of the above
38.
Resilience of a bolt may be increased by
a) increasing its shank diameter
b) increasing its length
c) decreasing its shank diameter
d) decreasing its length
17
39.
when a nut is tightened by placing a washer below it, the bolt will be subjected
to stress
[ ]
a) tensile
b) compressive
c) bending
d) shear
40.
A bolt of M 24X2 means that
a) the pitch of the thread is 24 mm and depth is 2mm.
b) cross sectional area of the thread is 24mm2
c) the nominal diameter of the bolt is 24mm and pitch is 2mm.
d) the effective diameter of the bolt is 24mm and there are two threads per 2cm.
41.
a)
c)
A bolt with left hand threads matches with a nut with the following threads
Right hand of same pitch
b) left hand of same pitch
Right hand of fine pitch
d) left hand of fine pitch
42.
load is
e)
f)
g)
h)
When a bolt is very yielding when compared with its connecting members, the resultant
[ ]
Either the external load or the initial tightening load, whichever is greater
Infinity
External load only
Initial tightening load only
43.
load is
e)
f)
g)
h)
When its connecting members are very yielding when compared with a bolt, the resultant
[
]
zero
Approximately the sum of external load and the initial tightening load
External load only
Initial tightening load only
44.
b)
When a mating part, eg. Pulley has to slide on a shaft, the key used is
Woodruff key b) Kennedy key c) feather key
c) saddle key
45.
b)
46.
b)
d) woodruff key
d) castle nut
pressure is 0.7MPa. If the maximum permissible compressive stress for the piston rod
material is 40MPa, find the size of the piston rod.
5. (a) What are the factors to be considered in determination of factor of safety?
(b) Find the minimum size of the hole that can be punched in a 20mm thick steel plate, having
an ultimate tensile strength of 600MPa. The maximum permissible compressive stress in
the punch material is 1200MPa. Assume ultimate shear strength of plate material is half its
ultimate tensile strength.
6. Enumerate the most commonly used engineering materials and state some important properties
and their engineering applications.
[16]
7. (a) What is an Engineering design.
(b) Explain the stages in the design of machine members.
[4+12]
[4+12]
[8+8]
[16]
[10+6]
[6+10]
14. (a) What are the various phases in general design procedure?
(b) Discuss various cast irons and its applications in design.
15. (a) What are the factors considered while selection of engineering materials.
(b) What are factors to be considered while selecting factor of safety in design?
16. (a) What are the general considerations in engineering design?
(b) What are applications of steels in design?
17. (a) Discuss standardization and effect of Preferred Numbers on it.
(b) What are the properties and applications of Non-metals in design?
18. (a) Classify Machine Design.
(b) What is the procedure adopted in the design of Machine elements.
[6+10]
19. What are the factors to be considered for the selectors of materials for the design of machine
elements. Discuss.
20. (a) Discuss the factors to be considered in the selection of engineering materials.
(b) The crank pin of an engine sustains a maximum load of 35kN due to steam pressure. If
the allowable bearing pressure is 7MPa, find the dimensions of the pin. Assume length of
pin is 1.2 times diameter of pin.
21. (a) List out and discuss the general considerations in the design of machine members.
19
(b) A square tie bar of 20mm side section is attached to a bracket by 6 pins and carries a
load. Calculate the diameter of pin, is the maximum stress in tie bar is 150MPa and in pins
75MPa.
22. (a) Enlist the manufacturing considerations in design of machine members.
(b) The diameter of a piston of steam engine is 300mm and the maximum permissible steam
pressure is 0.7MPa. If the maximum permissible compressive stress for the piston rod
material is 40MPa, find the size of the piston rod.
23. (a) What are the factors to be considered in determination of factor of safety?
(b) Find the minimum size of the hole that can be punched in a 20mm thick steel plate, having
an ultimate tensile strength of 600MPa. The maximum permissible compressive stress in
the punch material is 1200MPa. Assume ultimate shear strength of plate material is half
its ultimate tensile strength.
24. Enumerate the most commonly used engineering materials and state at least one important
property and application of each.
2.
A cast iron pulley transmits 20 KW at 300 RPM. The diameter of pulley is 550 mm and has four
straight arms of elliptical cross section in which major axis is twice the minor axis. Find the dimensions of
the arm, if the allowable bending stress is 15 MPa.
3.
(a) Explain the salient features of the maximum principal stress theory and indicate under
what conditions such a theory is useful?
(b) A shaft is designed based on maximum distortion energy theory with a factor of safety of
2.0. The material used is 30C8 steel with a yield stress of 310 MPa. It is subjected to an
axial load of 40 kN. Determine the maximum torque capacity. Diameter of the shaft is
20 mm.
4.
A mild steel shaft of 60 mm diameter is subjected to a bending moment of 3000 N-m and a torque
T. If the yield point of steel in tension is 200 MPa, find the maximum value of this torque without causing
yielding of the shaft according to i) maximum principal stress
ii) Maximum shear stress and iii)
Maximum distortion energy theories of failure.
5.
A cantilever shaft of length 300 mm and diameter 60 mm is subjected to the following loads at its
free end:
A vertical bending load of 5 kN, pure torque of 1600 N-m and an axial pulling force of 20 kN.
Calculate the stresses at the fixed end of the shaft.
[4+12]
0.85, surface finish factor of 0.9. The material properties of bar are given by: ultimate
strength of 650 Mpa, yield strength of 500 Mpa and endurance strength of 350 Mpa.
[6+10]
11. A hot rolled steel shaft is subjected to a torsional moment that varies from 330 N-m clockwise
to 110 N-m counterclockwise and an applied bending moment at a critical section varies from
440 N-m to -220 N-m. The shaft is of uniform cross- section and no key way is present at the
critical section. Determine the required shaft diameter. The material has an ultimate strength
of 550M N/m2 and a yield strength of 410M N/m2. Take the endurance limit as half the ultimate
strength, factor of safty of 2, size factor of 0.85 and surface finish factor of 0.62.
[16]
12. (a) Explain the Soderberg method for combination of stresses.
(b) A steel rod is subjected to a reversed axial load of 180 kN. Find the diameter of the rod for a
factor of safty of 2. Neglect column action. The material has an ultimate tensile strength of
1070 Mpa and yield strength of 910 Mpa. The endurance limit is reversed bending may be
assumed to be one half of the ultimate tensile strength. The correction factors are as follows.
Load factor =0.7; surface finish factor=0.8; Size factor =0.85; stress concentration factor = 1.
[6+10]
13. (a) Discuss fatigue and endurance limit.
(b) Determine the diameter of a circular rod made of ductile material with a fatigue strength
(complete reversal), e = 265 Mpa and tensile yield strength of 350 Mpa. The member is
subjected to a varying axial load from Wmin = -300 kN to Wmax =700 kN and has a stress
concentration factor=1.8. Use factor of safty as 2.
[6+10]
14. (a) Discuss maximum shear stress theory.
(b) A steel connecting rod is subjected to completely reversed axial load of 160 KN. Suggest a
suitable diameter of rod, using a factor of safety 1.5. The ultimate tensile strength 1100
MPa; yield strength of 930 MPa. Neglect stress concentration.
15. (a) Discuss methods of minimizing stress concentration.
(b) A cast iron pulley transmits 10 KW at 400 RPM. The diameter of pulley is 1.2 m and has four
straight arms of circular cross section. Determine the dimensions of the arm if the
allowable bending stress is 15 MPa.
16. (a) Describe maximum strain energy theory with its limitations.
(b) Find the diameter of shaft made of steel with ultimate tensile strength of 600 MPa and
yield stress 440 MPa. The shaft is subjected to completely reversed axial load of 200 KN.
Assume surface factor of 0.85 and factor of safety as 1.5.
17. (a) Discuss distortion energy theory.
(b) Find the diameter of shaft to transmit varying moment of 800 Nm to 1600 Nm. The
ultimate tensile strength of material is 600 MPa and yield stress is 450 MPa. Assume a
stress concentration factor of 1.2; surface factor of 0.8 and a size factor of 0.85.
18. (a) Discuss factors affecting stress concentration.
(b) A shaft is transmitting 100 KW at 800rpm. If the allowable shear stress 60 MPa, find the
suitable diameter of shaft. The shaft is not to twist more than 10 for a length of 3 meters.
Take C=80GPa.
19. (a) Discuss maximum principal stress theory.
(b) Determine diameter of circular rod of steel with fatigue strength of 280 MPa; and a tensile
strength of 350 MPa. The member is subjected varying axial load from 700 KN to -300KN.
Assume Kt = 1.8 and FOS=2.0.
20. (a) Explain stress concentration with suitable examples.
22
{b) A steel link having a rectangular section is subjected to a repeated axial load of 50,000 N
with a medium shock. Determine the section if the endurance limit be 250 MPa with a
design factor 1.5. Take side ratio as 2:1. Size factor may be taken as 0.85 and surface finish
factor as 0.88.
[6+10]
21. (a) Explain the eect of the following factors on the type of fatigue failure
i. Stress distribution
ii. Range of imposed stress
(b) A hot rolled steel shaft is subjected to a torsional load that varies from 300 N m clockwise to
100 N m anti-clockwise as an applied bending moment at a critical section varies from 400 N
m to - 200 N m. Suggest the suitable size for the shaft if the material has an ultimate strength
of 560 MPa and a yield strength of 420 MPa. Take the factor of safety as 2. The shaft is of
uniform diameter and no keyway is present at the critical section.
22. (a) Differentiate between endurance limit and endurance strength.
(b) Determine the diameter of a circular rod made of ductile material with fatigue strength of
280 MPa and yield strength of 350MPa. The member is subjected to a varying axial load
from 700kN to-300kN. Assume Kt=1.8 and FS=2.0
23. (a) Define form stress concentration factor and notch sensitivity.
(b) Determine the size of a piston rod subjected to a total fluctuations between 15KN m.
Compression and 25KN in tension. The endurance limit is 360 MPa and yield strength
400MPa. The FS=1.5; surface factor =0.88. Stress factor = 2.25.
24. (a) Illustrate the methods of reducing stress concentration.
(b) A simply supported shaft between bearings carries a load at 15KN at the centre. The
span of beam is 500mm. The load varies to a maximum value of 30KN. Find the diameter of
the shaft if its endurance limit is 600 MPa and surface factor is 0.88, size factor is 0.8 and
FS=1.6.
25. (a) What are the various factors influencing endurance strength.
(b) Find the diameter of a shaft to transmit twisting moments varying from 800 Nm to
1600Nm. The ultimate tensile strength for the material is 600MPa, and yield stress is
400MPa. Assume the stress concentration factor=1.2; surface finish factor =0.8 and size
factor =0.85.
26. (a) Explain the following methods of reducing stress concentration
i. Drilled holes ii. Using large llet radius
iii. Added grooves
(b) A shaft is made of steel [ultimate tensile strength 700 MPa and yield point 420 MPa] is
subjected to a torque varying from 200N-m anti-clockwise to 600 N-m clockwise. Calculate
the diameter of the shaft if the factor of safety is 2 and it is based on the yield point and the
endurance strength in shear.
5. Design the longitudinal joint for a 1.25m diameter steam boiler to carry a steam pressure of
2.5 N/mm2. The ultimate strength of the boiler plate may be assumed as 420MPa, crushing
strength as 650MPa and shear strength of 300MPa. The joint efficiency as 80%. The FOS=2.0.
6. Two plates of 8mm thickness each are to be joined by a single riveted double strap butt joint.
Design the joint with working stresses in tension and shearing and compression are 80MPa,
60MPa and 100MPa respectively.
7. A bracket is riveted to a column by 6 rivets (A,B,C,D,E and F) of equal size as shown in Figure 3.
The centres of rivets A,B,C are on the same vertical line and the centres of E , F are on the another
vertical line. The centres of B, D are on the same horizontal line. The centres of A, E are on one
horizontal line and the centres of C,F are on another horizontal line. The vertical distance
between A,B and B,C are 75 mm and 75 mm respectively. The horizontal distance between B,D
and C,F are 75 mm and 150 mm respectively. It carries a load of 100 KN at a horizontal distance
of 250 mm from the central line of rivet D. If the maximum shear stress in the rivet is limited to 63
MPa, find the diameter of the rivet.
[16]
8. (a) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of welded joints over riveted joints?
9. A double riveted butt joint in which the pitch of the rivets in the outer rows is twice that in the
inner rows, connects two 16mm thick plates with two cover plates each 12mm thick. The
diameter of rivets is 22mm. Determine the pitches of the rivets in the two rows if the working
stresses are not to exceed the following limits. Tensile stress in plates = 100 MPa
Shear stress in rivets = 75 MPa; Bearing stress in rivets and plates = 150 MPa
Make a fully dimensioned sketch of the joint by showing at least two views. [16]
10. (a) Classify the rivet heads according to Indian Standard Specification.
(b) A double riveted lap joint is made between 15mm thick plates. The rivet diameter and
pitch are 25mm and 75mm respectively. If the ultimate stresses are 400 MPa in tension and
320 MPa in shear and 640 MPa in crushing, find the minimum force per inch, which will
rupture the joint. If the above joint is subjected to a load such that the factor of safety is 4,
find out the actual stresses developed in the plates and the rivets.
[6+10]
11. (a) What is the difference between Caulking and fullering? Explain with the help of neat
sketches.
(b) A double riveted double cover butt joint is made in 12mm thick plates with 18mm diameter
rivets. Find the efficiency of the joint for a pitch of 80mm, if t = 115MPa; = 80MPa; and
c = 160Mpa.
[6+10]
12. Discuss the design procedure of eccentrically loaded riveted joints.
13. (a) Enumerate the different types of riveted joints.
(b) Two plates 16 mm thick are joined by a double riveted lap joint. The pitch of each row of
rivets is 90 mm. The rivets are 25 mm in diameter. The permissible stresses are 140 MPa
in tension, 80 MPa in shear and 160 MPa in crushing. Find the efficiency of the joint.
24
[8+8]
14. (a) Show by neat sketches the various modes of failure of riveted joints.
15. Design a double riveted butt joint with two cover plates, for the longitudinal seam of a boiler
shell 1.5m diameter subjected to a steam pressure of 0.9MPa. Assume the joint efficiency as
75%, allowable tensile stress in plate 90MPa, compressive stress 140MPa; and shear stress in
the rivets is 56 MPa.
16. A double riveted lap joint with zig-zag riveting is to be designed for 13mm plates. Assume
permissible stresses in tension, shear and compression are 80MPa, 60MPa and 120MPa respectively. Find the efficiency of the joint and state how the joint will fail.
17. Design the longitudinal joint for a 1.25m diameter steam boiler to carry a steam pressure of
2.5 N/mm2. The ultimate strength of the boiler plate may be assumed as 420MPa, crushing
strength as 650MPa and shear strength of 300MPa. The joint efficiency as 80%. The FOS=2.0.
18. Two plates of 8mm thickness each are to be joined by a single riveted double strap butt joint.
Design the joint with working stresses in tension and shearing and compression are 80MPa,
60MPa and 100MPa respectively.
19. (a) Explain the following terms in connection with riveted joints
i. Pitch ii. Back pitch iii. Diagonal pitch iv. Margin
(b) A double riveted butt joint, in which the pitch of the rivets in the outer rows is twice that in
the inner rows, connects two 16 mm thick plates with two cover plates each 12 mm thick.
The diameter of the rivets is 22 mm. Determine the pitches of the rivets in the two rows if the
working stresses are not to exceed the following limits:
Tensile stress in plates = 100 MPa, Shear stress in rivets = 75 MPa and bearing stresses in
rivets and plates = 150 MPa.
Make a fully dimensioned sketch of the joint showing at least two views.
20. (a) Enumerate the different types of riveted joints.
(b) Two plates 16 mm thick are joined by a double riveted lap joint. The pitch of each row of
rivets is 90 mm. The rivets are 25 mm in diameter. The permissible stresses are 140 MPa
in tension, 80 MPa in shear and 160 MPa in crushing. Find the efficiency of the joint.
[8+8]
(b) The cylinder head of a steam engine is subjected to a steam pressure of 0.7MPa. It is held in position
by 12 studs. A soft copper gasket is used to make the joint leak proof. The effective diameter of cylinder is
300mm. Find the size of the bolts, so that the stress is
limited to 100MPa.
5. Discuss the design procedure of eccentrically loaded bolted joints.
6. Discuss stresses subjected to bolted joints.
(a) When tightened only.
(b) When externally loaded.
(c) Combined initial load with external loads.
7. A steam engine of effective diameter 300 mm is subjected to a steam pressure of 1.5 MPa. The
cylinder head is connected by 8 bolts having yield point 330 MPa and endurance limit at 240
MPa. The bolts are tightened with an initial preload of 1.5 times the steam load. A soft copper
gasket is used to make the joint leak-proof. Assuming factor of safety 2, find the size of the bolt
required. The stiffness factor for copper gasket may be taken as 0.5. [16]
8. (a) Sketch various types of threads giving their applications.
(b) A lever loaded safety valve has a diameter of 100 mm and the blow off pressure is 1.6N/mm2.
The fulcrum of the lever is screwed into the cast iron body of the cover. Find the diameter of
the threaded part of the fulcrum, if the permissible tensile stress is limited to 50 MPa and the
lever ratio is 8. [8+8]
9. (a) An eye bolt is to be used for lifting a load of 60 KN. Find the nominal diameter
of the bolt, if the tensile stress is not to exceed 100 MPa. Assume coarse threads.
(b) Two shafts are connected by means of a flange coupling to transmit torque of25 N-m. The
flanges of the coupling are fastened by four bolts of the same material at a radius of 30 mm.
Find the size of the bolts if the allowable shear stress for the bolt material is 30 MPa. [8+8]
10. (a) Write a short note on bolts of uniform strength.
(b) The cylinder head of a steam engine is subjected to a steam pressure of0.7N/mm2. It is held in
position by means of 12 bolts. A soft copper gasket is used to make the joint leak-proof. The
effective diameter of cylinder is 300mm. Find the size of the bolt so that the stress in the bolts
is not to exceed 100 MPa.
[6+10]
11. (a) List out the advantages and disadvantages of screw joints.
(b) A mild steel cover plate is to be designed for an inspection hole in the shell of a pressure
vessel. The hole is 120 mm in diameter and the pressure inside the vessel is 6N/mm2. Design
the cover plate along with the bolts. Assume the allowable tensile stress for mild steel on 60
MPa and for bolt material as40 MPa.
[6+10]
12. (a) Define the following terms with necessary sketch.
i. Major diameter
ii. Minor diameter
iii. Pitch
iv. Lead.
(b) Derive an expression for the maxim load in a bolt. When a bracket with a
circular base is bolted to a wall by means of four bolts. [8+8]
13. (a) Define the following terms related to screw fastenings:
i. Stress area
ii. Major diameter
iii. Minor diameter.
(b) A punching press is required to punch a maximum hole size of 20 m.m diameter in a material having
ultimate shear strength of 300N/m.m2. If the thickness of the sheet is 5 mm, design the screw and the nut.
[6+10]
14. The cylinder head of a 200 mmx350 mm compressor is secured by means of 12 studs of rolled mild
steel. The gas pressure is 1.5 N/mm2 gauge. The initial tension in the bolts, assumed to be equally loaded
26
such that a cylinder pressure of 1.2 N/mm2 gauge is required for the joint to be on the point of opening.
Suggest the suitable size of the studs in accordance with Soderbergs equation assuming the equivalent
diameter of the compressed parts to be twice the bolt size and factor of safety 2. The stress concentration
factor may be taken as 2.8 and the value of endurance strength for reversed axial loading is half the value
of ultimate strength.
[16]
13. Design a gib and cotter joint to connect square rods with a side of the square as 25mm.
Consider t = 60MPa c = 90MPa and = 40MPa. The joint hasto carry a load of 35kN.
(t=8mm, B=55(30+25)mm and length of the tail ofthe rod is 12mm. [6+10]
14. (a) Describe the design procedure of Sleeve & Cotter joint.
(b) Design a cotter joint with two gibs to transmit an axial force of 130 kN. The permissible
stresses are 165 MPa in tension; 100 MPa in shear and 180 M Pain crushing. [6+12]
15. (a) How is the slipping of the cotter avoided? Explain by two methods.
(b) Design a knuckle joint to transmit 120 kN, with permissible stresses in tension, shear and
compression are 75 Mpa; 60 Mpa and 150 Mpa respectively. [4+12]
16. (a) Describe the design procedure of Sleeve & Cotter joint.
(b) Design a cotter joint with two gibs to transmit an axial force of 130 kN. The permissible
stresses are 165 MPa in tension; 100 MPa in shear and 180 M Pain crushing. [6+12]
2. Design a cast iron protective type flange coupling to transmit 15KW at 900RPM. The maximum
load is 35% more than mean value on shaft. The limiting stresses are 40MPa in shear for shaft,
bolt and key material; 80MPa in crushing for bolt and key; and 8MPa in shear for cast iron.
3. Design a split muff coupling to transmit 25KW at 200 RPM. The allowable shear stress for the
shaft and key is 40MPa and number of bolts connecting two halves are six. The permissible
tensile stress for the bolts is 70MPa. The coefficient of friction between the muff and shaft
surface is 0.3.
4. Design a protective type flange coupling for C.I. flange to connect two steel shafts to transmit
15KW at 200RPM, with shear stress limited to 40MPa for steel. The working stress in the
bolts not to exceed 30MPa. Assume that the same material is used for key, shaft and bolts and
the crushing stress is twice shear stress. The maximum torque is 25% greater than full torque.
The shear stress for cast iron is 14MPa.
5. Design a Split Muff Coupling to transmit 30KW at 100 RPM. The allowable shear stress
for shaft and key=40MPa. The number of bolts are six. The tensile stress in bolts not to
exceed=70MPa: The coefficient friction=0.25.
6. Sketch
i. Woodruff key.
ii. Kennedy key.
7. Design a Muff Coupling to transmit 15 KW at 800 RPM. The shear stress for shaft and key=40
MPa and shear stress for muff=8 MPa; The crushing stress for key=60 MPa. Draw sketch of the
coupling.
8. Sketch a
i. Gib head key.
ii. Lewis key.
9. Design a protective type Flange Coupling to transmit 15 KW at 900 RPM. The following
stresses are permitted: Shear stress for shaft, bolt and key=40 MPa Crushing stress for bolt
and key=80 MPa shear stress for cast iron=8 MPa. Draw sketch of Coupling.
10. Sketch a
i. Rectangular key.
ii. Gib head key.
11. Design a Rigid flange coupling to transmit 20 KW at 900 RPM. The service factor is 1.35 for
coupling motor. The shear stress for shaft, bolt and key=40 MPa; crushing stress for bolt and
key=80 MPa; the shear stress for flange=8 MPa. Draw sketch of the coupling.
12. Sketch a
i. Spline.
ii. Square key.
3. Design a rigid sleeve coupling to connect two shafts, transmitting 18.75kW at 1000rev/min. The
allowable shear stress in the material of the shaft is 55 N/mm2. The material of the shaft and key
is same and the coupling is required to transmit 20% overload. The material of the sleeve is cast
iron, the allowable shear stress for which is16 N/mm2. Make a neat sketch of the designed sleeve
coupling showing side view and sectional elevation.
[16]
14. A sleeve coupling is used to connect two 75mm shafts whose shearing stress is 70N/mm2.
(a) What torque is transmitted by the shafting?
(b) To what torsional moment is the coupling subjected?
(c) Find the diameter and the length of the coupling.
(d) What will be the induced stress in the sleeve if the diameter of the part (c) is used.
(e) If cast iron sleeve with ultimate shearing stress of 140 N/mm2 is used. What is the numerical
value of the factor of safety?
[16]
15. A belt pulley is fastened to a 70mm dia shaft running at 200 r.p.m by means of a key, 20mm
wide and 120mm long. Permissible stresses for the shaft and key materials are 50 and 90MPa
respectively Determine the power that can be transmitted at 240 r.p.m also determine the
thickness of the key.
30
16. Design a clamp coupling completely for a shaft diameter of 50mm. The torsional moment to be
transmitted by this coupling taking in to account overloading is140Nm. The number of bolts used
is 4 and the allowable stress in the material of the bolt is limited to 70 N/mm2. The coefficient of
friction between the shaft and muff material is 0.3. Draw sectional elevation of the designed clamp
coupling.
[16]
17. (a) The bolt in the flange coupling should be made weaker than the other components of coupling,
Why?
(b) In a flange shaft coupling having 37.5mm bore it is desired that torsional stress in the shaft will
not exceed 25 N/mm2. The outside diameter of the coupling limited by space is 200mm. There
are three 15mm bolts on a bolt circle diameter of 140mm. The radial flange thickness is
18mm. Determine the following:
i. The power that may be transmitted at 600 rev/min.
ii. The shearing stress in the bolts.
iii. The bearing pressure on the bolts.
[4+12]
18. What is a key? Where it is used? In what basis it is selected?
19. A plane flange coupling for a 75mm shaft has the following dimensions: bore of flange =75mm,
hub diameter =135mm, hub length=100mm, flange diameter=250mm, flange thickness=28mm,
bolt circle diameter=200mm, bolt diameter=19mm,number of bolts=6, and the key size is 18mm
square. All the parts are made of carbon steel having a shearing strength of 400N/mm2 and a
tensile strength of650N/mm2. This coupling is rated at 37.3kW power at 100rev/min.
(a) Determine the shearing ,bearing and tensile stresses in all parts of the coupling.
(b) What F.O.S does this coupling have?
(c) Is there a possibility of the flange shearing off at the hub? Assume perfect shaft alignment.
[16]
20. A propeller shaft is made-up by joining together number of solid shafts. The joint is made by
forging the ends of the shaft in the form of a flange, and bolting the flanges together by means of 8
bolts. If the shaft transmits 60kW at 120 rpm, determine the size of the shaft, the diameter and
thickness of the flange and the diameter and pitch circle diameter of bolts. Permissible stresses are
=35MPa ; c=45MPa.
[16]
21. Design a bushed pin flexible coupling for connecting a motor shaft to a pump shaft for the
following service conditions:
H.P to be transmitted=25
rpm of the motor shaft=1440
Diameter of the motor shaft=60mm
Diameter of the pump shaft=50mm
Bearing pressure on the rubber bush=0.4N/mm2
Allowable stress in the pins=20N/mm2.
[16]
22. (a) What are the various types of keys? Discuss their merits and demerits?
(b) Select a key for a 100mm dia shaft transmits 750kW at 1000r.p.m. The allowable shear stress
in the key is 100MPa and the a allowable compressive stress is 200MPa. What type of key
should be used if the allowable shear stress is30MPa and the compressive stress is 120 MPa.
[8+8]
23. Design a bushed-pin type flexible coupling for connecting a motor shaft to a pump shaft, with the
following service conditions:
Power to be transmitted=40kW
Speed of the motor shaft=1000rpm
Diameter of motor and pump shafts=45mm
Bearing pressure on the rubber bush=0.7N/mm2
Allowable stress in the pins=60MPa.
[16]
24. Design a bushed -pin type flexible couplings to transmit 25kW at 960rpm.
Use the following stress values:
Shear stress =50MPa(shaft and key), 30MPa(pin)
Crushing stress =90MPa (key)
Bearing pressure=0.45N/mm2(rubber bush).
31
[16]
32
Code:R7310305
R7
III B.TechISemester(R07)SupplementaryExaminations,May2011
DESIGNOF MACHINEMEMBERS-I
(MechanicalEngineering)
Time:3hours
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
MaxMarks: 80
33
35
UNIT -IV
UNIT-III
UNIT-II
UNIT-I
S. no
TOPIC
1
2
1
1
1
1
1
8
3
1
2
2
11
1
2
3
1
3
1
2
1
.
13
2
2
4
UNITVI
UNIT-V
I Mid exams
Free convection - development of hydrodynamic and 3
thermal boundary layer along a vertical plate,
Use of empirical relations for vertical plates and
pipes
3
Boiling- Pool boiling - regimes
Nucleate boiling- critical heat flux and film boiling
Problems
36
1
2
2
UNIT-VII
1
2
2
4
Problems using LMTD & NTU -methods
Emission characteristics - laws of black body
Radiation
UNIT-VIII
10
8
1
10
2
2
2
76
Text books:
1.
2.
37
1. (a) State the Fouriers law of heat conduction. Give the physical significance of the term
(b) Derive a general equation for heat conduction in 3D cylindrical coordinate system.
2. (a) Explain the following:
i. Efficiency of fin.
ii. Effectiveness of fin.
(b) A steel rod (K = 32 W/mk), 12mm in diameter and 60mm long, with an insulated is to
be sed as a spine. It is exposed to surroundings with a temperature of 600C and a heat transfer coefficient
of 55 W/m2k. The temperature at the base of fin is 950C. Determine
i). Efficiency of fin.
ii). Heat dissipation of the fin
3. (a) Explain lumped parameter analysis of heat conduction in solids.
(b) Using lumped system analysis, determine the time required for solid steel ball of diameter
5cm, density 7,833 kg/m3, specific heat 465 J/kg 0C, thermal conductivity 54 W/m 0C, to cool from 6000C
to 2000C, if it is exposed to an air stream at 500C having a heat transfer coefficient h=100 W/m2 0C.
4. (a) The expression (hl/k) gives the biot number as well as Nusselt number what is the difference
between the two.
(b) What is meant by dimensional homogeneity? Explain some of its applications.
5.
In quenching process a copper plate of 3mm thickness is heated up to 3500C and is
suddenly dipped into water bath and cooled to 250C. Calculate the time required for the plate to reach the
temperature of 500C. The heat transfer coefficient on the surface of the plate is 28 W/m2-K. The length and
width of the plates are 40cm and 30cm respectively. The properties of copper are as follows:
specific heat=380.9 J/Kg-K, density 8800 kg/m3 and thermal conductivity 385 W/m-K.
PBR VISVODAYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND SCIENCE-KAVALI
III-B.Tech I-sem MECHANICAL ENGINEERING II-MID Dt:- 3-11-2012AN
Time : 90 mints
HEAT TRANSFER
Max marks 20
Answer any Three of the following
Use of THERMAL ENGINEERING DATA BOOK and STEAM TABLES are permitted
1. (a) Explain briefly the condensation mechanism?
(b) Determine the stable film boiling heat transfer co-efficient for the film boiling of saturated water
At atm pressure on an electrically heated1.6mm diameter horizontal platinum wire with a
temperature difference of Ts-Tsat=2550c. What would be the power dissipation per unit length of
the heater?
2. (a) Explain the terms : fouling factor, effectiveness, NTU and LMTD.
(b) A heat exchanger of total outside surface are of 17.5m2 is to be used for cooling oil at 2000c with
a mass flow rate of 2.77Kg/s having specific heat of 1.9KJ/KgK. Water at a flow rate of 0.83 Kg/s
is available at 200C as a cooling agent. Calculate the exit temperature of the oil if the heat
exchanger is operated in a) parallel flow mode and b) counter flow mode. Take U = 300 W/m2 0K
3. (a) What is meant by a hydrodynamic boundary layer? Explain the formation of hydrodynamic
boundary layer over a flat plate.
(b) Air at 200C and 1 atmosphere flows over a flat plate at 35 m/s. The plate is 75 cm long and is
maintained at 600C. Calculate the heat transfer from the plate per unit width of the plate. Also
calculate the turbulent boundary layer thickness at the end of the plate assuming it to develop
from the leading edge of the plate.
4. (a) Derive an expression for the effectiveness of heat exchanger using NTU method of a parallel
flow heat exchangers.
(b) A one shell pass, two tube pass heat exchanger has a total surface area of 5 m2 and its overall
heat transfer coefficient based on that area is found to be 1400 W/m2K. If 4500 kg/h of water
enters the shell side at 315 0C while 9000 kg/h of water enters the tube side at 400C, find the
outlet temperatures using
(a) The correction factor LMTD method and
(b) Effectiveness-NTU method. Take cp for both fluid streams as 4.187 kJ/kg K
5. (a) What is meant by thermal radiation? Which part of electro magnetic spectrum belongs to it ?
(b) A pipe carrying steam having an outside diameter of 20cm runs in a large room and is exposed to
38
air at a temperature of 300c. The pipe surface temperature is 4000c. Calculate the loss of heat to
surroundings per meter length of pipe due to thermal radiation. The emissivity of the pipe
surface is 0.8 .
HT question bank
Unit-I
1.
(a) Write the Fourier rate equation for heat transfer by conduction. Give the physical
significance of each term.
(b) Determine the steady heat transfer per unit area through a 3.8 cm thick homogeneous slab
with its two faces maintained at uniform temperatures of 350C and 250C. The thermal
conductivity of wall material is 1.9 x 104 kW/m-K.
2.
Derive a three dimensional generalized heat conduction equation in rectangular co- ordinates.
3.
Derive a three dimensional generalized heat conduction equation in cylindrical co-ordinates.
4.
Derive a three dimensional generalized heat conduction equation in spherical co-ordinates.
5.
(a) What are the various modes of heat transfer explain with its mechanisms
(b) Determine the study state heat transfer rate through wall, 5m long x 4m high x 0.25m thick,
with its two faces maintained at uniform temperatures of 100oC and 30oC. The wall is made
of fire brick having thermal conductivity equal to 0.7 W/m-K.
6.
(a) What are the basic laws of heat transfer.
(b) Determine the heat transfer rate through a spherical copper shell of thermal conductivity
386 W/m.K, inner radius of 2-mm and outer radius of 60 mm. The inner surface and outer
surface temperatures are 2000C and 1000C respectively.
Unit-II
1.
(a) What are Biot and Fourier numbers? Explain their physical significance.
(b) A slab of Aluminum 10cm thick is originally at a temperature of 5000C. It is suddenly
immersed in a liquid at 1000C resulting it a heat transfer coefficient of 1200 W/m2k.
Determine the temperature at the centerline and the surface 1 min after the immersion.
Also the total thermal energy removal per unit area slab during this period. The properties
of aluminum for the given condition are: = 8.4 x 10-5m2 /s, K=215 W/mk, = 2700 kg/m3,
Cp= 0.9 kJ/kg.
39
2.
UNIT-V
1.
(a) What is meant by a hydrodynamic boundary layer? Explain the formation of
hydrodynamic boundary layer over a flat plate.
(b) Air at 200C and 1 atmosphere flows over a flat plate at 35 m/s. The plate is 75 cm long
and is maintained at 600C. Calculate the heat transfer from the plate per unit width of the plate.
Also calculate the turbulent boundary layer thickness at the end of the plate assuming it to
develop from the leading edge of the plate.
2. (a) Define Rayleigh number. What is the approximate value of the Rayleigh number at
which the transition from laminar to turbulent takes place in a free convection
boundary layer past a vertical flat plate?
(b) 100Kg of water per minute is heated from 150C to 250C by passing through a pipe of 2.5cm
in diameter. The pipe outer surface temperature is maintained at 1400C. Calculate the length of
the pipe required.
3. A thin flat plate has been placed longitudinally in a steam of air at 200C and while flows with
undisturbed velocity of 7.5 m/s. The surface of plate is maintained at a uniform temperature
of 1200C.
a.
calculate the heat transfer coefficient 0.8m from the leading edge of the plate,
40
b.
Also calculate the rate of heat transfer from one side of the plate to the air over the first 0.8
m length. Assume unit width of the plate.
4. In a nuclear reactor core, parallel vertical plates each 2.5 m high and 1.5m wide, heat
liquid Bismuth by natural convection. Maximum temperature of the plate should not
exceed 755oC and lowest allowable temperature of Bismuth is 320 0C. Calculate the
maximum heat dissipation from both sides of each plate.
5. (a) A horizontal pipe of 6 cm diameter is located in a room, whose temperature of air is
200C. The surface temperature of the pipe is 140 0 C. Calculate the free convection heat
loss per meter length of the pipe.
(b) Distinguish between bulk mean temperature and film temperature.
(c) Define the local and average skin friction (drag) coefficient for a flat smooth plate at zero
Incidence
6. (a) Explain for fluid flow along a flat plate.
a.
Velocity distribution in hydrodynamic boundary layer.
b.
Temperature distribution in thermal boundary layer.
c.
Variation of local heat transfer co-efficient along the flow.
(b) A vertical plate is at 960C in an atmosphere of air at 200C. Estimate the local heat
transfer coefficient at a distance of 20 cm from the lower edge and the average value
over the 20 cm length.
UNIT-VI
1. (a) Explain the various regimes of pool boiling heat transfer.
(b)Water is boiled at a rate of 30kg/hr in a copper pan,30cm in diameter, at atmospheric
Pressure. Estimate the temperature of the bottom surface of the pan assuming nucleate
boling conditions.
2. (a) what do you meant by sub-cooled boiling?
(b) The outer surface of a vertical cylinder drum of 350mm diameter is exposed to saturated
steam at 2 bar for condensation. If the surface temperature of drum is maintained at 800c ,
calculate
(i) the length of the drum
(ii) the thickness of the condensate layer to condense 70kg/hr of steam.
3. (a) How does radiation play an important role in boiling heat transfer?
(b) Saturated steam at 1100c condenses on the outside of a bank of 64 horizontal tubes of
25mm outer diameter, 1m long arranged in a 8X8 array. Calculate the rate of condensation
If the tube surface is maintained at 1000c. Had the condenser been vertical, what would be
the rate of condensation?
4. (a) Explain briefly the condensation mechanism?
(b) Determine the stable film boiling heat transfer co-efficient for the film boilng of saturated
water At atm pressure on an electrically heated1.6mm diameter horizontal platinum wirewith a
temperature difference of Ts-Tsat=2550c. What would be the power dissipation per unit length of
the heater?
5. (a) Differentiate between the mechanism of filmwise condensation and dropwise condensation?
(b) Saturated steam at 900c condenser on the outer surface of a 2.5cm diameter, 1.2m long
horizontal Pipe which is maintained at a uniform temperature of 800c. calculate
(a) average heat transfer co-efficient
(b) The total rate of steam condensation
UNIT-VII
1. (a) How heat exchangers are classiffed? Discuss briefy different types of heat exchangers.
(b) Water is evaporated continuously at 100 0 C in an evaporator by cooling 500 kg of air per
hour from 2600C to 1500C. Calculate the heat transfer surface area required and the steam
evaporation per hour, if the liquid enters at 1000C. Take Uo = 46 W/m2K and cp of air 1.005
kJ/kgK. At 1000C, hfg = 2257 kJ/kg.
2. (a) Write an expression for overall heat transfer coeficient (U) for double pipe heat exchanger.
(b) Water at a rate of 7500 kg/h enters a counter flow heat exchanger at 150C to cool 8000
kg/h of air at 1050C. The overall heat transfer coefficient is 145 W/m2 K and the exchanger area is
20m 2. Find the exit temperature of air.
3. (a) Explain the terms : fouling factors, effectiveness, NTU and LMTD.
(b) A heat exchanger of total outside surface are of 17.5m2 is to be used for cooling oil at 2000c
with a mass flow rate of 2.77Kg/s having specific heat of 1.9KJ/KgK. Water at a flow rate of 0.83
41
Kg/s is available at 200C as a cooling agent. Calculate the exit temperature of the oil if the heat
exchanger is operated in a) parallel flow mode and b) counter flow mode. Take U = 300 W/m2 0K
4. (a) What do you mean by fouling factor? What are the causes of fouling?
(b) A one shell pass, two tube pass heat exchanger has a total surface area of 5 m2 and its
overall heat transfer coefficient based on that area is found to be 1400 W/m2K. If 4500 kg/h of
water enters the shell side at 315 0C while 9000 kg/h of water enters the tube side at 400C, find the
outlet temperatures using
(a) The correction factor LMTD method and
(b) Effectiveness-NTU method. Take cp for both fluid streams as 4.187 kJ/kg K.
5. (a) A double pipe heat exchanger is constructed of a stainless steel ( k = 15.1 W/mK) inner tube
of Di = 15mm and Do = 19 mm and the outer tube of diameter 32 mm. The convective heat
transfer coefficient is given to be hi = 800W/m2K and ho = 1200W/m2K. For a fouling factor of
Rfi = 0. 0004m2K/W on the tube side and Rfo = 0.0001m2K/W on the shell side, determine
i. The total thermal resistance
ii. Ui and
iii.Uo of the heat exchanger.
(b) What is the limitation of the LMTD method? How is NTU method superior to correction
factor LMTD method?
6. (a) Derive an expression for the LMTD of a counter - flow heat exchangers. State clearly the
assumptions.
(b) Derive an expression for the effectiveness of heat exchanger using NTU method of a
parallel flow heat exchangers.
UNIT-VIII
1.(a) Distinguish between black colour and radiation black bodies?
(b) A 3mm thick glass window transmits 90 percent of the radiation between =0.3&3m and
is essentially opaque for other wave lengths .Determine the rate of radiation through a
2mX2m glass window from a black body source at 5000k.
2. (a) Define intensity of radiation?
(b)The filament of a 40w bulb is radiating into a black enclosure at 700c The filament is a wire
of 0.1mm. diameter and 3cm length . Assume filament as a black body. find the temperature of
the Filament.
3. (a) Define absorptivity, reflectivity and transitivity of radiant energy.
(b) 300 watts of energy is incident on aglass plate per unit area out of which 200 watts is
transmitted and 20 watts is absorbed .Calculate absorptivity, reflectivity and transitivity of the
glass plate.
4. (a) What is meant by thermal radiation? Which part of electromagnetic spectrum belongs to it?
(b) A pipe carrying steam having an outside diameter of 20cm runs in a large room and is
exposed to air at a temperature of 300c. The pipe surface temperature is 4000c. Calculate the loss
of heat to surroundings per meter length of pipe due to thermal radiation. The emissivity of the
pipe surface is 0.8 .
5.(a) State Planks law of monochromatic radiation. What is its significance?
(b) Two black square plates of size 1.0 by 1.0m are placed parallel to each other at a distance of
0.4m. One plate is maintained at a temperature of 9000 c and the other at 4000c. Find net
Exchange of Energy due to radiation between the two plates.
42
12. The rate of heat transfer from a solid surface to a fluid is obtained from
(a) Newton's law of cooling
(b) Fourier's law (c) Kirchhoff's law
43
UNIT-II
(c) k=ko + T
(c) Tanh ml
(d) (kA/hp)
44
(d) k=ko - T
UNIT-III
1.
In transient heat conduction, the two significant dimensionless parameters are.number
..number.
(a) Fourier, Reynolds.
(b) Biot ,Fourier
(c) Reynolds, Biot
(d) Biot, prandtl
2. Lumped parameter analysis for transient heat conduction, is essentially valid for
(a) Bi<0.1
(b) 0.1< Bi<100 (c) 1< Bi<10
(d) Bi
3. In case of infinite solid the Biot number value is
(a) Bi<0.1
(b) 0.1< Bi<100 (c) 1< Bi<10
(d) Bi
4. In case of semi- infinite solid the Biot number value is
(a) Bi<0.1
(b) 0.1< Bi<100 (c) 1< Bi<10
(d) Bi
5. In lumped parameter analysis, which is used for transient heat conduction , the assumption is
(a) k of solid is zero
(b) the temp. gradient in the solid does not effect.
(c) The conduction resistance is maximum.
(d) k of the solid is .
6. The temperature variation with time, in the lumped parameter model, is
(a) Linear
(b) parabolic (c) logarithmic
(d) exponential
7. The lumped parameter analysis, should be used when
(a) The convective heat transfer co-efficient is low
(b) The thermal conductivity is high
(c) The characteristic dimension is small
(d)all of the above .
8. The dimensionless number relevant in transient heat conduction is,
(a) Grashof number
(b) Weber number
(c) Fourier number
(d) Reynolds number.
9. The characteristic length in Biot number is the ratio of
(a) Volume of solid to its surface area
(b) surface area to perimeter of the solid
(c) perimeter to surface area of the solid
(d) Volume of solid to its length.
10. Heisler charts are used to determine the transient heat flow rate and distribution when
(a) Internal conduction resistance is higher than surface convective resistance
(b) Internal conduction resistance is lower than surface convective resistance
(c) Both the resistances are same
(d) Solids posses infinitely large thermal conductance.
11. The temperature distribution in case of infinite sold body (T-T)/(To-T) is a function of
(a)Bi, Fo, x/l
(b) Bi, Fo
(c) Bi, x/l (d) Fo, x/l
12. The temperature distribution in case of semi-infinite sold body (T-T)/(To-T) is
(a)erf(Bi, Fo, x/l) (b) erf(Bi, Fo)
(c) erf(Bi, x/l) (d) erf(x/2(T)
Where erf is error function
13. The characteristic length (L c ) of sphere is
(a) R/2
(b) R/ 3
(c)R/4
(d) R
(b) R/ 3
(c)R/4
(d) R
and
UNIT-IV
1. Which of the following dimensionless number has a significant role in forced convection.
(a) Pr
(b) Re
(c) Mach
(d) Gr
2. Which of the following dimensionless number has a significant role in free convection.
(a) Pr
(b) Re
(c) Mach
(d) Gr
3. The dimensions
of thermal
diffusivity in M-L-T-
system2 -1 -1
(a) L2T -1
(b) LT -1 -1
(c) ML2T -1
(d) L T
4. The dimensions of heat transfer co-efficient is
(a) ML2T -1
(b) MT -3 -1
(c) ML2T -1
(d) M2T -1 -1
(d) MLT -3
(d) L2T -1
7. Which of the following dimensionless number can provide the relation among Nu, Re and Pr
(a) Bi
(b) Fo
(c) Wb
(d) St
8. The units of Nusselt number is
(a) meter
(b) kj/mok
(c) W/m2 ok
(d) No units
(c) Buoyancy force, viscous force (d) viscous force, buoyancy force
13. The quantities mass, length, time are called
(a) Fundamental quantities
(b) Nu.Re
(c) Gr .Nu
(d) Pr. Gr
(b) (NuxRe)/Pr
46
UNIT-V
1. For free convection the Nusselt number is a function of
(a) Grashof number, prandtl number
(b) Grashof number, reynolds number
(c) Fourier number , Reynolds number
(d) Reynolds number, prandtl number
2. For forced convection the Nusselt number is a function of
(a) Grashof number, prandtl number
(b) Grashof number, reynolds number
(c) Fourier number , Reynolds number
(d) Reynolds number, prandtl number
3. Kinematic viscosity is defined as:
(a) dynamic viscosity/density
(b) dynamic viscosityXdensity
(c) dynamic viscosity/ pressure
(d) dynamic viscosityX pressure
4. The bulk mean temperature of a fluid moving through a tube at a given cross-section is the
(a) Temperature of the fluid at the tube surface
(b) Temperature of the fluid at the center of the tube
(c) Temperature midway between the centre and surface of the tube
(d) Mean Temperature of the fluid.
5. Nusselt number may be characterized as
(a) The non- dimensional velocity gradient at the surface
(b) The dimensionless temperature gradient at the surface
(c) The ratio of viscous to inertia forces
(d) The ratio of convective to conductive resistances.
6. Reynolds analogy is true only when
(a) flow is laminar
(b) flow is turbulant
(c) flow is partly laminar and partly turbulant
(d) Prandtl number is near about 1.
7. The thickness of thermal boundary is equal to that of hydrodynamic boundary layer when prandtl number
is
(a) 0
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.5
(d) 1.0
8number has a significant role in forced convection.
(a) mach
(b) reynolds
(c) prandtl
(d) grashof
9. The ratio of hydrodynamic to thermal boundary layer thickness
(a) varies as one-third power of prandtl number
(b) varies as two-third power of prandtl number
(c) varies as two-third power of stanton number
(d) varies as root of Prandtl number .
10. The temperature gradient in the fluid flowing over a heated plate will be
(a) zero at the top of thermal boundary layer
(b) very steep at the surface
(c) zero at the plate surface
(d) positive at the surface.
47
UNIT-VI
1. In film and dropwise condensation which one is effective?
(a) film condensation
(b) dropwise condensation
(c) both
(d) None of the above
2.The critical Reynolds number for condensation around
(a)1800
(b)2000
(c) 25000
(d)2500
3. The maximum heat flux point in pool boiling is known as
4.
Depending
on
saturation
temperature
of
liquid
the
boiling
into.and.
(a) pool boiing and film boiling
(b) sub cooled boiing and bulk boiling
(c) pool boiing and bulkboiling
(d) None of the above
5. Write various regimes of pool boiling?
6.What is meant by excess temp. in pool boiling?
(b) Tsat- Ts
(a)Ts- Tsat
(c) Tsat
(d) Ts
7. In pool boiling, the heat flux becomes maximum towards the end of
(a)Free convection boiling regime
(b) Stable film boiling regime
(c) Nucleate boiling regime
(d) unstable film boiling regime
8. If the excess temperature is below 50c, then the regime is called as,
(a)Free convection boiling regime
(b) Stable film boiling regime
(c) Nucleate boiling regime
(d) unstable film boiling
9. If the excess temperature is in between 50c and 500c, then the regime is called as,
(a)Free convection boiling regime ( b) Stable film boiling regime
(c)Nucleate boiling regime
(d) unstable film boiling regime
10. The maximum value of heat flux in pool boiling is expected to be.
(a) 1MW/m2
( b) 2MW/m2
(c) 1KW/m2
(d) 2KW/m2
UNIT-VII
1. In heat exchangers
(a) Temperature of the hot fluid increases
(b) Temperature of the cold fluid decreases
(c) Temperature of the hot fluid decreases
(d) Temperatures of both fluids increase
2. In a heat exchanger, Ui = U o due to
(a) Negligible convective resistances
(b) Negligible tube wall resistances
(c) Negligible inner film resistances
(d) all of the above
3. In a heat exchanger the overall heat transfer co-efficient(U) is given by
(a)
.
(b)
(c)
.
.
(d) 4
48
may
classified
( b)
(c)
(d)
Where Thi and Tho are the inlet and outlet temperatures of hot fluid and
Tci and Tco are the inlet and outlet temperatures of cold fluid
14. The LMTD of a counter flow heat exchanger as compared to parallel flow heat exchanger will be
(a) more
( b) less
(c) approximately equal
(d) Exactly equal
15. The overall heat transfer co-efficient in a fouled heat exchanger in comparison with that of a clean exchanger is
(a) more
( b) less
(c) equal
(d) Negligible.
UNIT-VIII
1. Radiation is believed to be____________
(a) a molecular phenomenon
(b) a wave phenomenon
(c) a bulk phenomenon
(d) all of the above
2. For a transparent body
(a) =1
(b) =1
(c) =1
(d) =1
3. .For a opaque body
(a) =0
(b) =1
(c) =1
(d) =0
4. The units of emissivity is
(a) W
(b) W/m2k
(c) W/m2
(d) None
5. Radiation shields are used to
(a) increase the heat transfer
(b) control the heat transfer
(c) decrease the heat transfer
(d) all of the above
6. The sum of reflectivity, absorptivity and transmitivity is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.2
7 .The units of planks constant are
(a) J (b)J S
(c) J (d) J/s2
8. The reciprocity theorem is expressed as
49
50
(d)
R09
Code: 9A03505
III B. Tech I Semester (R09) Supplementary Examinations, May 2012
HEAT TRANSFER
(Mechanical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
Max Marks: 70
Define heat flux and thermal diffusivity and explain its importance in conduction mode of heat
transfer.
A plane wall 80 mm thick (K=0.15 W/mK) is insulated on one side while the other is exposed
to environment at 900C. If the convective heat transfer coefficient between the wall and the
environment is 560 W/m2 K, determine the temperature at the surface of the wall will be
subjected.
Determine the rate of heat flow through a spherical boiler wall which is 2 m in diameter and 2
m thick steel (k = 58 W/m K). The outside surface of boiler wall is covered with asbestos (k =
0.116 W/m K) 5 mm thick. The temperature of outer surface and that of fluid inside are 500C
and 3000C respectively. Take inner film resistance as 0.0023 K/W.
Sheets of brass and steel, each of thickness 1 cm, are placed in contact. The outer surface of
brass is kept at 1000C and the outer surface of steel is kept at 00C. What is the temperature of
the common interface? The thermal conductivities of brass and steel are in the ratio of 2:1.
How long will it take to form a thickness of 4cm of ice on the surface of a lake when the air
temperature is -60C? K of ice = 1.675 W/m K and its density = 920 kg/m3. Take the latent heat
of fusion of ice as 335 kJ/kg.
Starting with the two dimensional Navier Stokes equation, listing all assumptions, and
performing an order of magnitude analysis, show that for flow over a flat plate, the pressure is
a function of x alone. (Please proceed systematically for full credit. Brute force application of
known result will yield zero credit).
Estimate the heat transfer from a 40 W incandescent bulb at 127oC to 27oC quiescent air.
Approximate the bulb as a 50 mm diameter sphere. What percentage of the power is lost by
free convection?
What is the boundary layer thickness? What do you mean by laminar and turbulent boundary
layers? What is laminar sub layer?
Explain the flow regimes in two phase flow through a tube. What is the difference between
slug flow regime and annular flow regime?
Saturated steam at atmospheric pressure condenses on a horizontal copper tube of 25 mm
inner diameter and 29 mm outer diameter through which water flows at the rate of 30 kg/min
entering at 320C and leave at 720C. Calculate: (a) the condensing heat transfer coefficient, (b)
the inside heat transfer coefficient and (c) the length of the tube.
Define heat exchanger effectiveness and explain its significance.
In a counter flow double pipe heat exchanger water is heated from 400C to 800C with oil
entering at 1050C and leaving at 700C.Taking the overall heat transfer coefficient as 300
W/m2k and the water flow rate as 0.1Kg/s. Calculate the heat exchanger area
Explain the following laws relevant to radiation heat transfer:
(i) Kirchhoffs law. (ii) Wiens displacement law. (iii) Plancks law. (iv) Lambert Law.
51
T
4
P
0
C
4
(9A03503)
MACHINE TOOLS
UNIT I
Elementary treatment of metal cutting theory Elements of cutting process Geometry of single point tooland
angles chip formation and types of chips built up edge and its effects, chip breakers. Mechanics ofOrthogonal
cutting Merchants Force diagram, cutting forces cutting speeds, feed, depth of cut, tool life,coolants,
machinability economics- Tool materials.
UNIT II
Engine lathe Principle of working, specification of lathe types of lathes work holders, tool holders
BoxTools, Taper turning, thread turning and attachments for Lathes.
Turret and capstan lathes collet chucks other work holders tool holding devices box and tool layout.
Principal features of automatic lathes classification Single spindle and multi-spindle automatic lathes tool
layout and cam design.
UNIT III
Shaping, Slotting and Planning machines their Principles of working Principal parts specification,
classification,Operations performed. Kinematic scheme of the shaping slotting and planning machines,
machining time calculations.
UNIT IV
Drilling and Boring Machines Principles of working, specifications, types, operations performed tool
holding devices twist drill Boring machines Fine boring machines Jig Boring machine. Deep hole
drilling machine. Kinematics scheme of the drilling and boring machines
UNIT V
Milling machine Principles of working specifications classifications of milling machines Principal
features of horizontal, vertical and universal milling machines machining operations, Types and geometry of
milling cutters methods of indexing Accessories to milling machines.
UNIT VI
Grinding machine Theory of grinding classification of grinding machine cylindrical and
surface grinding machine Tool and cutter grinding machine special types of grinding machines Grinding
wheel:Different types of abrasives bonds, specification and selection of a grinding wheel
UNIT - VII
Lapping, Honing and Broaching machines comparison of grinding, lapping and honing. Lapping, Honing
and Broaching machines: Constructional features, speed and feed Units, machining time calculations
UNIT - VIII
Principles of design of Jigs and fixtures and uses. Classification of Jigs & Fixtures Principles of location and
clamping Types of clamping & work holding devices. Typical examples of jigs and fixtures.
TEXT BOOKS :
1. Production Technology, R.K. Jain and S.C. Gupta.
2. Workshop Technology Vol II, B.S. Raghuvamshi.
REFERENCES :
1. Machine Tools, C.Elanhezhian and M. Vijayan, Anuradha Agencies Publishers.
52
MACHINE TOOLS
Know about different types of machines viz. Lathe, Shaper, Slotter, Planer, Borer, Drill Press, Milling
53
Week
Topic to be covered
II
14
III
No.of
Hours
13
54
2
IV
05
08
VI
Lapping Machines
Honing Machines
VII
VIII
09
08
55
10
56
75
: 04-09-2012 AN
Max. Marks
: 20
Duration
: 90 min
MACHINE TOOLS
With neat sketches explain the nomenclature of single point cutting tool.
2.
Draw Merchants circle diagram and derive the expressions to show the relationships among the
4.
5.
With neat sketches explain column and knee type milling machines.
2.
Explain the different types of bonds used in grinding wheel. Also mention their merits and de merits.
3.
4.
5.
*****
57
: 10
: 20 min
MACHINE TOOLS
Name
Roll No. :
1.
Metal cutting processes are also known as
[
]
(A) Chip forming processes
(B) Chip less processes
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these
2.
Segmental chips are produced while machining
[
]
(A) Brittle materials
(B) Ductile materials (C) Ductile materials at low speed
(D) Both A & C
3.
------------ is not an example for multi point cutting tool
[
]
(A) Drill bit (B) Broaching tool
(C) Turning tool
(D) Milling cutter
4.
The following Lathe is used for precision work on tools and dies
[
]
(A) Center
(B) Tool Room (C) Bench
(D) Capstan & Turret
5.
The following is the operation of enlarging an already drilled hole through a certain distance
(A) Drilling
(B) Reaming (C) Boring
(D) Counter-boring
[
]
6.
------------ is the velocity of the cutting tool relative to the work piece and is parallel to the generated
surface
[
]
(A) Cutting Velocity (B) Shear Velocity
(C) Chip flow velocity (D) None of these
7.
---------------- is a reciprocating type of machine tool
[
]
(A) Shaper
(B) Slotter
(C) Planer
(D) All of these
8.
The following drilling machine is used for drilling holes in rifle barrels
[
]
(A) Radial
(B) Gang
(C) Multiple Spindle (D) Deep Hole
9.
In which type of Planer, fo
four tool heads can be accommodated
[
]
(A) Open Side
(B) Double Housing
(C) Pit
(D) Divided Table
10.
The following Mandrel is used to support work pieces having internal threads [
]
(A) Step
(B) Collar
(C) Screwed
(D) Gang
11.
--------------------- is used wh
when
en the length is 10 to 12 times the diameter of work piece.
12.
In slotter, the ram holding the tool reciprocates in ------------------------------------axis.
-----------------------------------13.
The value of chip thickness ratio is always -----------------------------------------than
than one.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
[TRUE / FALSE]
20.
Shaping width = Width of the work piece + 2 x Allowance
58
[TRUE / FALSE]
20.In broaching, the sum of thicknesses of all layers taken together is called as feed per tooth.
[TRUE/FALSE]
5.
With neat sketches explain the nomenclature of twist drill.
6.
With a neat sketch explain the basic parts of a jig boring machine
UNIT V
1.
With neat sketches explain column and knee type milling machines.
2.
With neat sketches explain the operations performed on milling machines.
3.
Bring out the differences between up and down milling
4.
With neat sketches explain various types of milling cutters
UNIT VI
1.
Explain the different types of bonds used in grinding wheel. Also mention their merits and de merits.
2.
With a neat sketch explain the principle of centre less grinding.
3.
What are natural and artificial abrasives? Explain
4.
Explain the procedure of specification of grinding wheel.
UNIT - VII
1.
With neat sketches explain the principle of broaching.
2.
Explain the methods of lapping. Explain the advantages.
3.
With a neat sketch explain honing tool.
4.
Explain Push and Pull Braoching.
UNIT VIII
1.
Explain the principles of design of jigs and fixtures.
2.
With neat sketches explain various supporting devices.
3.
With neat sketches explain various locating devices.
4.
Explain the factors to be considered for designing jigs and fixtures.
61
2.
Segmental chips are produced while machining
(A) Brittle materials
(B) Ductile materials (C) Ductile materials at low speed
(D) Both A & C
cutting tool
3.
------------ is not an example for multi point cut
(A) Drill bit (B) Broaching tool
(C) Turning tool
(D) Milling cutter
4.
------------ is the velocity of the cutting tool relative to the work piece and is parallel to the generated
surface
[
]
(A) Cutting Velocity (B) Shear Velocity
(C) Chip flow velocity (D) None of these
5.
The value of chip thickness ratio is always -------------------------------than one.
(A) Greater
(B) Less
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
6.
---------------------- is an element of cutting process
[
]
(A) Work piece(B) Tool
(C) Chip
(D) All of these
7.
------------- is the curved portion at the bottom of the tool, where the base and flank of the tool meet
(A) Face
(B) Shank
(C) Heel
(D) Corner
[
]
8.
When the face of the tool is so ground that it slopes upwards fro
from
m the point is said to contain
(A) Back rake (B) Side rake (C) Negative rake
(D) Positive rake
[
]
9.
------------- type of chip breaker is commonly used with carbide tipped tools
[
]
(A) Step
(B) Groove
(C) Secondary Rake
(D) Clamp
10.
-------------- is the ability of the tool material to retain its hardness even at elevated temperatures
(A) Wear Resistance (B) Toughness
(C) Hot Hardness
(D) All of these
UNIT-II
1.
The following Lathe is used for precision work on tools and dies
[
]
(A) Center
(B) Tool Room (C) Bench
(D) Capstan & Turret
2.
The following is the operation of enlarging an already drilled hole through a certain distance
(A) Drilling
(B) Reaming (C) Boring
(D) Counter-boring
[
]
3.
Facing operation results in reduction of -----------------------------[
]
(A) Diameter (B) Length
(C) Both
(D) None of these
4.
Turning operation results in reduction of -----------------------------[
]
(A) Diameter (B) Length
(C) Both
(D) None of these
5.
In a Lathe, Bed is made of ------------------ material
[
]
(A) Alloy Steel (B) Mild Steel
(C) Cast Iron (D) Aluminium
6.
------------------- is the operation of cutting the work piece after it is being machined to the required
shape and size
[
]
62
be carried out.
]
]
]
]
]
]
]
]
]
7.
External keyways are cut on --------------[
]
(A) Gears
(B) Pulleys
(C) Shafts
(D) All of these
8.
In slotter, longitudinal feed is achieved by moving
[
]
(A) Saddle
(B) Cross slide (C) Table
(D) All of these
9.
In ---- planer, the table is stationery and the column carrying the cross rail reciprocates [ ]
(A) Open Side
(B) Double Housing
(C) Pit
(D) Divided Table
10.
In shaper, length of stroke is --------------- than length of work piece
[
]
(A) Longer
(B) Shorter
(C) Equal
(D) None of these
UNIT-IV
1.
The following drilling machine is used for drilling holes in rifle barrels
[
]
(A) Radial
(B) Gang
(C) Multiple Spindle (D) Deep Hole
2.
------------ drilling machine is used to drill a number of holes in a piece of work simultaneously and to
reproduce the same pattern of holes in a number of identical work pieces
[
]
(A) Radial
(B) Gang
(C) Multiple Spindle (D) Deep Hole
3.
------------ is used when the tapered tool shank is larger than spindle taper
[
]
(A) Sleeve
(B) Socket
(C) Chuck
(D) Special Attachment
4.
---------------- is the operation of smoothing and squaring the surface around the hole for the seat for a
nut or a head of a screw
[
]
(A) Counter boring
(B) Countersinking
(C) Spot Facing (D) Drilling
5. -------------- is the operation of producing a hole in the work piece
[
]
(A) Counter boring
(B) Countersinking
(C) Spot Facing (D) Drilling
6. The small diameter cylindrical portion that separates body and shank of the drill is
[
]
(A) Neck
(B) Tang
(C) Point
(D) Shank
63
7. ---------- is the portion of the drill which is gripped in the holding device
[
]
(A) Neck
(B) Tang
(C) Point
(D) Shank
8. The maximum size of the drill that can be accommodated by a portable drilling machine is [ ]
(A) 18 mm
(B) 30 mm
(C) 40 mm
(D) 50 mm
9. In Plain radial drilling machine, ----------- principal movements are possible [
]
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
10. --------- is the operation of finishing an already drilled hole
[
]
(A) Drilling
(B) Boring
(C) Reaming (D) Tapping
UNIT - V
4. If the size of the shanks of the milling cutter is smaller than that of the hole in the spindle nose,
then --------------------- are used to hold the cutters.
[
]
(A) Adaptors
(B) Arbors
(C) Shank
(D) Sleeve
5. ------------- is the process employed for machining a flat surface which is at right angles to the
axis of the cutter
[
]
(A) Face Milling
(B) Plain Milling
(C) Form Milling
(D) None of these
6. Side milling cutters are also called as ----------------------- when used in pairs
[
]
(A) Straddle Mills
(B) Face Mills
(C) End Mill
(D) None of these
4. The following is a fixed bed type milling machine----------------------------------[
]
(A) Universal (B) Duplex Head
(C) Omniversal (D) All of these
5.
Triplex head fixed bed type milling machine carries two horizontal and one vertical spindle.
6.
In column and knee type milling machines, the work is supported on a knee like casting.
7.
Universal machine vice is best suited for tool room work and should not be used where heavy cuts are
to be employed.
8.
Circular milling attachment is employed for indexing as well as providing continuous rotary motion to
the work.
9.
In Up or Conventional Milling, the cutter rotates in a direction opposite to that in which the work is
fed.
10.
Corner rounding milling cutters are used for milling the edges and corners of the jobs to required
radius.
UNIT VI
1. ---------------- abrasive is made from silicon dioxide, coke , saw dust and salt
[
]
(A) SiC
(B) Al2O3
(C) Both A & B (D) None of these
2. ------------ is the base material for silicate bond
[
]
(A) Silicate of soda
(B) Felspar
(C) Oxides and Chlorides of Mg (D) None of these
3. For vitrified bond, the inside temperature of kiln is
[
]
0
0
0
(A) 60 C
(B) 260 C
(C) 1260 C
(D) None of these
4. In Plain Cylindrical type of grinding machines, the work piece is usually held between two centers.
5. Sand stone is a natural abrasive
[TRUE/FALSE]
6. Artificial Abrasives are manufactured under controlled conditions in closed electric furnaces in order to
avoid the introduction of impurities and to achieve necessary temperature for chemical reactions to take place.
7.
8.
9.
The common trade names for aluminium oxide are Alundum, Aloxite, Borolon.
Structure is the term used for denoting the space between the abrasives.
The principle of centerless grinding can be employed for both external and internal grinding.
64
10.
According to the table movement, the surface grinders can be classified as reciprocating table type and
rotary table type.
UNIT - VII
1. -------------- is the operation of running two mating parts or shapes together with an abrasive in between
them
[
]
(A) Equalising Lapping (B) Form Lapping
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these
2. The material used for making a lap should soft so that the abrasive grains can be easily embedded into its
surface.
3. Surface finishing operations are also called as micro finishing operations.
4. The term vehicle in lapping is used to denote the lubricant used to hold or retain the abrasive grains during
the operation.
5. For cleaning laps, naphtha is commonly used.
[TRUE/FALSE]
6. Honing is an abrading process mostly used for finishing internal cylindrical surfaces.
7.
Honing is a wet process and it is necessary that a coolant be used in ample quantity during the
operation.
8.
Honing tool is a bonded abrasive stone made in the form of a stick.
9.
In broaching, the sum of thicknesses of all layers taken together is called as feed per tooth.
[TRUE/FALSE]
10.
According to the method of cutting, broaching machines are classified as Push, Pull or Continuous.
UNIT VIII
1. ------------- is a device used to hold and locate the work piece, guide the cutting tool to work and is
normally not fixed to the machine table
[
]
(A) Jig
(B) Fixture
(C) Both A & B (D) None of these
2. The type of locating device and locating method to be used in a particular jig or a fixture is based on------------------------------[
]
(A) Shape and size of work piece
(B) Type of operation
(C)
Degree of accuracy and surface finish
(D) All of these
3. In all jigs or fixtures, the inserts or pads are made of soft material
[TRUE/FALSE]
4. All locating and supporting surfaces of a jig or a fixture should be made of hardened material
so that they are not quickly worn out.
5. Fixture is a device used to hold and locate the work piece, does not guide the tool and is fixed to the
machine table.
6.Jigs & Fixtures offer high clamping rigidity
[TRUE/FALSE]
7.Jigs & Fixtures enable quick setting and proper location of work
[TRUE/FALSE]
8.According to the principle of six point location, a work piece can be completely restrained by providing three
location points in one plane, two location points in second plane and one location point in third plane.
9.The following are the main elements of a jig or a fixture
[
]
(A) Body
(B) Locating elements
(C) Clamping Elements (D) All of these
10. The following is an important factor to be considered while designing a jig or a fixture
[
]
(A) Type and Capacity of the machine (B) Size, Shape and Weight of the Component
(C) Method of loading & Un loading the component
(D) All of these
Code: 9A03503 1
III B. Tech I Semester (R09) Regular & Supplementary Examinations, November 2012
MACHINE TOOLS
(Mechanical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max. Marks: 70
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
1
Differentiate orthogonal cutting and oblique cutting with neat sketches.
2
Explain various work holding and tool holding device used on turret and capstan lathes.
3
( How is the size of the shaper determined?
(b) How are shapers classified?
4
Explain various operations performed on a drilling machine in detail.
5
Classify and explain briefly, various types of column and knee type milling machines.
6
( What do you understand by a silicate bond?
(b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of this bond?
7
( Compare and contrast broaching and honing.
(b) List the application of broaching.
8
Discuss the importance considerations in jig and fixture design.
Code: 9A03503 2
III B. Tech I Semester (R09) Regular & Supplementary Examinations, November 2012
MACHINE TOOLS
(Mechanical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
1
With a neat sketch, explain the basic elements of any machining operation.
2
List various tools and attachments used on turret and capstan lathe. Explain some of them.
3
( Explain the importance of slotting machine in a machine shop.
(b Explain the operations performed on a slotting machine.
4
( What do you mean by drilling, milling and boring?
(b
5
6
7
8
66
Code: 9A03503
3
III B. Tech I Semester (R09) Regular & Supplementary Examinations, November 2012
MACHINE TOOLS
(Mechanical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max. Marks: 70
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
1
Discuss about various types of chips produced during machining of various metals
with neat figures.
2
( Describe the different methods of feeding the tool in thread cutting.
(b)
3
4
(b)
5
(b)
6
7
(b)
8
Code: 9A03503 4
III B. Tech I Semester (R09) Regular & Supplementary Examinations, November 2012
MACHINE TOOLS
(Mechanical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max. Marks: 70
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
1
Explain various methods and means of chip breaking.
2
Explain with a neat sketch, the working of an engine lathe.
3
Explain various quick return mechanisms used for shaper machine.
4
What is a twist drill? With a neat sketch explain the principal parts of a twist drill.
5
( What is hand milling machine? Explain its uses.
(b What are the planer type milling machines? Explain their features.
6
What is drilling? Explain the working principle involved in it. Describe the basic components
of a grinding machine.
7
Briefly the constructional features of lapping and broaching machines.
8
Discuss in detail the advantages of using jigs and fixtures in mass production.
67
Week
Dates
CLASS: III
No.of
periods
in week
Topics to be covered
1
5
2
4
3
5
4
5
5
5
7
4
Unit-1
Introduction to Managerial Economics
Definition, Nature and scope of managerial
Economics
Relation with Other Disciplines
Demand Analysis :Demand Determinants
Law of Demand and its Exceptions
Unit-2
Elasticity of Demand
Definition,Types of Elasticity of Demand
Measurement of Elasticity of Demand
Significance of
Elasticity of Demand
,demand forecasting
Factors Governing Demand Forecasting
Methods of demand Forecasting
(Survey Method,Statistical Method
Expert Opinion Method, Test Marketing
Controlled Experiments
Judgemental approach to demand forecasting
UNIT-3
Theory of production and cost analysis
Production function
Isoquants and Isocosts
MRTS
Least cost combination of inputs
Cobb-Douglars production function
Law of returns
Internal and External Economics of sale
Cost analysis
Cost concepts : opportunity cost,fixed VS
variable costs
Explicit costs VS Implicit costs
Out of packet costs VS imputed costs
Break Even analysis(BEA)
Determination of Break Even point
(simple problem)
Managerial significance and limitations of
BEA
UNIT -4
Introduction to markets and pricing policies
Market structures
Types of competition, features of perfect
69
No.of
periods
required
Total
Periods
per unit
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
13
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
8
4
9
5
10
11
5
12
13
14
4
15
5
competitions
Monopoly
Monopolistic competition
Price-output determination under perfect
competition
Monopoly
Methods of pricing cost plus pricing
Marginal cost,limit,pricing,skimming pricing
Bundling pricing
Sealed bid pricing and peak load pricing
UNIT-5
Business organizations and new Economics
development
Charecteristic features of business
Features
and
Evaluation
of
sole
proprietorship
Joint stock company
Public enterprices and their types
Changing business environment in
post liberalization scenario
UNIT-6
Capital and capital budgeting
Capital and its significance
Types of capital
Estimation of fixed and working capital
requirements
Methods and sources of raising finance
Nature and scope of capital budgeting
Features of capital proposal
Methods of capital budgeting pay back
method
Acconting rate of return(ARR) and
Net present value method
(simple problems)
UNIT-7
Introduction to financial accounting
Double entry book keeping
Jounal,Ledger,Trial balance
Final accounts(trading accounts)
Profit and loss account
Simple problems
Balance sheet
With simple adjustments
Problems
UNIT-8
Financial
analysis
through
ratios,Computation
Analysis and interpretation of financial
statements
Through liquidity ratios(current and quick
70
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
10
ratio)
Activity ratio and
Debtor turnover ratio
16
4
17
Subject: MEFA
71
70
Branch: EEE
Time: 90min
Date:
Sub: MEFA
09-2012
Max.marks:30
Branch: EEE
Time: 90min
Date: 11-2012
Sub: MEFA
Max.marks:30
SET-1
SUB: MEFA
TIME : 0.30Min
Marks: 10
NAME____________________________________________ROLL NO____________________________
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
1. Integration of Economic Theory with business practice is called
[
]
A. Managerial Economics
B. Economics
C. Macro Economics D. Micro Economics
2. Managerial Economics as a subject gained popularly first in___________
[
]
A. India
B. Germany
C. U.S.A
D. England
3.Economics is the study of scarce resources and unlimited wants, Who is said that?
[
]
A. Paul A. Samuelson
B. Prof. Lionel Robbins C. Adam smith
D. Alfred Marshall
4. Which of the following pairs of goods is an example of substitutes ?
[
]
A. Tea and sugar
B. Car and petrol
C. Tea and Coffee
D. Shirt and Pant
5. Which of the following pairs of goods is example of complementary goods
[
]
A. Car and Petrol
B. Tea and Coffee
C. Shirt and Pant
D. Pen and Fan
6. In case of Giffen goods, the demand curve
[
]
A. Slopes downwards
B. Intersects supply curve C. Slopes upwards
D. Meets cost curve
7. In case of unity elasticity, the elasticity is equal to
[
]
A. One
B. Greater than one
C. Less than one
D. Two
8. The elasticity between two separate points of demand curve is called_______ elasticity
[
]
A. Point
B. Arc
C. Total outlay
D. Zero
9. _________ describes the degree of association between two variables
[
]
A. Correlation
B. Relation
C. Regression
D. Precision
10. Which of the following results from the sporadic occurrence of strikes, riots and so on
[
]
A. Trend
B. Cyclic trend
C. Seasonal trend
D. Erratic trend
11. Conversion of inputs into output is called ___________
[
]
A. Production
B. Expenditure
C. Income
D. Sales
12. Iso-quants are also called
[ ]
A. Iso cost curves
B. Iso product curves
C. AR curves
D. MR curves
13. The cost of the next best alternative foregone is known as
[ ]
A. Implicit cost
C. Sunk costs
C. Opportunity cost D. Controllable cost
14. Which of the following is a technique for profit planning and control
[ ]
A. Cost control
B. Sales control
C. Break one point D. Break even Analysis
15. Contribution is defined as
[ ]
A. Total costvariable cost
B. Fixed cost+ profit
C. Selling price+ variable cost
D. Selling pricevariable cost
16. ______________ is the example for perishable goods
[ ]
A. Pens
B. Belts
C. Vegetables
D. Cloths
17. ______is a form of market organization in which there is only one seller of the commodity
[ ]
A. Oligopoly
B. Monopoly
C. Duopoly
D. Perfect
competition
18. The firm is said to be in equilibrium, when its marginal cost equals to
[ ]
a. Marginal revenue
B. Total cost
C. Total revenue
D. Average cost
19. The price discrimination is also called as
[ ]
A. Standard pricing
B. Differential pricing
C. Preferential pricing D. Equal pricing
20. under which pricing method, price just equals Average cost
[ ]
A. Marginal cost pricing
B. Cost plus pricing
C. Full cost pricing
D. Equal pricing
VISVODAYA TECHNICAL ACADAMY, KAVALI
III B. Tech(EEE & Mechanical & CIVIL)
SUB: MEFA
QUESTION BANK
UNIT-1: INTRODUCTION TO MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS
73
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a) Regression
b) Relation
c) Correlation
d) Precision
11. The elasticity between two separate points of demand curve is called Arc
elasticity.
12. Rate of responsiveness in demand of a commodity for a given change in price is called elasticity
13. Censes method is also called
Total enumeration
method.
14. When past data is arranged chronologically Total enumeration method.
15. One set of data is used to predict in a limited market to assess its acceptability among limited
Number of customers is called
Test marketing.
UNIT-3: THEORY OF PRODUCTION AND COST ANALYSIS.
1. Conversion of inputs into output is called as ______________
[C]
a). Sales
b)Income
c)Production
d)Expenditure
2. Iso-quants are also called
[ A]
a) Iso product curves
b) Iso cost curves
c) Price indifference curves d)AR curves
3. The costs of the next best alternative fore gone is known as
[C]
a) Implicit cost
b) Sunk costs
c)Opportunity cost
d) Controllable cost
4. Which of the following are fixed in the short run?
[D]
a) Variable cost
b) Semi-variable cost
c) Semi fixed costs
d) Fixed costs
5. Which of the following varies with the volume of production?
[B]
a) Fixed costs
b) Variable costs
c) Semi fixed costs d) Semi variable cost
6. Explicit costs are called
[D]
a) In house costs
b) Non cash costs
c)In pocket costs
d) Out of pocket costs
7. Implicit or imputed costs are also called
[C]
a) Future costs
b) Controllable costs
c) Book costs
d) Joint costs
8. Which of the following is a technique for profit planning and control
[A]
a) Break even analysis
b) Break one point
c) Cost unit
d) cost control
9. Contribution is defined as
[ D]
a) Total costvariable cost
b) Fixed cost+ Profit
c) Selling price+ variable cost
d) Selling priceVariable cost
10. Production is governed by certain laws of returns to scale, Which are known as
[B]
A ) Diseconomies of scale
b) Economies of scale
c) Nominal scale
d) Ordinal scale
11. law of returns is also called Law of variable proportions
12. Tenders are based on sealed bid
pricing.
13. Telephone bills is an example of Semi-fixed or semi-variable costs.
14.A firm is said to be attain the BEP where TR=TC
15. Contribution minus fixed cost is called
profit
UNIT4: INTRODUCTION TO MARKETS & PRICING STRATEGIES.
1. Exchange value of a unit of good expressed in terms of money is called
[C}
a) Cost
b) Capital
c) Price
d) Expenditure
2. __________ is a place in which goods and services are bought and sold
[C]
a) Factory
b) Work shop
c) Market
d) Warehouse
3. __________ is the example for Perishable goods.
[C]
a) Pens
b) Belts
c) Vegetables
d) Cloths
4. In which period, the supply of commodity is fixed
[C ]
a) Short period
b) long period
c) Very short period
d) very long period
5.The price at which demand and supply of a commodity equal is known as
[C]
a) High price
b) Low price
c) equilibrium price
d) Marginal price
6. In which market single market price prevails for the commodity.
[D]
a) Monopoly market
b) Duopoly market
c) Oligopoly market
d) Perfect competition
7._________ is a form of market organization in which there is only one seller of the commodity [ A ]
a) Monopoly
b) Perfect competition
c) Duopoly
d) Oligopoly
76
77
Code: 9AHS401
IV B. Tech I Semester (R09) Regular Examinations, November 2012
MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS & FINANCIAL ANALYSIS
(Common to CSE, IT & CSS)
Time: 3 hours
Max. Marks: 70
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
1
(a Define managerial economics. Explain its scope.
(b)
Distinguish between economics and managerial economics with suitable examples.
2
What do you understand by Elasticity of Demand? What are types of elasticity of demand?
3
Explain how do you determine breakeven point in volume and value? Explain graphically.
4
How does an individual firm behave under perfect completion? Also explain the firm and industry
equilibrium under perfect competition.
5
Discuss about the short-comings of the public sector enterprises in India and what is their future.
6
(a Define capital budgeting. Explain its importance.
(b)
How is useful of payback period method? Explain its features and limitations.
7
(a What is Journal Entry and describes its importance in account books?
(b)
Explain the basic accounting concepts and convention, Give examples.
8
Discuss the importance of ratio analysis for inter firm and intra-firm comparison, including
circumstances responsible for its limitations, if any.
Code: 9AHS401
IV B. Tech I Semester (R09) Regular Examinations, November 2012
MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS & FINANCIAL ANALYSIS
(Common to CSE, IT & CSS)
Time: 3 hours
Max. Marks: 70
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
1
Elaborate the importance of managerial economics in decision making.
2
How do you measure elasticity of demand? Illustrate graphically.
3
What do you understand by cost output relationship? Explain how costs behave in the
short run.
4
Define market. Distinguish between perfect and imperfect markets.
5
( Define partnership and explain its silent features and limitations.
(b What are the qualities of a good partner?
6
( What is capital? Explain the types and significance of capital.
(b Explain the concept of working capital, its features & limitations.
7
Explain the following in briefly:(a) Double entry system. (b) Book keeping.
(c) Capital. (d) Income.
8
How ratios are classified for the purpose of financial analysis? With assumed data,
illustrate any two types of ratios under each category.
78
2.
Basic and Applied Thermodynamics / P.K. Nag/TMH
REFERENCES:
1.
Gas Turbines V.Ganesan /TMH
2.
Thermodynamics and Heat Engines / R. Yadav / Central Book Depot
3.
Gas Turbines and Propulsive Systems P.Khajuria & S.P.Dubey - /Dhanpatrai
4.
Thermal Engineering-R.S Khurmi/JS Gupta/S.Chand.
5.
Thermal Engineering-M.L.Mathur & Mehta/Jain bros.
6.
Thermal Engineering Data Book B. S. Reddy and K. H. Reddy / I.K. International
Question Paper Pattern:
80
81
82
QUESTION BANK
THERMAL ENGINEERING II
UNIT I
1. (a) Describe the different processes of Rankine cycle. Derive the expression for its efficiency and show them
on P-v and T-s diagrams..
(b) A simple Rankine cycle works between pressure of 30 bar and 0.04 bar, the initial condition of steam being
dry saturated, calculate the cycle efficiency, work ratio and specific steam consumption.
2. (a) Explain with the help of neat diagrams a Regenerative cycle. Derive also an expression for its thermal
eficiency.
(b) In a regenerative cycle the inlet conditions are 40 bar and 4000 C. Steam is bled at 10 bar in regenerative
heating. The exit pressure is 0.8 bar. Neglecting pump work, determine the efficiency of the cycle.
3. A steam generator delivers steam at 100 bar, 5000 C. The feed water inlet temperature is 160oc The steam
generation rate is 100,000 kg/hr and the steam generator efficiency is 88%. Determine: i. The fuel burning
rate in kg/hr, if the calorific value of the fuel is 21 MJ/kg, ii. The percentage of total heat absorbed in the
economizer, evaporator and super heater. Assume that only latent heat is absorbed in the evaporator and
neglect any pressure drop.
4. (a) Draw the T-S and H-S diagrams of reheat cycle representing all the salient points.
(b) In a steam power plant the condition of steam at inlet to the turbine is 20 bar, 3000 C and the condenser
pressure is 0.1 bar. Two feed-water heaters operate at optimum temperatures of 1500 C and 1000 C.
Determine the quality of steam at turbine exhaust, cycle efficiency and fraction of steam bleed into heaters.
5. Steam at a pressure of 15 bar and 3000 C is supplied to the throttle of an engine. The steam expands to 2 bar
when release occurs. The exhaust takes place at 1.1 bar. A performance test gave the result of the specific
steam consumption of 12.8kg/kWh and mechanical efficiency of 80%. Determine
i) Ideal work on the modified rankine engine,
ii) Ideal thermal efficiency,
iii) Brake thermal efficiency.
6. (a) Explain the difference between Carnot cycle and Rankine cycle. Why do you think Carnot cycle is not
suitable for steam power plants.
(b) In a Rankine cycle, the steam at inlet to turbine is saturated at a pressure of 30 bar and the exhaust
pressure is 0.25 bar, Determine.
i. the pump work ii.Turbine work
iii.Rankine cycle efficiency iv. Dryness fraction of steam at the end of expansion.
Assuming the steam flow rate as 10 kg/sec.
UNIT II
1. (a) Explain the features of high pressure boilers and list the merits HP boilers.
(b) What is the function of boiler mounting? Discuss with a neat sketch any one type of the mountings.
2. In a boiler trail of one hour duration the following observations were made: Steam generated = 5250 kg, coal
burnt = 695 kg, calorific value of coal = 30200 kJ/kg, dryness fraction of steam = 0.94, rated pressure of the
boiler = 12 bar, temperature of steam leaving the super heater = 240 0C, temperature of hot well = 470C.
Calculate (a) Equivalent evaporation per kg of fuel without super heater
(b) Equivalent evaporation per kg of fuel with super heater
(c) thermal efficiency of the boiler without super heater
(d) thermal efficiency of the boiler with super heater
(e) heat supplied by the super heater per hour. Take Cp of steam as 2.184 kJ/kg K.
3. (a) Enumerate the various accessories and mountings normally used in a steam generating plant
(b) A boiler with super heater generates 6000 kg/hr of steam at 15 bar and 0.8 dryness. The boiler exit
temperature is 300 0C. The feed water temperature is 80 0C. The overall efficiency of the plant is 85%.
Determine the consumption rate, assuming a calorific value of 30000kJ/kg Also find the equivalent
evaporation from and at100 0C. What will be the area of super heater surface if the overall heat transfer
coefficient is 4,50,000 kJ/m2-hr?
4. (a) How are the steam boilers classified?
(b) Sketch and describe the working of Lancashire boiler.
5. (a) Discuss the function, construction and working principle of pressure reducing value.
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(b) What are various types of boiler drauqhts. Explain each of them.
6. (a) Discuss the construction and working of Cochran boiler.
(b) Differentiate between artificialcial and natural draught.
7. (a) Discuss the construction and working principle of fusible plug, feed check value and blowof cock.
(b) Estimate the draught, in mm of water column produced by a chimney of 30m height. The average
temperature of hot gases is 498 K and the temperature of outside an is 293K. The quantity of air supplied is
18 kg per kg of fuel.
8. (a) Describe the construction and working principle of locomotive boiler.
(b) Deduce a expression showing the relation between the draught, chimney height temperature of flue gas
and mass of air.
UNIT III
1. (a) Explain the terms over expanding and under expanding as applied to a fluid flow through a nozzle.
(b) Describe the changes which occur in a convergent divergent nozzle as the back pressure is slowly
increased from the design pressure up to the pressure at entry
2. (a) Derive expression for mass of steam discharged through steam nozzle.
(b) At one stage of a steam turbine, the nozzles expand 9 kg of steam per second from a pressure of 15 bar
and 2500 C to 6 bar. The actual heat drop in the nozzle is 175 kJ. Calculate the number of nozzles required
for a given outlet area for each nozzle approximately 3.5 sq.cm. and adjust the outlet dimensions to suit this
number.
3. (a) Derive the expression for the critical pressure ratio to the index of expansion n a steam nozzle.
(b) Find the maximum discharge and exit diameter of a convergent-divergent nozzle which receives dry and
saturated steam at 15 bar and discharges to an impulse turbine at 0.3 bar. Neglect friction and take throat
diameter equal to 8 mm.
4. (a) Steam is supplied to a nozzle at 13 bar, 0.9 dryness fraction and expands to 1.4 bar. The velocity at throat
pressure of 8 bar is 3% less than the theoretical value and complete expansion takes place with an efficiency
ratio of 0.9. If the throat section of each nozzle is to be about 1 sq.cm., determine suitable number of nozzles
and specify the proper throat and outlet areas. The steam discharge through the nozzle is at the rate of 5kg/s.
5. (a) What do you mean by critical pressure ratio for the nozzle.
(b) Dry saturated steam at a pressure of 8 bar enters a convergent-divergent nozzle and leaves it at a
pressure of 1.5 Bar. If the flow is isentropic and corresponding find ratio of cross sectional area at exit and
throat for maximum discharge.
UNIT IV 1. In a single row wheel impulse turbine the mean diameter of the blade is 1m. It runs at 3000 rpm. The steam
issues from the nozzle at a velocity of 350 m/s and the nozzle angle is 200. The rotor blades are equiangular.
The blade friction factor is 0.86. Determine the power developed if the axial thrust on the end bearing of a
rotor is 118N.
2. What is compounding? Describe various ways of compounding impulse turbines and give their merits and
demerits.
3. The rotational speed of an impulse steam turbine wheel is 3000 rpm. The nozzle is inclined at 200 to the
plane of the wheel and its efficiency is 0.885. The isentropic heat drop for the stage is 160 kJ/kg. If the ratio of
blade speed to steam speed is 0.4, the blade velocity coefficient is 0.82 and the blade efficiency is 0.76, find
(a) the mean blade ring diameter
(b) the residual energy of steam at outlet in kJ/kg of steam and
(c) the power developed by the wheel when the steam flow is 15 kg/s.
4. (a) What are the various losses generally occur in a steam turbine?
(b) The outlet area of a nozzle in a simple impulse turbine is 15 cm2 and steam leaves the nozzle at 1.4 bar,
0.9 dry and with a velocity 650 m/s. The nozzles are inclined at 200 to the plane of the wheel, the blade speed
is 250 m/s, the blade exit angle is 300 and the blade velocity coefficient is 0.8. Estimate the power developed
and steam consumption per kilowatt - hour.
5. In a Delaval turbine, the steam issues from the nozzles with a velocity of 850m/s. the nozzle angle is 200.
Mean blade velocity is 350m/s.the blades are equiangular. The mass flow rate is 1000kg/min.friction factor is
0.8.determine: (a) Blade angles
(b) Axial thrust on the end bearing
(c) Power developed in kW
(d) Blade efficiency
(e) Stage efficiency, if nozzle efficiency is 93
6. The following particulars relate to a two row velocity compounded impulse turbine which forms the first stage
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of combination turbine. Steam velocity at nozzle output angle is 160. Outlet angle, first row of moving blades is
180. Outlet angle fixed blade is 220 outlet angle, second row of moving blades is 360. Steam flow rate is
2.5kg/sec. The ratio of the relative velocity of outlet to inlet is 0.84 for all blades. Determine for each row of
moving blades the following: (a) the velocity of whirl (b)The tangential thrust on blades (c) axial thrust on
blades (d) the power developed.
7. In a two-row velocity-compounded stage for an impulse turbine the initial speed of steam nozzle is 550 m/sec
The speed of blades is 107 m/sec. The nozzle angle is 180 and the discharge angles of the three rows of
blades in order are 21.50 ,280 and 450.Assuming loss due to friction at15% in each row of blades, find the work
done by the steam per kg and the efficiency of the blading. Assuming constant volume rate of steam find the
height required for each row of blades, taking the height of nozzles as 17.75 cm.
UNIT V
1. Derive the condition for maximum efficiency of reaction turbine.
2. In a Parsons reaction turbine of 50% degree of reaction running at 25 r p s the available enthalpy drop for an expansion
is 62.8 kJ/kg. If the mean diameter of the rotor is 1 m, find the number of rows of moving blades required. The outlet
blade angle is 200 and speed ratio is 0.7. Assume that the stage efficiency is 80%.
3. (a) Explain the functionality of reaction steam turbine with suitable diagram.
And how it is different from the impulse turbine?
(b) What are different losses that are occurring in reaction turbine? Explain with preventive measures.
4. At a certain pair of a reaction turbine, the steam leaves the fixed blade at a pressure of 3 bar with a dryness fraction of
0.98 and a velocity of 130 m/s. The blades are 20 mm high and discharge angle for both the rings are 200. The ratio of
axial velocity of flow to the blade velocity is 0.7 at inlet and 0.76 at the exit from the moving blade. If the turbine uses 4
kg of steam per second with 5% tip leakage, find the mean blade diameter and the power developed.
5. In a stage of impulse reaction turbine provided with single row wheel, the mean diameter of the blades is 1metre.it turns
at 3000r.p.m.the steam issues from the nozzle at a velocity of 350m/sec and the nozzle angle is 200. The rotor blades are
equiangular. The blade friction factor is 0.86.determine the power developed if the axial thrust on the end bearing of a
rotor is 118N.
UNIT VI
1. (a) Derive the equations for the estimation of vacuum efficiency and condenser efficiency.
(b) Find the weight of cooling water required in the surface condenser of 3000 kW, steam power plant with the following
data Steam used = 10 kg/kWhr; Exhaust steam condition = 0.9 dry; pressure in the condenser = 0.1 bar; Hot well
temperature = 32 0C; cooling water inlet temperature = 25 0C; cooling water outlet temperature = 32 0C; temperature of
steam at entrance = 40 0C. And also calculate the vacuum efficiency.
2. (a) What are the functions of condensers in a steam power plant? Explain with a simple diagram.
(b) A surface condenser is designed to handle 10,000 kg of steam per hr. The steam enters at 0.08 bar and 0.9 dry and the
condensate leaves at the corresponding saturation temperature. The pressure is constant throughout the condenser.
Estimate cooling water flow rate per hr, if the cooling water temperature rise is limited to 10 0C.
3. (a) Draw the schematic diagram of low level counter flow jet condenser and explain its working
principle.
(b) What are the advantages and limitations of surface condensers over jet condensers?
4. (a) Explain the working principle of counter flow jet condenser with neat sketch? and discuss the merits and demerits.
(b) Determine the area at throat and at the exit, and also the velocity at the exit for the given mass flow rate of 0.2 kg/s.
The inlet conditions are 10 bar pressure and 2750C temperature and the exit pressure is 2 bar. Assume that the expansion
is isentropic and that the inlet velocity is negligible.
5. (a) Explain the working of a ejector condenser.
(b) In a surface condenser the vacuum maintained is 700 mm of Hg. The Barometer reads 754 mm of Hg. If the
temperature of condensate is 180C. Determine i. Mass of air per Kg of the steam. ii. vacuum efficiency.
UNIT VII
1. (a) What are different assumptions made in evaluation of thermal efficiency of Brayton cycle and derive thermal
efficiency equation.
(b) A gas turbine plant is supplied with air at a pressure of 1 bar and 300 K. The air is then
compressed to a pressure of 5 bar and then heated to 8500C in the combustion chamber. Calculate the thermal efficiency
of the cycle.
2. (a) What are different parameters influence the performance of gas turbine cycle .Explain.(b) In a gas turbine power
cycle, the pressure ratio is 6 and the maximum cycle temperature is 650 0C. The air enters to the cylinder at 15 0C and the
flow rate of air is 12 kg/s. Determine the power developed and thermal efficiency of cycle.
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3. A gas turbine cycle has a perfect heat exchanger in which air enters the compressor at a
temperature and pressure of 300 K and 1 bar and discharges at 475 K and 5 bar. After passing through the heat exchanger
the air temperature increases to 655 K. The temperature of air entering and leaving the turbine 870 0C and 450 0C.
Assuming no pressure drop through the heat exchanger, the compute the output per kg of air, the efficiency of the cycle
and the work output to drive the compressor.
4. (a) What are essential components required for the operation of gas turbine cycle and explain their functionality.
5. (a) The following data is refers to a closed cycle gas turbine plant Atmospheric Air temperature 270C, Maximum
temperature of the cycle 8230C, Pressure at compressor inlet 1 bar, Pressure ratio 4, Compressor efficiency 80%, Turbine
efficiency 85%, Heating value of fuel 41,800 kJ/Kg,
Turbine efficiency 80%, Heater loss 10% of Heating value Find.
i. Work ratio
ii. Turbine work
iii. Compressor work
iv. Heat supplied Assume the working substance is Air ,regard as simple gas with Cp = 1 KJ/Kg 0K and = 1.4
(b) What is regeneration in gas turbines.
UNIT VIII 1. A turbojet engine is traveling at 920 km/h at standard sea level conditions. The ram efficiency is 0.87 and
compression ratio is 4.3, the compressor efficiency is 0.82 and the burner pressure loss is 2%. The air fuel ratio is 0.0119,
the turbine inlet temperature is 950 K, the turbine efficiency is 0.83 and equivalent nozzle efficiency is 0.96. Calculate
(a) the specific gross thrust and
(b) the thrust specific fuel consumption.
2. (a) What is meant by jet propulsions? What are the basic differences between jet propulsion cycles and shaft power
cycles.
(b) Draw the typical layout of gas pressurization system and explain its working principle. Compare with the pump
pressurization system.
3. (a) What is meant by thrust? Derive its equation of turboprop engine from the first principles.
(b) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of bipropellants used in rocket engines over
monopropellants.
4. A turbojet engine is being used to propel an aeroplane with the drag of 3900 N and the coefficient of drag is 0.01835.
The wing area is 21.25 m2, the air consumption per second of the engine is 14.5 kg/s and thrust developed is 8900 N.
Calculate the flight velocity and effective jet velocity and also specific thrust.
5. (a) Explain with a neat sketch a Turbo-jet Unit.
(b) What are the fundamental differences between jet propulsion and rocket propulsion?
6. (a) Where is rocket propulsion is used? What are the kinds of rocket propellants?
(b) Describe a liquid propellant rocket engine with a neat sketch.
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Quiz Bank from Units of V, VI, VII and VIII for MID=II Examination
29. The processes of Brayton cycle are --------------30. While starting, a gas turbine is first motored to minimum speed called [ ]
No load speed (b) motoring speed (c) coming in speed (d) All
31. The maximum temperature in gas turbine is limited to about [ ]
(a)600 to 700K (b) 800 to 900K (c) 1000 to 1200K (d) 1250 to 1500K
32. What factors limits the maximum temperature in gas turbine [ ]
(a)Quality of fuel (b) materials of blades (c) combustion chamber efficiency (d) All
33. Blade materials are---------------- [ ]
(a)Alluminium (b) cost iron (c) cast steel (d) nickel steel
34. The air fuel ratio for gas turbine is about [ ]
(a) 20:1 (b) 30:1 (c) 40:1 (d) 60:1
35. In gas turbine cycle, work output is 600 kj/kg, compressor work is 400 kj/kg and heat
Supplied is 1000 kj/kg, the cycle efficiency is [ ]
(a)20% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 80%
36. In gas turbine cycle, work output is 600 kj/kg, compressor work is 400 kj/kg, the work ratio Is ------------37. The maximum temperature and minimum temperature of gas turbine cycle are 1000K and 300K. The
optimum pressure ratio is --------------38. The maximum temperature and minimum temperature of gas turbine cycle are 1000K and 300K. The
maximum cycle efficiency is --------------39. Work ratio is the ratio of ------------------ and -------------------40. A gas power plant produces 4000 kW power and work ratio is 40%, the compressor work is [ ]
(a)2000 kW (b) 4000 kW (c) 6000 kW (d) 8000 kW
41. Effect of inter cooling in gas turbine cycle [ ]
(a)Decrease in compressor and turbine work (b) Decrease in compressor and increase in net work
(c) increase in both compressor and turbine work (d) All
42. In a gas turbine cycle, the regenerator is used to [ ]
(a)Heat gases from combustion chamber (b) Heat air coming from compressor
cool the gases from turbine (d) None
43. In a gas turbine cycle with regeneration
44. Increase in pressure ratio (b) decrease in work out put (c) increase in cycle efficiency (d) All
45. A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of [ ]
(a)Mass (b) discharge (c) energy (d) momentum
46. In ------ component of jet engine, the KE of air is converted to pressure energy
47. The reduction gearing is provided in [ ]
(a)Turbo jet (b) turbo-propeller (c) ram jet (d) pulse jet
48. Propulsive efficiency is ratio of --------------- and --------------
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1. (a) Explain with the help of neat diagram a Regenerative cycle. Derive also an expression for its thermal efficiency.
(b) A sample of fuel on analysis is found to contain carbon 85%, hydrogen 10%, sulphur 2% and ash 3%. Find the higher
calorific value of the fuel.
2. (a) Derive an expression connecting the height of a chimney and the draught it produces in terms of atmospheric
temperature and mean flue gas temperature.
(b) To provide a natural draught a chimney of height 16 m is used. Calculate
(i) the draught in mm of water when the temperature of chimney gases is such that the mass of the gases discharged is
maximum,
(ii) if the temperature of flue gases does not exceed 3500C, find air supplied per kg of fuel, when discharge is maximum.
Take ambient temperature as 200C.
3. (a) Explain what is meant by critical pressure ratio of a nozzle.
(b) Steam at a pressure of 10 bar and 0.9 dry discharges through a nozzle having throat area of 450 mm2. If the back
pressure is 1 bar, find (i) final velocity of the steam and (ii) cross sectional area of the nozzle at exit for maximum
discharge.
4. (a) What is the principle of operation of steam turbines?
(b) The blade speed of a single ring impulse blading is 250 m/s and nozzle angle is 200. The heat drop is 550 kJ/kg and
nozzle efficiency is 0.85. The blade discharge angle is 300 and the machine develops 30 kW, when consuming 360 kg of
steam per hour. Draw the velocity diagram and
calculate:
(i) Axial thrust on the blading, and
(ii) The heat equivalent per kg of steam friction of the blading.
5. A reaction turbine running at 360 R.P.M. Consumes 5 kg of steam per second. Tip leakage is 10%. Discharge blade tip
angle for both moving and fixed blades is 200. Axial velocity of flow is 0.75 times blade velocity. The power developed
by a certain pair is 4.8 KW where the pressure is 2 bar and dryness fraction is 0.95. Find the drum diameter and blades
height.
6. (a) Explain: (i) Vaccum efficiency (ii) Condenser efficiency.
(b) The pressure under the air baffle of a surface condenser is 52 mm of Hg. Temperature of the
mixture learing the cooler suction is 250C. assuming available water at 15.50C, and external water might lower the
temperature further to 200C. Explain the effect of this on the quantity of vapour accompanying the air to the air pump
suction.
7. In a gas turbine plant, the air at 100C and 1 bar is compressed to 4 bar with compression efficiency of 80%. The air is
heated in the regenerator and the combustion chamber till its temperature is raised to 7000C, and during the process the
pressure falls by 0.14 bar. The air then expanded in the turbine and passes to the regenerator which has 75% effectiveness,
and causes a pressure drop of 0.14 bar. If the isentropic efficiency of the turbine is 85%. Determine the thermal efficiency
of the plant.
8. A turbo-jet engine consumes air at the rate of 60.2 kg/s when flying at a speed of 1000 km/hr.
Calculate:
(i) Exit velocity of; the jet when the enthalpy change for the nozzle is 230 kj/kg and velocity co efficient is 0.96
(ii) Fuel flow rate in kg/sec when air fuel ratio is 70:1
(iii) Thrust specific fuel consumption
(iv) propulsive power
(v) Propulsive efficiency
(vi) overall efficiency.
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Code :R7320306
III B.Tech II Semester(R07) Regular & Supplementary Examinations, April/May 2011
THERMAL ENGINEERING-II
(Mechanical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
Max Marks: 70
1. (a) Give the advantages and disadvantages of regenerative cycle over simple Rankine cycle.
(b) The following data were recorded during an experiment to find the calorific value of a sample of
coal: Mass of coal burnt 1 gm, mass of water in the calorimeter 1020 gm, water equivalent of the calorimeter
170 gm, initial temperature of water 23.30C, final temperature of water 26.20C.
Determine the calorific value of the sample of the coal.
2. (a) Describe, in brief, the construction of a Locomotive boiler. What is the main disadvantage of the
Locomotive boiler?
(b) In a boiler test 1250 kg of coal are consumed in 24 hours. The mass of water evaporated is 13000 kg and
the mean effective pressure is 7 bar. The feed water temperature was 400C, heating value of coal is 30000
kJ/kg. The enthalpy of 1 kg of steam at 7 bar is 2570.7 kJ. Determine:
(i) Equivalent evaporation per kg of coal
(ii) Efficiency of the boiler.
3. (a) Derive an expression for maximum discharge through convergent-divergent nozzle for steam.
(b) Dry air at a temperature of 270C and pressure of 20 bar enters a nozzle and leaves at a pressure of 4 bar.
Find the mass of air discharged, if the area of the nozzle is 200 mm2.
4. (a) Which type of turbine is used in most of steam turbine power plants? Why?
(b) In a certain stage of an impulse turbine, the nozzle angle is 200 with the plane of the wheel. The mean
diameter of the blade ring is 2.8 meters. It develops 55 kW at 2400 r.p.m. Four nozzles, each of 10 mm
diameter expand steam isentropically from 15 bar and 2500C to 0.5 bar. The axial thrust is 3.5 N. Calculate:
(i) blade angles at entrance and exit and
(ii) Power lost in blade friction.
5. Derive the condition for maximum efficiency in a parsons reaction turbine.
6. (a) What are the various methods for obtaining maximum vaccum in condensers?
(b) The air leakage into the condenser operating in conjunction with a steam turbine is estimated at 0.681
kg/min. The vaccum near the outlet to the air pump is 710mm when barometer reads 760 mm of Hg and
temperature at this point is 180C. Find: (i) The minimum capacity of air pump in m3/min. (ii) Mass of vapour
extracted with the air per minute.
7. In a gas turbine plant, the pressure ratio through which air at 150C is compressed is 6. The same air is then
heated to a maximum permissible temperature of 7500C first in a heat exchanger which is 75% efficient, and
then in the combustion chamber. The same air at 7500C is expanded in two stages such that expansion work is
maximum. The air is reheated to 7500C after the first stage. Determine the cycle thermal efficiency, the work
ratio and shaft work per kg of air. The machine efficiencies may be assumed to be 80% and 85% for the
compressor and turbine respectively.
8. For a jet propulsion explain (i) thrust (ii) thrust power (iii) Propulsive efficiency (iv) Thermal efficiency.
Code :R7320306
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1. (a) Explain the modified Rankine cycle with p-V and T-s diagrams.
(b) A bomb calorimeter is used to determine the calorific value of a sample of coal and the following
results are obtained: Mass of coal burnt 1 g, mass of water in the calorimeter 2.5 kg, water
equivalent of the apparatus 0.75 kg, initial temperature of water 17.50C, maximum observed
temperature of water 200C, cooling correction +0.0150C. If the fuel contains 4% of hydrogen, find
the lower calorific value of the fuel.
2. (a) Give the function of the following accessories in a boiler plant
(i) Economizer (ii) Air pre-heater (iii) Feed pump (iv) Injector (v) Super heater
(b) Calculate the draught in mm of water column produced by a chimney 30 m high when the average
temperature of hot gases is 2250 C and the temperature of outside air is 200 C. The quantity of
air supplied is 18 kg / kg of fuel.
3. Draw the discharge versus ratio of pressures at outlet to inlet curve for a convergent steam nozzle.
Discuss the physical significance of critical pressure ratio.
4. (a) What is the effect of blade friction on turbine performance?
(b) Steam issuing from a nozzle at 600 m/s enters the first set of blades of a two row wheel impulse
turbine. The tips of both the set of moving blades are inclined at 300 to the plane of motion.
Find the speed of the blades, so that the steam is finally discharged axially. Neglect friction. Also
find the power developed by the turbine, if the mass of steam supplied to the turbine is 3 kg/s.
5. The following data refer to a particular stage of a parsons reaction turbine: Speed of the turbine =
1500 R.P.M. mean diameter of the rotor = 1 metre; stage efficiency: 80%; Blade outlet angle = 200,
Speed ratio = 0.7. Determine the available isentropic enthalpy drop in the stage.
6. (a) Explain the working principle of an evaporative condenser with a neat sketch.
(b) A steam jet turbo-generator develops 100 KW using 13.6 Kg of steam per kwhr. The exhaust
steam pressure is 0.14 bar and 680.4 Kg of cooling water are passed through the condenser per
minute. The inlet and outlet temperatures are 15.60C and 32.20C respectively. Estimate the
dryness fraction of exhaust steam. Temperature of the hotwell is 350C.
7. A gas turbine set draws in atmospheric air at 1.013 bar and 15.60C, there are two pressure stages
with inter cooler, and the total pressure ratio is 8:1. The maximum temperature of the cycle is 5930C
and there is one turbine for expansion. A regenerator is used and recovers 80% of the available heat.
Determine the efficiency of the plant and the ratio of useful work to turbine work (i.e., work ratio).
The turbine and compressor efficiencies may be taken as 0.86 and 0.83 respectively.
8. Derive the equation for thermal efficiency of a jet nozzle with the help of Brayton cycle for turbo jet
engine.
Code :R7320306
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