1

Assignment 8 Solutions 3/10/04

Problem 5.22
Choose coordinates so that the infinite plane is the x-y plane (z = 0) and the bar is at some infinitesimal distance h
above the plane. From the discussion in 5.9C a hard ferromagnet is equivalent to a system with an effective

magnetic current density. For M = M z` there is only the effective surface current K = M n` where n` is the unit
normal to the vertical surface (in general a function of position, though most of you took the bar to be a cylinder.
The important thing for now is that n` is perpendicular to z` ). Applying the results of 5.17 we see that the system is
equivalent to an image current distribution with components scaled by Hmr - 1L Hmr + 1L (amongst other things).
Since mr m m0 = for our case, this factor reduces to H1 - 1 mr L H1 + 1 mr L 1. We see that all we need is
the "reflected" current (recall that there is no z component since z` n` must lie in the x-y plane, and actually no zdependence at all since the bar is uniform in the z-direction) and corresponding image magnetization:
*
K Hx, y, zL = Kx Hx, y, -zL x`
+K y Hx, y, -zL y`

*
M = M
Image bar located with "top" end-cap
at z = -h.

JJK
M = M z

h
-h

0
n

JJK *
M

-------

-h

++++++++

The field due to the image can be calculated from its magnetic scalar potential 5.99, but this is hard for a bar of
arbitrary cross-section. Instead we look at things from the effective magnetic charge density point of view. For

M = M z` = constant there is only the effective surface charge sM = H z` L M = M where the upper sign is for
the upper end-cap and the lower for the lower end-cap. Since the bar is very long we will neglect the effect of the
*
* = H z` L M
= M for the image bar, and we will
upper end-cap. Similarly there are effective surface charges sM
ignore the lower end-cap of this. In summary we have two surfaces with equal and opposite constant charge
density as shown in the second diagram.

Because the material is infinitely permeable, the H -field must be perpendicular to the z = 0 boundary. Now this is

analogous to the electrostatic problem (with E H and 1 e0 m0 ) of a charge distribution above an infinite
conducting plane and a corresponding image charge distribution below. As discussed in problem 2.9 of homework
set 3 the force on a small patch of the image charge (which has normal z` ) is

*
* 2 2L z` a for the
F = 1 IE > + E < M s a = Hs2 2 e0 L z` a for a conductor, and so by analogy F = Hm0 sM
2

magnetic case. The force on the magnetic charge must be equal and opposite, so

m0
m0
m0

*
F = - F = - a s*M 2 z` = - M 2 z` a = - M 2 A z`
2
2
2
S
S
S

Problem 5.30
(a)

Let S denote the cylinder surface, then

I cos f

J Hx L = KHfL dHv - RL z` , KHfL =
2R


m
J Hx L
I cos f
m0 `
2 x
AHxL = 0 3 x

, x = R cos f x` + R sin f y` + z z`
=

x - x
4p
4p
2 R x - x
S

Expand using 3.149 where v< (v> ) is the smaller (larger) of v and R:

i1
y

1
4
LD jjj
LD I Hk v L K Hk v Lzzz
k
cos@kHz
z
Hk
v
L
K
Hk
v
L
+
cos@m
Hf
f
I

j
zz
<
>
m
<
m
>

0
j2 0
x - x
p 0
k
{
m=1

The A integral picks out the m = 1 term by orthogonality of cosines in the range 0 f 2 p. Using
cos Hf - f L = cos f cos f + sin f sin f and the orthogonality of sines and cosines, the f integral is
2p
2p
0 f cos f cosHf - f L = cos f 0 f cos2 f = p cos f:
2p

I cos f 4
m0

AHxL = z`
R f z k cos@kHz - z LD cosHf - f L I1 Hk v< L K1 Hk v> L
4p
2R
p 0
0
-

m0 I `
= z cos f z k cos@kHz - z LD I1 Hk v< L K1 Hk v> L
2p
-
0

z - k z
From
the
d-function
representation
2 p dHkL = -

k z z - k z M = Re@ k z 2 p dHkLD:
- z cos@kHz - z LD = ReI
-

we

have

AHxL = m0 I z` cos f k ReA k z dHkL I1 Hk v< L K1 Hk v> LE
0

Applying the asymptotic form 3.102 (since the arguments of I1 and K1 approach 0 due to the d-function):

1 i k v< y GH1L ij 2 yz
k z

`
j
z

j
z
AHxL = m0 I z cos f k Re
dHkL j z

GH2L k 2 { 2 k k v> {
0

1
1
v<
v<
` cos f k RedHkL
` cos f Re k dHkL

m
=

m
I
z

I
z

0
0

-
2
4
v>
v>
0
v<
1
= m0 I cos f z`
v>
4

It was necessary to double the range of so that we can properly integrate the d-function. Recall that
v< v> = v R for v R and v< v> = R v for v R. The nonzero terms in the curl are:

1
l
ij
o
o

, vR
jj
o
o
jj ` 1
v< `
1 Az ` Az
1

o R

`
j
B = A = v - f = m0 I jj-v sin f - f cos f m
o
jj
o
R
v
v f
v
4
v>
o
jj
o
o - , v R
k
n v2
sin f ` cos f
1
l
`
o
o
v
+ f = y` , v R
o
o
1
o
R
R
R
= - m0 I m
o
o
R `
`
4
o
o
, vR
o Iv sin f - f cos fM
n v2

|
yz
o
o
z
o
o
ozzzz
}
zz
o
zz
o
o
o
ozz
~{

` + cos f f` we see by crossing v

` into it that the vector potential outside the cylinder is:
From y` = sin f v

1
R
1
R ` `
m0 H-I R y` Lv

y =
A> = m0 I cos f z` = m0 I v
4
v
4
v
4p
v2

v2 , we see that this is indeed a 2D dipole with dipole

v
Comparing this to the 2D version of 5.55, Hm0 4 pL m
moment -I R y` .
(b)

Since we're in free space, 5.148 gives for a cylinder of length :

1
1
2
2
3 x B +
3 x B
W =
2 m0 vR
2 m0 vR
1
m0 I 2
1
m0 I R 2
=
3 x J- N +
3 x J- N Isin2 f + cos2 fM
4R
4 v2
2 m0 vR
2 m0 vR
2p

m0 I 2 R2
1
m0 I 2
3 x +
v f z v
=
32 R2 vR
32
v4
0
0
R

m0 I 2 R2
m0 p I 2
m0 p I 2
1
m0 I 2
=
p R2 + 2 p -
= +
2 v2 R
32 R2
32
32
32

We see that this is equally distributed between inside and outside the cylinder, and that th energy per unit length is
W
m0 p I 2
=
16

(c)

Since we have only one circuit W = L I 2 2. Comparing to the above we read off L = p m0 8.

Problem 5.33
(a)

Following the arrows on the diagram we see that x 12 = -x 2 + R + x 1 , so

l 1 l 2 x 12
m0

F 12 = - I1 I2

4p
x 12 3

l 1 l 2 Ix 1 - x 2 + RM
m0

= - I1 I2

3
4p
x 1 - x 2 + R

ij
m0
l 1 l 2 yzz
j
= - I1 I2 jjj-R

zzz
4p
x 1 - x 2 + R {
k

l 1 l 2 yzz
ijj m0
j
= I1 I2 R jj
z
- x + R zz
4
p
x
1
2
{
k

= I1 I2 R M12 HRL

I1

K dlK1
x1

K
x12

JK
R

K
dl 2

K
x2

I2

We've pulled the R out because it's not a function of the integration variables.
(b)

2R M12 HRL =

m0
l 1 l 2
l 1 l 2
m0 2
2
R

= R

4p
4p
x1 - x 2 + R
x 1 - x 2 + R

Change integration variables x 1 x x 1 - x 2 , and rename R -x to put this into a form we recognize:

m0
1
1
m0

= l 1 l 2 2
= 0
2R M12 HRL = l 1 l 2 2R

x 4p
4p
x
x + R

1

3
Actually 2
= -4 p d Hx - x L, but a little thought shows that x x over the range of integration.
x-x

Problem 6.11
(a)
Consider the total electromagnetic momentum contained in an infinitesimal volume swept out by the
infinitesimal area DA in time Dt by the wave (which has speed c):

DP = momentum densityarealength = g DA c Dt

DP
From conservation of momentum, the force is due to the transfer of this momentum, F =
= g DA c. The
Dt
pressure P is perpendicular force per unit area. For normally incident radiation g is already perpendicular, so

S
energy
time
P = g c = = = energy per unit volume
c
area time length
(b)

We are given S 1.4 kW m2 . From Newton's law the acceleration due to the radiation pressure is

force
pressure area
S A
1.4 kW m2
1
arad = =
= 4.67 10-3 m s2
mass
mass
c m
3.0108 m s 1 g m2
According to http://pluto.space.swri.edu/IMAGE/glossary/solar_wind.html the solar wind particle density averages
(rounding up) 10 protons cm3 and has average speed 500 km s. If all of the kinetic energy is transferred to the
solar sail, this would cause an acceleration
1
A
1 101.6710-22 kg
1
2
awind = Hwind densityLHwind speedL2
I500103 m sM
3
2
m
2
1 g m2
H10-2 mL
2.0910-6 m s2 ` arad H! L

Problem 6.20
(a)

Plugging in the given charge density into 6.23:

rHx , tL = dHxL dHyL d HzL dHtL

Jz Hx , tL = -dHxL dHyL dHzL d HtL , J Hx , tL = Jz Hx , tL z`

rHx , tL
1
1
1

3 x dHx L dHy L d Hz L dHtL

FHx, tL =

x - x
4 p e0
x - x
4 p e0

Recall that z d HzL f HzL = - f H0L which follows from integration by parts, and using the usual formula
b x - cn x = n b x - cn-2 Hb x - c x` L together with r x :
`
1
1
1
1
z
ij -z - x z yz
yz
i
j
z

dHtL

z
= - dHtL
FHx , tL = - dHtL jj
`

4 p e0
4 p e0
4 p e0
r3
k z x - z z {z =0
k x - z z3 {z =0

(b)

The transverse current is given by 6.25 and 6.29:

1 F
1 c2

J t = J - J l = J - = -dHxL dHyL dHzL d HtL z` + Jd HtL

m0 c2
t
4 p m0 e0

z
N
r3

Following the derivation of 4.20 we see that we can't just take the nave gradient of z r3 without adding a d
-function term. In fact if we take p z` in 4.20 we get (remember that 4.20 is the negative gradient of the dipole
term in 4.10, with the correct addition):
` `
3 r` Hz` r` L - z`
z
4p
4p
y
i 3 r H p rL - p
= - jj - p dHx Lzz = - + z` dHx L
3
3
3
r
3
3
r
r
{
k
`
`
`
`
1
4p

i 3 r Hz rL - z
y
J t = -dHxL d HtL z` + d HtL jj- + z` dHx Lzz
3
r
4p
3
k
{
`
z
3
2
i
y
= -d HtL jj dHx L z` - + r` Hz` r` Lzz
3
3
4
3
p
r
p
r
4
k
{

(c)
As mentioned in the last paragraph of 6.3 A is manifestly causal (thus so is B since that is completely

specified by A ), so we need only worry about F and by extension E = - F - A t . Using 6.48 and the hint:
1
m

A = 0 3 x AJ Hx , t LE
, @ Dret
4p
R
ret
1 1 y

i
J t Hx, tL = -d HtL jjdHx L z` + zz
4 p z r {
k

m0
1
R i
A
= - 3 x d Jt - N jjdHx L z` +
t
4p
R t
c k

@ Dt =t-Rc , R x - x

1 1 y
zz
z r {
4p

k k Ht-RcL to rewrite the second:

Use the d Hx L to integrate the first term and 2 p dHt - R cL = -

A
R
m0
k 1 2
1 1
m0 1
= - d Jt - N - 3 x k Ht-RcL
z r
4p r
c
4p
2 p R t2
4p
t

k Ht-RcL
1
1
2 = 2 k Ht-RcL + k Ht-RcL 2
R
R
R
1
= H- k cL2 k Ht-RcL - k Ht-RcL 4 p dHx - x L
R
1 2 k Ht-RcL
= - k t 4 p dHx - x L
c2 t2
R

A
m0 1
m0 c2
k
= - d Ht - R cL z` - 3 x
t
4p r
4p
2p

ij 2 k Ht-RcL
y 1
jj + k t dHx - x Lzzz
j
z
z r
4pR
k
{

Using d Hx - x L to integrate the last term, the remaining integral over k t produces a d-function. We also use
Green's theorem (discarding boundary terms since the boundary is at infinity) to shift the Laplacian in the second
term over to the 1 r , producing another d-function [remember the normalization 2 H1 r L = -4 p d3 Hx L]:

A
m0 1
R
m0
= - d Jt - N z` -
t
4p r
c
4 p m0 e0

ij
1
k k Ht-RcL
1 y
jj 3 x
2 + dHtL zzzz
j
z r {
z
r
2p
4pR
k
m0 1
1
k k Ht-RcL
1
z
= - d Ht - R cL z` + 3 x dHx L - dHtL

z
4p r
4 p e0
2p
R
4 p e0
r3

Again we integrate the second term by parts to move the away from the d-function. We want to use the

z
latter to do the x integral, but first we rewrite I-M I- M so we can pull it out of the x integral:
z

A
m0 1
1
k
= - d Ht - R cL z` + 3 x
t
4p r
4 p e0
2p

ij k Ht-RcL yz
1
z
jj zz dHx L - dHtL

j
z
R
4 p e0
r3
k z
{
k k Ht-rcL
m0 1
1
1
z
= - d Ht - R cL z` + - dHtL
r3
2 p z
4p r
4 p e0
r
4 p e0

- k rc yz i y
1 y
- k rc
ijj k - k rc

i k
j
z
= jj- - zzz j rz = - - k rc jj + zz cos q

k
r
z
cr
r2 { k z {
r2 {
k cr
k

1 yi k y i k
2 y

i
i k
= - jj + zz jj- zz + jj- - zz cos q - k rc r - - k rc jj +
2
2
3
k c r

r {k c { k cr
r {
k cr
jij 2 +
jj 3
kr
k
i
= jj
k c r2

1 y
zz cos q
r2 {

1 y i sin q ` y
2k
k2 y
i k
- zzzz cos q - k rc r` - - k rc jj + zz jj- qzz
2
2
r
r2 { k
cr
c r{
{
k cr

1 y
k2
`
+ zz I2 cos q r` + sin q qM - cos q r` - k rc

r3 {
c2 r

Now when we plug this back into the integral in A t we can convert it all back to d-functions by using the
k
Fourier transform formula F HnL HwL = -
H- kLn f HkL w k with F d, f 1, w t - R c for our case:
=

2p

A
m0 1
1 i 1
= - d Ht - R cL z` + jj- d Ht - R cL +
t
4p r
4 p e0 k c r2

1
1
z

+ d Ht - R cL cos q r` - dHtL
4 p e
r3
c2 r

1
`
y
dHt - R cLzz I2 cos q r` + sin q qM
3
{
r

c i 1
1
`
`
y
= - d Hc t - RL Icos q r` - sin q qM + jj- d Hc t - RL + dHc t - RLzz I2 cos q r` + sin q qM
{
4p r
4 p e0 k r2
r3

1
1
z
+ d Hc t - RL cos q r` - dHtL
4 p e0
r3
r
1
c i 1
1
1
`
`
z
y
= - jj d Hc t - RL - dHc t - RLzz I2 cos q r` + sin q qM - d Hc t - RL sin q q - dHtL
2
4 p e0
{
r3
4 p e0 r k r
r
0

m0 c3 1

In the second step I've used an identity for d-functions d Ha xL = d HxL a to rewrite d Ht - R cL = c d Ht - R cL, then

A
A
every derivative costs a factor of c. Now plug this into E = - F -
= 1 d HtL z3 -
, where the z3

A
cancels the one from
:
t

4 p e0

1
dHc t - RL y
c i d Hc t - RL
`
`

E = jj - zz I2 cos q r` + sin q qM - d Hc t - RL sin q q

4 p e0 r k
r
r2
{

The Cartesian components is straightforward plug-in of r` = cos f sin q x` + sin f sin q y` + cos q z` and
`
q = cos f cos q x` + sin f cos q y` - sin q z` . The result is a not-very-enlightening mess that will just be retyping the
stuff in Jackson, so instead I'll outline the procedure in words. Looking at the x component we see that the relevant
`
parts of r` and q all get multiplied by cos f and the correct factor of either sin q or cos q to enable us to pull the
angular terms out. The first and second term then adds to give the factors of 3 that appear in the formula, and the
signs are exactly as they should be. The y component works the same way. For the z component each of the
cosines and sines gets squared and the sines flip sign. The last term immediately produces what we want. The
second term can be converted to cosines using sin2 q + cos2 q = 1, which gives the factor of 3 cos2 q - 1.

Anyway, we see from the d-functions above that E is manifestly causal (t doesn't appear anywhere else).