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Car Data Bank PDF
Car Data Bank PDF
3. What are the equipment final test data check carried out
a) ADF VHF b) HF, VOR ILS c) Both A&B are correct
d) All wrong
4. Conventional valve equipment FTD check
a) Once a year linked with C of A renewal or any major check
b) Once 3 years
c) As A&B every 1800 hrs major check d) None
5. Solid state radio equipment FTD check
a) Once in 4 years b) Once in 3 years c) Once in a year
d) Once in two years
6. Special inspection
a) Whenever the aircraft involved in hard landing
b) Only when the aircraft flies through electrical storm
c) Mandatory when aircraft flight affected by lightening strike
d) All the above
7. Mode A and C transponder responses to
a) It provides communication capabilities (data link) required for ACAS/TCAS
b) Air traffic control radar beacon system (ATC RBS)
c) As A and B transponder function (mode “A” and Mode “C” operation)
d) None
8. Mode “S” transponder
a) Aircraft maximum certified take off mass 5700 Kgs and having seating capacity more than 30
seats
b) Pay load capacity more than 3 tons
c) As “A” & “B” correct d) As “A” & “B” wrong
9. No aircraft shall operate for general aviation purpose
a) Should promulgated ATS rules b) 1st Jan 2003 aircraft only
c) As “B” helicopter also must have mode A and C transponder
d) None of the above
10. Mode “S” Address
a) 24 bits b) 18 bits country code
c) Bits country code and 18 bits made “S” address
d) Only mode “S” address 18 bits only
11. Requirements for applying mode “S” transponder
a) Aircraft type and registration number b) Serial number of aircraft
c) Name & Address of the operator d) All above
12. Maintenance and certification of transponders
a) TSO C 74 C for mode A and C b) TSO-112 for mode “S”
c) TSO-C112 for mode “S” d) Both A and C
13. EMI definition
a) Un desirable voltage b) Undesirable current c) undesirable Power
d) Both A & B
14. Sources of interference
a) Fluorescent lights radio and radar transmitters
b) Power lines window heat controllers induction motor switching
c) Switching and light dimming
d) All above
15. Electromagnetic compatibility (EMC)
a) When the susceptibility thrush hold level is lesser than the conducted radiated emission level
b) When the noise susceptibility thrush hold level is lower than the conducted radiated emission
level
c) When the susceptibility thrush hold level is greater than the conducted radiated emission level
d) None of the above
16. Characteristics of interference categorized
a) Band width b) amplitude behavior c) Wave form and occurrence
d) All the above
17. Narrow band interference
a) The interference band width is narrow
b) This is caused by AC power lines computers radio transmission and receives these items
generate a specified frequencies with un wanted harmonics of frequencies
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
18. Broad band interference
a) Devices generating random frequencies which serve no purpose
b) Present due to characteristics of electrical system
c) Power supplies light dimmmous Electrical motors
d) All the above
19. Interference can be categorized
a) Periodic b) Periodic or random c) Both A and B
d) Only B is correct
20. Unit of measurement of interference
a) db b) Volts c) Amps d) watts
21. Items affected by interference problem
a) Noise source b) Coupling channel c) Receivers d) All
22. Method of suppressing inference at source
a) Enclose source in metallic housing b) Transient suppression on relay coil
c) Twist and shield noisy wires and filter noisy output leads
d) As “A” B and C pulse raise time as slow and log possible
23. Reduce noise coupling
a) Separate power leads from interconnecting signal leads
b) Twist and shield noisy wires (coaxial cables need high frequency)
c) Ground leads as short as possible and break interference ground loops by incorporating
isolation transformers, difference Amplifier and balance circuits
d) As A, B, C, filter noisy out put leads
24. GPS
a) Communication Aid b) Navigation Aid c) Both COM, NA Aid
d) Landing Aid
25. GPS is stand-alone equipment
a) Insulation does not interfere operation of any other equipment
b) A means to provide to the flight crew GPS Receiver fail or unable to perform position
calculation
c) Provision of warning light in a prominent position
d) All the above
26. GPS operational performance statement
a) Flight Manual b) Aircraft long book c) Radio log book
d) Journey log book
27. GPS provides signal or navigational information
a) Instruments and displays b) Auto pilot
d) Including area navigation system
d) As “a” & “b” excluding area navigation system
28. Multi sensor area navigational system
a) GPS sensor must provide an unambiguous indication when any sensor including GPS
b) The failed one cannot provide the accuracy necessary for that phase of flight
c) Both “A” & “B” correct
d) Both “A” and “B” wrong
29. Storage condition
a) Temperature 50-70 degree F b) Humidity should be 65%
c) Storage parts kept at a distance of not more than 3 feet away from the source of heat
d) All the above
30. Rubber tyres
a) Stored vertically in rocks supporting tubes
b) Each tyre should be supported at two points close enough so that major portion of tyres above
the tubes
c) The tyre should turn a new position every three months
d) All above aircraft hoses and hose should be stored un coiled and supported to release stresses
31. Storage limiting period of rubbers parts
a) Isolation atmospheric oxygen
b) Parts to be packed in air tight container and wrapping and liberal use of talk and French chalk
c) Parts packed in air tight tins they should be lined with wax paper or polythene to avoid direct
contact the metal
d) All correct
32. Ozone effect
a) Exposure to air containing ozone even in minute quantities should be avoided
b) High voltage equipment, electrical motors or other plant which may give raise to electrical
spark
c) Still indoor air is normally ozone free because most wall and ceiling covering and organic
materials destroy ozone
d) All correct
33. Rubber parts
a) Must be stored in a relaxed position free from compression or distortion
b) Deformation greatly aggravates the action of ozone and also lead to permanent changes in
shape and dimensions
c) Spring loaded seats should if stored for any length of time have the spring removed
d) All the above
34. Shelf life hoses
a) Life limited to 10 years from the cure date of manufacture
b) During storage, periodic inspection should be carried out once a year for signs of
deterioration, weather crocks signs of corrosion on end fittings, hoses are pressure tested 1 ½
times the working pressure every 2 years
c) Before installation on aircraft pressure test should be carried out at 1 ½ times the working
pressure
d) All the above
35. Service life
a) Service life is fixed by the manufactures taking into consideration the specific application
b) In the absence of such information life of the hoses should not exceed 4 years to start for
Group A hoses and 6 years Group B Hoses
c) There after the service life of hoses can be developed to 6 years for group “A” and 8 years
group ”B”
d) All correct
36. For life development of hoses the visual examination
a) Rubber coating and protective shields separating from inner tube or from the metal core
b) Hardening or lack of flexibility
c) Ageing cracks, kinks chaffing blisters and condition of union
d) All the above
37. Absence of specific test or rigorous for determining life escalation
a) 1 ½ times the working of pressure 1 year
a) 2 ½ times the working pressure
b) 2 times the operating pressure and retained at elevated pressure for five minutes
c) .None of the above
38. Shelf life of hydraulic and pneumatic system components
a) Rubber parts for hydraulic and pneumatic to 6 years from the cure date
b) Rubber parts / seals stored more than 4 years, a sample seall from each batch should be
checked for deterioration by stretching 20% of the internal dia
c) Both A and B are correct
d) None of the above
39. Service life of the hydraulic and pneumatic system rubber components
a) All the rubber seals shall be renewed at the time of TBO however maximum service life 4 years
b) In case manufacturer have fixed service life involving rubber components less than years
manufactures instructions to be followed
c) Under life development programme mutually agreed by RAWO and operator
d) All the above
40. Reciprocating engines and the accessories mounted on engine
a) Completely stripped, thoroughly inspected, and reassemble and tested at least once in 10
years
b) Any extension of calendar period, beyond ten years will not be normally considered
c) Manufacturer has laid down overhaul periodicity on calendar basis between two consecutive
overhauls the manufacturer requirements prevails
d) None of the above
41 Series aircraft means
a) C of A and design of which is similar in every essential respect to the design of aircraft for
which C of A previously issued
b) C of A and design of which is not similar in every essential respect to the design of aircraft
for which C of A previously issued
c) B only correct d) A only correct
42. Flight Test Means
a) Flight performance and characteristics of aircraft in flight
b) Aircraft parts do not differ significantly in adverse sense from those of similar aircraft
c) As “A” aircraft parts do not differ significantly in adverse sense from those of its proto type
d) As “B” aircraft parts do not differ significantly in adverse sense from those of type approved
43. Release of aircraft for flight test
a) Chief Engineering Manager b) Quality Control Manager
c) Major maintenance Manager d) Chief of inspector Flight Release signatories
44. Flight test means
a) Flying the aircraft without any passenger or board
b) Aircraft handling characteristics have not deteriorated with time
c) Aircraft performance remains as scheduled and its equipment function properly
d) Only “A” and “B” “C” are correct
45. Aircraft flight-tested under the circumstances
a) At the time of C of A renewal (including six months renewal of C of A) and maintenance,
repair, modifications effect operational flight characteristics
b) For the purpose of fuel consumption engine power and performance of Rad / Nov/Radar
equipments or instruments performance in doubt on ground
c) Twin Engine aircraft more than one engine, in four engine aircraft more than two engine
change
d) As “A” “B” “C”DGCA may require any aircraft or any type of aircraft to under go flight
testing
46. Before flight test
a) Documents covering the repair modification and inspection is completed in all respects and
certified
b) A certificate to this effect as “A” shall be issued in duplicate one copy delivered to the pilot
other copy shall be retained by the operator
c) As “A” and “B” is correct
d) None of the above
47. The routine test flight
a) All engines operating climb performance is within the acceptable limit to specified by the
manufacturer / DGCA best climbing speed.
b) Cruise speed at the cursing engine power is within the range specified and stalling
Speed has not increased beyond the figures specified by the manufacturer or DGCA
c) No abnormal vibrations, flight controls operate normally satisfactory
d) As a, b, c the radio radar equipment function correctly as installed in the aircraft and the
operating range satisfactory
48. Flight test report
a) Flight test to be performed by pilot in command or any other crew member of aircraft
authorized by the operator
b) The pilot in command responsible for record all defects experienced and adjustments made
besides recording and instruments reading
c) All flight test report and record of defects and adjustment shall be made in the flight log book
of the aircraft or other equivalent document
d) None of the above
49. Flight performance of aircraft
a) Operating crew should be expected to report back on the actual performance of the aircraft as
per the prepared plan
b) Scheduled airlines have performance monitoring cell for regularly analyzing the flight data
ROC, cruising speed fuel consumption range of radio / radar equipments
c) In consultation with the manufacturers / DGCA schedule airlines shall specify in their QCM
manual short fall for the guidance of their maintenance staff
d) A, B, C on learning the short fall DGCA may order such further flight test or other corrective
action
50. Certification of flight test
a) Satisfactory flight test performed
b) Defects rectified and certified endorsement to this effect shall be made in the pilot defect
report / maintenance documents/ aircraft log books / licensed / approved person responsible
for issuing of flight release
c) There after usual flight release may be issued
d) As A,B,C correct
51. To grant open license in Cat A/B (All metal)
a) Must have held AME License in Category A/B for continuous period of five years
b) Have at least three types of all metal aircraft out of which two should be twin engine
composite structure
c) Should have two single engine all metal aircraft not exceeding 3000 Kg AUW as applicable
category
d) Both A and C are correct
52. Open rating in category “A/B” of composite construction aircraft, AME should
a) Have held AME license in Category “A” / B for 3 years
b) Have at least 3 types of aero planes of composite structure of which at least 2 aircraft should
be with single engine and not exceeding 3000 Kg AUW endorse in Category “A” / “B”
c) All the three of composite construction with at least two endorsements on two all metal
aircraft
d) One composite constructive having filled with turbine engine
53. Open rating in Category “R” for ADF endorsement
a) AME should have held license on HF for the past 3 years in Category “R”
b) Above endorsement should on an aircraft whose AUW is less than 3000 Kg
c) Out of 3 minimum ADF fitted on three different aircraft, one should be on aircraft whose
AUW is less than 5700 Kg
d) All the above answers are correct
54. AME with open rating endorsement in any category
a) Can immediately exercise his privileges with a recent experience on the type of aircraft for at
least one month
b) Can exercise the privileges provided he has familiarized with the aircraft for minimum period
of three months before using open license
c) He should undergo approved course conducted by DGCA
d) Familiarity with aircraft should be proved to the QC Manger
55. Composite construction of an aircraft means
a) Primary structure, controls are made out of metal is called composite
b) Only fuselage is made of metal but flight controls are covered with metal sheet
c) Fuselage and wings are made out of wood covered with plywood
d) Primary structure and its skin covering is of two more different materials
56. AME to qualify for open rating in cat-“X” (Radio equipment) of communication and ADF
a) Should have held AME in “X” category coving Radio equipment continuously for 5 years
b) Should have at least one aircraft with HF equipment on his license in Category “X”
c) Should have at least three aircraft filled with three different types of ADF equipment on his
license in Category “X” (Radio equipment)
d) All the above are correct
68. All aircraft parts stored for more than _______ years must be completely strip inspected / overhauled
prior to using is rebuilding of an aircraft
a) Ten years b) Two years c) Five years d) One year
69. DGCA is empowered to issue special flight permits vide
a) Sub rule 5 of rule 55 of aircraft rule 1937 b) Sub rule 4 of rule 55
c) Sub rule 2 of rule 55 d) Sub rule 3 of rule 55
70. CAR series F part VII special flight permits is issued vide
a) Sub rule 4 of rule 55 of aircraft rules 1937
b) Sub rule 5 of rule 55 of aircraft rules 1937
c) Rule 133A of aircraft rules 1937
d) None of the above
71. Special flight permits are issued by the DGCA for
a) All repair facilities may not be available at enroot stations
b) Evacuation of aircraft or persons from areas of impending danger
c) Experimental or test flights d) All above
72. Mark the correct statement
a) Ferry flight can carry passengers on board
b) For test flights for renewal of C of A special flight permit is not necessary
c) For a newly manufactured aircraft for production test flight special flight permit is not
necessary
d) All of the above
73. In case aircraft suffers damage / defect outside the country, the application for special flight permit
shall be submitted to
a)DGCA Hq.s b) To the regulating authority of the country where aircraft suffers damage
c) to the airworthiness office where aircraft is based d) None of the above
74. Validity of special /ferry flight permit is
a) One day only
b) Till arrival of aircraft at destination or specific date mentioned is permit as applicable
c) All correct d) None of the above
75. On completion of special flight the operator will report to RAWO / Sub RAWO which shall include
a) Any abnormality encountered in flight b) All parameters observed in flight
c) No. of passengers carried in flight d) None of the above
76. Certificate flight release
a) Certificate issued by appropriately licensed AME or approved person
b) Certifies that aircraft has been maintained as per approved maintenance schedule
c) Certifies that aircraft is safe for flight
d) All of above and is for the period specified in the certificate
77. Scheduled airlines
a) Can have their aircrafts maintained by other approved organizations
b) Can have their aircrafts maintained by individual AME’s who are appropriately licensed
c) Should have their own maintenance facilities
d) Can have their aircrafts maintained by other scheduled airlines only
78. Contents of routine maintenance schedules for a scheduled operator with just 5 years experience will
be approved by
a) RAWO b) DGCA c) QCM d) Manufacturer
79. The periodicity of routine maintenance inspection schedules should be based on
a)Maintenance Manual b) MPD c) Other operators operating same type of A/C
d) None of the above
80. Special inspection schedules of scheduled operators will be approved by
a) RAWO b) QCM c) Manufacturer d) Operator
1. Before installation of instruments to ensure that
a) The instruments are approved for the type aircraft
b) The dial of range of the dial markings is adequate to reflect current operation of the aircraft,
power plant or equipment and to precisely indicate the appropriate operating limitation
c) The range of colured sectors marked on instrument dials corresponds the range specified in
the aircraft flight manual or aircraft’s engine manufacture’s manual as applicable
d) All correct
2. Magnetic compasses shall be inspected at the time of installation
a) There are no signs of leakage of the flaid
b) The compass is swng and correction card is in place in aircraft
c) The compass mounting is satisfactory
d) As “A” “B”C” the pirot friction does not exceed the manufacturer’s tolerances where such
tolerances are unknown the pirot friction shall be determined by deflecting by deflecting the
compass needle 10 degrees and allowing it to return to the magnetic meridian. The changes
in the indication from the original heating shall not exceed 100 degrees
3. How many times calibration and compensation conditions
a) 10 b) 8 c) 7 d) 6
4. Overhaul and periodical inspection periods
a) From the date of the last overhaul
b) From the date of installation in the aircraft if prior to installation and following overhaul the
instrument had been stored in accordance with accepted practice to the storage of unit
c) In case of imported aircraft neither of the dates specified “A”&”B” to be followed
d) None of the above
5. Gyro horizon indicators directional gyro, automatic pilot gyro instrument overhaul life
a) 2 years / 1000 hrs b) 3 years / 2000 hrs c) 2 years d) 5 years
6. VSI ROC tachometers RPM indicator, fuel content and fuel flow gauge manifold pressure gauge
engine oil pressure gauges magnetic compass workers
a) 3 years / 2000 Hrs b) 2 years/ 1000 c) 2 years d) None
7. Altimeters
a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 4 years d) 5 years
8. Tachometers pressure vaccume gauges, ammeters and voltments
a) To be decided bench check every two years
b) 3 years c) 4 years d) None
9. The shelf life of gyro instruments
a) 2 years
b) At the end of 1st year in the shelf such instruments should be exercised as per approved test
schedules and bearing to be lubricated as per makers recommendations
c) Both A and B carried d) Only “C” is correct
10. Instruments installed on aircraft
a) Instruments has not been operated for a period of six months
b) Shall be subjected to B/C c) Both A and B correct d) None
11. Helicopter able to land on the rejected take off area or safely continue the flight to a landing area
appropriate
a) Class-I b) Class-II c) Class-III d) All the correct
12. Failure occurs prior to a defined point after take off before landing
a) Class-I b) Class-II c) Class-III d) All the above
13. A flight requires a force landing must be performed
a) Class-III b) Class-II c) Class-I d) All correct
14. Aircraft below 3000 Kgs time pices installed on aircraft
a) Overhaul / repaired by any watch maker
b) Overhaul / repaired by any of the reputed commercial watch makers or agencies
c) Approved watch makers
d) Authorized watch makers
15. All aero planes should be equipped
a) First Aid Kit and Physician Kit b) Portable fire extinguishers
c) Seat or berth for each person over an age of 2 years and safety harness for each flight crew
seat
d) All the above
16. Megaphone should be available on aircraft
a) Less than 60 and more than 100 passengers one mega phone
b) More than 60 and more than 100 passengers one megaphone
c) More than 60 and less than 100 one megaphone
d) As “C” more than 99 passengers 2 megaphones
17. Integrated flight director provides
a) Turn and bank indicator b) Altitude indicator c) Heading indicator
d) All the above
18. Land phones when flying over water
a) 50 nm away from the shore twin engine aircraft with one engine inoperative and three engine
aircraft with two engines in operator
b) Any point along the route or Planned diversions to continue the flight to an aerodrome
without flying below minimum flight altitude
c) Both “A” and “B” correct d) Only “A” is correct
19. Long range over flight on water
a) 120 minutes at causing speed
To grant open license in Cat A/B (All metal)
a) Must have held AME License in Cat A/B for continuous period of five years
b) Have at least three types of all metal aircraft out of which two should be turn engine
composite structure
c) Should have two single engine all metal aircraft not exceeding 3000 Kg AUW as
applicable category
d) Both (a) & (c) are correct
2. Open rating in Category “A” / “B” of composite construction aircraft, AME should
a) Have held AME license in Category “A” / “B” for 3 years
b) Have at least 3 types of aero planes of composite structure of which at least 2 aircraft
should be with single engine and not exceeding 3000 Kg AUW endorse in Category
“A”/”B”
c) All the three of composite construction with at least two endorsements on two all
metal aircraft
d) One composite construction having filled with turbine engine
3. Open rating in Category “R” for ADF endorsement
a) AME should have held license on HF for the past 3 years in Category “R”
b) Above endorsement should on aircraft whose AUW is less than 3000 Kg
c) Out of 3 minimum ADF fitted on three different aircraft, one should be on aircraft
whose AUW is less than 5700 Kg
d) All the above answers are correct
4. AME with open rating endorsement in any category
a) Can immediately exercise his privileges with a recent experience on the type of
aircraft for at least one month
b) Can exercise the privileges provided he has familiarized with the aircraft for minimum
period of three months before using open license
c) He should undergo approved course conducted by DGCA
d) Familiarity with aircraft should be proved to the QC Manager
5. Composite construction of an aircraft means :
a) Primary structure, controls are made out of metal is called composite
b) Only fuselage is made of metal but flight controls are covered with metal sheet
c) Fuselage and wrings are made out of wood covered with plywood
d) Primary structure and its skin covering is of two or more different materials
6. AME to qualify for operating in Cat “X” (Radio equipment) of communication and ADF
a) Should have held AME in “X” category covering Radio equipment continuously for 5
years
b) Should have at least one aircraft with HF equipment on his license in Category-“X”
c) At should have at least three aircraft filled with three different types of ADF
equipment on his license in Cat-“X” (Radio equipments)
d) All the above are correct
L-Part VII Renewal of AME License
1. Requirement for Renewal of AME License
a) Should have continuous 6 months experience within proceeding 24 months from the
date of application
b) Within proceeding 24 months, applicant should have a total 6 months experience
c) Experience should be on aircraft having AUW 3000 Kgs
d) All the above are correct
2. AME license lapsed for more than one year but less than 2 years, renewal can be effected by
a) After an oral check by the RAWO
b) Can be renewed only DGCA (Hqrs)
c) Applicant should pass written test followed by oral check by RAWO
d) Warning letter by RAWO
3. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. AME license renewal
a) application should be submitted at least 15 days in advance to RAWO
b) If AME worked abroad for six months and another 6 months in India within the
preceding 24 months, only DGCA, Hqs. Can renew the license
c) If the requisite experience is shown in a foreign country, only DGCA Hqr. Can renew
the license
d) Both (a) and (c) are correct
4. If the AME remained unemployed and license remained lapsed for less than one year
a) Can be renewed if a certificate is issued by the previous empoyer that he was not
exercised his privileged
b) Certificate as in (a) from the applicant is acceptable
c) Can be renewed by DGCA Hqs. Only
d) Applicant need not undergo refresher course after july’2003
“L”-Part-VIII BAMEC
1. Eligibility for issue of basic license is
a) Should have completed 18 years of age
b) Must have passed papers-I,II and III of AME license examination
c) Produce medical certificate from Doctor holding at least a MBBS degree stating no
physical disability or colour blindness
d) Both B and C are correct
2. Mark the incorrect statement
a) For issue of AME license, the applicant should have completed 21 years of age
b) Change over from mechanical to avionics stream person should acquire 18 months
experience before appearing for BEMEL
c) Open rating in Category-“C” can be given to cover normally aspirated air cooled
piston engine not exceeding 350 BHP
d) Open rating can be granted to aircraft whose AUW is less than 3000 Kg
1. Reliability programme of aircraft engines shall be applicable to
a) All Transport aircraft operators
b) All turbo Jet engine (Installed) aircraft
c) All scheduled public transport aircraft
d) None
2. Aircraft engine reliability is measured in:
e) No. of Pilot reported defects
f) All in flight shut down
g) All flame outs
h) As in (b) including flame outs
3. All engine shut down which cause-structured damage is
a) Major shut down b) IN flight shut down
c) Critical shut down d) All the above
4. Operator will report No. of engine shut down by:
a) 25th of the month b) 25th of the following month
c) 10th of the month d) 10th of the following month
5. Supplementary report on engine shut down will be reported by:
a) 25th of the same monthb) 25th of Previous month
c) 25th of following month d) None
6. Structural assembly may be judged as significant if
a) Its failure reduces residual strength
b) Its failure results in loss of structural function
c) A&B d) None
7. Damage tolerant means:
a) Item can sustain damage b) As in (A) and it can withstand reasonable load
c) As in (B) with out structural failure
d) As in (C) when the damage is detected
8. Inspection of an item with out dismantling it in order to determine its in service condition
a) Condition Monitoring b) On condition Maintenance
c) Hard time Maintenance d) None of the above
9. Replacement of item in accordance with instructions to limit its deterioration:
a) Hard time maintenance b) Preventive maintenance
c) A & B and also includes on condition maintenance
d) A&B
10. On condition maintenance is
a) Philosophy of fit until failure b) Not a philosophy of fit until failure
c) To remove item before its failure d) B & C are correct
11. Items, which have no over all control and are operated to failure are subjected to
a) Hard time maintenance b) Condition Monitoring
c) On condition maintenance d) None
12. Monitoring of operators maintenance process is based on:
b) Manufacturers recommendation b) DGCA approved programme
c) Statistical analysis of various performance parameter
d) All the above
13. Alert levels based on operators experiences are up dated
a) Every month b) Every Quarter/ Six months
c) Two to three years d) None
14. Pilots reports are calculated as:
a) Rate per 1000 hours of operations
b) Number per 100 departures
c) Number per 1000 departures or 1000 engine hours
d) A &B are correct
15. Factors which would help to assess the condition of components maintenance behavior
e) Mechanical delays / cancellation of flights
f) Un-scheduled removal
g) Pilots reports
h) All the above
16. Reliability Alert level is based on experience of :
a) Two to three years experience b) As in (A) based on fleets size
c) Three years experience d) None of the above
17. Changing component from one type of maintenance programme to another, operator shall
a) Take guidance of manufacturers recommendation
b) Produce statistical data to justify the change
c) Prepare graphs for failure rate
d) All the above
18. Operator shall identify and devise a method of inspecting them at regular interval as a part of
structural inspection program
a) Items likely to be corroded
b) Wing tanks c) S.S,Is d) None of them
19. Manufacturer would issue the following document for older aircraft giving details of structural
inspection
a) Structural repair Manual b) S.S.I.D
c) Weight & balance report d) All the above
20. S.S.I.D contains:
a) S.S.I.s b) Method of inspection
c) Corrective action for detected structural damage
d) All the above
21. Items of CPCP and S.S.ID which are non-terminating action shall be included in
a) S.S.I.P (Supplemental structural inspection Programme
b) QC Manual c) MSM d) Structural repair manual
22. Maintenance generated from in flight monitoring are:
a) Part of Non-scheduled maintenance b) Part of Condition Monitoring
c) On condition maintenance d) Hard time maintenance
23. A component whose reduction in failure resistance detectable by unit test shall be included in
a) Hard time maintenance b) On condition maintenance
c) Condition Monitoring d) S.S.I.D
24. AIDS stands for
a) Aircraft integrated date system b) Aircraft instrument data system
c) Aircraft instrument date syndromes d) All the above
25. Function of Item which is normally active whenever system is used but there is no indication in
cock-pit is
a) Active function b) Hidden function c) Non-Significant item
d) Active hidden function
26. Alert levels should be up-dated periodically to reflect
b) Operating experience b) Product improvement
c) Changes in procedure d) All the above
27. Alert value of engine parameters is fixed by
a) RAWO b) Manufacturer c) Operator
d) As in (C) on consultation with RAWO
28. Piston engine parameters are recorded for the purpose of on condition maintenance during
a) Flight at least once in each sector b) As in (A) under stabilized cruise condition
c) During periodical ground run d) As in (C) under stabilized condition
29. Life record of engine parts having fatigue liver are available in
a) History card b) MSM c) They are part of COSL
d) Engine log-book
30. Life limiting feature of engine observed by overhaul agency shall be reported to:
a) Operator b) Manufacturer c) DGA d) RAWO/Sub RAWO
31. Engine overhaul records shall be preserved for
a) Two years b) Five Years c) 10 years d) Four years
32. Fuel and oil consumption of LA is recorded in
a) Aircraft log book b) Engine log book c) Register d) None
33. A document issued to AO defining the scope of approval granted
a) Scope of approval b) Certificate of approval
c) List of approval d) None
34. Use of psychoactive substance by aviation personnel in a way that causes occupational disorder is
a) Addiction b) Psychoactive activity c) Prohibited
d) Problematic use of psychoactive substances
35. Programming and coordinating the ongoing quality and improvement efforts by various groups of
AO in accordance with requirement of DGCA is
a) Quality Control b) Quality assurance c) Inspection
d) Monitoring
36. The document/Manual which deals with practices / procedure so as to ensure compliance with
airworthiness and safety requirement:
a) Q.A Manual b) QC Manual c) A.O d) AAC
37. Supervision of enforcing QC standard is the function of
a) QC Manager b) QC Manual c) QC Assurance Manager
d) None
38. Organization located outside India is approved by
a) Reg. Authority of Country b) DGCA c) RAWOd) None
39. NODAL officer is requirement of:
a) Scheduled operator
b) Aerial work aircraft operator
c) Operator who contracted maintenance of his aircraft to AMO
d) State Government Aircraft
40. Experience for NODAL officer:
a) 10 years b) 5 years c) 2 years d) 4 years
41. In-house audit of AO is required to be conducted at a gap of
a) One year b) Six months c) 4 months
d) Twice in a year with a gap of 4 months
42. QC manual of Indian airlines will be approved by
a) RAWO b) DGCA Hq. c) RAWO/Sub RAWO d) CEM/QCM
43. Approval to AO/AMO is validity up to
a) 1 year b) 2 years c) Six months d) up to 31st Dec.
44. All AMEs should be medically examined by an MBBS doctor once in every
a) One year b) Two years c) Five Years d) Four Years
45. Quality Control manual for scheduled operators is approved by
a) DGCA b) RAWOc) DGCA is consultation with RAWO d) QCM
46. The procedure for duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls is listed in
a) QC Manual b) MS Manual c) Both A and B are correct d) None
47. Special inspections mean inspections carried out due to
a) Expiry to C of A b) Hard landing propeller strike
c) Visit of RAWO personnel to carry out checks
d) Both A and C are correct
48. The component life list, being a part of maintenance system manual, can be revised
a) On manufacturer’s recommendation
b) As per requirements c) By QCM d) With the concurrence of DGCA
49. Type certificate means a certificate issued
a) By DGCA to specify the design of type of aircraft component/item of equipment
b) By RAWO to specify the design of type of aircraft component / item of equipment
c) To a particular type of aircraft / series of aircraft
d) None of the above
50. A firm seeking approval in category B for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA
a) Three samples b) Six samples c) Nine samples
d) Twelve samples
51. Certificate of Maintenance is issued by
a) DGCA b) RAWOc) QCM or Approved person
d) Both A and B are correct
52. Certificate of flight release is valid for
a) 24 Hours b) One sortie c) the period specified in it
d) All are correct
53. A firm approved in category “C” shall issue
a) Certificate of maintenance b) Certificate of manufacture
c) Test Report d) None of the above
54. Petroleum in Bulk means petroleum contained in receptacle of
a) Less than 900 Litres b) More than 900 Litres c) 900 Litres
d) None of the above
55. Essential records in respect of fuel, petroleum products issued to customers shall be preserved for a
period of ________ years
a) Two b) Three c) Five d) Ten
56. Separate stores are maintained for
a) Quarantine stores b) Propellers c) Inflammable goods
d) Defective stores
57. Store where airworthy and serviceable materials awaiting evidence of having been received from
approved sources are stocked is called
a) Bonded store b) Quarantine store c) Standby store
d) Airworthiness store
58. Alert Values are
a) Reference values only b) Accepting limits
c) Both A &B are correctd) None of the above
59. RAWO may require immediate withdrawal of the engines from service in case
a) Parameter monitoring records are not kept
b) Alter values have been exceeded
c) Both A and B are correct d) None of the above
60. Work performed at predetermined intervals to maintain an aircraft in airworthy condition is
a) Scheduled maintenance b) Preventive maintenance
c) Both A and B are correct d) None of the above
1. Preventive maintenance is
a) Hard time
b) Work performed at pre-determined intervals to maintain an aircraft, aircraft component or
aircraft system in an airworthy condition.
c) On condition
d) a,b,c, are correct
2. Despatch reliability is the percentage ratio between
a) Number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering
defects per 1000 Hrs.
b) Number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering
defects per number of scheduled service during the period
c) Number of services, which were dispatched in time per 1000 hrs.
d) Number of services, which were dispatched in time per no. of scheduled services during the
period
3. If there is no information concerning individual major defect / incident / accident the operator
a) Does not have to send any information to R.A.O
b) Does not have to send any information to D.G.C.A
c) Has to send a “NIL” information
d) All the above
4. A current list of all CARs with amendments, is also issued
a) At the beginning of each year
b) At the end of each year
c) In the middle of each year
d) Both A & B are correct
5. Reflection of the requirements of the CAR in the quality control – cum – maintenance system
manual is the responsibility of the
a) Operator / Owner b) Head of the Organization c) AME
d) QCM
6. The certification to the effect that any servicing, modification, repair, inspection have been carried
out in accordance with airworthiness requirements of the DGCA is called
a) Certificate of Maintenance b) Certificate of Flight release
c) Certificate of Maintenance review d) Release note
7. During the refueling of aircraft
a) Aircraft radio and electrical, radar switches may remain “ ON”
b) Steady parking light and such switches may be operated.
c) No special precautions are necessary for ground power supply
d) The ground power unit, tractor and similar equipment shall be located outside the defined
“danger zone”
8. Mark the correct statement
a) A normal category aircraft can be used for only manoeuvre which is suitable for normal
category
b) Aerial work aircraft can be used for private and agricultural spraying
c) Aerobatic category can be used for all categories
d) None of the above
9. The following documents have to be carried by all aircraft on all flights:
a) C of A, C of R cockpit and emergency check-list
b) FRC,JLB
c) Route guide
d) Both a & b are correct
10. To get a type approval for an aircraft component equipment, including instruments should contain
this following
a) Maintenance Manual b) Detailed drawings
c) Typed instructions and typed service manual
d) All the above
11. Disposable load is
a) Fuel that can be thrown out of the aircraft during emergency conditions
b) All persons and their belongings
c) Empty load and variable load
d) Fuel and oil which is unusable
12. The installation of flight data recorder is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft having
a) Turbine engines and permissible AUW of 5700 Kg or above
b) Piston engine and permissible AUW of 5700 Kg or above
c) Any type of engine and permissible AUW 5700 Kg or above
d) As in (a) but permissible AUW of 15000 kg or above
13. The quantity of unusable fuel is required to be determined if not available in the flight manual before
a) C of A renewal b) Type certification of aircraft
c) Complete overhaul of the aircraft
d) No (A) above, as specified in operation manual
14. For information regarding name and address of the owner of the aircraft the document referred to is
a) C of A b) C of R c) Type certificate d) log book
15. Certificate of flight release shall be preserved for a period
a) One year from the date of issued b) six months from the date of issue
c) Six months from the date of expiry d) None of the above is correct
16. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported into India. The minimum standard of
manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be
a) As laid down in CAA – B CAR secs “K” &”D”
b) As laid down in FAA – FAR pts 23 & 25
c) As laid down by Australian govt. for agricultural aircraft
d) Both A & B are correct
17. One of the following conditions does not result in automatic suspension of C of A
a) Whenever an aircraft develops a defect which effects primary structure
b) Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing
c) Approved inspection schedules are not completed when due
d) Whenever ‘lifed’ components are not removed at their stipulated T.B.O.’s
18 Certification of airworthiness of aircraft shows that it is valid for normal category sub-division
“private Aircraft”. This aircraft can be used for
a) Experimental purposes b) Aerial works
c) Aerobatic purposes
d) Flying executives to their factory without any remuneration
19. The content/scope/frequency of preventive maintenance can be revised
a) Only when maker so desires
b) Only when DGCA so desires
c) Only when justification based on operator’s experience is acceptable to DGCA
d) Only after incorporation of a major modification.
20. In the event of any damage caused to the aircraft while taxying by an authorized individual it should
be promptly intimated to
a) Owner / Operator of the aircraft
b) International airport authority of India
c) Concerned regional / Sub regional inspection office
d) Both A & C are correct
21. The periodical inspection schedules are prepared by the QCM of the firm and is submitted for
approval. This is not applicable in case of
a) Non-schedule operators b) Private operators
c) Gliding clubs d) Schedule operators
22. With effect from `1st Jan’80 passenger safety information briefing card should be provided at every
passenger seat by
a) Schedule operator b) Non-schedule operatorc) State aircraft
d) All the above are correct
23. How you will know the mandatory modification status of your aircraft?
a) From the pink page of relevant log book
b) From the green page of log book
c) From the white page of log book
d) From the manufacturer
24. As per IAR an aircraft involved in an accident which has major defects
a) Aircraft engine caught fire during refulling on the departure day
b) A passenger is badly injured during time of take off
c) Under-carriage accidentally retracts during a major inspection
d) All the above re correct
25. An alert notice in the event of system reliability exceeding alert value is issued by
a) Manufacturer b) The DGCA c) The RMU d) The QCM
26. Aircraft noise level requirements
a) Are applicable to supersonic aircraft
b) Relate to restriction only in the vicinity of airports
c) May be exempted by DGCA for any aircraft or class aircraft
d) Should have been complied with an aircraft before 21.12.1985
27. The circumstances under which an aircraft may be released with GPWS as unserviceable will be
spelt out in
a) MEL b) CDL c) Flight Manual d) MS manual
28. When an aircraft registered outside India is in Indian territory sustains major damage or major
damage or a major defect is found
a) DGCA may prohibit the aircraft from flying
b) DGCA should not prohibit the aircraft from flying without concurrence of the appropriate
authority of the country of registration of the aircraft
c) Instead of prohibiting the aircraft from flying DGCA informs the fact to the country of
registration and allows the aircraft to fly.
d) None of the above is correct
29 Reliability is the function of
a) Maintenance b) Basic design c) Personal training
d) All of the above
30. Restoring an aircraft unit to it original design performance level after replacing/reworking parts to a
given standard is termed as
a) Maintenance b) Overhaul c) Top overhaul
d) None of the above
31. Substantial damage means
a) Any damage beyond repair
b) Any damage which necessitate the replacement of any component
c) Any damage necessitating the replacement or extensive repair of any major component
d) Any damage beyond economical repair
32. The engine parameters are recorded under stabilized condition
a) During take off b) During landingc) During ground run
d) During cruise level flying
33. Reliability index is
a) The rate of total engine in-flight shunt down per 1000 hours of engine operation on that
particular type of airframe and engine combination
b) The rate of total engine in-flight shun down per 100 hours of engine operation on that
particular type of airframe and engine combination
c) The rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 1000 hours of engine operation on that
particular type of airframe
d) The rate of total engine operation on that particular type of engine
34. Reliability monitoring unit for its functioning will gather information from
a) Un-schedule maintenance & Schedule maintenance
b) Un-schedule removals
c) Sampling inspection
d) All the above are correct
35. Alert notice is issued by
a) The DGCA b) The RAWO c) The QCM d) The R MU
36. A firm approved in carrying out FTD of avionics sets is approved in
a) Category “A” b) Category “E” c) Category “D”
d) Category “C”
37. All AME’s should be medically checked up by at least MBBS doctor once
a) In a year b) In two years c) In Six years d) In five years
38. Release and rejection notes are preserved for a period of
a) Six months b) One year c) Two years d) Five years
39. Stores where airworthy and serviceable materials awaiting evidence of having been received from
approved sources are stocked is called
a) Stand-by store b) Quarantine store c) Airworthiness store
d) Bonded stores
40. Entry in log book can be signed
a) By appropriately licensed AME
b) By a technician
c) By Key persons of organization
d) By an AME having vast experience
41. When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A the C of
A is issued on form
a) CA 23 b) CA 23A c) CA 56 d) CA 57
42. Certification of maintenance release of aircraft component after major maintenance for aircraft AUM
of 15000 Kg and above can be done by
a) Any authorized person with appropriate BAMEC and 3 years experience in the specific shop
b) Any person having appropriate BAMEC with requisite the key person of the concerned shop
c) The key person of the concerned shop
d) Any one of above as the circumstances demand
43. Instructors who are employed full time instructional duties relating to specific types of aircraft /
engine/ equipment shall have job experience of
a) Not less than 100 hours in a year (2 months)
b) Not less than 200 hours in a year (4 months)
c) Not less than 500 hours in a year (6 months
d) Not less than 1000 hours in a year (1 year)
44. Quality control check of the products is carried out by
a) Representative of DGCA
b) CEM
c) QCM/Dy.QCM
d) Both b & c are correct
45. IAR 30 empowers the Govt. of India
a) To register an aircraft in India
b) To import an aircraft in India
c) To fly aircraft in India
d) To maintain an aircraft in India
46. Temporary certificate of registration is valid
a) For one month b) For one week
c) Until the first landing at a custom aerodrome in India
d) Until the
validity of the C of A
47. Type Certificate of a rotor craft imported in India can be revalidated by the DGCA if its design and
construction confirms with the
a) FAR 23 & 25 b) BCAR 23 & JAR 25 c) FAR 26 & 29
d) BCAR 27 & 29
48. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft / aircraft component
a) Approval of DGCA is must b) Written approval of manufacturer is must
c) Approval of QCM / CEM is must d) All are correct
49. Short –term C of A is issued for
a) Un-airworthy aircraft
b) Aircraft imported from outside the country under Indian registration marking
c) Aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking
d) Aircraft having service life of less than one year
50. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in normal category are between
a) +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g b) +4.5g & +6g & -1.76q & -3g
c) +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g d) +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g
51. Validity of C of A can be extended for
a) 3% of flight hours b) 10% of calender period
c) No extension is granted d) Both a & b are correct
52. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAWO
a) All log books b) JLB c) Procedure sheets of past one year
d) All the above
53. A special flight permit is permission
a) to ferry fly to a base without passengers on board where repairs, modifications and
maintenance required to remove the suspension of the C of A can be performed
b) For production flight testing new production aircraft
c) To authorize flight for special purposes
d) All are correct
54. FRC will become invalid
a) If unapproved parts are used b) If unapproved maneuvers are taken
c) If aircraft suffers major damage d) None of the above
55. FRC of aerial work aircraft is
a) 10 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed time whichever is earlier
b) 12 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed time whichever is earlier
c) 10 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed time whichever is earlier
d) 12 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed time whichever is earlier
56. Flight release certificate is signed in
a) Duplicate b) Triplicate c) Quadruplicate
d) None is correct
57. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and
TBO’s of components up to a maximum of
a) 10% or 50 hrs. (whichever is less)
b) 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less)
c) 10% or 3 months (whichever is less)
d) Both b & C are correct
58. Multiple site damage are
a) Five or more dents on one site
b) Five or more cracks on the site which link up in to longer crack
c) Fatigue crack at number of fasteners which stand to link up into longer cracks
d) All are correct
59. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the base is carried out by
a) Persons approved for the purpose in an approved organization
b) A flight engineer
c) A flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the type of aircraft
d) Both A & C are correct
60. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of certificate
of airworthiness and thereafter in periods not exceeding
a) One year b) Two years c) Five years d) Ten years
61. Certificate of safety for gliders is valid for
a) Six months b) Three months c) One month d) One day
62. The certificate of flight release of an aircraft below 15000 kg AUW remains valid provided the pre
flight inspection is carried out by
a) A pilot as per approved schedule
b) An AME
c) A Pilot having AME Licence also
d) An approved person as per approved schedule
63. The lives of the components of an aircraft are approved by
a) DGCA b) QCM c) CAW of the region
d) CE of an organisation
64. One of the following conditions does result in automatic suspension if C of A
a) Whenever an aircraft develops a defect that effects primary structure.
b) Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing
c) Approved inspection schedules are not completed when due
d) Whenever “lifed” components are not removed as stipulated in T.B.O.’s
65. For the purpose of snag rectification an aircraft can always be taxied from bay to the maintenance
hangar by
a) An appropriately licensed AME
b) Pilot under training may be allowed
c) An individual authorized by the QCM of the firm
d) None of the above is correct
66. Mark the correct statement
a) Flight release should be preserved for six weeks
b) Aircraft log book should be preserved for 5 years
c) Journey log book should be preserved for 2 years
d) None is correct
67. All airworthy microlight aircraft should possess a
a) Valid certificate of airworthiness
b) Valid certificate of safety
c) Valid permit to fly
d) All the above
68. All amendment incorporated in the flight manual of an imported aircraft shall be intimated to
a) RAWO b) Sub-RAWO c) DGCA d) Both A &B
69. Fuel gauges shall be calibrated with zero datum at
a) Five litres b) Ten litres c) Zero litres d) unusable fuel
22. Capabilities of Nodal officer appointed by General Aviation aircraft operators shall be accepted by
a) RAWO b) RAWO/Sub RAWO c) DGCA d) QCM
23. Qualification and experience of NODAL OFFICER shall be
c) Sufficiently senior person in Aviation Department with 10 years experience
d) As in (a) with 5 years experience c) As in A with 2 years experience
d) None of the above
24. Which one of the following is responsible to ensure regular receipt of specific aircraft literature,
amendments etc, and making them available to AMO:
a) QCM b) Accountable Manager c) Nodal Officer
d) DGCA/RAWO
25. Certifying staff issuing certificate of maintenance is involved in actual maintenance of aircraft at
least for period
a) Six months in preceding one year b) 3 months in preceding one year
c) 3 months in preceding 2 years d) 6 months in preceding 2 years
26. Certifying staff involved in maintenance of aircraft shall undergo refresher course once in
a) 12 months b) 24 months c) 3years d) As desired by DGCA
27. The programme of refresher courses for certifying staff shall be reflected in
a) QC Manual b) MSM c) Training Manual d) A and C
28. The following shall ensure that there is no physical disability to any one of the certifying staff
a) Operator through periodical medical check
b) RAWO through periodical medical check
c) DGCA through periodical medical check
d) QCM through periodical medical check
29. Internal audit by QA team shall be carried out:
a) Once in every year b) Twice in every year
e) 30 days before renewal of organization
f) 60 days before renewal of organization
30. Internal audit report shall be submitted to
a) Accountable Manager and QCM
b) QCM and RAWO
c) Accountable Manager & RAWO
d) Accountable Manager & DGCA
31. Internal audit of maintenance facilities shall be carried out with a gap of
a) Six months b) Four months c) Twice in a year with a gap of 4 months
d) As in C with a gap of 6 months
32. MSM of AMO shall be approved by
a) DGCA HQ b) RAWOc) QCM d) Manufacturer
33. Methods of performing inspections and designations of personnel entitled to perform inspections is
given in
a) QCM b) EOM c) MSM d) Both A&C
34. How many copies of manuals are required to be submitted for approval:
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) One
35. Inspection schedules including special inspections of scheduled operator shall be prepared and
approved by
a) QCM b) QCM of scheduled operator
c) QCM of the organization in case of scheduled operator with 3 years of experience
d) As in (C), however in case of scheduled operator with less than three years experience will be
approved by RAWO
36. Mark correct statement
a) Any additions to approved schedule shall be pre-approved by DGCA
b) Any additions to approved schedules shall be pre-approved by RAWO/Sub RAWO
c) Any additions to approved schedules on the basis of operational experience may be made
with out prior approval
d) As in C but shall be promptly reported to RAWO/DGCA
37. Any condition classified as major defect observed during maintenance or operation shall be reported
to
a) DGCA b) Manufacturer c) DGCA and manufacturer d) None
38. The following shall be reported to DGCA/ RAWO:
a) Major defect b) Any condition classified as major defect
c) Mechanical delay d) All the above
39. Mark correct statement
a) Report regarding major defect/mechanical delay must be made immediately
b) Initial information regarding major defect / mech. delay shall be reported within 24 hours
c) As in (b) a detailed report may be sent with in 3 days
d) B & C are correct
40. Investigation of major defect shall be completed with in:
a) Four months b) Three months c) As early as possible
d) None of the above is correct