Chap 015

Chapter 15 - Assessment, Careers, and Business
Chapter 15
Assessment, Careers, and Business
Multiple Choice Questions
1. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the first intelligence service in the United States was
created under President
A. Theodore Roosevelt.
B. Franklin D. Roosevelt.
C. Dwight D. Eisenhower.
D. John F. Kennedy.
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2. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the Office of Strategic Services (OSS) is viewed today
as the forerunner to
A. the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA).
B. the US Army Special Forces.
C. both the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) and the US Army Special Forces.
D. None of these.
3. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, one of the major turning points in the history of
psychological assessment came as the result of the forward-thinking action of a U.S. Army
General named
A. James "Big Jim" Thornton.
B. Harold "Hard Hal" Robertson.
C. Samuel "Secret Sammy" Sanders.
D. William "Wild Bill" Donovan.
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4. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the team of psychologists that was assembled to create
the novel assessment program for personnel selection for the Office of Strategic Services
(OSS) could be characterized as
A. "junior varsity."
B. "recently licensed."
C. "all over the map."
D. "all-star."
5. All of the following were objectives of America's first intelligence service EXCEPT
A. gathering information about the intentions and activities of this country's adversaries.
B. executing operations aimed at disrupting foreign enemy actions.
C. identifying domestic groups that represented a threat to the United States.
D. sabotaging foreign enemy assets.
6. Candidates for the OSS would have to be all of the following EXCEPT
A. resourceful.
B. contemplative.
C. emotionally resilient.
D. creative.
7. Identifying candidates for OSS positions represented a "real-world" problem that would
ultimately be addressed by means of
A. a thoughtfully-devised psychological assessment program.
B. a highly incentivized recruiting program.
C. an imaginative but cost-effective advertising program.
D. All of these
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8. The model of assessment and personnel selection devised by OSS personnel was
A. generally consistent with the then-current practices.
B. unreliable as a result of then-existing time pressures.
C. revolutionary for its time and still in use today.
D. has remained classified to the present day.
9. The varied responsibilities of the OSS raised many questions for the OSS team of assessor
psychologists. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the "bottom line" question for the
assessors could BEST be phrased as,
A. "What defines ‘usefulness to the organization'?"
B. "What psychological attributes can we reasonably assess in the space of a relatively short
visit to the assessment facility?"
C. "How do we select candidates who are a good fit with the varied demands required of OSS
intelligence officers?"
D. "What specific aspects of personality should be the focus of our assessments?"
10. A number of factors conspired to make the task of the OSS one of the most complicated
behavioral prediction challenges ever encountered in the history clinical psychology. These
factors included
A. identifying psychological attributes that corresponded to OSS duties.
B. the novelty of the OSS function.
C. the variability of job requirements for OSS intelligence agents to be recruited.
D. All of these
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11. As an alternative to analyzing OSS jobs into their component psychological attributes, the
OSS Assessment Staff set what they characterized as ______ assessment as their objective.
A. orgasmic
B. organismic
C. orthogonal
D. None of these
12. Ultimately, psychologists evaluated OSS candidates on the basis of data derived from
A. the full range of assessments, considered as a whole.
B. a series of individual tests, each measuring a required ability.
C. a single test with scales for each of the required abilities.
D. a complex weighting of case history data and cognitive/behavioral tasks.
13. Candidates for OSS training arrived at the OSS instructional facility for assessment and
training from
A. their homes throughout the United States.
B. specially designated hotels in Roanoke, Virginia where they had been instructed to
assemble.
C. United States military bases.
D. All of these
14. OSS assessment and training was conducted at a location that was code-named _____, but
was informally referred to as ____.
A. the homestead; the farm
B. Farm 44; the station
C. Station S; the farm
D. Dulles; the airport
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15. Once at the OSS training and assessment facility, the candidates
A. were interviewed by psychologists, completed questionnaires, and sat for paper-and-pencil
tests.
B. had their performance evaluated on a highly stressful, but mock interrogation.
C. were challenged to build a small wooden structure using "assistants" who deliberately
frustrated the candidates' efforts.
D. All of these
16. While at the OSS assessment and training facility, the candidates
A. were not allowed to verbally interact with each other.
B. were encouraged to view Survivor re-runs on VHS.
C. would inevitably have a physical altercation with either "Buster" or "Kippy."
D. None of these
17. OSS candidates were formally and informally assessed at the OSS assessment and training
facility over the course of a total of ____.
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. one week
D. 10 days
18. The OSS assessments resulted in mounds of notes and other data about the candidates'
suitability for intelligence work. All of this information was
A. analyzed in triple-blind fashion by a panel of three psychologists.
B. sent to OSS headquarters in Washington, D.C. for a preliminary recommendation.
C. reviewed and debated at a staff conference.
D. All of these
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19. The final decision regarding the status of an OSS was made by
A. senior OSS staff officials.
B. psychologists on-site at the training and assessment facility.
C. senior Department of the Army officials.
D. Harold "Hard Hal" Robertson.
20. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the legacy of the OSS assessment program
A. is tied to its compelling demonstration of the utility of psychological testing and
assessment.
B. lives on in the modern day use of assessment centers for personnel selection in corporate
America.
C. is very much a part of assessment centers conducted by today's governmental agencies.
D. All of these
21. The image in Chapter 15 of your textbook of Steve Martin as a dentist in Little Shop of
Horrors was used to illustrate a point about occupational choice and
A. burnout.
B. interests.
C. productivity.
D. workplace drug testing.
22. Although not identified as such at the time of hire, there are employees who turn out to be
"poor-fits" for their job or work place. According to Dr. Jed Yalof, such individuals may
A. have been easily screened out by basic self-report measures and never hired.
B. be well-versed in impression management techniques, which is how they got the job.
C. have served time in prison for forging work credentials in the past.
D. All of these
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23. According to Dr. Jed Yalof, potential problems may arise with employees who
misrepresented their credentials to gain employment. These employees may
A. try to bend the rules of the workplace.
B. down-play or disregard supervisory feedback.
C. be inappropriately competitive with co-workers.
D. All of these
24. According to Dr. Jed Yalof, in the workplace, the problems of one individual, such as
chronic lateness or chronic moodiness, are likely to negatively impact the focus and
productivity of
A. that individual.
B. other workers.
C. both that individual and other workers.
D. all workers in that industry.
25. The General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)

A. is administered only by licensed counseling psychologists.
B. was developed by the military to assist veterans in their job search.
C. taps cognitive, perceptual, and psychomotor skills.
D. Both is administered only by licensed counseling psychologists and was developed by the
military to assist veterans in their job search.
26. The process of selection based on an evaluation of certain minimal criteria is referred to
as
A. classification.
B. directed search.
C. screening.
D. interviewing.
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27. When hiring new personnel, the term that BEST describes the process by which applicants
are accepted or rejected is
A. selection.
B. placement.
C. classification.
D. directed search.
28. Application forms used in employment settings

A. are generally considered to be useful for quick screening.
B. have been shown to have poor validity and reliability in numerous research studies.
C. are frequently unnecessary, since they usually duplicate information that can be later
obtained through interviews, tests, Linked-In, and other sources.
D. Both have been shown to have poor validity and reliability in numerous research studies
and are frequently unnecessary, since they usually duplicate information that can be later
obtained through interviews, tests, Linked-In, and other sources.
29. Letters of recommendation used in employment settings

A. are generally not very useful since they are all typically favorable.
B. are generally useful in the preliminary screening of applicants.
C. have been demonstrated to be valid and reliable tools for employee selection.
D. are more useful if they are open-ended rather than structured.
30. Vocational assessment that entails performance samples

A. may take the form of a leaderless group situation.
B. generally take the form of paper-and-pencil tasks.
C. have been heavily criticized for their use in measuring problem solving and decision
making.
D. are used extensively in the hiring of valets.
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31. In the evaluation of worker productivity

A. final course grades in job training classes are highly predictive of future worker production
and job tenure.
B. peer ratings have proven to be a valuable method of identifying talent.
C. peer ratings tend to be lower and more critical than ratings by superiors.
D. the leniency effect and the halo effect rarely result in rating errors.
32. In the context of business settings, which of the following BEST exemplifies a process
related to validity generalization?
A. validating a projective personality technique for use in determining leadership ability and
integrity
B. selecting standardized instruments that include validity scales for use in recruiting new
trainees for a local police department
C. determining whether validity evidence for a test that taps aptitude for secretarial work can
be meaningfully applied to the work of a truck driver
D. creating situational performance samples that more closely simulate actual job
requirements of clerical and assembly-line workers
33. Race-norming entails

A. including items that pertain to various racial groups on a test.
B. adjusting an individual testtaker's score to reflect that person's standing in his or her own
racial group.
C. Both including items that pertain to various racial groups on a test and adjusting an
individual testtaker's score to reflect that person's standing in his or her own racial group.
D. None of these
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34. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used in pre-employment screening of job
applicants for unskilled positions in a large corporation?
A. application blanks
B. letters of recommendation
C. interviews
D. aptitude measures
35. Which LEAST represents a benefit of portfolio assessment in the workplace?

A. It can yield insights into how employees or prospective employees think about work-
related things.
B. The prospective employer can view samples of the applicant's work product.
C. It potentially allows the employer entry into a side of the employee's world that would
otherwise be private.
D. Use of such methods by prospective employers in certain economically depressed areas
carries with it federal tax benefits.
36. A "real time, live action" approach to assessment that requires assessees to demonstrate
abilities that typically are characteristic of those they might encounter on-the-job is referred to
as:
A. portfolio assessment.
B. performance assessment.
C. curriculum-based assessment.
D. authentic assessment.
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37. Performance assessments

A. provide an opportunity for potential employees to candidly discuss their strengths and
weaknesses.
B. involve a thorough background check with previous employers.
C. provide a job-related sample of behavior.
D. are usually not standardized.
38. Computer simulations and video games have earned a place as a tool of vocational
assessment—so much so, that they are sometimes even referred to as
A. portfolio evaluations.
B. performance tests.
C. online interviews.
D. cyberselection tools.
39. Which of the following does NOT belong?

A. an "in-basket" task
B. a computerized jet fighter simulation
C. a word processing test
D. a polygraph test
40. The practice of adjusting test scores to reflect an individual's level of performance within
a racial group is referred to as
A. racial bias.
B. discrimination.
C. race-norming.
D. intercept bias.
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41. In the late 1980s, there was a nationwide controversy regarding the race-norming of the
A. Mooney Faces Test.
B. General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB).
C. MMPI-2.
D. Strong Interest Inventory (SII).
42. Criterion validity of the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) tends to be low, probably
because of
A. the low test-retest reliability of the GATB.
B. the low reliability of supervisory ratings.
C. a limitation of the Taylor-Russell tables.
D. scoring that is based in part on the race of the test-taker.
43. Race-norming of the General Aptitude Test (GATB) was viewed as appropriate by the
National Academy of Sciences because
A. the criterion-related validity of the test for African-Americans and Caucasians is
represented by different regression lines.
B. the various groups for which data exists are being held to the same standards.
C. African-Americans are more likely than Caucasians to come from disadvantaged
backgrounds, and race-norming the test compensates to some degree for that disadvantage.
D. so few minority group members take the test that the net effect of the race-norming would
not yield the desired consequence.
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44. The question of whether the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) should be race-
normed was resolved when
A. the National Academy of Sciences issued a report on the test.
B. the Department of Labor stopped offering the test for employers.
C. Congress passed the Civil Rights Act of 1991.
D. there was a public outcry against the continued use of the GATB.
45. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 stated that tests like the General Aptitude Test Battery
A. must no longer be administered.
B. must produce equal mean scores for all races.
C. could no longer be race-normed.
D. violated the civil rights of minority groups.
46. Who developed a commonly used set of interest inventories?

A. Myers
B. Strong
C. Bray
D. Briggs
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47. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the Strong Interest Inventory as the use of
this test relates to respondents from diverse cultural backgrounds?
A. The evidence supports the use of Strong with college-educated respondents from diverse
cultural backgrounds.
B. The evidence does NOT support the use of Strong with respondents from diverse
backgrounds.
C. The question of the use of Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds has only
begun to be investigated and no findings have yet been reported.
D. The question of the use of Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds is moot as
the test publisher has made highly specific recommendations regarding which testtakers from
which cultures the test is appropriate for use with.
48. The Strong Interest Inventory measures

A. vocational aptitudes.
B. vocational interests.
C. vocational interests and aptitudes.
D. vocational interests and general mental ability.
49. Items such as "I get along well with others" and "I enjoy math" are representative of the
types of items presented on which of the following vocational assessment instruments?
A. the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B. the General Aptitude Test Battery
C. the Minnesota Clerical Test
D. the Strong Interest Inventory
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50. Bizot and Goldman (1993) examined the predictive criterion validity of interest
inventories and ability tests in relation to future job performance and job satisfaction. They
concluded that
A. interest is predictive of job performance.
B. aptitude is predictive of job performance.
C. interest is predictive of job satisfaction.
D. All of these
51. Bizot and Goldman (1993) found that ________________ scores in high school are
predictive of _______________ in adulthood.
A. interest test; job satisfaction
B. interest test; job performance
C. ability test; job satisfaction
D. ability test; job performance
52. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) was based on the theoretical writings of
A. Sigmund Freud.
B. B. F. Skinner.
C. Carl Jung.
D. Holland Opus.
53. The Work Preference Inventory (WPI) is designed to assess

A. intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
B. ability to work with people and ability to work alone.
C. interest in intellectually demanding work as opposed to routine, non-demanding work.
D. active managerial style as distinct from passive managerial style.
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54. The Work Preference Inventory (WPI) is designed to assess two characteristics. Factor
analysis indicates that two factors are in fact present on the test and correspond to the two
types of motivation postulated by the test developers. Given these facts, it seems reasonable to
conclude that the test has documented evidence of its
A. internal consistency.
B. construct validity.
C. face validity.
D. test-retest reliability.
55. It has been estimated that drug testing is used by approximately ________% of companies
in the United States.
A. 5
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
56. One is LEAST likely to undergo drug testing if one is

A. a new employee in a large company.
B. a current employee in a small service organization.
C. completing military service.
D. a current employee in a large company.
57. Employees who are subjected to drug testing have expressed concerns about
A. the accuracy of the drug testing.
B. unconstitutional search and seizure.
C. violation of privacy rights.
D. All of these
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58. A false-positive drug test result is BEST associated with which of the following
conclusions about the testtaker?
A. The testtaker is still affected by a drug even though the drug has actually left the person's
system.
B. An impaired testtaker who has gone undetected by the test.
C. The testtaker consumed a poppy-seed bagel for breakfast.
D. None of these
59. A false-negative drug test is BEST associated with which of the following conclusions
about the testtaker?
A. The testtaker is taking depression medication.
B. The testtaker consumed something with poppy-seeds in them recently.
C. The testtaker is probably impaired but the test does not indicate this.
D. None of these
60. Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been proposed as a more
acceptable way of measuring impairment than drug testing. The use of video games in such a
way would BEST be characterized by assessment psychologists as
A. drug testing.
B. authentic assessment.
C. performance assessment.
D. aptitude testing.
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61. Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been proposed as a more
acceptable way than drug testing to detect impairment. Which is an advantage of the use of
video games in this way?
A. immediate feedback concerning impairment
B. improved employee satisfaction
C. demonstrated effectiveness in reducing accidents
D. All of these
62. According to your textbook, a ___________ is defined as "a task, an undertaking, or an

activity performed for pay."
A. career
B. occupation
C. job
D. vocation
63. Résumés and application forms are BEST classified as ________ instruments.
A. placement
B. screening
C. hiring
D. classification
64. How do application forms differ from résumés?

A. Application forms are often used for screening purposes; résumés are used for selection.
B. Application forms offer relevant background information regarding education and
employment history; résumés typically do not.
C. Application forms are more highly structured than résumés.
D. Application forms are often used as a basis for later interviewing; résumés are not.
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65. According to your textbook, the most complete picture of a job applicant's actual abilities
can BEST be obtained from a
A. portfolio assessment.
B. personal interview.
C. detailed résumé.
D. letter of recommendation.
66. According to your textbook, the typical objective of a performance test is to

A. compare an employee's performance with that of other employees.
B. assess the speed of an employee in completing a job-related task.
C. determine the accuracy of an employee's performance under stressful conditions.
D. obtain a job-related performance sample.
67. Which is NOT true of the Minnesota Clerical Test (MCT)?

A. It is often used as a screening tool.
B. It requires the assessee to place names in alphabetical order.
C. It measures both speed and accuracy.
D. It can be administered and scored quickly.
68. The 1956 Management Progress Study (MPS) at American Telephone and Telegraph
(AT&T)
A. represented the first application of the assessment center concept in an industrial setting.
B. was a longitudinal study with assessments of both management and non-management
employees.
C. was headed by Donald Super who was later honored by the NFL when it re-named its
championship "Bowl" game in his honor.
D. was sponsored by IBM and a dozen or so other companies known by three-letter acronyms.
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69. An assessment center is

A. a specific place in an organization staffed by the industrial/organizational psychologist.
B. a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment techniques.
C. a method of assessment used for selection, classification, and promotion.
D. Both a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment techniques and a method of
assessment used for selection, classification, and promotion.
70. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate use of a physical measure for the
purpose of employee screening?
A. testing an industrial worker's hearing
B. testing a police officer's speed and agility
C. measuring the height and weight of a telephone operator
D. using a polygraph test to assess a cashier's integrity and honesty
71. How are aptitude tests different from achievement tests?

A. Aptitude tests tap a greater amount of informal learning.
B. Aptitude tests are typically more limited and focused in the content of the presented.
C. Aptitude tests measure prior learning; achievement tests measure present learning.
D. Most aptitude tests are administered by means of paper and pencil while most achievement
tests are computer-administered.
72. The Hand-Tool Dexterity Test and the O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test would most
likely be used by an employer interested in
A. understanding a worker's motivation to respond quickly with accuracy.
B. evaluating a worker's ability to physically manipulate materials.
C. finding the best employee for a position on an assembly line.
D. increasing profit margins by increasing the utility of the selection tools.
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73. According to your text, an assumption underlying the development of the Strong Interest
Inventory was
A. if an assessee has many outside interests, he or she will experience less on-the-job stress.
B. if an assessee's interests match those of people already in the field, the assessee may be
well suited for the job.
C. all people in a particular field will work well together if they share similar interests.
D. the more interests an assessee has, the more adaptable he or she will be to various job-
related situations.
74. The longitudinal study by Bizot and Goldman showed that 8 years after their completion,
interest inventories administered in high school had predicted
A. job performance.
B. job satisfaction.
C. neither job performance nor job satisfaction.
D. the administrative level achieved.
75. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the role of personality measures in
business and organizational settings?
A. The same personality test may not be equally suited for use in screening applicants for
every variety of employment.
B. The distinction between task-related and people-related aspects of a job is irrelevant to
personality measurement.
C. The MMPI-2-RF has quickly become the most widely used measure of personality in
business and organizational settings.
D. Personality tests are playing less and less of a role in business and organizational settings
with every passing year.
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76. Productivity ratings made by peers tend to be

A. invalid due to factors such as jealousy.
B. more strict than ratings made by supervisors.
C. predictive of future job performance.
D. poorly correlated with self-ratings.
77. Which is NOT a key component of organizational commitment?

A. loyalty and involvement in the organization
B. a value system consistent with that of the organization
C. length of time with the organization
D. the amount of special effort one would exert on behalf of the organization
78. Which of the following is TRUE of the Organizational Commitment Questionnaire

(OCQ)?
A. The OCQ was developed in China.
B. The OCQ has not demonstrated construct validity but this may be an artifact of the
variables measured.
C. The OCQ is a 15-item Guttman scale.
D. An early draft of the OCQ was field-tested on 100 social workers.
79. Tests designed to evaluate commitment to an organization include measures of

A. loyalty.
B. attendance.
C. Both loyalty and attendance.
D. None of these.
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80. Which of the following are typically variables reviewed when evaluating organizational
commitment?
A. absenteeism
B. supervisory complaints regarding work ethic or other ethics-related issues
C. quality of work
D. All of these
81. Which of the following is NOT a reflection of organizational culture?

A. the role of a manager in the organization
B. a parking spot close to the building awarded to the "employee of the month"
C. the annual holiday party
D. All of these are reflections of organizational culture
82. Which statement BEST describes the current status of organizational culture measures?
A. There is no shortage of highly reliable and valid instruments that measure organizational
culture.
B. There are very few instruments with demonstrated reliability and validity.
C. Instruments to measure organizational culture are difficult to develop, given the differences
that exist between large organizations.
D. The term "organizational culture" is an elusive concept with many meanings so it has been
difficult for test developers to come up with acceptable tests.
83. The term organizational culture refers to

A. a company's physical work setting.
B. the types of people who work at the company.
C. the formal and informal ceremonies and privileges within the organization.
D. All of these
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84. Which of the following tools of assessment is useful when assessing corporate and
organizational culture?
A. a stress interview
B. a polygraph
C. a focus group
D. videos of the office holiday party
85. Scores on the Strong Interest Inventory provide information about a testtaker's interests
relative to
A. the skills required for a particular job.
B. the educational level required for a particular job.
C. the probability of success at a particular job based on academic achievement.
D. the interests of people actually employed in various occupations.
86. An employee's level of organizational commitment is MOST closely tied to

A. how the organization represents itself to the public at large.
B. the physical setting in which the employee works.
C. the values held by the organization.
D. the special privileges offered to employees.
87. Which is TRUE of drug testing in work settings?

A. Large companies are more likely to test than small companies.
B. Random drug testing is commonplace in private, service-oriented companies.
C. Companies involved in the manufacture and distribution of pharmaceuticals do the least
testing.
D. Small companies typically test more than large ones because of the higher stake they have
in each employee.
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88. Which is NOT a criticism of drug testing in the work place?

A. It may violate the constitutional rights of employees.
B. False positives and false negatives are always a possibility.
C. Any benefits of drug testing tend to be outweighed by the costliness of the procedure.
D. The most commonly used methods do not yield specifics about when the drug was taken or
how much impairment occurred.
89. With regard to the validity of integrity tests,

A. existing integrity tests have not been shown to be valid and should not be used in the
workplace.
B. the integrity of the developers of the most widely used integrity tests has been called into
question.
C. professionally developed tests have the best chance of meeting acceptable validity
standards.
D. only the integrity test used to screen prospective hostesses of home Tupperware parties has
been shown to be valid.
90. Rating on the basis of one, sole criterion is referred to as

A. classification.
B. placement.
C. screening.
D. selection.
91. Employers use the résumé and the cover letter to assess all the following EXCEPT
A. the appropriateness of career objectives.
B. perceived sincerity.
C. work-related thought processes.
D. prior job-related experience.
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92. A useful, quick-screening method that provides a biographical sketch of a job applicant is
the
A. focus group.
B. portfolio.
C. application blank.
D. home visit.
93. Letters of recommendation MOST typically provide detailed information about a job
applicant's
A. educational credentials.
B. fantasy life.
C. past performance.
D. food preferences.
94. An aptitude test that includes both psychomotor and paper-and-pencil tasks is the
A. Bennet Mechanical Comprehension Test.
B. General Aptitude Test Battery.
C. Minnesota Clerical Test.
D. O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test.
95. The NAS report regarding correction of test bias in the General Aptitude Test Battery
(GATB) concluded that
A. more effort would be necessary to completely eliminate the halo effect in test scoring.
B. raw scores had to be converted into interpretable standard scores.
C. test coefficients were too low to be acceptable criterion-related validity evidence.
D. nothing had to be changed in the practice of scoring the tests.
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96. A limitation of using ratings to measure productivity is the possibility of

A. irresponsibility in rating.
B. rater bias.
C. low predictive efficiency.
D. None of these
97. Which of the following is the BEST example of intrinsic motivation?

A. a bonus for making a specified quota
B. recognition by one's peers in the form of an award
C. one's satisfaction with one's own work products
D. a short-order cook actually winning an episode of Iron Chef
98. According to Vroom's expectancy theory of motivation, employees will expend energy
A. to achieve an outcome they desire.
B. to experience feelings of accomplishment.
C. to satisfy a higher category of need.
D. to receive recognition for performance.
99. In addition to measuring feeling states, measures of job satisfaction usually measure
A. knowledge necessary for successful job performance.
B. strength of one's loyalty to the organization.
C. perception of one's role in the organization.
D. All of these
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100. The term used to represent the strength of one's loyalty to an organization is
A. attitudinal fortitude.
B. motivational alliance.
C. organizational commitment.
D. job satisfaction.
101. Which of the following BEST reflects a performance test administered by the Food
Network in its search for a new host for a show called Bizarre Foods?
A. Have the applicant fill out an application blank.
B. Have the applicant solicit letters of reference.
C. Review the applicant's video portfolio.
D. Offer the applicant a breaded and fried grasshopper to eat.
102. Random drug testing is LEAST employed in

A. government agencies.
B. large companies.
C. the military.
D. the music industry.
103. Which is TRUE of the immunoassay method for detecting drug use?
A. It determines the degree of impairment that occurred as a consequence of the drug use.
B. It determines the precise amount of the drug that was ingested.
C. It determines which drug in a particular category was taken.
D. It determines the approximate hour of the day that the drug was taken.
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104. As a result of legislation, which of the following tools of assessment may NOT be used
in most employment settings?
A. drug tests
B. personality-based measures
C. physical tests
D. lie detectors
105. According to White, a higher norm of stealing by employees sometimes results from the
use of
A. random drug testing.
B. pre-employment honesty testing.
C. job satisfaction tests.
D. Kelly Clarkson recordings as background music in retail environments.
106. Maslow's hierarchical theory as it relates to worker motivation would suggest that
A. employees expend energy in ways designed to achieve the outcome they desire.
B. the more money a worker earns, the more money the worker strives to earn.
C. once workers feel secure in their positions and accepted by their co-workers, they strive to
earn recognition for their accomplishments.
D. an extremely high-risk situation may not lead to feelings of accomplishment because of a
high probability of failure.
107. At what age are students' interests thought to be sufficiently formed to be useful in
course and career planning?
A. 10 years old
B. 15 years old
C. 7 years old
D. 13 years old
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108. Which of the following is TRUE of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)?
A. Despite weak psychometric qualities, the test remains popular.
B. The test is really not a measure of type in the strict sense of that word.
C. The test has strong validity.
D. The test is widely used as an adjunct to random drug testing.
109. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is used MOST by

A. computer-match dating services.
B. private hospitals.
C. employers.
D. municipally administered health clinics.
110. The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills measures

A. personal living skills.
B. community-related living skills.
C. employment skills.
D. All of these
111. The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills is appropriate for

A. children from ages 2 to 10.
B. children and adolescents from ages 2 to 19.
C. young adults and adults from ages 16 and up.
D. children and adults.
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112. On the Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills, for an assessee to be judged as

"independent," he or she must perform the task with good quality at least __________% of
the time, when needed, without reminder.
A. 50
B. 75
C. 90
D. 99
113. Emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and reduced sense of personal accomplishment

are all symptoms of
A. personality disorder.
B. burnout.
C. underemployment.
D. watching Stephen Colbert's Late Night television show.
114. After successfully completing basic training, a U.S. Marine Corps recruit is assigned
responsibility for maintenance of copy machines in the Corps' offices in Quantico, Virginia.
Which term best describes this assignment?
A. selection
B. placement
C. screening
D. classification
115. The Cross-Cultural Adaptability Inventory is MOST useful for measuring

A. ability to adapt to extreme climate changes for extended periods of time.
B. readiness to be relocated for employment purposes in another country.
C. aptitude for mastering a foreign language.
D. social skills and cultural competence regarding worldwide labor negotiations.
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116. The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills is

A. a norm-referenced test.
B. a criterion-referenced test.
C. an objective test.
D. a performance-based test.
117. Which of the following is NOT measured by the Cross-Cultural Adaptability Inventory?
A. emotional resilience
B. flexibility/openness
C. personal autonomy
D. receptive communication
118. The Goal Instability Scale, The Life Satisfaction Index, and the Interpersonal Support
Evaluations List are all used by counselors for the purpose of
A. job selection.
B. job assignment.
C. retirement planning.
D. substance abuse counseling.
119. A person has just been evaluated by a prospective employer and may now either be
accepted or rejected for a position at the company. This person has just gone through a
__________ process.
A. screening
B. selection
C. classification
D. None of these
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120. Which of the following interest inventories has MOST to do with occupations that
require 4 or more years of college or graduate school?
A. the Strong Interest Inventory
B. the Career Interest Inventory
C. the Campbell Interest and Skill Survey
D. the Jackson Vocational Interest Survey
121. Which of the following is TRUE of qualitative research?

A. It always involves large numbers of subjects.
B. It allows the psychologist to use statistical analyses of the data obtained.
C. It can lead to the development of new hypotheses.
D. All of these
122. Motivation research includes

A. focus groups.
B. individual interviews.
C. Both focus groups and individual interviews.
D. None of these
123. Engineering psychologists were probably at work in the design of

A. airplane cockpits.
B. computer keyboards.
C. child car seats.
D. All of these
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124. In consumer assessment, survey research can be accomplished by

A. face-to-face interviews.
B. telephone interviews.
C. mail questionnaires.
D. All of these
125. Perhaps the most widely used form of survey research is

A. the face-to-face personal interview.
B. the telephone interview.
C. the mail questionnaire.
D. the fax questionnaire.
126. Which type of survey research provides the opportunity to collect the largest amount of
data in the most economical fashion?
A. the mail survey
B. the telephone survey
C. the personal interview
D. the mall intercept
127. "Locate products within the framework of an attribute space based on consumer
perceptions of similarities and differences among products." Which approach to scaling is
made reference to in this quote?
A. Likert scaling
B. Guttman scaling
C. Multidimensional scaling
D. Aggregate scaling
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128. Which attitude research method involves repeated judgments of a concept against a
series of descriptive bipolar adjectives on a 7-point scale?
A. semantic differential
B. multidimensional scaling
C. aggregate scaling
D. word association
129. The following item appears on a paper-and-pencil questionnaire administered at the mall:
Just another facial tissue___/___/__/___/____/___/A very special facial tissue.
The item exemplifies which type of scale?

A. Likert
B. Guttman
C. Osgood semantic differential
D. word association
130. A consumer psychologist creates a survey that includes questions that can only be
answered yes or no (such as "Do you like the new packaging for Wild Berry Cereal?"). The
survey this psychologist has developed could BEST be described as a
A. Likert survey.
B. poll.
C. semantic differential survey.
D. word association survey.
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131. A consumer psychologist is working for a drug company that has developed a new
contraception device for men. To assess men's attitudes towards this device, which method of
data gathering would the psychologist be LEAST likely to employ?
A. mail surveys
B. home visit and family discussion
C. online discussion forum
D. focus group with males in the target age range
132. Which of the following types of survey holds the greatest potential for immediate
feedback?
A. mail
B. face-to-face
C. online
D. telephone
133. Online and telephone surveys have which of the following characteristics in common as
compared to surveys conducted face-to-face?
A. Online and telephone have higher reliability and validity than surveys conducted face-to-
face.
B. Online and telephone are less cost effective than surveys conducted face-to-face.
C. Online and telephone surveys lack identity verification while those administered face-to-
face do not.
D. All of these represent characteristics that online and telephone surveys have in common as
compared to face-to-face interviews.
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134. A consumer psychologist must write a report on how young children influence purchase
choices of breakfast cereals geared to young children. What method of information-gathering
would most probably be BEST to learn about this influence process?
A. a mail survey
B. a telephone interview with both parents and children
C. a mall intercept study
D. behavioral observation in a supermarket cereal aisle
135. Which type of survey research is MOST susceptible to non-response?

A. the mail survey
C. the personal interview
D. the mall intercept
136. Which type of survey would most probably be BEST for obtaining consumers' responses
to a product demonstration?
A. the mail survey
C. the mall intercept survey
D. the fax survey
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137. A consumer in an auto parts store is asked to complete a survey with regard to a
particular brand of motor oil. The scale used in the survey looks like this:
Which type of scaling method is being used by this researcher?

A. Likert scaling
B. Guttman scaling
C. Osgood Semantic Differential
D. multidimensional scaling
138. The Likert and Guttman scales are examples of which methods of attitude research?
A. aggregate scaling methods
B. multidimensional scaling methods
C. the semantic differential technique
D. disaggregate scaling
139. One of the significant ways in which the traditional model of attitudes differs from the
Fishbein model is that
A. the two models define basic terms such as cognition, affect, and overt behavior differently.
B. the traditional model treats attitudes as being composed of only one component (affect)
whereas the Fishbein model conceptualizes attitudes as having three components (cognition,
affect, and behavior).
C. the Fishbein model explicitly recognizes that attitudes may have multiple attributes, while
the traditional model assumes that attitudes have only one attribute.
D. the traditional model is more culturally universal than the Fishbein model.
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140. Which theory of attitudes makes a clear distinction between "intentions" and "overt
behavior"?
A. traditional
B. Fishbein
C. functional
D. All of these
141. Which of the following is TRUE of the Fishbein model?

A. "Intentions" mediate between attitudes and overt behavior.
B. "Intentions" are not measured.
C. There is little relationship between "attitude" and "intentions" at the global level.
D. "Intentions" and "attitude" are the same.
142. A major advantage of individual interviews with consumers is that they

A. have potential for verbal as well as nonverbal information.
B. are inexpensive.
C. can be conducted quickly.
D. are usually completed within five minutes or less.
143. In which of the following scaling methods are statements ordered according to their
relative importance?
A. Guttman scaling
B. Likert scaling
C. multidimensional scaling
D. semantic differential scaling
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144. Which of the following is the fastest, least expensive, and most efficient method of
survey research?
A. the door-to-door approach
B. the telephone interview
C. the focus group
D. the mail questionnaire
145. To monitor what really prompts consumers to purchase a particular product at the "point
of choice," the market researcher should use which of the following?
A. direct observation
B. focus groups
C. in-depth interviews
D. phone interviews
146. Which of the following research methods is best in terms of providing information useful
in making inferences about cause-and-effect relationships in consumer psychology?
A. a focus group
B. an experimental design
C. behavioral observation
D. brain wave research
147. Focus groups usually consist of how many participants?

A. 2 to 5
B. 6 to 12
C. 13 to 20
D. 21 to 30
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148. Consumer psychologists often choose surveys and polls over other measurement
methods because
A. they can analyze motives with respect to consumer behavior and attitudes.
B. they can determine whether a rise in sales is due to effective advertising.
C. they can examine in depth a group of consumer reactions.
D. they can gain information about opinions of large numbers of people.
149. Which of the following is TRUE of a focus group?

A. The participants are randomly selected.
B. A free-flowing discussion is avoided.
C. The group consists of 20-25 participants.
D. A trained moderator leads the group.
150. The concept of the "BASIC IDS" applies to

A. experimental research investigating clinical mental health issues.
B. dimensional qualitative research.
C. non-dimensional qualitative research.
D. experimental research investigating consumer behavior.
151. A disadvantage of focus groups as compared to other tools in the assessment of

consumer behavior is the
A. lower reliability of focus groups.
B. limited applicability of focus groups in consumer research.
C. open-ended nature of focus groups.
D. lack of in-depth information that results from focus groups.
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152. An interview that involves considerable probing of an individual consumer's beliefs and
attitudes is called:
A. a depth interview.
B. an attitude survey.
C. a face-to-face interview.
D. a focal interview.
153. A consumer psychologist may choose to use a one-on-one interview because

A. it produces data that are quantifiable.
B. it provides a detailed source of information.
C. it is the most time- and cost-effective approach.
D. it consists of only structured questions.
154. The term "RIASEC" is BEST associated with the

A. Strong.
B. Wonderlic.
C. Holland.
D. Dutch.
155. The Dean of the DeSade School of Dentistry has called you for a consultation. The Dean
wants to know which individually administered tests should be administered to candidates for
a seat at the school. Of the following tests, which is BEST for use in screening prospective
dental students?
A. the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B. the in-basket technique
C. Champagne's Study of Values
D. the O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test
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156. The test we now refer to as the "Strong Interest Inventory" was, in its original edition,
known as the
A. Strong Volitional Interest Bank.
B. Strong Vocational Interest Blank.
C. Strong Vocational Interest Inventory.
D. Mighty Interest Inventory.
157. Who can take the GATB?

A. most anyone of working age who is contemplating military service
B. most anyone of working age who is contemplating government service
C. most anyone of working age who is looking for a job
D. most anyone with a documented disability who is seeking employment
158. On the GATB, about one-half of the items can be characterized as

A. psychomotor in nature.
B. pencil-and-paper in nature.
C. analogue in nature.
D. Both psychomotor in nature and pencil-and-paper in nature.
159. The GATB differs from the SATB in that the SATB
A. contains more science-oriented items.
B. contains more items tapping arithmetic skills.
C. is used to measure aptitude for a specific line of work.
D. Both contains more science-oriented items and contains more items tapping arithmetic
skills.
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160. The forced distribution technique is

A. a marketing strategy devised by consumer psychologists.
B. a way of ranking employees in a workplace.
C. a method designed to make scores more culture-fair.
D. None of these
161. A new worker has just completed Day 1 on the job. When will monthly supervisory
ratings BEST reflect this worker's performance?
A. 1 month from now
B. 2 months from now
C. 3 months from now
D. about 29 days from now
162. A difference between Maslow's theory of motivation and Alderfer's theory of motivation
is that in Alderfer's theory
A. needs are not hierarchical in nature.
B. once a need is satisfied, the organism may strive to satisfy it to an even greater degree.
C. frustrating one need may lead to channeling of energy into the satisfaction of another need
at another level.
D. All of these
163. Researchers evaluating the validity of the Implicit Attitude Test (IAT) find, using the IAT,
that members of the Lindsey Lohan Fan Club have more favorable attitudes toward her than
nonmembers of the fan club. This type of research design is BEST referred to as
A. a Latin Squares design.
B. a Thurstone-type design.
C. an equal intervals design.
D. a known groups design.
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164. The BEST shorthand description of the term implicit attitude is

A. a conscious disposition to act in a particular way.
B. an association in memory that is not conscious.
C. a feeling or intuition that one gets occasionally.
D. a reaction to frustration.
165. The Implicit Attitude Test (IAT) could BEST be described as a series of
A. measures of physiological arousal.
B. memory tasks that uses flash cards.
C. computerized sorting tasks.
D. word association stimuli.
166. A film producer seeks to hire an experienced special effects director. Which variety of
assessment would most likely best suit this purpose?
A. authentic assessment
B. actuarial assessment
C. portfolio assessment
D. dynamic assessment
167. Ideally, a resume should

A. be constructed in APA style.
B. contain a listing of references.
C. be as unique as its writer.
D. include mention of shortcomings.
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168. "RIASEC" is an abbreviation for

A. the Big 6.
B. a popular integrity measure.
C. Dr. Sec's consulting firm.
D. a type of corporate culture.
169. A difference between selection and classification is that in classification, personnel are
A. accepted or rejected.
B. pigeon-holed.
C. subjected to screening.
D. stereotyped.
170. In the book, Choosing the Right Stuff: The Psychological Selection of Astronauts and
Cosmonauts, the author
A. recounted the mistakes made in selecting Lisa Nowack for the astronaut program.
B. presented research on new MMPI scales that could be used to select astronauts.
C. argued that NASA should give more weight to psychological factors in selection.
D. urged NASA to consider using more mental health professionals as astronauts.
171. The AT&T Management Progress Study was the first large scale study to use which of
the following?
A. drug testing
B. implicit measures
C. assessment center
D. dimensional qualitative research
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172. The GCMS

A. is used to test for drugs in the urine.
B. was first employed in the AT&T Management Progress Study.
C. was developed by Heshy Goodenough.
D. All of these
173. A large corporation wishes to measure the productivity of its employees. Which of the
following is LEAST likely to be used?
A. semantic differential technique.
B. forced distribution technique.
C. critical incidents technique.
D. peer appraisal technique.
174. Juan chooses a career as an elementary school teacher because he wants to play a
meaningful role in the lives of developing children. Esmerelda chooses a career as an
elementary school teacher because of the good pay and the fact that she has her summer off.
Which is MOST likely TRUE?
A. Juan exhibited extrinsic motivation and Esmerelda exhibited intrinsic motivation.
B. Esmerelda exhibited extrinsic motivation, and Juan exhibited intrinsic motivation.
C. The deciding factor in both decisions was probably the actual location of the school to
which they were assigned.
D. Juan will most likely experience burnout before Esmerelda does.
175. Burnout has been shown to be

A. predictive of the frequency and duration of sick leave.
B. significantly evident in postal workers on the job for ten years or more.
C. negatively correlated with insomnia.
D. All of these
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176. A widely used measure of organizational commitment is the Organizational Commitment

Questionnaire. But as noted in your textbook, questions have been raised regarding this
instrument's
A. test-retest reliability.
B. construct validity.
C. face validity.
D. split-half reliability.
177. Mention was made in Chapter 15 of a burgeoning number of studies involving the
measurement of implicit attitudes, including one such study that had as its subject
A. Anthony Weiner.
B. Lindsay Lohan.
C. Benedict Arnold.
D. Barack Obama.
178. Research has suggested that online survey methods may be particularly useful for
learning about health-related behaviors that are known to
A. negatively impact on one's personal health.
B. positively impact on one's personal health.
C. increase health insurance premiums.
D. decrease health insurance premiums.
179. Individual interviews and focus groups are two examples of

A. productivity evaluation methods.
B. methods used to increase diversity in the workplace.
C. motivational research methods.
D. techniques employed to measure burnout.
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180. In October, 2011, the scholarly journal Psychology & Marketing devoted a special issue
to the topic of
A. implicit measures.
B. portfolio assessment.
C. personality and work performance.
D. dimensional qualitative research.
181. The photo in Chapter 15 of your textbook that featured a group of psychologists using
Tinkertoy parts was an illustration of
A. authentic assessment.
B. performance assessment.
C. virtual assessment.
D. curriculum-based measurement.
182. In the original Management Progress Study, the dimensions referred to as tolerance for
uncertainty and resistance to stress were grouped under
A. administrative skills.
B. cognitive skills.
C. stability of performance.
D. career orientation.
183. Used together, the terms Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and
Conventional are perhaps BEST known as the
A. big six.
B. golden rules of employee selection.
C. six steps of corporate advancement.
D. magnificent seven less one.
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184. Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and Conventional are categories of
personality types that are measured by the
A. NEO-PI-R.
B. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator.
C. Maslow Hierarchy of Needs Inventory.
D. Self-Directed Search.
185. From the perspective of an employer, psychological assessment tools can provide
assistance in
A. personnel selection.
B. placement of employees in job assignments.
C. screening of new applicants for positions.
D. All of these
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Chapter 15 - Assessment, Careers, and Business

Multiple Choice Questions

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25. The General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)

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28. Application forms used in employment settings

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29. Letters of recommendation used in employment settings

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30. Vocational assessment that entails performance samples

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31. In the evaluation of worker productivity

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33. Race-norming entails

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35. Which LEAST represents a benefit of portfolio assessment in the workplace?

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37. Performance assessments

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39. Which of the following does NOT belong?

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46. Who developed a commonly used set of interest inventories?

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48. The Strong Interest Inventory measures

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