EE3

1. Thin-film integrated circuit refers to film thickness of approximately 1um.

2. Classifications of ICs according to functions include linear, digital and microwave. Which of
these classes greatly relies on hybrid technology? Microwave ICs
3. The term monolithic is derived from the Greek words monos and lithos which respectively
mean single and stone (single stone)
4. Devices or components such as transistors and diodes are mostly fabricated in ICs by
diffusion
5. In most planar ICs, what do you call the layer that protects the surface of the chip from
external contaminants? Oxide layer
6. Which comes first in the planar process of fabricating ICs? Crystal growth
7. A technique used for obtaining a relatively large single crystal from a semiconductor
material. the process consists essentially of dipping a tiny seed crystal into a crucible of
molten mass of the same substance and then slowly withdrawing it while rotating. Czochralski
method.
8. In IC fabrications, the substrate is usually produced by Czochralski process.
9. The process used to grow a layer of single-crystal semiconductor as an extension of the
existing crystal wafer of the same material. epitaxial
10. In fabricating ICs using planar technology, what is the basic method of adding impurities?
Diffusion
11. The introduction of impurities into a semiconductor inside a hot furnace during IC
fabrication. Diffusion
12. A method of introducing impurities in IC fabrication wherein the appropriate ions are carried
by an accelerating beam. Ion-implantation
13. Which method of doping that is used in producing narrow regions in an IC? Ion-implantation
14. Type of diffusion in which the impurity concentration at the semiconductor surface is
maintained at a constant level throughout the diffusion cycle. Constant-source diffusion
15. An alternative method rather than diffusion in introducing impurities into a semiconductor
wherein the impurities are made to penetrate into the wafer by an ion beam. Ion-implantation.
16. A method of producing integrated circuit by photographing a pattern of the circuit on a
suitable light-sensitized surface of semicon-ductor and chemically etching away unwanted
portions of the surface. Photolithographic process.
17. In IC fabrication, the photo-sensitive emulsion coated at the wafer surface to be masked is
called photoresist
18. The removal of unmasked Silicon Dioxide (SiO2)at the wafer surface in IC fabrication etching
19. The removal of the remaining photoresist in the wafer after etching during IC fabrication.
Stripping.
20. Covering or coating on a semiconductor surface to provide a masked area for selective etching
or deposition masking
21. In most IC fabrications, how is the connection pattern between components defined? By masking
22. What do you call the process of interconnecting the components in an IC during fabrication?
Metallization
23. The conducting material that is mostly used to interconnect components on chips during
metallization process. Aluminum
24. Is the process of making the semiconductor chip or wafer insensitive to any contaminations
that might cause drift of parameter or premature failure. Passivation
25. Passivation of semiconductor wafer by forming a layer of an insulating oxide on the surface
oxide passivation
26. In monolithic ICs, electrical isolation between devices on the same substrate is achieved by
fabricating them in an electrically isolated region known as isolation pockets or tubs.
27. Which of the isolation techniques in IC fabrication that is commonly used? Junction isolation
28. Isolation of devices in integrated circuit by forming a silicon oxide layer around each
devices is known as oxide insulation, and this is a good example of dielectric isolation
29. An operational amplifier must have at least how many usable terminals? 14 terminals
30. What type of amplifier commonly used at the output stage of op-amps? Complementary amplifier
31. the transistor configuration used at the output complementary stage of most op-amps commoncollector
32. the stage followed by the output complementary in op-amps functional block diagram level
shifter

33. what is the purpose of a level shifter in op-amps? To set and/or adjust the output voltage to
zero when input signal is zero.
34. Primarily, op-amps are operated with bipolar power supply, however, we can also use single
polarity power supply by generating a reference voltage to ground.
35. Calculate the CMRR of an op-amp having a common-mode gain of 10 and a differential-mode gain
of 100,000. 80
36. The non-inverting and inverting inputs of an op-amp have an input voltage of 1.5mV and 1.0mV,
respectively. If the op-amp has a common-mode voltage gain of 10 and a differential mode gain
of 10000, what is its output voltage? 5.0125V
37. What is the maximum output voltage swing of an op-amp? +Vsat to Vsat
38. The uA741 op-amp has a CMRR of 90dB and a differential-mode gain voltage amplification of
200,000. What is the op-amps common-mode voltage gain? 6.324
39. The current needed at the input of an op-amp to operate it normally input bias current
40. Ideal op-amp requires no input current, but real op-amp needs a very small input current
called input bias current. At both inputs, the bias currents have a slight difference. What
do you call this difference? Input offset current
41. the change in input offset current due to temperature change input offset current drift
42. the reason why a slight difference between the input bias current occurs in op-amps is due to
the unsymmetrical circuit component parameters. This unsymmetrical condition also produces a
difference in input voltage called what? Input threshold voltage
43. ideally, the output voltage of an op-amp is zero when there is no input signal, however, in
practical circuits, a small output voltage appears, this voltage is known as output offset
voltage
44. calculate the output offset voltage of an inverting amplifier using op-amp with an input
offset current of 10nA. the current is having an input resistance of 10k-ohm and a feedback
resistance of 100k-ohm. 1.0mV
45. an op-amp inverting amplifier uses a feedback resistor of 100k-ohm and input resistor of 10kohm. If the op-amps input offset voltage is 2.0mV, approximate the amplifier output offset
voltage due to this input offset voltage. 22mV
46. the output offset voltage of an op-amp is due to the input offset current and voltage. If 1mV
is due to the input offset current and 22mV due to the input offset voltage, what is the
total output offset voltage of the op-amp? 23mV
47. how will you minimize the output offset voltage due to the input offset current of an op-amp?
By installing a bias-current-compensating resistor
48. the approximate value of the bias-current compensating resistor in op-amp circuits is: equal
to the parallel combination of the input and feedback resistors
49. in op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage is represented by a battery
50. what is the effect of the input offset voltage to the output voltage if the op-amp has no
feedback element? Causes the output to saturate either towards positive or negative.
51. How can we minimize the effect of the input offset current and input offset voltage at the
output offset voltage? By making the feedback resistance small
52. An op-amp is wired as an inverting amplifier with an input and feedback resistances of 1k-ohm
and 100k-ohm respectively. When the input signal is set to zero, the output was found to have
an offset voltage of 101mV. Calculate the input offset voltage. 1.0mV
53. What is the most effective way of minimizing the output offset voltage of an op-amp? By
properly using and adjusting the offset-null terminals
54. In large signal dc-amplifiers using op-amp, which parameter has the least effect on its
performance? Drift
55. For ac-amplifiers using op-amps what parameters can affect its performance. Slew rate and
frequency response
56. If an op-amp is used to amplify small ac-signals, what parameter should you greatly consider
to ensure better performance? Frequency response
57. What do we mean by internally compensated op-amps? op-amps with internal frequency
compensation capacitor to prevent oscillation
58. The frequency at which the open-loop gain of an op-amp is 0.707 times its value at very low
frequency. Break frequency
59. The reduction of op-amps gain due to increasing operating frequency. Roll-off
60. Frequency at which the voltage gain of op-amp reduces to unity. Unity-gain bandwidth product
61. An op-amp has a specified transient response rise time of 0.3us, calculate its unity-gain
bandwidth. 1.167MHz

62. What is the maximum signal frequency that can be used in an op-amp having a specified slew
rate of 0.5v/usec? The maximum output voltage desired is 5V. 16kHz.
63. What must be the slew rate of an op-amp to be used in order to provide an undistorted output
voltage of 10V at a frequency of 100,000 rad/sec. 1.0V/usec
64. An op-amp zero crossing detector without hysteresis. Has no feedback.
65. What is the noise gain of op-amps? 1+Rf/Ri
66. In most ac-amplifiers using op-amps, the feedback resistor is shunted with a very small
capacitance, what is its purpose? To minimize high-frequency noise
67. Approximate the noise-gain of an inverting adder using op-amps if it has five inputs six(6)
68. What is true about the external frequency-compensation capacitor? The lower its value, the
wider its bandwidth.
69. Typical value of the external frequency-compensating capacitor of op-amps. 3.0-30 uF
70. The magnitude of the op-amps input offset voltage before it can be classified as a low-input
offset voltage op-amp. 0.2mV.
71. Op-amps whose internal transistor biasing can be controlled externally are categorized as
programmable-op-amps
72. The most popular op-amp packages are the metal can, 8-pin DIP, and the SMT. Which of these
corresponds to TO-99? Metal can
73. Dual-in-line or DIL package is designated as TO-116
74. For high-density ICs, involving many op-amps, what packaging is most suitable? SMT
75. A reactive device used in controlling electrical power by using two windings on a common iron
core. The control winding is supplied with small dc-current which causes the reactance of a
large ac-winding to change accordingly. Saturable reactor
76. a saturable reactor with regenerative feedback. Magnetic amplifier
77. an electronic switch that has the highest single-device current capacity and can withstand
overloads better. ignitrons
78. which power control switching method that greatly generates RFI or EMI and is therefore
limited to low-frequency applications? Phase-control
79. a converter that changes ac-voltage frequency from one to another. Cycloconverter
80. in electronic converters, what signal is mostly used to trigger the active device? Square
wave
81. which of the trigger diodes has the highest-holding voltage? Bidirectional-trigger diac
82. general term of electronic devices used to control or trigger large-power switching devices.
Break-over devices
83. a break-over device that is basically a diode. Trigger diode
84. the voltage decreased across the Anode (A) and cathode (K) of an SCR from non-conducting
state to conducting state. Breakback voltage.
85. An SCR rated 10A is used in the controlling switch in a circuit powered by 50 Vdc. When the
SCR fires ON, its Anode (A) to Cathode (K) voltage was observed to be 2V. Calculate the
breakback voltage of the SCR.
86. Use of heat sinks, forced air, and water cooling are examples of external cooling in SCRs and
other devices. Which of these is the only recommended to be used for the largest power
dissipating device? Water cooling
87. In connecting two SCRs in series, during OFF state, the voltage source must be properly
shared between them, but due to devices differences, there might be unequal voltages across
each SCR. How do we equalize these voltages? By using a blocking-equalizing resistor
88. A circuit used for voltage equalization during ON-OFF switching action of SCRs in series.
Snubber circuit
89. in controlling electrical power using phase control method with SCR/triac being the active
device, what do we call the period of the cycle before the device switches to conduction?
Firing delay angle
90. how many times per second does an SCR is turned ON and OFF when it is operated in a full-wave
phase control at a line frequency of 60 Hz? 120 times (FW)
91. a three terminal device that behaves roughly like SCRs, except that it can conduct current in
either direction when at ON. SBS
92. a thyristor that is very similar to an SCR except that it has a low voltage and current
ratings. It is very temperature stable, and is therefore suitable to be used as a triggering
device. SUS
93. silicon unilateral switches (SUS), generally have a breakover voltage of 8V, however, this
value can be altered by normally connecting a zener diode. How is the diode installed?
Diodes cathode to SUSs gate and diodes anode to SUSs cathode

94. a silicon unilateral switch (SUS) has a forward breakover voltage of 8V. a zener diode is
connected between its gate and cathode terminals with the diodes cathode at SUSs gate. If
the zener voltage is 3.9V, what is the new forward breakover voltage of the device? 4.50V
95. relate the magnitude of the dc-output voltage to the ac input rms voltage of a full-wave
rectifier. Vdc=0.90Vrms
96. determine the dc-voltage of a full-wave bridge rectifier when the input ac-voltage is 24Vrms.
21.6V
97. ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier. 0.48
98. A 20V-dc power supply was found to have a ripple voltage of 2Vrms when supplying 1.5amps
load. Calculate its percent ripple. 10.0%
99. Which power supply filter gives the smallest ripple voltage? Multi-section LC-filter
100.
Which regulator is the most inefficient? Shunt
101.
Sampling circuit used in most voltage regulators. Voltage-divider network
102.
a 12Vdc power supply is regulated using 7805IC and is used in TTL circuits that
require a 0.2 amps current. Determine the dropout voltage of the system. 7V
103.
a load draws 1A current from a 10-V regulated power supply. Calculate the power
dissipated by the regulator if it has an input voltage of 16V. 6 watts
104.
what three-terminal IC regulator that has a variable negative voltage output? 337
105.
in a three-terminal adjustable positive voltage regulator (317), what is the bandgap
voltage between the output terminal and adjustment terminal? 1.25V
106.
typical ripple rejection of most three-terminal voltage regulators. 0.1%
107.
the three-terminal voltage regulators, such as the 78xx series has a typical current
rating of 1.5 amperes. If a high current is required, say 30 amperes, how will you make
modifications for this regulator in order to provide the required current? By the use of
external pass transistor
108.
active devices used in switching regulators may experience large over-currents during
conduction (turn-on-state) and large over-voltages during turn-off. These excessive currents
and voltages may cause distraction or damage of the active devices. How do we protect them?
By installing a snubber circuit.
109.
In switching SCRs to on-state, the current rises rapidly and some-times causes damage
to the device. One way of preventing this to happen is by connecting an inductance in series
with the load. If for example, an SCR with a di/dt rating of 100A/us and is used in 220 Vac,
what should be the value of the inductance to be used? 2.48uH
110.
When SCRs switches to off from on-state, a voltage across the anode and cathode
rises rapidly, this voltage change creates a voltage gradient internally and may cause the
SCR to trigger again. To prevent this unscheduled firing, a capacitor may be installed across
the SCR. For an SCR with a maximum forward-blocking voltage of VFBM=500V and a maximum dv/dt
of 25V/us,calculate the capacitance needed to prevent unscheduled firing if the SCR has a
load of 10-ohm. 2uF
111.
One of the major concerns in power electronics is to clean-up or shape-up the utilitysupply voltage (the wall outlet 220V/60Hz) from disturbances such as overvolt, undervolt,
voltage spikes and harmonic distortions. What circuit is used for this? Power conditioners
112.
Karnaugh map is the most commonly used method in simplifying Boolean expression or
logical functions. In this method only 1s and 0s are entered into the table, while mapentered variable technique includes variable into the table.
113.
A suitable method in simplifying Boolean expression when the system deals with more
than six variables. Quine-mccluskey tabular method
114.
If the fan out of a logic gate is not enough, a/an buffer should be used.
115.
Is considered as a controller inverter. XOR
116.
Known as universal gates NOR and NAND
117.
The number of NAND-gates needed to form an OR-gate. 3
118.
Flip-flop that changes state every time the input is triggered. Master slave flip-flop
119.
Type of memory that is formed by a series of magnetic bubbles at the substrate bubble
memory
120.
Digital device similar to that of a ROM and whose internal connections of logic arrays
can be programmed by passing high current through fusable links. PLA and PAL
121.
A circuit used for selecting a single output from multiple inputs universal logic
module (ULM)
122.
What is formed when the complemented output of the last stage of a shift register is
fed back to the input of the first stage? Twisted ring counter

123.
Refers to the ability of a logic circuit to withstand noise superimposed on its input
signal. Noise immunity
124.
The number of logic gates of the same family that can be connected to the input of a
particular gate without degrading the circuit performance. Fan-in
125.
A logic circuit family with a supply voltage of 25V. and are generally used in
industry where machinery causes electrical noise and large power line transients to
occur.HLDTL
126.
in a transistor-transistor-logic (TTL), if the base collector junction of a transistor
is clamped with a Schottky-diode it becomes Schottky TTL. What is the significance of having
this diode? It increases the switching speed
127.
PMOS are generally supplied with a voltage up to 15 V
128.
NMOS can be interlaced to CMOS by providing a pull-up resistor
129.
a digital IC whose output transistor has no internal pull-up resistor. Open-collector
configuration
130.
in digital ICs, such as buffers and registers, what output configuration is used if
they are intended for busing ? tri-state output
131.
in TTL ICs, which input configurations gives a high-input impedance at both logic
states (HIGH and LOW state)? Substrate pnp input
132.
what is the purpose of internal clamping diodes at the input of a logic circuit? To
minimize negative ringing effects
133.
in TTL ICs with more than one gates available, sometimes not all gates are used. How
will you handle these unused gates? Force the output to go HIGH
134.
how will you handle unused inputs in a logic gate/logic IC? Pull them up or down,
depending on circuit function