BASIC ELECTRONICS

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

UNIT 1: SEMICONDUCTOR DIODES & APPLICATIONS

1.]
Flow of electrons is generally termed as _____________.
a) electric current
b) electric shock
c) semiconductor
d) none of the above
2.]
A _______________ is a material which offers very little resistance to the
flow of current through it.
a) good conductor
b) insulator
c) semiconductor
d) none of the above
3.]
The resistance offered by ______________ is extremely large for the flow of
current through it.
a) good conductor
b) insulator
c) semiconductor
d) none of the above
4.]
The materials which behave like perfect insulators at low temperatures & at
higher temperatures, they behave like a good conductors are termed as ________.
a) good conductor
b) insulator
c) semiconductor
d) none of the above
5.]
The conductivity of a semiconductor _____________ with temperature.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) cant say
d) none of the above
6.]
The conductivity of a good conductor _____________ with temperature.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) cant say
d) none of the above
7.]
The resistance of a semiconductor _____________ with temperature.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) cant say
d) none of the above
8.]
The resistance of a good conductor _____________ with temperature.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) cant say
d) none of the above
9.]
The charge of an electron is ___________________.
a) 1.602*10+27 Coulomb
b) 1.602*10-27 Coulomb
+19
c) 1.602*10
Coulomb
d) 1.602*10-19 Coulomb
10.] The total number of electrons in an atom depends upon ____________.
a) the atomic mass
b) the atomic weight
c) the atomic number
d) the atomic size

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

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11.] In any atom, the number of electrons in the last orbit (i.e., the outermost
orbit or the valence orbit) is limited to ________________.
a) 4
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12
12.] In any atom, the outermost orbit is called ______________.
a) valence orbit
b) energy band
c) conduction band
d) forbidden band
13.] The electrons present in the valence orbit are termed as _______________.
a) valence electrons
b) free electrons
c) cant say
d) none of the above
14.] The range of energies possessed by the electrons of any one orbit of all
atoms is referred as _____________________.
a) valence band
b) energy band
c) conduction band
d) forbidden band
15.] The energy band in relation to valence electrons is termed as ___________.
a) valence band
b) energy band
c) conduction band
d) forbidden band
16.] Electrons which are removed from the valence orbits of atoms, which are
freely available for conduction, are termed as __________________.
a) valence electrons
b) free electrons
c) cant say
d) none of the above
17.] The range of energies possessed by the free electrons is termed as ______.
a) valence band
b) energy band
c) conduction band
d) forbidden band
18.] The void (or gap) separating conduction band and valence band, and no
electron can exist in this void is termed as ______________.
a) valence band
b) energy band
c) conduction band
d) forbidden band
19.] In a metal, the number of valence electrons is ___________.
a) less than 4
b) equal to 4
c) greater than 4
d) equal to 8
20.] In a semiconductor
___________.
a) less than 4
c) greater than 4

material,

the

number

of

valence

electrons

is

b) equal to 4
d) equal to 8

21.] In an insulator , the number of valence electrons is ___________.

a) less than 4
b) equal to 4

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c) greater than 4

d) equal to 8

22.] The current which results in a semiconductor material due to the movement
of holes is termed as ___________________.
a) hole current
b) electron current
c) negative current
d) none of the above
23.] A semiconductor in its pure form is termed as __________________.
a) intrinsic semiconductor
b) extrinsic semiconductor
c) p-type semiconductor
d) n-type semiconductor
24.] The process of adding impurity to a pure semiconductor material, in order to
increase its conductivity is called as __________________.
a) dancing
b) doping
c) creating holes
d) creating electrons
25.] A semiconductor to which an impurity is added with view to increase its
conductivity is termed as __________________.
a) intrinsic semiconductor
b) extrinsic semiconductor
c) p-type semiconductor
d) n-type semiconductor
26.] If a pentavalent impurity like arsenic or antimony or phosphorus is added to
pure germanium or silicon, a _____________________ results.
a) intrinsic semiconductor
b) extrinsic semiconductor
c) p-type semiconductor
d) n-type semiconductor
27.] In a n-type semiconductor material electrons are ________________.
a) majority charge carriers
b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms
d) acceptor atoms
28.] In a n-type semiconductor material holes are ________________.
a) majority charge carriers
b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms
d) acceptor atoms
29.] The pentavalent impurity atom, like arsenic, added to pure germanium
material is termed as ____________.
a) majority charge carriers
b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms
d) acceptor atoms
30.] If a trivalent impurity like gallium or indium or aluminium is added to pure
germanium or silicon, a _____________________ results.
a) intrinsic semiconductor
b) extrinsic semiconductor
c) p-type semiconductor
d) n-type semiconductor
31.] In a p-type semiconductor material holes are ________________.
a) majority charge carriers
b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms
d) acceptor atoms

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

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32.] In a p-type semiconductor material electrons are ________________.
a) majority charge carriers
b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms
d) acceptor atoms
33.] The trivalent impurity atom, like gallium, added to pure germanium material
is termed as ____________.
a) majority charge carriers
b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms
d) acceptor atoms
34.] In extrinsic semiconductors, conduction of current is due to ____________.
a) electrons only
b) holes only
c) both electrons and holes
d) neither electrons nor holes
35.] Doping an intrinsic semiconductor with pentavalent impurity
__________________.
a) raises the Fermi level
b) lowers the Fermi level
c) do not affect the Fermi level
d) none of the above

atom

36.] Doping an intrinsic semiconductor with trivalent impurity atom __________.

a) raises the Fermi level
b) lowers the Fermi level
c) do not affect the Fermi level
d) none of the above
37.] In a pure semiconductor, the Fermi level lies _____________ of the
forbidden energy gap.
a) exactly in the middle
b) at the lower part
c) at the upper part
d) none of the above
38.] In a p-n junction, the potential built across the junction, after diffusion has
stopped, is termed as _______________.
a) barrier potential
b) developed potential
c) p-n potential
d) none of the above
39.] The barrier potential is about ______________ of germanium.
a) 0.1V
b) 0.3V
c) 0.7V
d) 1.5V
40.] The barrier potential is about ______________ of silicon.
a) 0.1V
b) 0.3V
c) 0.7V
d) 1.5V
41.] If an external voltage is applied across the p-n junction such that it
neutralizes the barrier potential and causes conduction through the junction, the pn junction is said to be ______________.
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) un-biased
d) no-biased

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

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42.] If an external voltage is applied across the p-n junction such that the
depletion layer widens and the barrier potential increases, the p-n junction is said
to be ______________.
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) un-biased
d) no-biased
43.] A p-n junction conducts when it is _________________.
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) un-biased
d) no-biased
44.] A p-n junction blocks conduction when it is ________________.
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) un-biased
d) no-biased
45.] The direction of conventional current is always ____________ to the
direction of drifting electrons.
a) same
b) opposite
c) cant say
d) none of the above
46.] The slope of DC load line is _______________.
a) 1/IL
b) 1/VL
c) 1/RL
d) 1/If
47.] The Iav for a half-wave rectifier is _____________.
a) Im/
b) Im/2
c) 2Im/
d) Im/2
48.] The IRMS for a half-wave rectifier is ______________.
a) Im/
b) Im/2
c) 2Im/
d) Im/2
49.] The Iav for a full-wave rectifier is _____________.
a) Im/
b) Im/2
c) 2Im/
d) Im/2
50.] The IRMS for a full-wave rectifier is _____________.
a) Im/
b) Im/2
c) 2Im/
d) Im/2
51.] The efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is _____________.
a) 40.6%
b) 81.2%
c) 0.483%
d) 1.21%
52.] The efficiency of a full-wave rectifier is _____________.
a) 40.6%
b) 81.2%
c) 0.483%
d) 1.21%

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

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53.] The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is _____________.
a) 40.6
b) 81.2
c) 0.483
d) 1.21
54.] The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier is _____________.
a) 40.6
b) 81.2
c) 0.483
d) 1.21
55.] An inductor ___________ to pass through it.
a) allows DC
b) blocks DC
c) allows AC
d) blocks AC
56.] A capacitor ___________ to pass through it.
a) allows DC
b) blocks DC
c) allows AC
d) blocks AC
57.] The switch off time of diodes is longer due to _______________.
a) the diffusion capacitance
b) the forward bias
c) the reverse bias
d) none of the above

UNIT 2 & 3: TRANSISTORS & BIASING METHODS

1.]
The direction of arrow head placed on the emitter of a transistor represents
________________.
a) the direction of motion of holes
b) the direction of motion of electrons
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
2.]
The direction of flow of electrons is ____________ to the direction of motion
of holes.
a) same as
b) opposite
c) parallel
d) perpendicular
3.]
During normal working of transistor as amplifier, the emitter diode is
______________.
a) unbiased
b) forward biased
c) reverse biased
d) none of the above
4.]
During normal working of transistor as amplifier, the collector diode is
______________.
a) unbiased
b) forward biased
c) reverse biased
d) none of the above
5.]
The reverse current which results in a transistor due to minority charge
carriers across the collector-to-base junction is called as ________________.
a) base current
b) emitter current

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c) collector current

d) collector-to-base leakage current

6.]
A transistor can be visualized as a ___________ port network.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
7.]
Varying the input current by varying the input voltage at constant output
voltage is _____________________.
a) static input characteristics
b) static output characteristics
c) transistor i/o characteristics
d) none of the above
8.]
Varying the output current by varying the output voltage at constant input
current is _____________________.
a) static input characteristics
b) static output characteristics
c) transistor i/o characteristics
d) none of the above
9.]
The ratio of change in collector current to the change in emitter current at
constant collector to base voltage is ___________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.] The ratio of change in collector current to the change in base current at
constant collector to emitter voltage is ___________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
11.]
a)
c)

The ratio of change in emitter current to the change in base is ___________.

b)
d)

12.] A ______________ circuit has a very high input resistance and very low
output resistance.
a) common base
b) common emitter
c) common collector
d) none of the above
13.] In the saturation region, the emitter-base & collector-base junctions are
_________________ biased.
a) forward
b) reverse
c) unbiased
d) none of these
14.] In the cut-off region, the emitter-base & collector-base junctions are
_________________ biased.
a) forward
b) reverse
c) unbiased
d) none of these
15.] The intersection of DC load line and the output characteristics of a transistor
is called _____________________.
a) Q Point
b) quiescent Point

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

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c) operating Point

d) all of these

16.] The biasing circuit which gives most stable operating point is _________.
a) base bias
b) collector-to-base bias
c) voltage-divider bias
d) none of these
17.] The collector-to-base bias circuit is also known as _______________.
a) base bias
b) voltage-divider bias
c) voltage feedback bias circuit
d) none of these
18.] The reverse saturation current doubles for every _________
temperature.
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 10
19.] The reverse
temperature.
a) doubles
c) quadruples

saturation

current

__________

for

every

C rise in

10 0C

rise

in

b) triples
d) none of these

20.]
ICBO doubles for every _________ 0C rise in temperature.
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 10
21.] ICBO __________ for every 100C rise in temperature.
a) doubles
b) triples
c) quadruples
d) none of these
22.] The stability factor S is the rate change of _____________ current with
respect to reverse saturation current.
a) emitter
b) base
c) collector
d) none of these
23.] is the ratio of change in __________ current to the change in emitter
current at constant collector to base voltage.
a) emitter
b) base
c) collector
d) none of these
24.] is the ratio of change in __________ current to the change in base current
at constant collector to emitter voltage.
a) emitter
b) base
c) collector
d) none of these
25.] is the ratio of change in __________ current to the change in base current.
a) emitter
b) base
c) collector
d) none of these

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

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BASIC ELECTRONICS

26.] is the ratio of change in collector current to the change in _________

current at constant collector to base voltage.
a) emitter
b) base
c) collector
d) none of these
27.] is the ratio of change in collector current to the change in _________
current at constant collector to emitter voltage.
a) emitter
b) base
c) collector
d) none of these
28.] is the ratio of change in emitter current to the change in _________
current.
a) emitter
b) base
c) collector
d) none of these
29.] The emitter area in a transistor is considerably __________ than the
collector area.
a) smaller
b) greater
c) smaller or greater
d) none of these
30.] The collector area is slightly _________ doped than the emitter.
a) more
b) less
c) more or less
d) none of these
31.] The depletion layer width at the collector junction is _________ than the
depletion layer width at the emitter junction.
a) more
b) less
c) more or less
d) none of these
32.] In a transistor, the emitter area is _________ doped.
a) heavily
b) lightly
c) moderately
d) none of these
33.] In a transistor, the base region is _________ doped.
a) heavily
b) lightly
c) moderately
d) none of these
34.] In a transistor, the collector area is _________ doped.
a) heavily
b) lightly
c) moderately
d) none of these
35.] In a transistor, the depletion layer penetrates deeply into the __________
region.
a) base
b) emitter
c) collector
d) none of these
36.]

In a ______________, the current is mainly due to electrons.

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

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BASIC ELECTRONICS
a) PNP transistor
c) BJT transistor

b) NPN transistor
d) UJT transistor

37.] In a ______________, the current is mainly due to holes.

a) PNP transistor
b) NPN transistor
c) BJT transistor
d) UJT transistor
38.] In CB configuration, when reverse bias voltage VCB increases, the width of
the depletion region also increases, which reduces the electrical base width. This
effect is called as _________________.
a) early effect
b) base width modulation
c) (a) or (b)
d) none of these
39.] In CB configuration, when reverse bias voltage VCB increases above the
VCB max, increase in depletion region is such that it penetrates into base until it
makes contact with emitter-base depletion region. This condition is called _______.
a) punch-through effect
b) reach-through effect
c) (a) or (b)
d) none of these
40.] The collector-to-base bias provides __________ stability than the base bias
circuit.
a) more
b) less
c) more or less
d) none of these
41.] The voltage divider bias provides the _______ stability against hFE variations.
a) least
b) greatest
c) more or less
d) none of these
UNIT 5: AMPLIFIERS & OSCILLATORS
1.]
Audio amplifiers can amplify signals of frequencies which lie in the range of
_____________.
a) 20Hz to 20KHz
b) 20Hz to 20MHz
c) 20Hz to 200KHz
d) 20Hz to 200MHz
2.]
In a _________ amplifier, the collector current flows throughout the input
signal cycle.
a) class A
b) class B
c) class C
d) class AB
3.]
In a __________ amplifier, the collector current flows only during the
positive half cycles of the input signal.
a) class A
b) class B
c) class C
d) class AB
4.]
In a ____________ amplifier, the collector current flows for less than half of
the period of the input signal.

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

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a) class A
c) class C

b) class B
d) class AB

5.]
In a ____________ amplifier, the collector current flows for more than half
of the input signal period, but not throughout the full cycle.
a) class A
b) class B
c) class C
d) class AB
6.]
The coupling capacitor, CC, in a R-C coupled amplifier is used to _________.
a) bypass the output to ground
b) couple the output to next stage
c) bypass the emitter current
d) couple the emitter current to next stage
7.]
The range of frequencies in which the amplifier gain is either equal to greater
than 70.7% of the maximum gain is called as _______________.
a) channel-width
b) frequency-width
c) band-width
d) none of these
8.]
The range of frequencies at the limits of which, the voltage gain falls by 3dB
is called as _______________.
a) channel-width
b) frequency-width
c) band-width
d) none of these
9.]
In a common-emitter amplifier, there is a phase shift of _________ between
input and output voltages.
a) 900
b) 1800
c) 3600
d) 00
10.] When the phase of the feedback signal is same as that of the input, then it is
called ______________.
a) positive feedback
b) negative feedback
c) no feedback
d) none of these
11.] When the phase of the feedback signal is out of phase with that of the input,
then it is called ______________.
a) positive feedback
b) negative feedback
c) no feedback
d) none of these
12.] Tank circuit comprises of _____________.
a) an inductor in parallel with a capacitor
b) an inductor in series with a capacitor
c) an inductor in parallel with a resistor
d) an inductor in series with a resistor
13.] R-C oscillators are usually used in ___________ range.
a) audio frequency
b) radio frequency
c) video frequency
d) ultra high frequency

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

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UNIT 6: OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIERS
1.]
The characteristics of ______________ changes with application of external
voltage.
a) an active element
b) a passive element
c) both (a) and (b)
d) neither (a) nor (b)
2.]
The characteristics of ______________ will not change on application of
external voltage.
a) an active element
b) a passive element
c) both (a) and (b)
d) neither (a) nor (b)
3.]
In _____________, the outputs are proportional to inputs.
a) digital ICs
b) linear ICs
c) both (a) and (b)
d) neither (a) nor (b)
4.]
In a _____________, the inputs and outputs can take only two values; 0 and
1.
a) digital ICs
b) linear ICs
c) both (a) and (b)
d) neither (a) nor (b)
5.]
The voltage gain of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________.
a) infinity
b) zero
c) very high
d) very low
6.]
The input impedance of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________.
a) infinity
b) zero
c) very high
d) very low
7.]
The output impedance of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________.
a) infinity
b) zero
c) very high
d) very low
8.]
The bandwidth of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________.
a) infinity
b) zero
c) very high
d) very low
9.]
When equal voltages are applied to two input terminals of an ideal Op-Amp,
the output is ____________.
a) infinity

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

b) zero

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BASIC ELECTRONICS
c) very high

d) very low

10.] The voltage gain of a practical Op-Amp is _____________.

a) infinity
b) zero
c) very high
d) very low
11.] The input impedance of a practical Op-Amp is _____________.
a) infinity
b) zero
c) very high
d) very low
12.] The output impedance of a practical Op-Amp is _____________.
a) infinity
b) zero
c) very high
d) very low
13.] When equal voltages are applied to two input terminals of a practical OpAmp, the output is ____________.
a) infinity
c) very high

b) zero
d) very low

14.] The ratio of the differential gain of an Op-Amp to its common mode gain is
______________.
a) PSRR
b) input off-set current
c) output off-set current
d) CMRR
15.] In a practical Op-Amp, there will be a small output voltage even when the
inputs are zero. This is called _____________.
a) output off-set current
b) output off-set voltage
c) input off-set current
d) input off-set voltage
16.] The DC voltage which makes the output off-set voltage zero, when the other
terminal is zero is called _____________.
a) output off-set current
b) output off-set voltage
c) input off-set current
d) input off-set voltage
17.] The maximum rate at which the Op-Amp output can change is ___________.
a) run rate
b) ratio rate
c) slew rate
d) none of these
18.]

Slew rate is expressed in terms of ______________.

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a) volts/s
c) s/volts

b) volts-s
d) s-volts

19.] The time period for which the trace remains on a fluorescent screen after the
applied signal becomes zero is known as ____________.
a) existence
b) shadow
c) persistence
d) trace
20.] The time-base generator in a CRO is used to generate _______________.
a) the saw-tooth voltage
b) the square wave
c) the DC voltage
d) the AC voltage
21.] When the input is applied to the inverting input terminal of an Op-Amp, then
the output is ______________ with the input.
a) 900 out of phase
b) 1800 out of phase
c) 3600 out of phase
d) in phase
22.] When the input is applied to the non-inverting input terminal of an Op-Amp,
then the output is ______________ with the input.
a) 900 out of phase
b) 1800 out of phase
c) 3600 out of phase
d) in phase

UNIT 7: COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS & NUMBER SYSTEMS

1.]
If the amplitude of the carrier wave is altered in accordance with the strength
of the modulating signal, then it is _________________.
a) amplitude modulation
b) frequency modulation
c) amplitude communication
d) frequency communication
2.]
If the frequency of the carrier wave is altered in accordance with the strength
of the modulating signal, then it is _________________.
a) amplitude modulation
b) frequency modulation
c) amplitude communication
d) frequency communication
3.]
The process of getting back the modulating signal from the modulated wave
is _________________.
a) modulation
b) re-modulation
c) demodulation
d) none of these
4.]
The modulation index m for amplitude modulation is _____________.
a) Vc/Vm
b) Vc * Vm
c) Vm + Vc
d) Vm/Vc

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5.]
The modulation index mf for frequency modulation is _____________.
a) f/fm
b) f * fm
c) f - fm
d) fm/f
6.]
Usually, the intermediate frequency is _______________.
a) 455 MHz
b) 455 KHz
c) 455 Hz
d) 455 GHz
9.]
The decimal equivalent of binary number 1110 is ________________.
a) 15
b) 16
c) 18
d) 14
10.] 110112 = X10, then
a) X = 27
c) X = 17

b) X = 37
d) X = 12

11.] The 1s compliment of 1110 is __________.

a) 1111
b) 0001
c) 0010
c) 0000
12.] The 2s compliment of 1110 is ____________.
a) 1111
b) 0001
c) 0010
d) 0000
13.] If 4710 = X8, then
a) X = 37
b) X = 27
c) X = 74
d) X = 57
14.] The octal equivalent of 001001011011 (2) is _________________.
a) 3311(8)
b) 3113(8)
c) 1133(8)
d) 1331(8)
15.] If 110211102 = X16, then
a) X = AB
c) X = EF

b) X = CD
d) X = DE

16.] If 5810 = XBCD, then

a) X = 01011000
c) X = 10101000

b) X = 01010001
c) 10100001

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UNIT 8: DIGITAL ELECTRONICS
1.]
The OR operation implies ______________.
a) boolean addition
b) boolean multiplication
c) Boolean subtraction
d) boolean division
2.]
The AND operation implies ______________.
a) boolean addition
b) boolean multiplication
c) Boolean subtraction
d) boolean division
3.]
The output of a NAND gate is ___________, when all the inputs are high.
a) low
b) high
c) low or high
d) none of these
4.]
The output of a NOR gate is ___________, when all the inputs are low.
a) low
b) high
c) low or high
d) none of these
5.]
A bubbled AND gate and a _____________ are equivalent.
a) XOR gate
b) XNOR gate
c) NOR gate
d) NAND gate
6.]
A bubbled OR gate and a _____________ are equivalent.
a) XOR gate
b) XNOR gate
c) NOR gate
d) NAND gate

____________***____________

By MAHESH PRASANNA K.,

Dept. of E & C, AIET.

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

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