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XATCracker Practice Test 01 - Solutions TESTCRACKER

1. Option c)
Unit’s digits in n2 is one of {0, 1, 4 , 5, 6 , 9}
That means, in base 5, units digit possible is one of {0, 1 , 4} only.
Now, note that any natural number is of the form either 3n - 1 or 3n or 3n + 1
Square of any natural number is of the form
9n ± 6n + 1 or 9n2
2

In base 6, units digit could be one of {0, 1, 3, 4}** only. So, unit’s digit of the sum can never be 6 or 9.

**: '9n2 ± 6n + 1' or '9n2' when converted to base 6 will have only digit 0, 1, 3 or 4 as at unit's place. '9n2' will leave
remainder 3 or 0 on division by 6. '9n2 ± 6n + 1' will leave remainder 0 + 1 = 1 and 3 + 1 = 4 on division by 6.

2. Option a)
Sum of all numbers from 1 to 100 = 5050
Sum of all multiples of 2 = 2550
Sum of all multiples of 5 = 1050
Sum of all multiples of 10 = 550
required value = 5050 – 2550 – 1050 + 550 = 2000

Alternative Method:
If multiples of 2 were removed, 50 numbers would remain, all odd. Out of those 50, removal of multiples of 5 would
leave 40 odd numbers. Sum of 40 odd numbers = even. Only option (a) satisfies.

3. Option b)
76th natural number = 76
We have 7 perfect squares and 3 perfect cubes from 2 to 75 in which 64 occur twice (because of being both a perfect
square and a perfect cube)
Hence, 9 numbers must have been removed.
The number 76, if we start a series of natural numbers from 2, will be the 75th number.
If we do not include the above 9 numbers in this series then 76 becomes the 75 - 9 = 66th number.
Subsequently 80 will be the 70th number.
But 81 being a perfect square cannot be included.
Hence, 82 will be the 71st number and subsequently the 76th number will be 87.

4. Option b)
Sum of the first two natural numbers in any three consecutive natural numbers 3k + 1, 3k + 2 and 3k + 3 or sum of all
the three such numbers would be divisible by 3.
Hence m must be either of the form 3n or 3n – 1

5. Option c)
For 50! – x! to end in 6 zeroes, x! must also end in 6 zeroes. There are 5 numbers x = 25 to 29 which would all have 6
zeroes in their factorials. Hence the answer is 5.

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6. Option d)
Start checking with option (a). LCM of ab and b3will be ab3. Similarly for option (b) also. LCM of ab2 and ab3 is again
ab3. If we examine the options one by one, we can see that all of them individually when paired up with b3, will give an
LCM as ab3. Therefore the correct choice should be none of these.
7. Option c)
The last digits of the 2 three digit numbers can be
(0, 6), (1, 5), (2, 4), (3, 3), (8, 8) an (7, 9)
The last digit of product of these numbers can be 0, 5, 8, 9, 4 and 3.
Four digits i.e. 7, 6, 2 and 1 cannot be the last digit of the product of these numbers.

8. 9p = 32p is a perfect square.


As 3 is a prime number p must also be a perfect square. Let p = k2
Now, 4p is a perfect cube and 4p = (2k)2
So, k = 22α3 , where α is a natural number
Minimum possible value of p = 4(22) = 16
The expression p2 – 16p + 1 will have minimum possible value at p = 16 only as any other value of p is much greater
than 16 and correspondingly the expression will carry a higher value.
p2 – 16p + 1 for p = 16 is equal to
(16)2 – 16(16) + 1 = 1
The correct answer option is missing from the options. 1 is the correct answer. Grace yourself in case you have
attempted, or even in the best case you have achieved the correct answer.

9. Option c)

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10. Option a)

11. Option b)

12. Option a)
Here 0 ≤x≤2. Because there is only one even prime number and x need not to be an integer.

13. Option c)

14. Option b)

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15. Option b)

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16. Option c)

17. Option a)

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18. Option b)

19. Option d)

20. Option c)

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21. Option c)

22. Option c)

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23. Option c)

24. Option b)

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25. Option b)

26. Option b)

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27. Option c)

28. Option b)

29. Option b)
Any number divisible by 4 that is formed from the given digits has to end with 32, 72, 36 or 76. For each of these,
there are two ways of arranging the other two digits. Hence, total number of ways = 2 x 4 = 8.

30. Option c)
A particular fruit and a vegetable will appear in 9C2 x 4C1 = 144 selections

31. Option c)
Since there are 6 red balls and all six of them are of different sizes, the probability of choosing the smallest among
them is 1/6.

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32. Option b)

33. Option c)

34. Option a)

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Solution for questions 35 to 38: -

As we know, P2 and P9 are from Liverpool and P12 is not from United. So, from team 7 we can determine p12 is from
Chelsea and P 15 is not from Liverpool.
Now, in team 6 P7 and P12 are from Chelsea, it means P15 is not from Chelsea.

P15 is not from Liverpool and Chelsea, it means P15 is from United and P14 is from Chelsea. And in team 6
P3 and P6 are from Liverpool.

Now, In team 1, P3 and P9 are from Liverpool and P7 and P12 are from Chelsea, it means P1 is from United.

Now, in team 4, P2 and P6 are from Liverpool and P1 is from United and P7 is from Chelsea. It means P 10 is
from Chelsea.

From team 2 and team 5, we can determine P11 is not from Liverpool and United. It means P11 is from
Chelsea. Now, in team P13 has to be from United. In team 3, P5 is from United. In team 5 P4 and P16 are from
Liverpool. In team 8, P8 is from Liverpool.

Liverpool P2, P3, P4, P6, P8, P9 and


P16
Chelsea P7, P10, P11, P12, P14
United P1, P5, P13, P15

35. Now, we can determine P4 and P8 are from Liverpool. Option (a)

36. Five players belong to Chelsea. Option (b)

37. As we know, in each team 2 players are from Liverpool, 2 from Chelsea and 1 from United.

The total fee per match = 2 x 800 + 2 x 775 + 725 = 3875. Option (a)

38. Only P3 and P16 are from Liverpool. Option (b)

(39) and (40) Chandan is not reviewing Housefull 2. So, from given conditions Anil will not review Housefull 2

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Kahaani Paan singh tomar Agent Housefull 2
vinod

Anil X

Bindu √ X X X

Chandan X

Deepak X

Esha

Farida

From the given table it is clear, at least one between Esha and Farida will review Housefull 2.

39. From the statement Farida reviews the same movie as exactly one other reviewer, we can easily determine option
(b) is not possible because Bindu is reviewing Kahaani.

40. Option(a) Anil and Bindu review Kahaani. It means Chandan will review kahaani. From the given condition “F reviews
the same movie as exactly one other reviewer”. So, Option (a) is not possible

Option(b) Anil and Farida review Housefull 2. From, the given table, It is clear that A cannot review Housefull 2. Option
(b) is not possible

Option(c) Bindu and Deepak review Kahaani. From the given conditions: - . “C reviews the same movie as A and F reviews
the same movie as exactly one other reviewer” we cannot fulfill all conditions. Option (c) is not possible

Option(d) is the right answer.

41. Option (3).

The change in world views discussed by the author points towards a new world order with respect to sociology. Since,
sociology deals specifically with the society this ‘fading out’ points to its essential breakdown. All the other options are
mentioned in the passage as pointers towards the new world order.

42. Option (3).

The author comments on the lack of depth in the workings of modern day sociologists making option 3 correct. All the
other options are stated in the passage rendering them incorrect as inferences.

43. Option (4).

The author recounts Tilly’s versions containing real people, history and drama, and have lessons for how change might be
achieved more successfully making option 4 correct. 1, 2,3 & 5 are mentioned in the passage as facts about Tilly and do
not lead to an inference.

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44. Option (2).

Option 1 is too narrow and leaves out Quine. Option 3 uses words like ‘apparently sound basis’ and ‘showing that’, which
cannot be substantiated by the passage. Quine is arguing not showing anything. Option 4 incorrectly states that the basis
of Logical Positivism is weakened. Option 5 incorrectly states that Quine shows –which is equivalent to proving
something. The paragraph does not display this proof. Option2 correctly summarizes the paragraph.

45. Option (4).

Option 1 is too specific and leaves out any talk about reality.

Option 2 is correct but not an apt summary. It is just describing the impact on people. Option 3 is again narrow as it only
negates the speculative aspect of Magical Realism. Option 5calls the reality of Magical Realism as objective which is
incorrect. Option 4 correctly summarizes the paragraph as along with negating Magical realism as being speculative, it
also emphasizes what it actually is. Option 5 is too way ward as it talks of a ‘different objective world, which alters the
meaning that is being conveyed by the argument.

46. Option (5). Options 1 and 2 talk only about Wittgenstein and leave out relativism. Option 3 has an incorrect cause
effect relationship. Option 4 again has a cause effect relationship which cannot be substantiated by the paragraph. Only
option 5 gives the correct summary though the order of the themes is interchanged. Wittgenstein comes second in the
paragraph and Relativism comes first

47. Option (4). Option (1) is incorrect because there is no evidence present in the argument that justifies this option. The
argument does suggest that outsourcing upsets employees as well as customers but it does not explain how. It only
explains why employees are upset about outsourcing. Hence, this option cannot be truly justified.

Option (2) contradicts the above argument by suggesting that the government is thinking about the benefit of the
people. It does not explain how taking away jobs and giving exemptions to companies justify the government’s rule.

Option (3) is a general observation which is out of scope of the argument. The option pertains to the essence of running a
successful business whereas the argument refers to a specific issue regarding the outsource model followed by
companies. This does not justify the given option.

Option (4) is the best choice because the argument refers to the role of government’s tax exemption rule and its relation
with the companies’ outsourcing model and its eventual effect on the people. This contains all the elements of the
argument and concludes that the tax exemption rules encourage companies to setup outsource units that eventually
affect their employees within the country.

Option (5) is a general statement that pertains to the nature of business and its eventual effect on people. This cannot be
concluded on the basis of the given argument that specifically refers to the outsourcing situation and its effect.

48. Option (3).

Option (1) pertains to other islands that contain traces of dinosaurs. This cannot be inferred on the basis of the given
argument which refers to the discovery made on a specific island.

Option (2) is a general statement regarding the difference in the evolution of male and female species of a race. This does
not specifically pertain to the subject in question –tyrannosaurus. Hence, this cannot be inferred from the argument.

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Option (3) is the best choice because it refers to a possibility based on the information given in the argument. It refers to
the sudden discovery of wings and leaves it open for others to discover its possibility in some male species as well.

Option (4) is incorrect because there is no evidence present in the argument that justifies this statement. In fact, wings
are not a common physical feature in tyrannosaurus which is quite clear from the discovery made by the two teams.

Option (5) is inappropriate because it is contradictory to the above argument that explains that scientists are aware that
the island contains many more answers. This is against the scientists’ certainty mentioned in this option.

49. Option (5).

Option (1) is incorrect because it is a general statement regarding the lack of understanding displayed by teachers in case
of children. This option does not specifically deal with the impact on dyslexic children and hence cannot be justified from
the argument.

Option (2) compares the response of dyslexic children and that of adults to change. This is out of scope of the argument
which pertains to the response of dyslexic children within a group. The response of adults is not mentioned in the
argument and hence is irrelevant.

Option (3) refers to children in general whereas the argument refers to a specific case. The general response of children
to training cannot be deduced from the given case.

Option (4) is not a conclusion as it further elaborates on the condition of dyslexic children. It refers to their low self
esteem and lack of social skills which justifies the argument presented above. In fact, it strengthens the above argument
rather than providing a conclusion for it.

Option (5) is the best choice because it refers to the variations in responses of dyslexic children to the similar training
programme. This can be truly concluded on the basis of the given argument that explains that while some were
displaying progress, other were still understanding basics. Hence, this is the best choice.

50. Option (2).

Option (1) is incorrect because it goes against the argument where psychologists explain that most people judge others in
their first meeting. Hence, this goes against the argument because it refers to how people are careful to not judge others
in the first instant.

Option (2) is the best choice because it explains that to judge someone on the basis of their physical appearance comes
naturally to most people. Hence, this supports the psychologists’ views of people who judge a book by its cover.

Option (3) is inappropriate because it only elaborates further on the given situation and explains why many times people
judge others on the basis of their first impression.

Option (4) is wrong because it weakens the above argument by suggesting that there are certain people who think that
physical appearances are highly overrated.

Option (5) goes against the views expressed in the argument. In fact, it contradicts the views of the psychologists
mentioned above. It suggests that questions based on physical appearance should be included in personality tests. This,
clearly, does not strengthen the above argument.

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