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GATE NUMERICALS
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GATE NUMERICALS
GATE NUMERICALS
by
GATE ARCHITECTURE
ISBN 9789351968382
Copyright
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in or introduced into a retrieval system, or
transmitted, in any form, or by any means (electrical, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise) without
the prior written permission of the publisher. Any person who does any unauthorised act in relation to this
publication may be liable to legal and civil claims for damages.
First Edition
Printers:
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Contents
1. Preface ............................................................................................................................page N3
2. Tips & Tricks .................................................................................................................page N4
3. GATE syllabus................................................................................................................page N10
4. Important Topics ..........................................................................................................Page N11
4.1 Acoustics
4.2 Illumination
4.3 Structure
4.4 Miscellaneous
5. GATE Numerical Question Papers (20 Years)...........................................................page N35
6. GUESS PAPER .............................................................................................................page N134
7. Answer & Notes ............................................................................................................page N142
8. References .....................................................................................................................page N148
1. Preface
If you have already prepared for the exam, this book would be fruitful to you. This book is meant for last stage of
preparation and add an edge to your preparation by reviewing sets of numerical questions asked in previous years. In
past few years, the pattern of numerical question has changed. There would be approx 7 numerical question of 1 or 2
marks of which no option would be given. You have to answer the question by using keypad displayed on the screen.
(Use of keyboard is prohibited. Touching any key would lock your monitor screen and you may not able to answer any
further question!)
So, for such question pattern, you need through practice. We are hopeful that this booklet would meet the requirement.
We have also added a Guess Paper in this booklet.
Well, when questions are asked from a prescribed syllabus and the cut-off is almost same every year, you could predict
the question pattern because the boundary is all set. We have analysed the trends & patterns of question papers of last 5
years and based on the analysis, we framed the specific topics to compose a set of questions.
The limitation of this guess paper is, 4 options are given for a particular question in the guess paper. The experts who
frame question paper for GATE has extensive experience. They provide 4 options in such a way that students may fall
in trap to commit a mistake in selecting the correct option. Here we have given simple 4 alternatives.
Answering an objective question has its own rule to follow when you have a doubt in choosing the right answer. For
so, we have also attached expert opinion for handling objective question well.
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2. Tips & Tricks
Followings are tips & tricks for handling multiple choice questions suggested by experts from open source online
resources. Please note that following insights are not only for Numerical Questions but also for all topics. Some of
following are for paper bound exam (not online). You should skip those.
Drawing the picture of the problem is very important! The correct picture of a
numerical problem is more than 80 % of success.
Having the same units for all variables in the problem. You must ensure that you solve the problem in the
same unit. For example, in a given question, force may be given 40 Newton (N) and length of the beam
would be l= 50 centimetre. For easy and correct solution, you should change the length in meter (l= 0.5m).
Tip: If the option is given as follows: (A) 50Pa (B) 5Pa (C) 10Pa (D) 100Pa. For this type of question, you
must recheck your solution before you choose an answer.
Checking the dimensionality of analytical expressions. To arrive at correct answer, you should always
write the numerical value with it’s unit.
Example: 63. Area of tense steel per meter width of a reinforced concrete slab is 335 sq mm. If 8 mm rods
are used as reinforcement, then centre to centre spacing of the reinforcement in mm is
So, distance between two rods will be 1m/6.67 = 1000 mm/6.67 = 150 mm Answer { Here, please note
that we are dividing 1000mm /6.67 and not 1m/6.67. In the question “per meter” is mentioned. But for
correct answer we need to convert 1m to 1000mm.
Source:1
Taking Multiple Choice Exams
Studying for a multiple choice exam requires a special method of preparation distinctly different from an essay exam.
Multiple choice exams ask a student to recognize a correct answer among a set of options that include 3 wrong
answers (called distracters ), rather than asking the student to produce a correct answer entirely from his/her own mind.
For many reasons, students commonly consider multiple choice exams easier than essay exams. Perhaps the most
obvious reasons are that:
The correct answer is guaranteed to be among the possible responses. A student can score points with a lucky
guess.
Many multiple choice exams tend to emphasize basic definitions or simple comparisons, rather than asking
students to analyze new information or apply theories to new situations.
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Because multiple choice exams usually contain many more questions than essay exams, each question has a
lower point value and thus offers less risk.
Despite these factors, however, multiple choice exams can actually be very difficult and are in this course.
Consider that:
Because multiple choice exams contain many questions, they force students to be familiar with a much broader
range of material than essay exams do.
Multiple choice exams also usually expect students to have a greater familiarity with details such as specific
dates, names, or vocabulary than most essay exams do. Students cannot easily "bluff" on a multiple choice
exam.
Finally, because it is much more difficult for a teacher to write good multiple choice questions than to design
essay questions, students often face higher risks due to unintended ambiguity.
Always cover up the possible responses with a piece of paper or with your hand while you read the stem, or
body of the question.
Try to anticipate the correct response before you are distracted by seeing the options that your instructor has provided.
Then, uncover the responses.
If you see the response that you anticipated, circle it and then check to be sure that none of the other responses
is better.
If you do not see a response that you expected, then consider some of the following strategies to eliminate
responses that are probably wrong.
None of these strategies is infallible. A smart instructor will avoid writing questions for which these strategies work,
but you can always hope for a lapse of attention.
1. Responses that use absolute words, such as "always" or "never" are less likely to be correct than ones that use
conditional words like "usually" or "probably."
3. "All of the above" is often a correct response. If you can verify that more than one of the other responses is
probably correct, then choose "all of the above."
4. "None of the above" is usually an incorrect response, but this is less reliable than the "all of the above" rule. Be
very careful not to be trapped by double negatives.
5. Look for grammatical clues. If the stem ends with the indefinite article "an," for example, then the correct
response probably begins with a vowel.
6. The longest response is often the correct one, because the instructor tends to load it with qualifying adjectives
or phrases.
7. Look for verbal associations. A response that repeats key words that are in the stem is likely to be correct.
8. If all else fails, choose response (b) or (c). Many instructors subconsciously feel that the correct answer is
"hidden" better if it is surrounded by distracters. Response (a) is usually least likely to be the correct one.
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Courtesy: Center for Teaching Excellence
Source 2
When you first get the exam, don't just plunge into answering test items. Instead, thumb through the onscreen pages
and get the lay of the land. How many questions are there? How many different sections? Are some questions worth
more points than others? Once you've looked through the entire test, try to estimate what pace you should maintain in
order to finish approximately 10 minutes before the period is over. That way, you'll have a little time at the end to
check for mistakes like skipped questions or misread items.
Some of the worst problems occur when students enter a time warp and forget to check the clock, or when they spend
too much time on one or two difficult items. To prevent this from happening, one trick you can use is to scribble the
desired "finish time" time for each section right on the test booklet. That way, you'll be prompted to check the clock
after completing each part of the exam.
Try taking a few breaks during the exam by stopping for a moment, shutting your eyes, and taking some deep breaths.
Periodically clearing your head in this way can help you stay fresh during the exam session. Remember, you get no
points for being the first person to finish the exam, so don't feel like you have to race through all the items -- even two
or three 30-second breaks can be very helpful.
Skipping around the exam can waste valuable time, because at some point you will have to spend time searching for
the skipped questions and re-reading them. A better approach is to answer each question in order. If you are truly
baffled by a question, mark the answer you believe to be right, place a question mark next to the question, and come
back to it later if you have time. Try to keep these flagged questions to a bare minimum (e.g., fewer than 10% of all
items).
Even though first answers are often correct, you shouldn't be afraid to change your original answer if, upon reflection,
it seems wrong to you. Dozens of studies over the past 70 years have found that students who change dubious answers
usually improve their test scores. For example, a study of 1,561 introductory exams found that when students changed
their answers, they went from wrong to right 51% of the time, right to wrong 25% of the time, and wrong to a different
wrong answer 23% of the time (Source: Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, Vol. 88, 725-735).
If you're utterly stumped by a question, here are some strategies to help you narrow the field and select the correct
answer:
1. Ask yourself whether the answer you're considering completely addresses the question. If the test answer is
only partly true or is true only under certain narrow conditions, then it's probably not the right answer. If you
have to make a significant assumption in order for the answer to be true, ask yourself whether this assumption
is obvious enough that the instructor would expect everyone to make it. If not, dump the answer overboard.
2. If you think an item is a trick question, think again. Very few instructors would ever write a question intended
to be deceptive. If you suspect that a question is a trick item, make sure you're not reading too much into the
question, and try to avoid imagining detailed scenarios in which the answer could be true. In most cases, "trick
questions" are only tricky because they're not taken at face value.
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3. Syllabus 2017
Section 1: Architecture and Design Visual composition in 2D and 3D; Principles of Art and Architecture; Organization of
space; Architectural Graphics; Computer Graphics– concepts of CAD, BIM, 3D modeling and Architectural rendition;
Programming languages and automation. Anthropometrics; Planning and design considerations for different building types;
Site planning; Circulation- horizontal and vertical; Barrier free design; Space Standards; Building Codes; National Building
Code. Elements, construction, architectural styles and examples of different periods of Indian and Western History of
Architecture; Oriental, Vernacular and Traditional architecture; Architectural developments since Industrial Revolution;
Influence of modern art on architecture; Art nouveau, Eclecticism, International styles, Post Modernism, Deconstruction in
architecture; Recent trends in Contemporary Architecture; Works of renowned national and international architects.
Section 2: Building Materials, Construction and Management Behavioral characteristics and applications of different
building materials viz. mud, timber, bamboo, brick, concrete, steel, glass, FRP, AAC, different polymers, composites.
Building construction techniques, methods and details; Building systems and prefabrication of building elements; Principles
of Modular Coordination; Estimation, specification, valuation, professional practice; Construction planning and equipments;
Project management techniques e.g. PERT, CPM etc.
Section 3: Building and Structures Principles of strength of materials; Design of structural elements in wood, steel and
RCC; Elastic and Limit State design; Structural systems in RCC and Steel; Form and Structure; Principles of Pre-stressing;
High Rise and Long Span structures, gravity and lateral load resisting systems; Principles and design of disaster resistant
structures.
Section 4: Environmental Planning and Design Ecosystem- natural and man-made ecosystem; Ecological principles;
Concepts of Environmental Impact Analysis; Environmental considerations in planning and design; Thermal comfort,
ventilation and air movement; Principles of lighting and illumination; Climate responsive design; Solar architecture;
Principles of architectural acoustics; Green Building- Concepts and Rating; ECBC; Building Performance Simulation and
Evaluation; Environmental pollution- types, causes, controls and abatement strategies.
Section 5: Urban Design Concepts and theories of urban design; Public Perception; Townscape; Public Realm; Urban
design interventions for sustainable development and transportation; Historical and modern examples of urban design; Public
spaces, character, spatial qualities and Sense of Place; Elements of urban built environment – urban form, spaces, structure,
pattern, fabric, texture, grain etc; Principles, tools and techniques of urban design; Urban renewal and conservation; Site
planning; Landscape design; Development controls – FAR, densities and building byelaws.
Section 6: Urban Planning and Housing Planning process; Types of plans - Master Plan, City Development Plan, Structure
Plan, Zonal Plan, Action Area Plan, Town Planning Scheme, Regional Plan; Salient concepts, theories and principles of
urban planning; Sustainable urban development; Emerging concepts of cities - Eco-City, Smart City, Transit Oriented
Development (TOD), SEZ, SRZ etc.
Housing; Concepts, principles and examples of neighbourhood; Housing typologies; Slums; Affordable Housing; Housing
for special areas and needs; Residential densities; Standards for housing and community facilities; National Housing
Policies, Programs and Schemes.
Section 7: Planning Techniques and Management Tools and techniques of Surveys – Physical, Topographical, Landuse
and Socioeconomic Surveys; Methods of non-spatial and spatial data analysis; Graphic presentation of spatial data;
Application of G.I.S and Remote Sensing techniques in urban and regional planning; Decision support system and Land
Information System.
Urban Economics; Law of demand and supply of land and its use in planning; Social, Economical and environmental cost
benefit analysis; Techniques of financial appraisal; Management of Infrastructure Projects; Development guidelines such as
URDPFI; Planning Legislation and implementation – Land Acquisition Act, PPP etc.; Local self-governance.
Section 8: Services, Infrastructure and Transportation Building Services: Water supply; Sewerage and drainage systems;
Sanitary fittings and fixtures; Plumbing systems; Principles of internal and external drainage system; Principles of
electrification of buildings; Intelligent Buildings; Elevators and Escalators - standards and uses; Air-Conditioning systems;
Firefighting Systems; Building Safety and Security systems.
Urban Infrastructure – Transportation, Water Supply, Sewerage, Drainage, Solid Waste Management, Electricity and
Communications.
Process and Principles of Transportation Planning and Traffic Engineering; Road capacity; Traffic survey methods; Traffic
flow characteristics; Traffic analyses and design considerations; Travel demand forecasting; Land-use – transportation -
urban form inter-relationships; Design of roads, intersections, grade separators and parking areas; Hierarchy of roads and
level of service; Traffic and transport management and control in urban areas,; Mass transportation planning; Paratransits
and other modes of transportation, Pedestrian and slow moving traffic planning; Intelligent Transportation Systems.
Principles of water supply and sanitation systems; water treatment; Water supply and distribution system; Water harvesting
systems; Principles, Planning and Design of storm water drainage system; Sewage disposal methods; Methods of solid waste
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management - collection, transportation and disposal; Recycling and Reuse of solid waste; Power Supply and
Communication Systems, network, design and guidelines.
4. Important Topics
4.1. Acoustics
Sound is such a common part of everyday life that we rarely appreciate all of its functions. It provides enjoyable
experiences such as listening to music or to the singing of birds.
Yet, too often in our modern society, sound annoys us. Many sounds are unpleasant or unwanted - these are called
noise. However, the level of annoyance depends not only on the quality of the sound, but also our attitude towards it.
For example the type of music enjoyed by some people could be regarded as noise by others, especially if it is loud.
The branch of science which deals with the planning of a building to provide the best quality audible sound to audience
is termed as architectural acoustics or acoustics of the building.
Whenever the intensity of sound increases by a factor of 10, the increase in the intensity is said to be 1 bel (A unit
named after Alexander Graham Bell, the inventor of telephone)
Therefore dynamic range of audibility of the human ear is 12 bels or 120 dB. When the intensity increases by a factor
of 100.1, the increase in intensity is 0.1 bel or 1dB.
in decibel
10 log10 I
I
L =
0
I0: base intensity (10-16 W/cm2, hearing threshold)
I: intensity (W/cm2)
(3) Whisper 15 – 20
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For other topics such as CPM/PERT, Heat etc are briefly described along with the question asked in the exams.
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5. GATE QUESTION PAPERS
GATE 2016
Q1. It takes 10s and 15s, respectively, for two trains travelling at different constant speeds to completely pass a
telegraph post. The length of the first train is 120 m and that of the second train is 150 m. The magnitude of the
difference in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is ____________. (1 mark)
(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0
Q2. The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97 and 64) is ________. (1 mark)
(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64
Answer: 97 is the odd number out. All other numbers are squares.
324 = 18*18
441 = 21*21
64 = 8*8 Answer: (C)
Q3. A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a slope of
−0.02. What is the value of y at x = 5 from the fit? (2 marks)
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Area of the triangle = 1/2 x base x height = 1/2 x B x A = 1/2 x 13/6 x 1 = 13/12 .............(P)
So, required area = (Q) - (P) = 98/6 - 13/12 = 183/12 = 15.25 Answer: (C) 15.25
Solution: The odometer will read 5. (The area shaded under the graph).
Odometer is an instrument for measuring the distance travelled by a
wheeled vehicle. So, you have to just count the no. of squares made by
triangles of the graph. Answer: (D) 5 Figure: Odometer graph.
Thermal conductivity is the time rate of steady state heat flow through a unit area of a homogeneous material induced
by a unit temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to that unit area, W/m⋅K.
k = q(L/T) Where,
Consequently, the value of the thermal conductance can be calculated by dividing the thermal conductivity with the
thickness of the specimen. Answer: (A )
Q7. In a residential neighbourhood, the net area of residential plots is 50 percent of the total area. If the
population is 8000, the ratio of net density to gross density of the neighbourhood is ________ (1 mark)
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Q9. One litre of acrylic paint can cover 16 sqm of wall area for the first coat and 24 sqm for the second coat. The
walls of a lecture hall measuring 12m × 8m × 4m (L × B × H) need to be painted with two coats of this paint. The
hall has total glazed fenestration area of 12 sqm. The number of 4 litre paint containers required will be
__________ (2 marks)
Q10. The estimated number of bricks (unit size: 250 mm × 125 mm × 75 mm) for laying one course of a 250 mm
thick brick wall using rat-trap bond for a running length of 3.9 meter will be ___________ (2 marks)
Answer: 36
Q11. In 2001, the population and work force participation rate of a town were 30,000 and 30 percent
respectively. The work force participation rate in the year 2011 increased to 34 percent. If the decadal
population growth rate was 6 percent, the increase in the number of working people in the town in 2011 was
__________ (2 marks)
Q12. In a 20 storey building with 3m floor to floor height, a passenger lift is hoisted by a steel rope. Weight of
the lift car is 750 kg and ultimate load the steel rope can carry is 39,000 kg. Assuming a factor of safety of 20 for
the steel rope and an average passenger weight of 75 kg, the passenger capacity of the lift is ____________
Q13. A room is mechanically ventilated through four air-conditioning ducts. The opening area of each duct is
0.35 sqm. The air velocity in the duct is 0.5 m/s. The temperature difference between the ambient air and supply
air is 10 °C. Volumetric specific heat of air is 1250 J/m3 °C. Assuming one Ton of refrigeration (TR) equals 3.5
kW, the cooling load of the room in TR will be_____________ (2 marks)
Q14. Find the reverberation time of room 4m x 3m x 3m (LBH) with the help of following data.
Q15. A four-storey building with equal areas in each floor is required to be designed on a plot with FAR of 2.0.
If the FAR is increased to 2.2, the percentage increase in ground coverage utilizing full FAR in both cases will be
___________ (2 marks)
Solution: Let site area be 100 unit. FAR = 2 means built up area = 2x100 = 200 unit. As each floor has equal area, so
each floor area = 200/4 = 50 unit. So ground coverage = 50 sqm.
In the second case, site area = 100 unit. Built up area = 220 as FAR=2.2
Ground coverage = 220/4 = 55
So ground coverage is increased from 50 to 55. Therefore,
change in % = 10% Answer: 10
Q17. A solar photo-voltaic system is proposed to be installed at the roof top of a hostel. The cost of installation
and the annual maintenance are INR 2,40,000 and INR 6000 respectively. It is expected to generate 600 kWh of
electricity per month. Assume unit price of electricity as INR 5. Ignoring the discount rate, the payback period
of the investment in years is____________ (2 marks)
Q18. In a housing project, the number of LIG, MIG and HIG units are in the ratio of 1:1:2. The ratio of areas of
the units is 3:5:8. Assume unit cost of construction is same for all the three types. For a no profit no loss
situation, if 10% discount is offered to LIG and MIG units on sale price, extra charge in percentage payable per
HIG unit will be ____________ (2 marks).
Solution: Let,
No. of LIG = 1
No. of MIG = 1
No. of HIG = 2
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Total 0.3 + 0.5 = 0.8 would be burden on HIG cost which totals 16 unit
So, % change in cost = (0.8/16) x100% = 5% Answer: 5
Q19. A pump is installed in an apartment building to lift water from ground level to the roof top water tank
with the capacity of 10,000 litres. Total head of lift is 18 m and pumping time is 30 minutes to fill the tank
completely. Assuming acceleration due to gravity (g) as 10 m/sec2 and efficiency of the pump as 80 percent, the
power requirement of the pump in kW will be __________ (2 marks).
Solution: Power = Energy/ Time = Work Done/ Time = mgh/30min = 10000x10x18/1800 sec = 1000
As the pump is working at 80% efficiency, power = 10/8 (1000) =1250 Watt =1.25 Watt Answer: 1.25
Q20. A lamp source of 3200 candela is mounted on a wall at a height of 2 meter from the work-plane. It
subtends an angle of incidence of 60o with the center of the work plane. The illumination at the centre of the
work plane in Lux is __________ (2 marks).
Q21. A CPM network of a construction project is given in the figure below. The activity durations are
mentioned in weeks. The project completion time in weeks will be _____________ (2 marks).
(1) > (2) > (5) > (6) and it takes 7 + 3 + 4 = 14 weeks
(1) > (3) > (4) > (6) and it takes 6 + 5 + 3 = 14 weeks
(1) > (3) > (5) > (6) and it takes 6 + 8 + 4 = 18 weeks
(1) > (3) > (4) > (5) > (6) and it takes 6 + 5 + 0 + 4 = 15 weeks
The longest duration time is 18 weeks during which all activity paths would be completed. So, the completion time for
the project would be 18 weeks.
Answer: 18
Q22. A steel I-beam section is subjected to a bending moment of 96 kN-m. The moment of inertia of the beam
section is 24,000 cm4. The bending stress at 100 mm above the neutral axis of the beam in MPa will be
____________ (2 marks).
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Q23. A 250 mm × 250 mm RCC column is reinforced with one percent steel. The permissible compressive stress
of concrete and steel are 8 N/mm2 and 150 N/mm2 respectively. The axial load carrying capacity of the column in
kN is _____________ (2 marks).
Solution:
where
Pu= factored axial load on the member,
fck= characteristic compressive strength of the concrete,
Ac= area of concrete,
fy= characteristic strength of the compression reinforcement, and
Asc= area of longitudinal reinforcement for columns.
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GATE 2015
Answer : 3
5. A cube of side 3 units is formed using a set of smaller cubes of side 1 unit. Find the proportion of the number
of faces of the smaller cubes visible to those which are NOT visible.
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5. The ratio between illumination at a working point indoor to total light available simultaneously outdoor is
known as
Answer : A
6. A rectangular beam section of size 300 mm (Width) X 500 mm (depth) is loaded with a shear force of 600 kN.
The maximum shear stress on the section in N/mm2 is_____________
Answer : 625
8. A 15 meter long and 3 meter wide driveway needs to be paved with 300 mm X 300 mm square Tiles. If each
packet contains 30 numbers of tiles, then the number of packets to be procured to pave the whole area
is__________________
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So, 360 = 54H
So, H = 20/3 meter
Therefore, volume of room = Length x Breadth x Height = 15 x12 x20/3 = 1200 cubic meter
Answer : 1200
10. The actual roof area of a building is 3,60,000 sqm, which on a site plan measures 25 sq cm. The scale of the
site plan is 1:____
11. If the annual net come from a commercial property is Rs 22,000/- and the interest rate is 8%, then the
capitalized value in rupees of the property in perpetuity is________________
Notes:
Let the value of the property is X
According to question, 8% of X is 22000
(X) x 8/100 = 22000
8X/100 = 22000
X = 275000 Answer Answer : 275000
12. A five storey building is constructed on a 100 m x 50 m plot having coverage of 60% (option 1).
Alternatively, a four storied building is constructed on the same plot with a 50% ground coverage (option2). The
ratio of FARs between options1 and 2 is ______________________
U-value = 1/ R-value
Following is the basic equation of heat flow,
……………………………………………(1)
Where,
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conductivity constant and is also related to thickness, thus:
Let,
R-value of thermal insulation material = R1
R-value of the roof = R2 = 1/U-value = 1/3 …………(given)
R-value of combined set = R1+2
According to question,
∆Q/∆t = A (Tf-Ti)/R2……………………………………(heat transfer rate when there is no insulation)
0.4 x (∆Q/∆t) = A (Tf-Ti)/R1+2…………………………..(heat transfer rate with insulation)
1/0.4 = R1+2/ R2
1/0.4 = R1+2/ (1/3)
1/ R1+2 = 1.2
Now as per addition of thermal resistance,
R1+2 = R1 + R2
1/1.2 = R1 + 1/3
R1 = 2 Answer
Most household heat is lost through the windows and roof as shown in the figure.
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R-Value (Thermal Resistance)
Thermal resistance is the ability of a material to prevent the passage of heat. It’s the thickness of the material (in
metres) divided by its conductivity. This is expressed as m2K/W.
If the material consists of several elements, the overall resistance is the total of the resistances of each element. The
higher the R-value, the more efficient the insulation.
Example:
PIR Board: 0.022 W/mK and 100mm thick; R-value = 0.1 metres ÷ 0.022 = 4.54 m2K/W
Glass Fibre Roll: 0.044 W/mk and 100mm thick; R-value = 0.1 metres ÷ 0.044 = 2.27 m2K/W
N.B. Surfaces and cavities also provide thermal resistance which must be taken into account when calculating U-
values. There are standard figures for the resistances of surfaces and cavities.
Water runoff by brick paving = 0.8 x 7000 sqm area x 0.07 m of rain fall = 392.0 cum
Water runoff by concrete paving = 0.9 x 5250 sqm area x 0.07 m of rain fall = 330.75 cum
Water runoff by grass cover = 0.5 x 22750 sqm area x 0.07 m of rain fall = 796.25 cum
Answer : 1510 to 1530
16. The number of standard cement bags required to prepare 1400 kg of concrete in the ratio of 1:2:4 (mixed by
weight batching)
Answer : 20
Notes: 500 lux = 500 lumen/meter square
Total lumen required = (500 lumen/meter square) x (Area of the room) = 500 x10x8
Lumen output of one lamp = 5000 lumen (given)
Actually the lumen output of the lamp will be less than 5000 lumen because of utilization factor and maintenance
factor.
So, net lumen output = 5000 x 0.5 x 0.8
Required no. of lamps = Total lumen required / lumen of on lamp = 500x10x8 /5000x0.5x0.8 = 20 Answer
18. Area of tense steel per meter width of a reinforced concrete slab is 335 sq mm. If 8 mm rods are used as
reinforcement, then centre to centre spacing of the reinforcement in mm is
19. The population of a town as per Census 2011 was 22,730 and the population as per census 2001 was 15,770.
Considering arithmetic projection of growth, the projected population in 2016 will be
So, after 5 years that is in 2016, the population would be = 22730 + 3480 = 26210 (Answer : 26178 to 26210)
20. Two concrete mixers of capacity 200 liters each are used in a construction site to produce 20 cubic meter of
concrete. Ingredient charging, mixing and discharge times are 3 minutes, 7 minutes and 1 minutes respectably.
Assuming a tune loss of 5 minutes per hour of operation, the total time in hours for the mixers to produce the
required amount of concrete will be_________.
Notes: Capacity of the concrete mixers = 2x 200 liters = 2x (200/1000) cubic meter = 0.4 cubic meter
According to question, time taken to produce 0.4 cubic meter of concrete = 3+7+1 = 11 minutes
Time taken to produce 20 cubic meter of concrete = (20/0.4) x 11 minutes = 550 minutes.
As tune loss of 5 min is in an hour
So for 550 minutes, (550/55) x 5min = 50 minutes.
So total time required = 550 + 50 = 600 minutes = 10 hours. Answer : 10
END
GATE 2014
N46