CROP PROTECTION a.

highly competitive and persistent, reduce yield of crops even at low densities
b. undesirable, troublesome but easy to control
WEED SCIENCE c. species that are not all used as crops and behave as weeds all the time.
d. controversial weeds that are neither all bad nor all good
1. The main goal of weed science is :
a. the formulation of the most satisfactory, most efficient with optimum cost of controlling 8. The predominance of weed species in the field is largely due to all of the following reasons
weeds. except one:
b. the application of control measures which may not assure complete success but at least a. their ability to get dormant when exposed to unfavorable conditions, thus they escape
reduce weed control measures
c. the formulation of the most satisfactory, most efficient yet least expensive methods of b. they survive better than cultivated plants due to built in mechanism for adaptation
controlling weeds c. high capacity for reproduction and efficient mechanism for adaptation and competition.
d. to hold pest populations below their economic threshold level. d. they have slow vegetative growth.

2. One of the following is not a definition of a weed 9. One of the following weed species exhibit epigeal germination
a. a plant that is growing out of place a. Pistia stratiotes b. Fimbrystylis littoralis
b. a plant that interferes with man’s objectives c. Calopogonium mucunoides d. Cyperus rotundus
c. a desirable plant
d. a plant that has no economic value 10. Stage in weed seed germination where cell division and cell elongation proceed at a fast rate
supported by a rapid synthesis of materials resulting in a perceptible embryo growth:
3. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of weeds: a. Period of independent growth b. growth of root like elongation
a. reduce yield of crops c. emergence of shoot d. period of rapid metabolic activity
b. clog irrigation and drainage canals
c. reduce quality of crop products 11. The stage in weed seed germination when dependence on the food reserve ceases and the
d. do not compete with crops for light and nutrients. seedling starts to manufacture its own food.
a. period of rapid metabolic activity b. root or root-like elongation
4. One of the following weeds is a grass: c. emergence of the shoot d. period of independent growth
a. Saccharum spontaneum b. Scirpus maritimus
c. Cyperus rotundus d. Ipomea aquatica 12. An environmental factor that is optional in the germination of crop seeds but very important in
the germination of most weed seeds.
5. One of the following weeds is a herbaceous weed: a. moisture b. temperature
a. Synedrella nodiflora b. Sida rhombifolia c. light d. oxygen
c. Peperomia pellucida d. Sida acuta
13. Which of the following statements describe noxious weeds best?
6. One of the following weeds is not a broadleaf? a. highly competitive, reduce yield of crops even at low densities and are difficult to control
a. Ipomea triloba b. Amaranthus spinosus b. undesirable, troublesome but easy to control
c. Echinochloa colona c. Monochoria vaginalis c. species that are not all used as crops and behave as weeds all the time
d. plants that are neither good nor bad
7. Which one of the following statements describes noxious weeds best?

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14. Like any other plant, the germination of weeds is affected by a group of environmental factors:
a. water, oxygen, temperature 21. A weed species that is associated with corn plants and has the ability to produce 5,000 seeds per
b. water, oxygen, light, temperature life cycle is:
c. water, oxygen, carbon dioxide a. Rottboellia cochinchinensis b. Cyperus rotundus
d. water, light, temperature, carbon dioxide c. Brachiaria mutica c. Ipomea triloba

15. Under field condition, this is considered as the first sign of weed growth: 22. A type of seed dormancy that takes place when a seed or propagule is subjected to conditions
a. water imbibition b. root or root-like elongation unfavorable for germination
c. period of independent growth d. emergence of the shoot a. primary dormancy b. secondary dormancy
c. tertiary dormancy d. none of the above
16. A stage in the germination process where the cotyledons and embryo absorb water
a. water imbibition b. period of rapid metabolic activity 23. The ability of weed seeds to become dormant when exposed to unfavorable conditions is a
c. root or root-like elongation d. period of independent growth mechanism for:
a. reproduction b. germination
17. The most important reason why light is required in the germination of weed seeds is: c. adaptation d. competition
a. needed in respiration or breakdown of stored food to be used by the growing embryo
b. inactivate the germination inhibitor in the seed 24. Abrasion, pricking, nipping and dehulling of seeds are examples of a method of breaking
c. required in the hydrolysis of food reserves dormancy
d. reduce the moisture content of the seed to the level below that required for viability a. stratification b. mechanical scarification
c. scarification d. chemical scarification
18. The most practical stage for controlling weeds especially when using herbicides is during their
seedling stage because: 25. The following are distinguishing features of grasses except one:
a. it is the stage where damage against crops is becoming apparent a. two-ranked leaves arise alternately from nodes
b. it is the most competitive stage for growth resources b. round stems
c. it is the stage where leaves are succulent and still lack cutin or waxes and the roots have thin c. leaf blades are narrow with parallel veins
epidermal walls. d. no distinct division between leaf blade and leaf sheath
d. It is the most destructive stage.
26. One of the following is not a feature of sedges:
a. stems are solid and triangular
b. flowers are enclosed by lemma and palea
c. leaves are three- ranked
19. All of the following are beneficial effects of weeds except one: d. no distinct division between leaf blade and leaf sheath
a. weeds conserve moisture b. weeds prevent soil erosion
c. weeds provide employment d. weeds have no medicinal value 27. The best time to identify weeds correctly is during its:
a. seedling stage b. mature stage
20. All of the following weeds have woody stems except one: c. flowering stage d. any stage
a. Sida acuta b. Lantana camara
c. Acacia Arabica d. Imperata cylindrica

29
28. Which of the following weeds germinate under water then float as soon as its primary leaf 36. Weeds that produce below ground reproductive structures and seeds which are able to survive
emerges? from year to year are called as:
a. Brachiaria mutica b. Pistia stratiotes a. annual weeds b. monocot weeds
c. Lantana camara d. Ipomea triloba c. dicot weeds d. perennial weeds

29. A lowland rice weed that produces few seeds but reproduction is compensated by vegetative 37. Water lettuce is an aquatic perennial weed that reproduces by means of seeds and:
means a. stolon b. rhizome
a. Monochoria vaginales b. Echinochloa colona c. offshoot d. tuber
c. Echinochloa crusgalli d. Pistia stratiotes
38. A shallow rooted perennial weed is:
a. Sorghum halepense b. Cyperus rotundus
c. Saccharum spontaneum d. Cynodon dactylon

30. A weed species that was introduced into the Philippines as an ornamental plant during the 39. A slender aboveground stem produced by Cynodon dactylon and Brachiaria mutica is called:
Spanish regime but is now considered as the most serious aquatic weed in the country. a. rhizome b. bulb
a. Monochoria vaginales b. Eichhornia crassipes c. tuber d. stolon
c. Ludwigia octovalvis d. Digitaria ciliaris
40. The primary propagule of Imperata cylindrica is:
31. Broadleaves are those with expanded leaf blades and netted leaf venations which excludes: a. tuber b. stolon
a. Amaranthus spinosus b. Eichhornia crassipes c. rhizome d. seed
c. Monochoria vaginalis d. Eleusine indica
41. The following weed species are perennials except:
32. The following weeds are monocots except: a. Cyperus rotundus b. Pistia stratiotes
a. Ischaemum rugosum b. Leptochloa chinensis c. Fimbristylis littoralis d. Cynodon dactylon
c. Sphenoclea zeylanica d. Rottboellia cochinchinensis

33. Which among the following weed species is an example of a monocotyledonous broadleaf?
a. Ipomea aquatica b. Monochoria vaginalis
c. Imperata cylindrica d. Sphenoclea zeylanica 42. Sedges, grasses and broadleaves belong to this classification:
a. body texture b. gross morphology
34. The following weed species reproduce asexually except: c. growth habit d. habitat
a. Cyperus rotundus b. Pistia stratiotes
c. Fimbristylis littoralis d. Cynodon dactylon 43. Weeds that have two-ranked leaves are:
a. grasses b. sedges
35. The most feared group of weeds based on life span : c. broadleaves d. aquatic weeds
a. annuals b. biennials
c. simple perennials d. creeping perennials 44. Weeds that thrive on watery areas are called as:
a. terrestrial b. aquatic

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 c. epiphytes d. saprophytes d. inability to induce dormancy during adverse condition

45. Aquatic weeds with roots that are anchored on the soil but shoots are above water are: 53. Competition is said to be critical during the young stage of the crop which is estimated to be the
a. floating b. emergent first 1/3 to ½ of the crop duration. This is known as the
c. submergent d. terrestrial weeds a. Critical threshold level b. Critical period of competition
c. Critical time index d. Crucial crop stage
46. Using habitat as a basis of classification, rice associated weeds are classified as:
a. dryland b. wetland
c. emergent d. submerged
54. Identification of weeds at the seedling stage is quite difficult because:
47. Which of the following weed species is found growing in lowland areas? a. weeds belonging to the same family are very similar in appearance
a. barnyard grass b. dayflower b. weeds cannot be seen due to their small size
c. tropic ageratum d. spiny amaranth c. weeds tend to grow taller than the crop
d. weeds do not grow at this time
48. Weeds found in temperate areas differ from those in the tropics because of:
a. difference in soil condition b. difference in climatic condition 55. Which among the following weed is spread by wind?
c. difference in crops grown d. none of the above a. Echinochloa crusgalli b. Vernonia cinerea
c. Mimosa pudica d. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
49. Which among the following weeds is classified as sedge?
a. erect spiderling b. spreading dayflower 56. The tubers of Cyperus rotundus will remain dormant if:
c. sour paspalum d. kyllingia a. there is continuous cultivation
b. herbicides are not applied
50. In crop production, the primary reason why a weed is considered as a pest is: c. they are left intact due to no tillage
a. it is able to harbor organisms d. area where they are growing is left unweeded
b. it is able to significantly lower the quantity and quality of products
c. it produces seeds and other vegetative propagules 57. The following weeds are found growing in upland areas except:
d. it annoys human requisites a. barnyard grass b. spindle top
c. carabao grass d. spiny amaranth
51. The period or stage in the life cycle of crops where the presence of weeds could affect the yield of
the crop is: 58. Major weeds of crops deposited in the soil seed bank are estimated to be at:\
a. critical density of weed competition b. critical threshold density a. 1 – 5% b. 10 - 20%
c. critical threshold level d. critical period of competition c. 50 – 70% d. 70 – 90%

52. The competitive power of the weed is its most important ammunition in the battle for survival 59. More than 95% of the weeds that infest the crop come from:
and this is attributed to their: a. neighboring farms due to irrigation water
a. rapid growth and development b. the soil
b. inefficient mechanism for adaptation c. neighboring farms brought by wind
c. ability to produce toxic chemicals d. all of the above

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60. Which of the following weeds reproduces by rhizomes, tubers and seeds? 69. Plants that are tall statured always have a competitive advantage over short plants for:
a. cogon grass b. purple nut sedge a. water b. sunlight
c. bermuda grass d. all of the above c. nutrients d. oxygen

61. The most successful weed dispersal agent is: 70. Weeds at their seedling stage can mimic the associated crop except in association of:
a. wind b. human being a. itch grass-corn b. jungle rice-rice
c. animals d. water c. barnyard grass-rice d. itch grass-peanut

62. Which of the following growth stages of weeds is best for control? 71. The dispersal unit of Physalis angulata seeds can be disseminated by wind because it has
a. seedling stage b. flowering stage a. hairy calyx c. wings
c. tillering stage d. all of the above c. hairy styles d. balloons

63. Which of the following weed species is predominant in transplanted irrigated lowland rice? 72. A weed with dense leaf clusters and swollen base of petioles that possess spongy tissues which
a. pickerel weed b. cogon grass enable them to float in water is:
c. barnyard grass d. goose weed a. Pistia stratiotes b. Eichhornia crassipes
c. Monochoria vaginalis d. Marsilea crenata
64. The density of weeds above which significant reduction in yield occurs:
a. critical period b. critical time 73. The following are considered growth habit of weeds except in:
c. critical threshold d. critical stage a. tree b. shrub
c. vine d. woody

65. Weed seeds are banked in the soil that is why weeds are: 74. A woody shrub is classified as:
a. competitive b. reproductive a. body texture b. gross morphology
c. persistent d. pernicious c. growth habit d. habitat

75. Weed seed imbibition involves the absorption of:

66. The majority of the weed seeds entering the seed bank in agricultural land come from: a. oxygen b. water
a. annual weeds b. biennial weeds c. nitrogen d. light
c. perennial weeds d. both a and c
76. A method where one can still harvest profitable crops in spite of the presence of weeds
67. The following are structures that aid in weed seed dispersal by wind except: a. weed control b. weed prevention
a. hairy style b. wings c. weed competition d. weed eradication
c. hairy calyx d. sharp spines
77. A weed management approach that appears to be the most practical since it aims for desirable
68. A structure facilitating the dispersal of weeds: weed suppression is:
a. hook b. water a. Prevention b. Eradication
c. man d. wind c. Control d. None of the above

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 c. mulching d. use of rotary weeder
78. This weed management approach is deemed ideal for it deals with both present and future weed
problems. 86. Which of the following organisms can be used as a biological control agent for weeds?
a. Prevention b. Eradication a. insects b. pathogens
c. Control d. None of the above c. sheep d. all of the above

87. An effective biological agent of weeds should:

79. Hand weeding could be classified as this type of weed control a. feed and reproduce only on the specific problem weed species
a. Physical b. Biological b. feed on several weed species
c. Chemical d. Cultural c. reproduce faster than the problem weed species
d. a and c
80. Grassedge is an example of this method of weed control
a. Physical b. Biological 88. Mulching with organic materials is a desirable method of weed control because it:
c. Chemical d. Cultural a. inhibits weed growth b. softens the soil
c. conserves soil moisture d. a and c
81. The most primitive and oldest method of weed control is:
a. mechanical b. hand weeding 89. Cover cropping is a desirable weed control method in plantation tree crops and the
c. flaming d. chemical recommended leguminous plant species used for this purpose includes:
a. Calopogonium mucunoides b. Centrosema pubescens
82. Hand weeding is: c. Pueraria phaseoloides d. all of the above
a. effective against young weeds
b. favored due to availability and low cost of labor 90. The birth of weed science as a discipline came about only after the discovery of the herbicidal
c. favored due to increasing cost of herbicide properties of :
d. all of the above a. Pendimethalin b. 2,4-D
c. Bentazon d. Auxin
83. The problem encountered with hand weeding the rice field during the vegetative stage is the
difficulty of identifying the seedlings because grass weeds and rice seedlings at this stage are very 91. The specific chemical for weed control:
similar in their: a. acaricide b. herbicide
a. life cycle b. biology c. insecticide d. molluscicide
c. physiology d. morphology
92. A pre-emergence herbicide for the control of broadleaves is:
84. Placement of dried plant materials and plastic sheets in seedling beds in order to suppress weed a. butachlor b. atrazine
growth is: c. propanil d. pendimethalin
a. crop rotation b. cover cropping
c. mulching d. flooding 93. The component of the herbicide responsible for phytotoxic effect:
a. inert ingredient b. surfactant
85. The following are considered cultural method of weed control except: c. active ingredient d. protectant
a. choice of the variety b. flooding

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94. Chemical sterilant is a volatile fumigant, which is intended to kill: 103. The recommended rate of a liquid herbicide is 1.0 kg a.i./ ha, containing 20% a.i. If the volume
a. soil inhabiting insects b. weed seeds of spray required is 400 L/ ha, and each tank load contains 16 L, the amount of herbicide
c. fungi d. all of the above needed per tank load is:
a. 100 ml b. 200 ml
95. It refers to the entire chain of events from the time the herbicide gets in contact with the plant to c. 300 ml d. 400 ml
its final effect, which could be the death of the plant.
a. Mode of action b. volatilization
c. Mechanism of action d. translocation 104. What is the amount of atrazine needed per hectare if the rate of application is 2.0 kg a.i./ ha
and the herbicide is formulated as 80% W.P.
96. A part of a knapsack sprayer that transforms herbicide solution into fine droplets is: a. 1.75 kg b. 2.0 kg
a. tank b. nozzle c. 2.25 kg d. 2.5 kg
c. filter cap d. extension tube
105. A type of herbicide that moves within the plant and can affect parts remote from the site of
97. A post-emergence herbicide is applied: absorption to the site of action is:
a. after land preparation b. after crops and weeds have emerged a. systemic b. contact
c. before land preparation d. all of the above c. non-selective d. selective

98. In the scheme of herbicide classification, this herbicide is sprayed prior to planting. 106. When a spray solution is applied uniformly over the whole area, the herbicide treatment is:
a. Mode of action b. Toxicity a. broadcast b. blanket
c. Mobility of plant d. Timing of application c. band d. spot

99. This control method requires host specificity in order to be effective: 107. The type of herbicide (time of application – based) that is considered most efficient against
a. Physical b. Biological weed seedlings is :
c. Chemical d. Cultural a. Preplant b. Pre-emergence
c. Post-emergence d. Post-directed
100. 2, 4-D is classified as:
a. Aliphatics b. Amides 108. A post emergence herbicide like 2,4-D can inhibit the growth of weed species like:
c. Phenoxy derivatives d. Nitrile derivatives a. Monochoria vaginalis b. Echinochloa crusgalli
c. Eleusine indica d. Cyperus iria
101. The most popular herbicide which was discovered in 1944:
a. paraquat b. atrazine 109. A pre-emergence herbicide for the control of grasses is:
c. 2,4-D d. glyphosate a. atrazine b. pendimethalin
c. 2,4-D d. glyphosate
102. The rate of application of powder herbicide containing 50% a.i. is 0.5 kg a.i./ ha, the weight of
the formulated product needed/ ha is: 110. A post-emergence herbicide effective for the control of perennial weeds with below ground
a. 250 g b. 500 g reproductive parts:
c. 750 g d. 1000 g a. pendimethalin b. 2,4-D
c. glyphosate d. atrazine

34
 d. expected when using contact herbicide
111. It consists of finely divided solid particles dispersed in a liquid and the solution appears cloudy
in appearance: 119. Flooding can:
a. emulsifiable concentrate b. dust a. control germination of grasses
c. wettable powder d. granules b. reduce weed populations with increased water depths
c. stimulate weed emergence when soil is allowed to dry
112. Herbicide that kills all vegetation when applied in uncropped areas is called:\ d. all of the above
a. selective b. non-selective
c. contact d. translocated 120. Weeds escape control measures due to:
a. disagreeable taste and odor b. spines and trichomes
113. Herbicide that can control some plant species without causing injury to others is: c. mimicry d. all of the above
a. contact b. non-selective
c. selective d. translocated 121. Which is not correct? Fertilizer application:
a. makes weed control imperative
114. A formulation of herbicide that forms an emulsion or milky appearance when added to water b. can shift competition in favor of the weed
with constant agitation: c. produces vigorous weeds due to nutrient uptake
a. emulsifiable concentrate b. dust d. can result in crop’s greater accessibility to limited resources in the environment
c. wettable powder d. granules
122. The term allelopathy came from two Greek words:
115. 2,4-D is a: a. allelo and pathos b. allelo and pathy
a. selective post-emergence herbicide b. selective contact herbicide c. allelon and pathos d. allele and pathos
c. non-selective post-emergence herbicide d. all of the above
123. Allelopathy could be classified as this type of weed control:
a. Physical b. Biological
c. Chemical d. Cultural
116. 2,4-D stands for:
a. 2,4-dichloroacetic acid b. 2,4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid 124. Allelopathic substances are equated to:
c. 2,4-dichlorobenzoic acid d. 2,4-dichlorophenolic acid a. allelochemicals b. mesosomes
c. allosomes d. allesomes
117. This is a type of herbicide that emphasizes the bad impacts to human health and the
environment: 125. Allelopathic plants are those that secrete substances that:
a. Mode of action b. Toxicity a. enhance or inhibit germination and growth of neighboring plants
c. Mobility in plant d. Physiology b. inhibit germination and growth of other plants
c. prevent the flowering of neighboring plants
118. Which is not correct? Acute herbicidal toxicity is: d. all of the above
a. rapid killing of the plant
b. effect is intense 126. The allelopathic substances produced by higher plants, which are effective against another
c. slow killing of the plant higher plant :

35
 a. antibiotic b. marasmin 134. The science which deals with the nature, causes and control of plant diseases
c. koline d. phytoncide a. Entomology b. Agronomy
c. Plant Pathology d. Horticulture
127. Weeds and crops have similar requirements that is why weeds are characterized as
a. Competitive b. Reproductive 135. A specific chemical intended for molds
c. Persistent d. Pernicious a. herbicide b. insecticide
128. One of these situations does not promote critical period of competition when: c. fungicide d. acaricide
a. crops and weeds have the same morphology or growth habit
b. crops and weeds are growing in close proximity to each other 136. The art of Plant Pathology which determines the severity and prevalence of diseases
c. crops and weeds are allowed to grow for the first 25-33% of the crop’s life cycle a. disease assessment b. disease forecasting
d. they are growing farther apart from each other c. disease monitoring d. disease diagnosis

129. A type of competition existing between rice and jungle rice is: 137. A combination of copper sulfate and lime which was the foundation of chemical fungicides
a. intraspecific b. ultraspecific a. saline solution b. Bordeaux mixture
c. interspecific d. extraspecific c. Benomyl d. Copper fungicide

130. Interspecific competition is exemplified by the interaction between: 138. Correct disease diagnosis is a prerequisite to
a. itch grass vs. Rottboellia b. rice vs. jungle rice a. classification of plant diseases b. formulation of control measures
c. rice vs. Oryza sativa d. corn vs. Zea mays c. disease incidence d. disease development

131. The type of adjuvant for herbicides that operate at the spray – tank level, enabling 139. One of the first plant diseases studied in the Philippines
heterogenous mixtures to be kept thoroughly mixed: a. coconut bud rot b. downy mildew of corn
a. Dispersing agents b. Spreading agents c. bunchy top of banana d. rice tungro
c. Sticking agents d. Humectants
140. All of the following are diseases caused by a virus except
132. This type of herbicide adjuvants are added to the spray mixture to increase the length of time a. tobacco mosaic b. citrus exocortis
between the application of the droplets and their evaporation to dryness. c. abaca bunchy top d. cadang cadang of coconut
a. Dispersing agents b. Spreading agents
c. Sticking agents d. Humectants 141. The following are hypoplastic symptoms of disease except
a. gall b. curling
133. This herbicide adjuvant reduces surface tension and thereby increases contact between spray c. mosaic d. stunting
droplets and sprayed surface
a. Dispersing agents b. Spreading agents 142. Downy mildew of corn was completely controlled in 1978 by
c. Sticking agents d. Humectants a. chemical seed treatment b. manipulation of planting dates
c. burning d. roguing
PLANT PATHOLOGY
143. A type of symptom involving death of protoplasts, cells or tissues
a. morphological b. necrotic

36
 c. primary d. systemic 153. Anthracnose is a fungal disease of
a. mango b. peanut
144. The cause of potato late blight in Ireland in 1840’s c. coconut d. durian
a. Plasmopara viticola b. Phytophthora infestans
c. Phytophthora palmivora d. Claviceps purpurea
154. A common medium for the isolation of fungi
145. A symptom characterized by a sharply defined variegated pattern a. PDPA b. TZCA
a. mottle b. chlorosis c. PDA d. Wakimoto
c. mosaic d. etiolation
155. A common isolation method of bacterial pathogens from plant tissues
146. Which of the following is not included in KOCH’s Postulate? a. tissue planting b. staining
a. isolation b. association c. streaking d. baiting
c. inoculation d. colonization
156. The causal agent of bugtok and moko wilt of banana
147. A fungal disease of rice which caused the Bengal famine in 1943 a. Fusarium oxysporum b. Pectobacterium carotovorum
a. rice blast b. brown spot of rice c. Ralstonia solanacearum d. Xanthomonas campestris
c. panicle blight of rice d. sheath blight of rice
157. A common symptom of disease caused by fungi
148. The only plant pathogen belonging to the Animal Kingdom a. spot b. wilt
a. nematodes b. aphids c. replacement of host tissue d. rot
c. fungi d. earthworms
158. Demonstrated that fungi are the cause and not the result of plant diseases
149. Color band of the least toxic pesticides a. Kuhn b. Burril
a. blue b. red c. De Bary d. Pasteur
c. green d. yellow
159. The basic unit of bacterial classification
150. Sigatoka is a fungal disease of a. kingdom b. family
a. mango b. banana c. genus d. species
c. citrus d. durian
160. Natural openings in the stem and root surface
151. A fungal pathogen which destroyed the coffee industry in Batangas a. stomates b. hydathodes
a. Puccinia arachidis b. Phytophthora palmivora c. lenticels d. nectaries
c. Uromyces phaseoli d. Hemeleia vastatrix
161. The shape of most plant pathogenic bacteria
152. The fungus which produces aflatoxin as it grows in stored grains, copra, etc. a. round shape b. rod shape
a. Aspergillus flavus b. Fusarium moniliforme c. helical d. filamentous
c. Fusarium graminearum d. Apergillus nidulans
162. A group of pathogen species that infect a set of differential varieties

37
 a. species b. race c. are transmitted by aphids
c. pathovar d. biovar d. associated with leafhoppers

163. Known as the Father of Plant Pathology 170. Viruses spread in the plant through slow cell to cell movement in the
a. Ocfemia b. De Bary a. stomata b. xylem
c. Beijerinck d. Pasteur c. phloem d. plasmodesmata

164. The sequence of events that give rise to disease 171. Which of the following viruses would most likely to survive?
a. pathogenesis b. saprogenesis a. a virus that kills its host plants with a rapidly developing systemic disease
c. pathogen cycle d. disease cycle b. a virus that causes only mild or moderate disease that allows the plant to survive and
reproduce effectively
165. Stage of pathogenesis that involves the transfer of inoculum from source into the infection c. a virus that will not infect and cause any disease
court d. a virus that does not replicate in plants
a. incubation b. colonization
c. penetration d. inoculation 172. Group of microorganisms that can directly penetrate the intact host surface
a. fungi b. bacteria
166. All of the following contributes to plant disease development except c. virus d. viroids
a. favorable environment b. virulent pathogen
c. resistant host d. susceptible host 173. The vector of rice tungro virus is commonly known as
a. green leafhopper b. brown planthopper
c. green planthopper d. brown leafhopper

174. The following are examples of commercially available control agents except
a. Bacillus thuringiensis b. Paecilomyces lilacinus
167. Which of the following will not contribute to plant disease epidemics? c. Metarrhizium anisopliae d. Rhizoctonia solani
a. monocropping
b. multicropping 175. A stage in the bacterial growth phase characterized by the exponential increase in cell
c. planting of susceptible hosts population
d. presence of active and mobile vectors a. lag phase b. stationary phase
c. logarithmic phase d. death phase
168. The most important group of vectors of plant viruses both in terms of the number of viruses
they transmit and the economic importance of the disease these viruses cause 176. Which of the following is a form of susceptible response by the plant to a virus infection?
a. green leafhoppers b. aphids a. production of local lesions
c. beetles d. whiteflies b. relatively fast appearance of severe symptoms
c. slow virus multiplication and spread
169. The early works on plant disease due to viruses were based on the simple fact that they are d. slow appearance of symptoms
a. very infectious and cause mosaic/mottle symptom
b. very infectious and very small 177. Bacteria devoid of cell wall

38
 a. mollicutes b. bacillus 186. A government agency that takes care of quarantine of pests
c. streptomyces d. firmicutes a. Bureau of Plant Industry (BPI)
b. Fertilizer and Pesticide Authority (FPA)
178. The following are examples of passive defense mechanisms of plants to pathogen invasion c. Department of Agriculture (DA)
except d. International Rice Research Institute (IRRI)
a. thick cuticle b. phytoalexins
c. presence of trichomes d. waxy layers 187. The feeding organ of plant parasitic nematodes
a. mandible b. stylet
179. The causal organism of root knot of most vegetables c. lip d. teeth
a. Meloidogyne incognita b. Radopholus similis
c. Plasmodiophara brassicae d. Agrobacterium tumefaciens 188. The major agents of spread of inoculum in the field
a. wind b. water
180. What is heterokaryosis? c. insects d. infected living plants
a. parasexuality
b. variation 189. Describes entrance of pathogens into the host
c. conjugation a. active b. passive
d. presence of different nuclei in the same mycelium c. a & b are correct d. neither a nor b is correct

181. The primary reproductive structures of fungi

a. spores b. mycelium
c. sclerotial bodies d. hyphae
190. Growth of germ tube towards the host or substrate could be due to
182. Structures formed by some fungi in obtaining nutrients from the host a. phototropism b. chemotropism
a. infection peg b. germ tube c. thigmotropism d. all of the above
c. appressorium d. haustorium
191. Describes the usual effect of root rotting pathogen in plants
183. Fungi in the Philippines reproduce mainly by forming a. changes reproduction of the host
a. sexual spores b. asexual spores b. increases transpiration
c. endospores d. ascospores c. interferes with the uptake of water and inorganic elements from the soil
d. interferes with the translocation of organic compounds through the phloem
184. The cell characteristics of fungi
a. prokaryotic b. eukaryotic 192. A type of disease cycle where only one generation occurs during the growing season
c. hermaphrodite d. heterothallic a. polycyclic b. monocyclic
c. both a and b are correct d. compound interest
185. A group of substances secreted by pathogens that interfere with the permeability of protoplast
a. toxins b. enzymes 193. Due to massive use and misuse of systemic fungicides, several fungi have developed chemical
c. growth regulator d. suppressors resistance to
a. mancozeb b. metalaxyl

39
 c. chlorothalonil d. benomyl
201. Agromyl is a broad spectrum systemic fungicide which contains 500 g/kg of Benomyl
194. In the bioassay of pesticides, concentrations of test solutions are usually expressed in (formulated product). What is the concentration of Benomyl in parts per million?
a. parts per million (ppm) b. percent (%) a. 500 ppm b. 5,000 ppm
c. gram (g) d. milliliter (ml) c. 50,000 ppm d. 500,000 ppm

195. Plant parasitic nematodes which move within the host tissues and/or between the soil and the 202. How much Agromyl 50 WP is needed to prepare 300 ml solution if the recommended rate is 2
host tbsp per 16 liters water?
a. sedentary endoparasites b. sedentary ectoparasites a. 0.375 g b. 3.75 g
c. migratory endoparasites d. migratory ectoparasites c. 37.5 g d. 0.0375 g
196. Which is not a purpose of disease assessment or disease appraisal?
a. to determine disease severity and prevalence 203. In a bioefficacy test, 500 ppm of fungicide X is needed. If the chemical has 75% a.i, how much
b. to determine alternate hosts of pathogens will be diluted into 250 ml water to attain the desired concentration?
c. to relate disease severity to yield loss a. 0.125 g b. 1.25 g
d. to express yield loss in financial term c. 12.5 g d. 0.0125 g
197. A quiescent parasitic relationship which delays symptoms expression but which may change
into an active one 204. What is the concentration of the solution if Fungicide Y which is 50% EC requires 20 ml of the
a. latent period b. incubation period formulated product per 20 liters water?
c. cross protection d. latent infection a 0.05% b. 0.5%
c0.005% d. 0.0005%
198. A principle of plant disease control applied if you are required to leave at the airport plant
materials you carried without phytosanitary certificate? 205. A recommendation calls for the application of Diagran 3G at 33.33 kg/ha actual product. How
a. protection b. exclusion much of the product is needed for 15,000 sqm in case of severe nematode infestation?
c. eradication d. immunization a. 0.4995 kg b. 49.995 kg
c. 4.995 kg d. 499.5 kg
199. Integrated pest management employs a variety of tactics and the least method that could be
used is 206. At the application rate of 33.33 kg/ha of Diagran 3G, find out how many grams will be applied
a. biological method b. cultural method per plant if there are 500 banana plants?
c. physical method d. chemical method a. 66.66 g b. 666.66 g
c. 6.66 g d. 0.66 g
200. Considered as the most effective and economical method of plant disease
control/management 207. A recommendation calls for the application of 1.0 g a.i. of metalaxyl per kg of corn seeds in
a. cultural control b. biological control slurry. If Apron 35 SD (formulated product) contains 50% metalaxyl, how much is needed to
c. manipulation of planting dates d. planting of resistant varieties treat 100 kg sweet corn seeds?
a. 200 g b. 20 g
c. 100 g d. 10 g

40
208. What is the percentage of damping off infection of pechay if 52 seedlings were infected out of 217. From the site of inoculation, plant viruses spread through the plant in slow cell to cell spread
100 seedlings in a plot? through the
a.52% b. 48% a. stomata b. xylem
c.50% d. 192% c. plasmodesmata d. phloem

209. Signs that do not indicate fungal infection 218. Which of the following should not be considered when identifying a plant virus?
a. mycelia tufts b. spores a. genomic organization b. type of nucleic acid
c. sclerotia d. gummosis c. shape of particle d. organization of protein

210. A fungus merely covering the surface of the plant without necessarily parasitizing it 219. A general necrosis caused by the rapid growth and advance of the causal bacteria on the leaves
a. sooty mold b. slime mold and stems
c. powdery mold d. grey mold a. wilt b. blast
c. blight d. rot
211. The naming of newly discovered fungal species is based commonly on
a. location b. host 220. Overgrowth of the protoplast of adjacent living parenchymatous cells, which protrude into
c. distinct structural character d. well-known mycologist xylem vessels through pits
a. gums b. tyloses
c. abscission layers d. cork layers
212. The fungal inocula that initiate rust disease outbreak in the tropics are the
a. uredospores b. teliospores 221. Clustering of roots, flowers, fruits or twigs around a common focus
c. basidiospores d. ascospores a. hypertrophy b. epinasty
c. hyperplasia d. fasciation
213. For annual crops, the maximum number of nematode parasites can be recovered during
a. Fallow period b. Vegetative stage 222. Cellular respiration in bacteria occurs in the
c. Flowering stage d. Near harvest stage a. cell membrane b. chloroplast
c. mitochondria d. ribosome
214. The typical number of juvenile stages in the life cycle of a nematode is
a. 2 b. 3 223. Bacterial motility is caused by a surface appendage called
c. 4 d. 5 a. cilia b. fimbriae
c. flagella d. pill
215. What is the common pattern of nematode spatial distribution in a field?
a. random b. patchy
c. uniform d. none of the above

216. The permanent nurse cells induced by root knot nematodes in roots are called 224. Which is not considered one among the five major genera of phytopathogenic bacteria?
a. galls b. syncytia a. Bacterium b. Xanthomonas
c. giant cells d. nodules c. Pseudomonas d. Erwinia

41
225. Regulates the transport of materials into and out of the cell a. one or two pairs of wings, if any b. three distinct body regions
a. cell wall b. cytoplasm c. three pairs of legs d. all of the above
c. cell membrane d. nucleus
234. Refers to the monetary value lost to the commodity such as reduction in yield due to an insect
226. A micronutrient needed by bacteria in small amount pest
a. carbon b. manganese a. injury b. damage
c. nitrogen d. phosphorus c. both A and B d. none of the above

227. Group of organisms that can directly penetrate the intact host surface 235. The three main body regions of an insect include the:
a. fungi b. bacteria a. head, thorax, and abdomen b. head, thorax and epiproct
c. viruses d. viroids c. head, thorax and cerci d. head , cephalothorax and abdomen

228. The walls of fungi generally contain 236. Serve as excretory organs in insects
a. chitin b. glucan a. Malphigian tubules b. rectum
c. chitin and glucan d. pectin c. rectal pads d. colon

ENTOMOLOGY 237. Thrips possess this type of mouthpart

a. rasping-sucking b. piercing-sucking
229. The hind legs of grasshoppers adapted for jumping purposes is equipped with c. chewing-lapping d. sponging
a. enlarged femur b. opposing spurs and spines
c. hook-like structure d. none of the above 238. The ants, bees and wasps belong to the order
a. Diptera b. Hymenoptera
230. The stages of insects that undergo a holometabolous type of metamorphosis include the c. Coleoptera d. Lepidoptera
a. egg, larva, pupa, adult b. egg, nymph, adult
c. egg, naiad, adult d. egg, young, adult 239. The insect pest commonly known as corn earworm, tomato fruitworm, tobacco budworm,
cotton bollworm, and sorghum headworm is scientifically known as
231. Insects are important to man and agriculture because they a. Ostrinia furnacalis b. Leucinodes orbonalis
a. serve as vectors of plant pathogens causing plant diseases c. Helicoverpa armigera armigera d. Spodoptera litura
b. Are sources of important products such as honey
c. Serve as biological control agents 240. Known as insect vectors of viruses causing tungro disease
d. All of the above a. Nephotettix virescens b. Nilaparvata lugens
c. Hydrellia philippina d. Leptocorisa oratorius
232. A specialized field in entomology dealing with species that is important in
beneficial or injurious manner 241. The level of pest population at which control measures are employed to prevent the Population
a. Economic Entomology b. Insect Morphology from exceeding the density that will cause economic damage
c. Insect Ecology d. Insect Physiology a. economic threshold level b. economic injury level
c. equilibrium potential d. none of the above
233. Insects can be distinguished from other arthropods by their.

42
242. These are relatively minor pests whose populations rise to economically damaging levels a. antixenosis b. antibiosis
only at certain times or in certain places c. tolerance d. avoidance
a. key pests b. migrant pests
c. potential pests d. occasional pests 250. The predatory insect responsible in the suppression of the population of the cottony cushion
scale, Icerya purchase
243. The undesirable effect of insecticides resulting from a combination of suppression of the a. Rodolia cardinalis b. Menochilus sexmaculatus
original target pest and effects of development of insecticide resistance as well as destruction c. Trichogramma evanescens d. None of the above
of natural enemies is known as
a. pest resurgence b. secondary pest outbreak 251. The spread of viruses in crops in the field is mostly due to aphid vectors. Which of the following
c. host switching d. population explosion is a vector?
a. Pentalonia nigronervosa b. Menochilus sexmaculatus
244. Chemical found in rice plants that provides resistance against stem borers c. Idioscopus clypealis d. Leptocorisa oratorius
a. Oryzanone b. DIMBOA
c. Gossypol d. Cucurbitacin 252. The first written record of insects in the Philippines was recorded by
a. Pigaffeta b. Philippi
245. The system in insects which consists of hardened sclerotized plates joined together by thin c. Guissepi d. Mardon
unsclerotized strips and provides rigidity with flexibility
a. Digestive system b. Integumentary system 253. Armyworms and cutworms prefer to pupate in the
c. Excretory system d. Muscular system a. leaves b. soil
c. panicle d. stem
246. Beetles and weevils belong to order
a. Coleoptera b. Lepidoptera 254. Responsible for the reduced uptake of insecticide solution by the insect integument
c. Orthoptera d. Dermaptera a. wax b. chitin
c. sclerotin d. tannin

247. The shedding of the insect’s old cuticle in order for it to grow is called 255. The year the National Crop Protection Center was founded
a. ecdysis b. apolysis a. 1966 b. 1986
c. mitosis d. secretion c. 1976 d. 1996

256. The required wettable formulation for 1000 L of 0.05% spray is 0.588 kg. What is the
248. Broken stalks and tassels as well as borings on base of the ear shanks on corn plants are concentration of the commercial formulation
indication of attack by a. 85 b. 87
a. corn borer b. corn ear worm c. 75 d. 80
b. corn semi-looper d. corn aphids
257. A 2.875 kg WP insecticide is required for the control of fruit and shoot borer in a 2 ha eggplant
249. A mechanism of host plant resistance where the morphological characteristics of the plant field. The recommended rate is 0.5 kg a.i./ha. What is the % a.i. formulation of the insecticide?
influence the choice of the insect pest with regards to source of food, shelter or a. 33% b. 40%
ovipositional sites c. 35% d. 45%

43
 c. 1.12 d. 1.45
258. Five hundred L of 0.03% insecticide Y spray is needed to control pod borer. 500 ml of this
product is the volume of formulation. What is the concentration of the commercial 265. If a farmer would do his own seed treatment, how much of insecticide ST would he need to
formulation? treat 20 kg seeds enough to plant a hectare given a dilution rate of 12.6 ml of insecticide ST in
a. 35% b. 40% 10 ml of water?
c. 30% d. 25% a. 25 ml b. 10.5 ml
c. 20 ml d. 250 ml

266. Consider the following information:

259. Insecticide K has a dilution rate to water of 1:320. What is its recommended dosage per 16 L of Insect Pest to be controlled : Leafhopper of eggplant
water? Area to be treated : 1.75 ha
a. 50g b. 25g Labor cost : PhP 180.00/man day
c. 20g d. 40g

260. If the recommended rate of insecticide R is 0.3 kg a.i./ha, how much of a 30% formulation, in
Insecticide G Insecticide EC Insecticide WP
liters, is needed to cover an area of 650 sq m.?
a. 0.0650L b. .0625L Type of formulation Granule Emulsifiable Wettable Powder
c. 0.0675L d. 0.0680L Concentrate
Recommended Rate 8kg/ha 125 L/ha . 1.5kg/ha
261. Mang Kanor bought an insecticide for his 1.17 ha tomato field. How much insecticide will he
Insecticide Cost 160/K 980/L 750/kg
need if the if the recommended dosage is 3 tbsp/16L of water and spray volume of 160 L per
hectare? Required man-days for 3 2 3
a. 350ml b. 250ml application/ha
c. 300ml d. 500ml Interval of application every 30 days every two weeks every two weeks

262. If insecticide X contains the active ingredient imidacloprid at 300g/liter of the formulated
product, what percentage of the product is its active ingredient?
a. 0.3 b. 3 Which formulation is the cheapest to use in the long run?
c. 30 d. 300 a. granule b. emulsifiable concentrate
c. wettable powder d. b and c
263. A carbamate insecticide effective against thrips has 500g methiocarb per kg formulated
product. What is the concentration in percent of the formulated product? 267. A coleopteran invasive insect pests of coconut accidentally introduced in the Philippines
a. 5 b. 50 through importation of ornamental palms
c. 0.5 d. 31.25 a. Nipaecoccus nipae b. Brontispa longissima
c. Oryctes rhinoceros d. Plesispa sp
264. A farmer used 360 ml of insecticide Y in his farm. He followed the recommended dosage of 3
tbsp/16 liters of water and spray volume of 180 liters per hectare. What is the area of his farm? 268. The most damaging insect pests of crucifers, the larvae of which penetrate the epidermis and
a. 1.02 b. 1.2 feed on leaf tissues .

44
 a. Plutella xylostela b. Aphis glycines
c. Crocidolomia binotalis d. Spodoptera litura 277. A fungus which is used to control many species of insect pests
a. Microsiphum maidis b. Metarhizium anisopliae
c. Leptoglossus crasipes d. Helminthosporium sp
269. All of the following are insect pests of rice except one.
a. Nephotettix nigropictus b. Nilaparvata lugens 278. The insect order to which termites or white ants belong.
c. Hydrellia philippina d. Tetranychus kanzawai a. Dermaptera b. Coleoptera
c. Isoptera d. Thysanoptera
270. A homopteran pest ravaging lanzones all over the country
a. Dysmicoccus brevipes b. Pseudococcus ulmi 279. Earwigs are general predators of soft-bodied insect pests. This biological control agent belongs
c. Lepidosaphes ulmi d. Aphis craccivora to order
a. Dermaptera b. Coleoptera
271. The vector of banana bunchy top virus c. Hymenoptera d. Diptera
a. Aphis craccivora b. Aphis glycines
c. Macrosiphum musaceae d. Pentalonia nigronervosa 280. The acarologist who spearheaded research on mites in the Philippines
a. F.F. Sanchez b. L.C. Rimando
272. A dipteran pest which damages fruits of several economically important crops c. L.C. Raros d.C R. Baltazar
a. Dacus strumeta b. Dacus orientalis
c. Dacus cucurbitae d. Dacus sepae 281. The mother of Philippine Entomology
a. Clare R. Baluran b. Clare R. Barreto
273. All of the following are biological control agents except one c. Clare R. Briones d. Clare R. Baltazar
a. Trichogramma evanescens b. Menochilus sexmaculatus
c. Tetranychus urticae d. Diadegma semiclausum 282. A very destructive coleopteran pest of sweet potato which feeds on tubers and vines and
renders the tubers unmarketable and unfit for human and animal consumption.
274. Crop rotation is an example of a. Cylas formicarius b. Nilaparvata lugens
a. biological control b. cultural control c. Cylas tuberosum d. Gryllotalpa Africana
c. physical control d. host plant resistance
283. In caterpillars, the pseudolegs are found on the
275. The organism used to produce Bt crops is a a. thorax b. Abdomen
a. bacterium b. virus c. thorax and abdomen d. cephalothorax
c. fungus d. ricketssiae
284. This sensory organ is not found in insects
a. mouthpart b. antennae
276. In the control of the oriental fruit fly, the males are subjected to radiation and then released in
c. chelicerae d. eyes
the field to mate with female fruit flies which will lay unfertilized eggs. This method of control is
called
285. Which of the following is used to enclose the stylets or needles in piercing-sucking
a. Irradiation Technique b. Sterile Male Technique
mouthparts?
c. Pheromone Trapping Technique d. Eradication Technique
a. labium b. hypopharynx

45
 c. maxilla d. labrum 296. Mole crickets with their legs modified for digging are
286. The segment of the antennae containing the Johnston Organ a. root feeders b. leaf feeders
a. scape b. pedicel c. fruit borers d. plant suckers
c. flagellum d. clavola
287. The compound eyes of insects are composed of smaller units called 297. The coconut leaf beetle or Brontispa longissima feeds by
a. ocelli b. ommatidia a. sucking the sap b. chewing the leaf epidermis
c. tympanum d. eye patch c. boring holes d. creating galls

288. The type of antennae of termites 298. The coconut mealy bug feeds by
a. moniliform b. filiform a. sucking the sap b. chewing the leaf epidermis
c. setaceous d. aristate c. boring holes d. creating galls

289. Butterflies and moths have this type of metamorphosis 299. A mechanism of host plant resistance wherein if the insect feeds on a resistant plant, there
a. Holometabolous b. Hemimetabolous will be malformation of the immature stages of the insect, and eventually may cause death
c. Paurometabolous d. Ametabolous a. antibiosis b. antixenosis
c. non preference d. parthenogenesis
290. Bugs, cicadas, leafhoppers, aphids have this type of metamorphosis
a. Holometabolous b. Hemimetabolous 300. The discovery of DDT is considered as one of the major events in the history of crop protection.
c. Paurometabolous d. Ametabolous When was DDT discovered by Paul Mueller?
a. 1959 b. 1937
291. Insects breathe through c. 1936 d. 1939
a. Mouthparts b. antennae
c. spiracles d. air tubes 301. The physical pest control method required to eliminate fruit flies on mango and papaya for
292. This is an excretory organ of insects export to Japan
a. Malphigian tubules b. tympanum a. Hot Water Treament b. Vapor Heat Treatment
c. stomodauem d. rectum c. Refrigeration d. UV Radiation
293. Insects that have one generation per year
a. Polyvoltine b. Bivoltine 302. A new generation insecticide which alters the growth of insects
c. Univoltine d. Monovoltine a. Insect Growth Regulator (IGR) b. Pyrethrin
c. Carbamates d. Green Labeled Insecticides
294. In the chewing type of mouthparts, this cuts / grinds the food
a. labrum b. labium 303. This is a biological control product against insect pests
c. maxillae d. mandible a. Katol b. Dipel
c. Methyl Eugenol d. Off
295. Preying mantis have this type of modified legs
a. crawling b. clinging 304. Legal action to exclude potential pests and to prevent spread of those already present
c. grasping d. digging a. eradication b. containment
c. suppression d. quarantine

46
 c. 23 days d. 24 days
305. Which of these are density-independent mortality factors? 314. The scientific name of the Phillippine house mouse
a. parasites b. predators a. Mus musculus castaneous b. Rattus argentiventer
c. food supply d. drought c. Rattus exulans d. Rattus norvegicus

306. Refers to control of pests by living organisms under , either natural or artificial circumstances 315. Young rats become reproductively mature after
a. Cultural Control b. Biological Control a. 75 days b. 80 days
c. Mechanical Control d. Microbial Control c. 86 days d. 90 days
316. Rats are omnivorous animals but they prefer to feed on
307. Refers to the ability of the crop to endure pest attack without suffering from significant loss of a. cereal grains b. insects
yield c. root crops d. weeds
a. tolerance b. antibiosis
c. non-preference d. avoidance 317. Rats are guided by their _______ when travelling at night
a. eyes b. whiskers
308. One of the factors for worldwide failure in cocoa production c. nose d. ears
a. Cacao Helopeltis Bug b. Cacao Pod Borer
c. Cacao Mealybug d. Thrips 318. Among the rats the male:female ratio per litter is
a. 1:1 b. 1:3
VERTEBRATE PESTS c. 1:2 d. 1:4
319. The average number of litters delivered by a mother rat per year is
309. The most common species of rats known in Philippine rice fields. It was formerly referred to as a. 1 b. 3
Rattus rattus mindanesis: c. 2 d. 4
a. Rattus tanezumi b. Rattus norvegicus 320. Pregnancy period of female rats
c. Rattus argentiventer d. Rattus exulans a. one week b. two weeks
c. three weeks d. four weeks
310. The biggest among the species of rats destructive to agricultural crops:
a. Asian rice field rat b. Bush rat 321. Movement of female rats from its home ranges around_________
c. Common rice field rat d. Norway rat a. 1 ha b. 2 has
311. The following are factors affecting the population dynamics of rodents except: c. 3 has d. ½ ha
a. birth rate b. emigration 322. The golden apple snail originated from
c. fumigation d. immigration a. United States b. South America
c. North America d. Africa
312. The following are examples of chronic rodenticides except: 323. The scientific name of Golden Apple Snail is
a. Dora b. Racumin a. Achatina fulica b. Padde oryzivora
c. Warfarin d. Zinc Phosphide c. Pomacea caliculata d. Pila luzonica
324. The shell of the female adult snail
313. The weaning age of rats a. curves inward b. curves outward
a. 21 days b. 20 days c. all of the above d. none of the above

47
325. The most destructive avian pest that attacks rice and other small grains 18. C 52. A 85. A 118. C
a. Philippine weaver b. Philippine eagle 19. D 53. B 86. D 119. D
c. Philippine oriole d. Philippine hawk
20. D 54. A 87. D 120. D
326. Birds belong to class
a. Insecta b. Reptilia 21. A 55. B 88. D 121. D
c. Mullosca d. Aves 22. B 56. C 89. D 122. B
327. An exotic bird pest of rice 23. C 57. A 90. B 123. C
a. Passer montanus b. Padde oryzivora 24. B 58. D 91. B 124. A
c. Atheopsar sp d. Leucopholis avianus 25. D 59. B 92. B 125. B
26. B 60. B 93. C 126. C
328. The house or tree sparrow
a. Passer montanus b. Padde oryzivora 27. C 61. B 94. D 127. A
c. Atheopsar sp d. Leucopholis avianus 28. B 62. A 95. A 128. D
29. D 63. C 96. B 129. C
ANSWER KEY 30. B 64. C 97. B 130. B
(CROP PROTECTION) 31. D 65. C 98. D 131. A
32. C 66. A 99. B 132. D
WEED SCIENCE
33. B 67. D 100 C 133. B
1. C 35. D 68. A 101. C
34. C
2. C 36. D 69. B 102. D
PLANT PATHOLOGY
3. D 37. C 70. D 103. B
134. C 138. B 142. B 146. D
4. A 38. D 71. D 104. D
135. C 139. A 143. B 147. B
5. C 39. D 72. B 105. A
136. A 140. D 144. B 148. A
6. C 40. C 73. A 106. B
137. B 141. A 145. C 149. C
7. A 41. C 74. C 107. C
150. B 170. D 190. D 210. A
8. D 42. B 75. B 108. A
151. D 171. B 191. C 211. C
9. C 43. A 76. A 109. B
152. A 172. A 192. B 212. A
10. D 44. B 77. C 110. C
153. A 173. A 193. D 213. D
11. D 45. B 78. C 111. C
154. C 174. D 194. A 214. C
12. C 46. B 79. A 112. B
155. C 175. C 195. D 215. B
13. A 47. A 80. C 113. C
156. C 176. B 196. B 216. C
14. B 48. B 81. B 114. A
157. A 177. A 197. D 217. C
15. D 49. D 82. D 115. A
158. C 178. B 198. B 218. D
16. A 50. B 83. D 116. B
159.. D 179. A 199. D 219. A
17. B 51. D 84. C 117. B

48
160. C 180. D 200. D 220. B VERTEBRATE PESTS
161. B 181. A 201. D 221. D 309. A 314. A 319. D 324. A
162. B 182. D 202. A 222. A 310. D 315. D 320. C 325. A
163. B 183. B 203. A 223. C 311. C 316. A 321. B 326. D
164. D 184. B 204. A 224. A 312. C 317. B 322. B 327. B
165. D 185. A 205. B 225. C 313. A 318. A 323. C 328. A
166. C 186. A 206. A 226. C
167. B 187. B 207. A 227. A
168. B 188. C 208. A 228. C
169. B 189. C 209. D
ENTOMOLOGY
229. A 249. A 269. D 289. A
230. A 250. A 270. C 290. B
231. D 251. A 271. D 291. C
232. A 252. A 272. B 292. A
233. D 253. B 273. C 293. C
234. B 254. A 274. B 294. D
235. A 255. C 275. A 295. C
236. A 256. C 276. B 296. A
237. A 257. B 277. B 297. B
238. B 258. C 278. C 298. A
239. C 259. A 279. A 299. A
240. A 260. A 280. B 300. D
241. A 261. A 281. D 301. B
242. D 262. C 282. A 302. A
243. A 263. B 283. B 303. B
244. A 264. B 284. C 304. D
245. B 265. D 285. A 305. D
246. A 266. A 286. B 306. B
247. A 267. B 287. B 307. A
248. A 268. A 288. A 308. B

49