You are on page 1of 1

Reddit problem August 30, 2017

For any elements a and b from a group and any integer n, prove that (a1 ba)n = a1 bn a. Show that
(a1 ba)n = a1 bn a. We have three cases:
- Case 1: n > 0 : We have: (a1 ba)n = (a1 ba)(a1 ba) ... (a1 ba).
| {z }
n
Since groups operations are associative, we get:
(a1 ba)n = (a1 ba)(a1 ba) ... (a1 ba) = a1 b(aa1 )b(aa1 ) ... b(aa1 ) ba
| {z } | {z }
n n-1
Applying the rules of inverses (aa1 = e) and identity (b e = b), we get:
a1 b(aa1 )b(aa1 ) ... b(aa1 ) ba = a1 bb ... }b ba = a1 bb
| {z ... }b a
| {z
| {z }
n-1 n-1 n
1 n 1 n
Thus, (a ba) = a b a.
- Case 2: n < 0 : Note that there exists xm for any x G and m Z. This implies that xm xm =
xm+m = xo = e. Applying this to our problem, we get:
e = (a1 ba)n (a1 ba)n = (a1 ba)n (a1 bn a) where n > 0.
Multiplying both sides on the right by (a1 bn a), we get:

(a1 ba)n (a1 bn a)(a1 bn a) = (a1 ba)n (a1 bn a)(a1 bn a)


e(a1 bn a) = (a1 ba)n (a1 bn a)(a1 bn a)
a1 bn a = (a1 ba)n a1 bn (aa1 ) bn a (by associativity)
| {z }
e
= (a1 ba)n a1 (bn bn ) a (by associativity)
| {z }
bo = e
1 n 1
= (a ba) (a a)
| {z }
e
= (a1 ba)n

Thus, (a1 ba)n = a1 bn a.


- Case 3: n = 0: We have:

(a1 ba)n = a1 bn a
(a1 ba)0 = a1 b0 a
e = a1 ea
e = a1 a
e=e

Thus, (a1 ba)n = a1 bn a.

You might also like