Professional Documents
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Materials Engineer
Materials Engineer
ENGINEER
ACCREDITATION
EXAMINATION
REVIEWER
SCHEDULE OF
MINIMUM TEST
REQUIREMENTS
(FREQUENCY)
Schedule of Minimum Testing Requirements Governing Items of Work of the
DPWH Specifications for Highways, Bridges and Airports (2004 Edition)
PART C - EARTHWORKS
A. AGGREGATES
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
5 to 8 mass percent of total mix
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. FINE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.50 m2/m3 concrete if using rounded course
aggregate
0.54 m2/m3 concrete if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate
Tests:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk
Specific Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness,
Organic Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk
Specific Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
C. COURSE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.77 m2/m3 concrete if using rounded coarse
aggregate
0.68 m2/m3 concrete if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate
Tests:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity,
Absorption, Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity,
Absorption and Abrasion)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
D. WATER
Test:
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
E. JOINT FILLER
1. Poured joint filler
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each type of ingredient for each
shipment
2. Pre – molded joint filler
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each
shipment
F. SPECIAL CURING AGENTS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each shipment
G. STEEL BARS
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
H. CONCRETE
Test:
Flexural Strength Test on concrete beam samples:
1 – Set consisting of 3 beam samples shall represent a 330 m2
of pavement, 230 mm depth or fraction thereof placed each day
Volume of concrete not more than 75 m3
I. COMPLETED PAVEMENT
Test:
Thickness determination by concrete core drilling on a lot basis
Five (5) holes per km per lane or five (5) holes per 500 m when
two (2) lanes are poured concurrently
Test:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk
Specific Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness,
Organic Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk
Specific Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
C. COARSE AGGREGATES
Quantity:
ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED
Class A 0.77 0.68 m2/m3 of concrete
Class B 0.82 0.73 m2/m3 of concrete
Class C 0.70 0.66 m2/m3 of concrete
Class P 0.56 0.65 m2/m3 of concrete
Test:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity,
Absorption, Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity,
Absorption and Abrasion)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
D. WATER
Tests:
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
E. PRE – MOLDED FILLER FRO EXPANSION JOINTS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each
shipment
F. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
G. CONCRETE
Tests:
Compressive Strength Test on concrete cylinder samples, one
(1) set consisting three (3) concrete cylinder samples shall be
taken from each day’s pouring and to represent not more than
75 m3 of concrete or fraction thereof
D. PAINT
Test:
Same as for Item 411
Asphalt Physical 4
Paint Physical and chemical 4
DIMESION OF PILES
SIEVE SIZES
DETAILS OF WELDS
GRADE 40 GRADE 60
Tension 24 times bar Ø 36 times bar Ø
Compression 20 times bar Ø 24 times bar Ø
REVIEW
QUESTION
S
1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural
concrete?
Answer: concrete cylinder sample
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test?
Answer: 1.0 m/10,000kg/size/shipment
4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?
Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample
5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?
Answer: 3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1 sht/100shts
7. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to
black cementitious material in which the predominating substance is bitumen?
Answer: asphalt
8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left
undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours
12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base
Course)?
Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD
13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping
(Item 104)?
Answer: 3 grading tests
14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the
materials to be used as Item 200 if finer than the required materials?
Answer: blend Item 200 with coarser materials
15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201?
Answer: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?
Answer: Blown Asphalt
20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?
Answer: by Field Density Test
21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?
Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit
23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m 3,
with an actual moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960
kg/m3?
Answer: 101.86%
24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete
pavement?
Answer: 5 holes/km/lane
25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5
grams and an oven – dried weight of 138.2 grams?
Answer: 17.58%
26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
Answer: the soil is clayey
27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the
oven is already oven – dried?
Answer: if the sample reaches its constant weight
28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
Answer: 110 ± 5°C
29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?
Answer: because it can affect its weight
30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural
moisture content?
Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture
content of an air – dried sample while NATURAL MOISTURE
CONTENT is the moisture content of the original sample from the field.
31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs sample represents?
Answer: 2000 bags
32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?
Answer: 2 pcs – 1 m sample
33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily
reinforced concrete structure using a pumpcrete to pump out the fresh concrete
mix, what admixture should it be?
Answer: Superplasticizer
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked
in water?
Answer: 4 days @ 50°C
40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial
curing?
Answer: 23°C ± 1.7°C
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63°F to
85°F are permitted for a period not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior
to test if free moisture is maintained on the surface of the specimen at all
times.
Answer: three (3)
42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial
curing of _____ hours and should be cured to the standard curing temperature
of 73.4 °F ± 3°F
Answer: Twenty – four (24)
44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what
sieve?
Answer: No. 40 (0.425 mm)
45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture – Density
Relation Test (MDR) is T – 180?
Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop
49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the
surface at the rate of approximately _____?
Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47,
what is the acceptable range of asphalt content?
Answer: 4.7% to 5.5%
52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/cu.m, how about
for concrete Class “B”?
Answer: 8 bags/cu.m
54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing
aggregates?
Answer: Once the source is identified
55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what
is the minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “C”?
Answer: 3,000 psi
56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s nominal
capacity in cu.m as shown on the manufacturer’s standard plate on the mixer,
except that an overload up to _____ percent above the mixer’s nominal
capacity may be permitted provided concrete test data for strength,
segregation, and uniform consistency are satisfactory, and provided that no
spillage of concrete takes place.
Answer: Ten (10)
57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken
from pavement is deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each
direction from the affected location
58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard
asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade or soft
asphalt)
59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports
61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____?
Answer: consistency of concrete
62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full day’s
operation?
Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples
63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many
measurements?
Answer: four (4)
64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many
measurements?
Answer: nine (9)
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is
defective, why?
Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect
66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which
of the following amount of water is most likely required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters
68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel
paint are to be used in the project?
Answer: four (4) pails
69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a
15cm compacted depth. How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test
and for sieve analysis?
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis
70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous
Prime Coat is to be used in the project?
Answer: Two (2) samples
71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume
of 8,250 cu.m?
Answer: Six (6) compaction tests
73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm
Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a
program on how many samples for each item of work should be tested based
on the minimum testing requirements. What program or report is this?
Answer: Quality Control Program
76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is
the alternative way of reducing sample for testing size?
Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured
have attained the minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not
conducted prior to the specified age the pavement shall not be operated to
traffic until _____ days after the concrete was placed.
Answer: Fourteen (14)
78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many
sample has been submitted and tested and how many samples are to be
submitted, in other words the ME must refer to what report so that he/she may
be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the construction materials
being used in the project?
Answer: Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without
breaking or crumbling up to 1/8” (3.2 mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit
81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with
base and tamping rod. After the test, the height of concrete measured is 178
mm. what is the slump of the concrete?
Answer: 127 mm
82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for
testing the mass percent of wear?
Answer: 30 – 33 rpm
83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights:
cement = 40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and
water = 15 liters. What is your actual batch weights for 1 cu.m Class “A”
concrete?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse
aggregates; 130 liters water
84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear
computed is equal to 21%. If this material is for Item 201, does it pass the
DPWH specs?
Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption
89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project,
the quantity represented, kind of sample, original source, who sampled and
who submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted and etc. What is the
common name of that tag for you as Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of
days of a quality test that takes place. Since not all construction materials can
be tested just for a day or even a week so, what is the lead time should he
consider for a quality test of a cement sample?
Answer: One (1) month
92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how
many days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test
that its result be used in field density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test,
are you going to pursue your schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt
mix can be done by what test?
Answer: Extraction Test
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool
100. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation
condition, a soil sample was taken for field and laboratory tests. The test
required for soil was taken, except
Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits,
gradation, compaction, relative density
101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be
laid at least _____ above the top of the conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m
102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with
at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 50 kgs.
Answer: Class B
103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25 kgs with
at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 20 kgs.
Answer: Class A
104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with
at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 80 kgs.
Answer: Class C
105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs
with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D
116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the
economical thickness, except
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under
girders, beam, frames and arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%)
120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and
all other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to
ensure that act as a unit to support the imposed load
Answer: Pile cap
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles,
cribbing, and for filler in steel grid floors.
Answer: Class C
130. Class of concrete used in pre – stressed concrete structures and members.
Answer: Class P
133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300
Answer: + 15 mm and – 5 mm
134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____
Answer: 3% to 5 %
136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall have a
flexural strength of _____ when tested in 14 days.
Answer: 3.80 MPa
137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate
sub – base shall spread and compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____
Answer: 80%
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: ± 10 mm
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard
Answer: No. 40
141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is
_____
Answer: 1,120 kg/m3
144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge
between contacts with the surface in Item 310
Answer: 6.0 mm
145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the completion of the
final rolling, the surface will be treated with bituminous curing seal, how
much is the rate of application?
Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required
number of CBR test is _____
Answer: four (4)
149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except
Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half
width per paving day, how many sets of concrete beam samples shall be
required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230 mm
Answer: 353 sets
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit
exceeds
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively
160. At least how many in – situ density tests should be carried out for each 500
m2 of each layer of compacted fill?
Answer: three (3)
164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined
in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 96
167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by
Answer: AASHTO T 193
170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non
– available, the use _____ allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog)
blended with crushed stones or gravel.
Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)
171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B
Answer: 1 ½ inch
178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil
aggregate, lime, water in proper proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a
prepared subgrade/subbase.
Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)
180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203
Answer: 50%
181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B
Answer: 2”
183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to
the soil aggregate?
Answer: 3% to 12%
188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup
and passing a small test flame
Answer: flash point
190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural properties of
existing pavement with unbound granular properties.
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer
192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine
the casting length of the regular piles?
Answer: Test Pitting
195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of
concrete and asphalt pavements as soon as he concrete has hardened
sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix has been initially compacted?
Answer: 3 – meter straight edge
196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive material
which is commonly used in the compaction control of earth and asphalt road
construction and in the measurement of moisture content?
Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge
198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid
materials such as rocks and concrete? This instrument is a non – destructive
portable instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180 mm x 160 mm and its
main uses includes the determination of concrete strength (either in – situ or
pre – cast),also to determine the presence of voids, cracks and other
imperfections.
Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester
200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT
201. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid to plastic state.
Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT
202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid.
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT
203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs
together are called _____
Answer: tie bars
207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture?
Answer: 2”
208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the
Marshall Stability Method for heavy traffic is ____
Answer: 1800 lbs
209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load
resistance that a specimen will develop at _____
Answer: 60°
210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end
for a heavy traffic design under the Marshall Stability Method?
Answer: 75 blows
211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt?
Answer: 85 – 100
212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I Portland cement, what type
of pozzolan shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P
213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when
tested by the midpoint method.
Answer: 4.50 MPa
215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____
Answer: Within 24 hours
217. The required slump of concrete using slip – form method of paving is _____
Answer: 1 ½ inches
219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m
220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured
concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln. m
222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken
from each 330 sq. m of pavement of fraction thereof placed each day?
Answer: 1 set
223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?
Answer: 80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength
227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course
preparatory to the construction of a bituminous surface course.
Answer: Prime Coat
229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix formula
for Item 310?
Answer: ± 0.4%
231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310.
Answer: ± 10°C
232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full day’s
operation?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm Ø
233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?
Answer: 107°C
237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____
Answer: ± 1.0 mass %
239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or
cement concrete surface with bituminous materials preparatory to the
construction of bituminous surface course.
Answer: Tack Coat
240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement?
Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2
241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut – back
asphalt?
Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2
242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310
from the testing edge of the straight edge between any two contacts with
the surface?
Answer: 6 mm
244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by
AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum
245. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
Answer: ±7
246. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100
(inclusive).
Answer: ±4
247. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve.
Answer: ±2
248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load.
Answer: stability
249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water,
temperature and traffic.
Answer: durability
250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the
passage of wheel loads.
Answer: fatigue resistance
251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform
to gradual settlements and moments of the base and subgrade.
Answer: flexibility
253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the
cohesion of the mix?
Answer: Immersion – Compression Test
254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used
grade of asphalt cement?
Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100
259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – base or base course
construction?
Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment
used and the construction method.
260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road?
Answer: excessive asphalt content
263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three – edge
bearing test machine?
Answer: 0.3 mm crack
264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous
without shock at a constant rate within the range of _____
Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 – 175 psi/second (flexural)
265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is
already doubt as to its quality should:
Answer: be retested prior to use
266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for
a particular purpose.
Answer: Stabilization
267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third
test is taken. What will be this test?
Answer: referee test
269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix?
Answer: tacky
273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered
___
Answer: normal
276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the
result. True or false?
Answer: true
278. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what
alternative should be used?
Answer: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C
279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
Answer: Method A & B – use sample passing No. 4
Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch
280. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180 compaction test method?
Answer: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12” drop while T – 180
uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer with an 18” drop.
282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with
chemicals?
Answer: distilled water
283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the
base through a height of _____?
Answer: 10 mm
284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated?
Answer: 2 rps
285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break?
Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”)
290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item
104?
Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3” openings and not
more than 15 mass % will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)
291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?
Answer: 100%
292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture
density relation test or compaction test?
Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture content
(OMC)
293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10
and retained No. 200 sieve
297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition?
Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test for surface moisture. If
the molded shape of fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has
reached a surface dry condition
299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in
abrasion test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455
grams
300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse
aggregate, grading A with 12 as number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams
302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)
303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
Answer: 14 days
304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third
point?
Answer: R = PL
bd2
305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at
center point?
Answer: R = 3PL
2bd2
306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a
hemispherical tip of the same Ø as the rod.
307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are
required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units)
308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum
309. What is the strength requirement for non – load bearing concrete masonry
units?
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum
314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left
undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours
316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many
pieces of RCCP?
Answer: 25 pieces
319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ test that measures what?
Answer: depth of soil layer
320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is
called _____
Answer: segregation
321. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5
m on each side of the pavement was designed to have subbase and base
courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the subbase
is 125 mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and subbase courses
shall be carried out in _____?
Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m
322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of
loading shall be permitted?
Answer: higher
323. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best established through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples
324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade
preparation. If you were the ME assigned to the project, what is the most
effective and cheaper method that you would recommend to stabilize the soil
prior to the construction of the subbase course?
Answer: geotextiles
325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x
21” beam mold be rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer
327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____
Answer: 29ºC
328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets
329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes
shall be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP
330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its
workability (provided concrete does not excced specified slump), how many
minutes after the initial time of mixing does adding water be permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water – cement ratio is not
exceeded.
331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the
bituminous mixture?
Answer:
TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or
wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products of the distillation of
crude oil.
332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?
Answer: Asphalt cement, cut – back asphalt, emulsified asphalt
338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall
submit the job – mix formula?
Answer: three (3) weeks
342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density?
Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable
343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would
attain the required density?
Answer: trial section
344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of
great significance in the strength of the resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature
347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____
Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density
352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of
mixing?
Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds
353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is
added to the mix until the concrete is deposited in – place at the site?
Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non – agitating trucks
and 90 minutes if hauled in truck mixers or agitators
355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a
keyway is used?
Answer: longitudinal construction joint
356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding
problem?
Answer: deformed steel tie bars
357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete
saw?
Answer: not less than 50 mm
359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of
sawing?
Answer: sawing shall be omitted
360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____
Answer: asphalt or other materials
361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device held in a position
parallel to the surface and center line of the slab of pavement?
Answer: dowel
364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the
pavement?
Answer: 1.5 mm
365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured
for a period of _____
Answer: 72 hours
368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook ’95)?
Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and
fine sand
369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which
can be used to estimate shear strength and bearing capacity
Answer: Standard Penetration Test
391. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the compacted
volume of embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness
of 200 mm/layer?
Answer: fifteen (15)
396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is
Answer: air – dried condition
400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast – iron spheres or
steel spheres.
Answer:
GRADING A – 12 spheres
GRADING B – 11 spheres
GRADING C – 8 spheres
GRADING D – 6 spheres
401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients
including water is in the drum is
Answer: 100 rpm
402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and
finishing when this method is used (Item 206)
Answer: two (2) hours
403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of _____
until the asphaltic material has set.
Answer: 40 kph
405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should
be followed is
Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously
placed concrete.
406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of
your firm, what will you recommend?
Answer: conduct recoring
407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or
doomed up and a load suddenly appears in which the material lies flat, it
indicates
Answer: excessive asphalt
408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)
409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order
to determine the liquid limit of the soil.
Answer: Flow curve
411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete
mix that produces a slump of 76.2 mm?
Answer: 24.7 liters
412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____
Answer: 2.75
415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking
spaces which is rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and
possess improved visibility at night.
Answer: reflectorized paint
416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
Answer: glass beads
418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test.
Answer: Triple spot test
419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating.
Answer: Single spot test
420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint
made with varnish as the vehicle.
Answer: Enamel
422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the
work on each course of material to be compacted.
Answer: Control strips
423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its
fina position.
Answer: tremie with 250 mm Ø
434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from
bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.
Answer: penetrometer
436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
Answer: Distillation
438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%
441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are
there in the blue book?
Answer: seven (7)
442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are
there in the blue book?
Answer: two (2)
450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate
soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 12 mass %
454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
Answer: 45 minutes
456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement
Answer: Ottawa sand
457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air
permeability
Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland
cement in the laboratory.
Answer: Gillmore needle
461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the
autoclave?
Answer: crumbled
463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every
precaution to obtain samples that will show the nature and condition of the
materials which they represent.
Answer: sampling
464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing
aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass certain sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples
467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited
laboratory.
Answer: government
468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any
drilling equipment that provides clean hole before insertion of thin – walled tubes
that is, both the natural density and moisture content are preserved as much as
practicable.
Answer: undisturbed samples
469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.
Answer: retarder
470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive
strength of concrete.
Answer: accelerator
473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for
aggregate base course?
Answer: 0 – 12%
474. The rate of application of special curing agent
Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m
475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel.
Answer: sounding
476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can
be performed?
Answer: Liquid limit test
477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the surface of timber is
Answer: 20mm
478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of
timber.
Answer: 10 days
479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum clear opening.
Answer: 2mm
480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using gravity
hammer.
Answer: 2.5m – 3.5 (concrete)
4.5m (timber)
481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and
gradation.
Answer: Compaction
482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as
engineering materials.
Answer: liquid limit of fines
483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the
expected traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated pavement
section.
Answer: 3” to 5”
484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is
____ or the differential deflection is ____.
Answer: greater than 0.14”, greater than 0.002”
485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the
24 – hour strength by _____.
Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%
486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that have
previously patched by asphalt by _____ with nominal _____ air pressure.
Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi
487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the
form moist in concrete during mixing without significantly altering the
setting or the rate of characteristic of concrete.
Answer: air entraining admixtures
490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the
pavement.
Answer: corrugation
493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point of deposit by
pneumatic means.
Answer: 3 meters
494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase
and subgrade.
Answer: base course
496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except
pavements conforming to the lines, grade and dimension.
Answer: Structural concrete
498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the roadway structure.
Answer: transom
499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split spoon
sampler and the depth needed is _____.
Answer: one (1) meter, 30m
504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for 300 VPD
traffic.
Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)
505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for less than
300 VPD traffic.
Answer: 500m (along centerline)
506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road on
swampy or marshy ground.
Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road)
508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam.
Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline
Depth = ½ times base width
512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of
180mm x 140mm.
Answer: Flush Surface Reflector
516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite
infestation.
Answer: Cordoning
517. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation.
Answer: Drenching
522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile at
each stroke.
Answer: 831.48 kg/m
523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the splice below
ground line or seabed.
Answer: 2.5 meters
524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and
other bodies of water.
Answer: dredging
528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building outline has
been established on the ground.
Answer: Minor excavation
530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above.
Answer: Boring test
531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the
ground.
Answer: 700mm
537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least
Answer: 100% modified proctor
538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials
are different from the on tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you
do?
Answer: conduct immediate re – testing for verification
539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer?
Answer:
a. sampling of material
b. analysis of test result of material
c. scheduling of delivery of materials
d. design of concrete mix
541. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff
statement is true?
Answer:
a. granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum
density at low optimum moisture content
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded
soil
c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil
at OMC
d. none of the above
542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content
of 10% higher than the optimum moisture content?
Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness
and compact
543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness
Answer: - 5mm
547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the
requirements
except grading. What will you recommend?
Answer: reprocess the materials by blending
549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?
Answer: organic
550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition
of water as lubricant?
Answer: Moisture – Density relation test
551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is
Answer: No. 10
552. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D method
in compaction test?
Answer: 0.002124 m3
556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a revised
laboratory
testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest
methods as prescribed under
Answer: ASTM & AASHTO
557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have
laboratory equipments or apparatus in pre – bidding qualifications?
Answer: large
560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the
specimen
Answer: 25mm
563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make
them denser and grow straight.
Answer: Pruning
568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade
material for road construction is classified as
Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method
569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which showed a
lump
Answer: remove and replace the pavement area with irregularity
571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately
after final placement especially during the first seven days?
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks
575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic
deposit or loose sand having high void rather and usually not high water
content
Answer: Weak Subgrade
579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the
pavement?
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration
move also be considered)
580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment?
Answer: were unsuitable material is present under the embankment
corrective work consists of placing a surcharge constructed to the full
width of the road bed. The surcharge shall remain in place until the
embankment has reached stability or the required settlement
582. Mixture of fine – grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water for
surface sealing
Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)
584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass –
like reflecting surface that usually becomes quite sticky
Answer: bleeding
586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement
Answer: crushing
587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the of the free haul
distance
Answer: Overhaul
588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio?
Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water
589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item
204?
Answer: 6 – 10 mass % of the dry soil
596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?
Answer: 4 – 5 feet
597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to
produce good grading on gravel, sand, silt and clay?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization
598. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content
of soil or liquid and hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction
process by slowing the rate of evaporation of moisture from the soil
Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt
600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside from
asphalt cement?
Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating costs and from
convenience in road – mixing or priming
602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on
Answer: cement type, cement content and water content
604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type II
607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type V
608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement?
Answer: Type 1S
621. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when
_____ is added to Portland cement
Answer: water
623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes
care of the concrete’s
Answer: alkalinity
632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable,
but making it so will only result to sacrifice in
Answer: strength
633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if
the average strength of the cores is equal to or at least _____ of the specified
strength, fc’ and no single core is less than _____
Answer: 85% of f’c, 75% of f’c
634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic
impurities
Answer: Colormatic Test
639. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity
Answer: consistency
642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal
segments?
Answer: five (5)
643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur leading
to failure
Answer: bearing capacity
645. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance
should be sensitive up to
Answer: 0.1g
646. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after being
removed from the oven, it will placed inside a
Answer: dessicator
647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay
constant weight/mass
Answer: 4 hours
648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has
been removed from the oven within
Answer: 1 hour
649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe
temperature; the drying time depends on the kind of soil and size of sample.
A 25-gram sample of sandy material will be dried in about
Answer: 2 hours
658. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus content of steel
materials?
Answer: Phospho - molydate
659. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that will cause
brittleness or cold shortness when its content goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%
Answer: phosphorous
660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete
pavement
Answer: 0.60 m
661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it?
Answer:
± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m3 from (water)
± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/ m3 of average (water)
664. For a constant water – cement ratio, what will happen if air content is
involved?
Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced
665. What will happen if you lower the water – cement ratio and maintaining
other values of its ingredients?
Answer: it will acquire strength
668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled before
batching starts?
Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for
draining