​ OCK TEST- 01 1

AIPG​ M

Adm
issio
n
Num
ber
1 0 0

OMR
Seri
al
Num
ber
0 0

Test Code and Number

GT - 01
(Fill this Code on your OMR Answer Sheet)
Question Booklet Version Code

A
(Fill this Code on your OMR
Answer Sheet)

Max. Time: 190 minutes Max. Marks: 200

(Including initial 10 minutes for filling Name, Roll No., Test Code and Number, Question Booklet Version Code etc
on the OMR​ sheet)
Test Date

06-1-2010
Batch

In-House 2010
Course

PG Dental

INSTRUCTIONS
1.​ ​Read the Instructions given on OMR sheet and act accordingly.
2.​ ​Fill all the columns given on OMR sheet; otherwise, your answer sheet shall not be
valid. Do remember that you have allotted an extra ten minutes for this work.
3.​ ​Restrict all your rough work to the space provided at the last page.

1.​ ​Hypophyseal fossa is present in

A.​ ​Frontal bone
B.​ ​Occipital bone
C.​ ​Sphenoid bone
D.​ ​Temporal bone

2.​ ​Parietal tuber correspond to

A.​ ​ ernicke's sensory speech area
W
B.​ ​ rimary visual center
P
C.​ ​ otor cortex
M
D.​ ​ otor speech area
M

3.​ ​All are true about the bones of skull EXCEPT

A.​ ​ omposed of 22 bones
C
B.​ ​ nly maxilla is mobile bone & Majority are membranous / dermatomal in origin
O
C.​ ​ est are united by fibrous joints/sutures
R
D.​ ​ ncloses the spinal cord
E

4.​ ​Which nerve is used by anaesthetists to know depth of anaesthesia

A.​ ​ upra orbital
S
B.​ ​Supra trochlear
C.​ I​ nfra orbital
D.​ ​Dorsal nasal

5.​ ​Thyroid gland is different from other endocrine glands because

A.​ ​It manufactures & stores hormones
B.​ ​For iodine depends on external supply
C.​ ​Of its richest blood supply
D.​ ​All of the Above

6.​ ​The parasympathetic components of parasympathetic ganglia pass through all cranial nerves EXCEPT
A.​ ​Oculomotor
B.​ ​ rochlear
T
C.​ ​ lossopharyngeal
G
D.​ ​ acial
F

7.​ ​Inflammatory swelling of the parotid grand is very painful because

A.​ ​ land is very large
G
B.​ ​ nyielding nature of the fascial capsule
U
C.​ ​ acial nerve within the gland
F
 D.​ ​All of the Above

8.​ ​Epidermis of skin is lined by

A.​ ​Stratified squamous nonkeratinised epithelium
B.​ ​Stratified squamous keratinised epithelium
C.​ ​Stratified cuboidal epithelium
D.​ ​Stratified columnar epithelium

9.​ ​Coracoid process of scapula is an example of

A.​ ​Pressure epiphysis
B.​ ​Traction epiphysis
C.​ ​Ataoistic epiphysis
D.​ ​Aberrant epiphysis

10.​ ​Oblique line on thyroid cartilage gives origin to all EXCEPT

A.​ ​ ternohyoid
S
B.​ ​Sternothyroid
C.​ ​ hyrohyoid
T
D.​ ​Inferior constrictor of pharynx

11.​ ​Transparent part of tunics of eyeball is

A.​ ​Cornea
B.​ ​Sclera
C.​ ​Choriod
D.​ ​Iris

12.​ ​Pure sensory cranial nerves are all EXCEPT

A.​ ​Olfactory

B.​ ​Optic

C.​ ​Vestibulocochlear

D.​ ​Hypoglossal

13.​ ​Branch of nerve to______ muscle has a communicating branch to ciliary ganglion

A.​ ​Medial rectus

B.​ ​Superior rectus

C.​ ​Inferior rectus

D.​ ​Inferior oblique

14.​ ​The first heart sound is produced by the

A.​ ​Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves

B.​ ​Opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves

C.​ ​Closures of the mitral and tricuspid valves

D.​ ​Opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves

15.​ ​Closure of aortic valve occurs before the following event

A.​ ​Isovolumetric contraction

B.​ ​Isovolumetric relaxation

C.​ ​Prediastole

D.​ ​Presystole

16.​ ​The cell junction allowing exhange of cytoplasmic molecules between 2 cells are called

A.​ ​Gap junctions

B.​ ​Tight junctions

C.​ ​Anchoring junctions

D.​ ​Focal junctions

17.​ ​The neuromuscular transmitter released at neuromuscular junction is

A.​ ​Dopamine

B.​ ​Epinephrine

C.​ ​Nor epinephrine

D.​ ​Acetyl choline

18.​ ​The hyperosmolarity of the renal medulla is due to increased content of

A.​ ​K​+

B.​ ​Na​+

C.​ ​Glucose

D.​ ​NH​+​4

19.​ ​In an isolonic contraction of the muscles

A.​ ​The muscles moves a load through a distance

B.​ ​The muscles is not able to move the load

C.​ ​The latent period of contraction is shorte than isometric contraction

D.​ ​The lengthof muscle is increased

20.​ ​Which of the following is TRUE of haemoglobin

A.​ ​It combines reversibly with O​2​ at the ferrous haemeprosthetic group

B.​ ​It combines irreversibly with O​2 ​and CO​2

C.​ ​It combines reversibly with O​2​ at the feric haeme prosthetic group

D.​ ​It combines reversibly with O​2 ​at the ferric haeme prosthetic group

21.​ ​Which sense has smallest range of sensitivity

A.​ ​Olfactory sense

B.​ ​Visual sense

C.​ ​Auditory

D.​ ​Taste
22.​ ​Hyper capnia means

A.​ ​Increased CO​2​ tension in venous blood and tissues

B.​ ​Increased CO​2​ tension in arterial blood

C.​ ​Increased CO​2​ tension in arterial blood and venous blood

D.​ ​Increased CO​2​ tension in arterial blood and tissues

23.​ ​Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT about critical micellization concentration

A.​ ​Bile salts form micelle above critical micellization concentration

B.​ ​Average critical micellization concentration is 2 to 5 mole / liter

C.​ ​Value of this concentration depends on chemical nature of bile acid

D.​ ​Critical micellization concentration value is same for primary and secondary bile acids

24.​ ​The volume of air left in the lungs after expiration of tidal volume is

A.​ ​500ml

B.​ ​1000 ml

C.​ ​2500 ml

D.​ ​6000 ml

25.​ ​True statement regarding glucose is

A.​ ​It usually exists in the furanose forms

B.​ ​It is a ketose

C.​ ​Carbon 2 is the anomeric atom

D.​ ​It forms part of the disaccharides sucrose

26.​ ​Inversion is related to

A.​ ​Dextrose

B.​ ​Fructose

C.​ ​Sucrose

D.​ ​Maltose

27.​ ​The catabolism of H​2​O​2​ is carried out in _________

A.​ ​Endoplasmic reticulum

B.​ ​Peroxisomes

C.​ ​Nucleus

D.​ ​Mitochondria

28.​ ​Which is the incorrect statement about lesh nyhan syndrome

A.​ ​Partial deficiency of HGPRT

B.​ ​Purine overproduction

C.​ ​Self mutation

D.​ ​X-linked recessive trait

29.​ ​Which of the following is a disorder of lipid metabolism?

A.​ ​Crigler-najjar syndrome.

B.​ ​Gaucher’s disease

C.​ ​Naple syrup urine disease

D.​ ​All

30.​ ​Which enzyme is an allosteric regulator of another enzyme on the list

A.​ ​Acetyl coenzyme A carboxylase

 B.​ ​Pancreatic lipase.

C.​ ​Carnitine acyltransferase I

D.​ ​Diacylglycerol lipase

E.​ ​Hormone-sensitive lipase

31.​ ​ he clinicians prescribe B-complex vitamins D to patient receiving antibiotic therapy because
T
___________

A.​ ​They acts as coenzymes

B.​ ​They make antibiotics more effective

C.​ ​Otherwise B-complex vitamins deficiency may occur

D.​ ​Vitamins are growth factors

32.​ ​Antihaemorrhagic vitamin is

A.​ ​Vitamin A
B.​ ​Vitamin E
C.​ ​Vitamin K
D.​ ​Vitamin D

33.​ ​Which of the following enzymes is activated by cAMP during fasting

A.​ ​Lipoprotein kinase

B.​ ​Thiokinase

C.​ ​Hormone sensitive lipase

D.​ ​Diacylglycerol lipase

34.​ ​In which disease the patient excretes red flourscent urine

A.​ ​Alkaptonuria

B.​ ​Porphyria

C.​ ​Fanconi syndrome

D.​ ​Hematuria
35.​ ​A gene consists of

A.​ ​Chromosome

B.​ ​RNA

C.​ ​DNA

D.​ ​A part of DNA

36.​ ​Which of the following is the cancer of skin

A.​ ​Adenocarcinoma

B.​ ​Xeroderma pigmentosa

C.​ ​Both

D.​ ​None

37.​ ​The metal present in vitamins B12 is __________

A.​ ​Iron

B.​ ​Magnesium

C.​ ​Cobalt

D.​ ​Copper

38.​ ​The antitubercular drug INH causes the deficiency of vitamin ____________

A.​ ​Riboflavin

B.​ ​Pyridoxal

C.​ ​Ascorbic acid

D.​ ​Biotin

39.​ ​Which of the following is important in post translational formation

 A.​ ​Normal or low calcium

B.​ ​Increased phosphate

C.​ ​Increased alkaline phosphatase

D.​ ​Normal alkaline phosphatase

40.​ ​Serum calcium is ___________ in tetany

A.​ ​Low

B.​ ​Normal

C.​ ​High

D.​ ​Unaltered

41.​ ​Given an example of genetic due to absence of a physiologically essential substance other than enzyme.

A.​ ​Hemophilia

B.​ ​Cystinuria

C.​ ​Gaucher’s disease

D.​ ​Mucopolysaccharosis

42.​ ​Gene that is involved in transcription but excluded before translation is called_________

A.​ ​Extron

B.​ ​Intron

C.​ ​Operator gene

D.​ ​Regulator gene

43.​ ​All endothelial cells produce thrombomodulin EXCEPT those found in

A.​ ​Hepatic circulation

 B.​ ​Cutamous circulation

C.​ ​Cutaneous microcirculation

D.​ ​Renal circulation

44.​ ​Hypercoagulability due to defective factor V gene is called

A.​ ​Leiden mutation

B.​ ​Lisbon mutation

C.​ ​Antiphorpholipid syndromes

D.​ ​nducible thrombocytopenia syndrome

45.​ ​ Morphology of cells in the marrow is best studied by

A.​ ​Bone marrow biopsy

B.​ ​Bone marrow aspiration and smear

C.​ ​Prussian blue staining of marrow

D.​ ​Bone marrow culture

46.​ ​Colony stimulating factor in derived from

A.​ ​Macrophages

B.​ ​Neutrophils

C.​ ​Precursor cells

D.​ ​Lymphocytes only

47.​ ​Erythropoiesis in adults occur in

A.​ ​Flat bones

B.​ ​Long bones

 C.​ ​Throughout skeleton

D.​ ​Spleen

48.​ ​Disappearance of reticulocytes in hereditary spherocytosis implies

A.​ ​Hemolytic crisis

B.​ ​Aplastic crisis

C.​ ​Sequestration crisis

D.​ ​Thrombotic crisis

49.​ ​Most important virulent factor of streptococcus

A.​ ​M – protien

B.​ ​T – protien

C.​ ​R – protien

D.​ ​C – carbohydrate

50.​ ​V. Choleare True is

A.​ ​Resistant to Alkaline P​H

B.​ ​Nutrionally fastidious

C.​ ​Best growth at 24°C

D.​ ​Rod shaped Bacilli

51.​ ​Man is the terminal end for

A.​ ​Treponema

B.​ ​Tetanus

C.​ ​Gonococcus
 D.​ ​Anthrax

52.​ ​Which is not a macrophage

A.​ ​Moncyte

B.​ ​Lymphocyte

C.​ ​Dendrocyte

D.​ ​Kupffer cells

53.​ ​IL-2 is produced by

A.​ ​T-cells

B.​ ​B-cells

C.​ ​Neutrophils

D.​ ​Macrophages

54.​ ​Fibroblasts in tissue culture form IFN of type

A.​ ​Alpha

B.​ ​Beta

C.​ ​Gamma

D.​ ​All

55.​ ​Herpes simplex virus genome is

A.​ ​SS DNA

B.​ ​Ds DNA

C.​ ​SS RNA

D.​ ​Ds RNA

56.​ ​Tse – Tse fly transmitts

A.​ ​T. brucci

B.​ ​T. cruzi

C.​ ​Kala – azal

D.​ ​Oriental sore

57.​ ​Smallest DNA virus is

A.​ ​Herpes virus

B.​ ​Adeno virus

C.​ ​Parvo virus

D.​ ​Pox virus

58.​ ​Split genome is a feature of

A.​ ​Polio virus

B.​ ​Retro virus

C.​ ​Papilloma virus

D.​ ​Rota virus

59.​ ​Bollinger bodies are seen in

A.​ ​Cow pox

B.​ ​Small pox

C.​ ​Chicken pox

D.​ ​Fowl pox

60.​ ​The effects of ganglionic blockade include
A.​ ​Orthostatic hypotension
B.​ ​Urinary retention
C.​ ​Constipation
D.​ ​All of the Above

61.​ ​Which of the following agents might precipitate an attack in a patient who has asthma
A.​ ​Methacholine
B.​ ​Propranolol
C.​ ​Neostigmine
D.​ ​All of the Above

62.​ ​The ratio of the number of preganglionic fibers to postganglionic fibers can be 1 to 20 more
A.​ ​PNS
B.​ ​SNS
C.​ ​Both
D.​ ​None

63.​ ​All statements are true about palate EXCEPT

A.​ ​Forms roof of oral cavity
B.​ ​Forms floor of nasal cavity
C.​ ​Hard and soft palate
D.​ ​Intervenes between oral cavity pharynx

64.​ ​The papilla on tongue without tastebuds is

A.​ ​Fungiform
B.​ ​Foliate
C.​ ​Filiform
D.​ ​Vallate

65.​ ​Diaphragm oris is contributed by ______ muscles

A.​ ​Mylohyoid
B.​ ​Stylohyoid
C.​ ​Geniohyoid
D.​ ​Chondrohyoid.

66.​ ​Tick the drug, inhibiting viral reverse transcriptase

A.​ ​ idovudine
Z
B.​ ​Vidarabine
C.​ ​ imantadine
R
D.​ ​Gancyclovir
67.​ ​human insulin has following advantages EXCEPT
A.​ ​Better stability
B.​ ​Better absorbed
C.​ ​Less hypoglycemia
D.​ ​Less allergy

68.​ ​Radioiodines in the body emit

A.​ ​Mainly beta radiations
B.​ ​Mainly gama radiations
C.​ ​beta and gama radiations equally
D.​ ​Do not emit any radiation, therefore, are safe

69.​ ​Radioiodines (I131 and I132) is suitable for

A.​ ​ lderly patients (over 45 years)
E
B.​ ​Pregnant women
C.​ ​ ursing mothers
N
D.​ ​Younger patients

70.​ ​Which among these is used in insulin resistance

A.​ ​Glibenclamide
B.​ ​Pioglitazone
C.​ ​Nateglinide
D.​ ​Miglitol

71.​ ​glucocorticoids are used in all the following EXCEPT

A.​ ​Rheumatoid arthritis
B.​ ​Nephrotic syndrome
C.​ ​Herpes Simplex Keratitis
D.​ ​Anaphylactic shock

72.​ ​Following statement about thyroid hormone is true EXCEPT

A.​ ​T3 is the active form
B.​ ​T4 is the active form
C.​ ​T1/2 of T3 is 1-2 days
D.​ ​T1/2 of T4 is 6-8 days

73.​ ​Abnormal laboratory finding in hemophilia is

A.​ ​Increased PTT

B.​ ​Increased PT

C.​ ​Increased CT

D.​ ​Increased BT
74.​ ​Joint erosions are NOT a feature of

A.​ ​Rheumatoid arthritis

B.​ ​Psoriasis

C.​ ​Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis

D.​ ​Systemic lupus erythematosus

75.​ ​All of the following are true about manifestations of vitamin E deficiency EXCEPT

A.​ ​Hemolytic anemia

B.​ ​Posterior column abnormalities

C.​ ​Cerebellar ataxia

D.​ ​Autonomic dysfunction

76.​ ​Dark color urine and clay stool is seen in

A.​ ​Obstructive jaundice

B.​ ​Hemolytic jaundice

C.​ ​Hepatocellular jaundice

D.​ ​Severe dehydration.

77.​ ​A 40-year-old female patient experiences severe throbbing headache of left craniofacial region. She also
has nausea with paresthesia of right upper and lower lip. She may be suffering from

A.​ ​Trigeminal neuralgia

B.​ ​Glossopharyngeal nerve neuralgia

C.​ ​VII cranial nerve neuralgia

D.​ ​Migraine

78.​ ​A thirty five year old man presents in a clinic with history of chronic productive cough that is worse in
the morning and brought on by changes in posture. Sputum is copious and yellow. The most likely diagnosis in this
patient is

A.​ ​Bronchial asthma

B.​ ​Bronchiectasis

C.​ ​Bronchogenic carcinoma

D.​ ​Chronic bronchitis

79.​ ​A forty year old man gives history of high grade fever for last one week associated with cough
productive of rusty sputum. Auscultation reveals bronchial breathing on right lower chest. Chest X-ray shows
consolidation. The most likely causative organism is

A.​ ​Anaerobic bacteria

B.​ ​Gram negative bacilli

C.​ ​Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D.​ ​Streptococcus pneumonia

80.​ ​All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

A.​ ​Malena is produced when the site of bleeding is in upper GI tract (up to ligament of trietz)

B.​ ​H​2 ​blockers are useful for the control of the acute bleeding form peptic ulcer

C.​ ​Somatostatin can help in control of upper GI bleed due to any cause

D.​ ​Emergency endoscopy has no role during the active bleed

81.​ ​A 40 years old man has developed slowly progressive CHF. Echo reveals dilatation of RV, LV & LA with
aneurysm at LV apex and mural thrombi. ECG reveals RBBB with LAHB. He gives history of travel of South America 8
years back. He has most probably developed

A.​ ​Lyme disease

B.​ ​Chagas disease

C.​ ​Giant cell myocarditis

D.​ ​Slow virus disease

82.​ ​Anton syndrome is due to occlusion of

 A.​ ​ACA

B.​ ​MCA

C.​ ​PCA

D.​ ​Ant. Choroidal artery

83.​ ​The patient mentioned in the previous question is likely to have abnormality of the enzyme

A.​ ​Transketolase

B.​ ​Pyruvate dehydrogenase

C.​ ​A ketoglutanate dehydrogenase

D.​ ​All of the above

84.​ ​A 15 year old boy is found to be suffering from progressive external ophthalmoplegia, pigmentary
degeneration of retina and left anterior hemi block. The CSF lactate and pyruvate levels are increased. He is most
probably having defect in

A.​ ​C1-channel

B.​ ​Acetylcholine receptor

C.​ ​Mitochondrial DNA

D.​ ​Both A and C

85.​ ​The minor criteria of Framingham in diagnosis of CHF is

A.​ ​PND

B.​ ​Hepatomegaly

C.​ ​Cardiomegaly

D.​ ​JVP

86.​ ​Which form of Actinomycosis is most common

A.​ ​Facio cervical

 B.​ ​Thorax

C.​ ​Ileo-caecal

D.​ ​Liver

87.​ ​Pain in the arm due to cervical rib is caused by

A.​ ​Compression of D​2​ root

B.​ ​Compression of D​7​ root

C.​ ​Muscle ischemia

D.​ ​Compression of brachial plexus

88.​ ​Dentigerous cyst develop around

A.​ ​Root

B.​ ​Gingival margin

C.​ ​Crown

D.​ ​Mandible

89.​ ​Which of the following statements about maxillofacial trauma is/are false?
A.​ ​Asphyxia due to upper airway obstruction is the major cause of death from facial injuries
B.​ ​The mandible is the most common site of facial fracture
C.​ ​The Le Fort II fracture includes a horizontal fracture of the maxilla along with nasal bone fracture
D.​ ​Loss of upward gaze may indicate either an orbital floor or orbital roof fracture

90.​ ​Most common cause of thyroiditis is?

A.​ ​Hashimoto's thyroiditis
B.​ ​Reidl's thyroiditis
C.​ ​Subacute thyroiditis
D.​ ​Viral thyroiditis

91.​ ​ dermatome is used

A
A.​ ​To remove scar tissue
B.​ ​ o harvest skin grafts
T
C.​ ​To abrade skin which is pigmented
D.​ ​For paring of lacerated tissue

92.​ ​Early stage of trauma is characterized by

 A.​ ​Catabolism
B.​ ​Anabolism
C.​ ​Glycogenesis
D.​ ​Glucogenesis

93.​ ​In extra dural hematoma patient presents with

A.​ ​Slow bounding pulse and falling BP
B.​ ​Rapid thread pulse and falling BP
C.​ ​Slow bounding pulse and rising BP
D.​ ​Rapid pulse and normal BP

94.​ ​The most common cause of osteomyelitis is

A.​ ​Staphylococcus aureus
B.​ ​Salmonella
C.​ ​Streptococcus
D.​ ​Tuberculosis

95.​ ​Shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by

A.​ ​Increased blood
B.​ ​Elevated body temperature
C.​ ​Increased atmospheric pressure
D.​ ​Decreased volume of circulating blood

96.​ ​The malignancy which is common on long standing goiter​?

A.​ ​PCT
B.​ ​MCT
C.​ ​FCT
D.​ ​Anaplastic

97.​ ​ hat do you understand by Isograft

W
A.​ ​Bone taken from same individual
B.​ ​ one taken from genetically similar individual
B
C.​ ​Bone taken from identical twin
D.​ ​Bone taken from the same individual

98.​ ​“CYSTIC HYGROMA” is

A.​ ​Lymphangiectasia

B.​ ​Cavernous hemangioma

C.​ ​Sebaceous cyst

D.​ ​Dermoid cyst

99.​ ​Viral infection/s which can be seen in oral cavity of patients with HIV is/are

A.​ ​Hairy leukoplakia

B.​ ​Herpetic stomatitis

C.​ ​Papilloma warts

D.​ ​All of the above

100.​ ​In an otherwise asymptomatic cystic swelling there is sudden neurapraxia in inferior alveolar nerve region
it can be due to

A.​ ​Infection of cyst

B.​ ​Expansion of periosteum due to cyst

C.​ ​Neuritis

D.​ ​Neuralgia

101.​ ​Of the following which teeth need primarily rotatory movement to extract them

A.​ ​Maxillary first and second premolar

B.​ ​Mandibular canine and second premolar

C.​ ​Mandibular central and lateral incisor

D.​ ​Mandibular first and second premolars

102.​ ​The following design parameters should be following to prepare a mucoperiosteal flap EXCEPT

A.​ ​Flap should provide adequate visibility and accessibility

B.​ ​Free margin broader than base

C.​ ​Flap should be a full thickness mucoperiosteal flap

D.​ ​B and C

103.​ ​In a patient of head injruy which is more important to note first
 A.​ ​Pupillary light reflex

B.​ ​Pupillary size

C.​ ​Corneal reflex

D.​ ​Ability to open eye

104.​ ​The safest initial approach to open airway of patient with maxillofacial trauma is

A.​ ​Head tilt -chin tilt

B.​ ​Jaw throust techniqure

C.​ ​Heat lift - neck lift

D.​ ​Heimlich procedure

105.​ ​Fracture of mandible all are true EXCEPT

A.​ ​Fractures of the mandible are common at the angle of the mandible

B.​ ​Fractures of the mandible are effected by the muscle pull

C.​ ​Fractures of the mandible are usually characterized by sublingual hematoma

D.​ ​C.S.F. rhinorrhea is a common finding

106.​ ​A patient with unfavourable fracture of the angle of mandible is best treated by

A.​ ​Closed reduction with intermaxillary fixation

B.​ ​Closed reduction with cap splints

C.​ ​Open reduction with interosseous wiring

D.​ ​Open reduction with rigid bone fixation

107.​ ​Hereditary transformation of cleft is through

A.​ ​Male, sex linked dominated gene

 B.​ ​Male, sex linked recessive gene

C.​ ​Female, sex linked dominated gene

D.​ ​Female, sex linked recessive gene

108.​ ​Before 1 year to 18 months, repair of

A.​ ​Cleft lip only

B.​ ​Cleft palate only

C.​ ​Both simultaneously

D.​ ​First lip and then palate is done

109. ​Which one of the following impression materials is elastic, sets by a chemical reaction, and is catalyzed by lead
peroxide?
A.​ ​Irreversible Hydrocolloid
B.​ ​Rubber Base
C.​ ​Polyether
D.​ ​Conventional Silicone Rubber

110.​ ​The general design for all impression materials can be described in which one of the following ways
A.​ ​Filler Phase and Catalyst Phase
B.​ ​Crosslinking Agent and Flexible Matrix
C.​ ​Continuous Phase and Dispersed Phase
D.​ ​Dispersed Phase and Modifier Phase
111.​ ​What are currently accepted practical targets for amalgam recapture in dental offices
A.​ ​30-50%
B.​ ​50-75%
C.​ ​75-90%
D.​ ​90-99%

112.​ ​Which one of the following FORMS of mercury is present in dental amalgam as a hazard
A.​ ​Elemental mercury
B.​ ​Inorganic mercury
C.​ ​Organic mercury
D.​ ​Chelated mercury

113.​ ​The principal goal(s) of bonding are

A.​ ​Sealing and retention
B.​ ​Esthetics and reduction of postoperative sensitivity
C.​ ​Retention and reduction of tooth flexure
 D.​ ​Strengthening teeth and esthetics

114.​ ​The density of gold is

A.​ ​ 9.38/cm​3
1

B.​ ​18. 8/cm​3

C.​ ​9.38/cm​3

D.​ ​10.38/cm​3

115.​ ​Which of the following dental ceramic materials does not contain leucite
A.​ ​Optec HSP
B.​ ​Feldspathic porcelain
C.​ ​In-Ceram
D.​ ​IPS Empress

116.​ ​The incremental lines of Cementum are

A.​ ​Poorly mineralized

B.​ ​Highly mineralized

C.​ ​Irregularly mineralized

D.​ ​None of the above

117.​ ​Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT

A.​ ​Procera - alumina
B.​ ​Dicor MGC – machinable feldspathic porcelain
C.​ ​Dicor MGC – machinable glass-ceramic
D.​ ​IPS Empress – leucite

118.​ ​Which ONE of the following clinical events intra-orally probably contributes the most to porcelain-to-metal
failure
A.​ ​Occlusal stresses
B.​ ​Thermal cycling
C.​ ​Electrochemical corrosion of the interface
D.​ ​Acid attack at the surface cracks

119.​ ​Which one of the following elements is added to gold casting alloys as an oxygen scavenger during the
production process
A.​ ​Au
B.​ ​Pt
C.​ ​Fe
 D.​ ​Zn

120.​ ​For each 1% increase in the weight of the denture base by water sorption denture base expands linearly by

A.​ ​0.2%

B.​ ​0.4%

C.​ ​0.5%

D.​ ​2%

121.​ ​Amongst the mature dentaltissues, the only tissue whose cells are lost

A.​ ​Cementum

B.​ ​Pulp

C.​ ​Dentin

D.​ ​Enamel

122.​ ​The haversian canal along with concentric lamellae is called

A.​ ​Osteon

B.​ ​Volkmans canal

C.​ ​Interradicular canal

D.​ ​None

123.​ ​Important landmark in determining periapical health is

A.​ ​Lamina lucida

B.​ ​Lamina densa

C.​ ​Lamina dura

D.​ ​None
124.​ ​The portion of enamel organ where cells of outer En and Ep reflect into inner EN, Ep is called as

A.​ ​Cervical loop

B.​ ​Membrana preformativa

C.​ ​D- E Jn dentino enamel junction

D.​ ​None

125.​ ​The shape of the periodontal ligament resemble

A.​ ​Hoar glass

B.​ ​Spliced rope

C.​ ​Key hole

D.​ ​Fish scale

126.​ ​Gingival group of fibers which resist gingival displacement are except one

A.​ ​Transeptal

B.​ ​Attached gingival

C.​ ​Free gingival

D.​ ​Circumferential

127.​ ​Multiresistant herpes simplex virus infection can be successfully treated by

A.​ ​Acyclovir
B.​ ​Foscarnet
C.​ ​Cidofovir
D.​ ​None of the above

128.​ ​The skin eruptions found in rheumatic fever are known as

A.​ ​Erythema multiforms
B.​ ​Erutema marginatum
C.​ ​Erythema circinata migrans
D.​ ​None of the above

129.​ ​Hepatic dysfunction or severe jaundice may lead to

 A.​ ​Severe bleeding following periodontal operation
B.​ ​Spontaneous bleeding in the oral cavity
C.​ ​Both A and B
D.​ ​None of the above

130.​ ​“Hair on end” appearance in skull radiograph is observed in

A.​ ​Sickle cell anemia
B.​ ​Thalassemia
C.​ ​Both A and B
D.​ ​None of the above

131.​ ​The most common cause of oral ulcerations in leukemic patients on chemotherapy is
A.​ ​Histoplasma
B.​ ​Phycomycetes
C.​ ​Candidiasis
D.​ ​Aspergillus

132.​ ​Donovan bodies are found in cytological examination of

A.​ ​Gonorrhea
B.​ ​Syphilis
C.​ ​Granuloma inguinale
D.​ ​Lymphogranuloma venereum

133.​ ​Mild form of Parkinson’s disease can be managed by

A.​ ​Levodopa
B.​ ​Carbidopa
C.​ ​Trihexyphenidyl
D.​ ​Bromocriptine

134.​ ​Bowen’s disease occurs on skin as a result of

A.​ ​Mercury ingestion
B.​ ​Arsenic ingestion
C.​ ​Copper ingestion
D.​ ​None of the above

135.​ ​Impaired swallowing or paresthesia of the mouth and face is found in

A.​ ​Peutz – Jegher syndrome
B.​ ​Guillain – Barre syndrome
C.​ ​Sjogren’s syndrome
D.​ ​Stevens – Johnson syndrome

136.​ ​Drug of choice for patient with rheumatic heart disease undergoing surgical procedure in the oral cavity is
A.​ ​Penicillin
B.​ ​Ampicillin
C.​ ​Amoxicillin
 D.​ ​None of the above

137.​ ​Multiresistant herpes simplex virus infection can be successfully treated by

A.​ ​Acyclovir
B.​ ​Foscarnet
C.​ ​Cidofovir
D.​ ​None of the above

138.​ ​The skin eruptions found in rheumatic fever are known as

A.​ ​Erythema multiforms
B.​ ​Erutema marginatum
C.​ ​Erythema circinata migrans
D.​ ​None of the above

139.​ ​Hepatic dysfunction or severe jaundice may lead to

A.​ ​Severe bleeding following periodontal operation
B.​ ​Spontaneous bleeding in the oral cavity
C.​ ​Both A and B
D.​ ​None of the above

140.​ ​“Hair on end” appearance in skull radiograph is observed in

A.​ ​Sickle cell anemia
B.​ ​Thalassemia
C.​ ​Both A and B
D.​ ​None of the above

141.​ ​The most common cause of oral ulcerations in leukemic patients on chemotherapy is
A.​ ​Histoplasma
B.​ ​Phycomycetes
C.​ ​Candidiasis
D.​ ​Aspergillus

142.​ ​Donovan bodies are found in cytological examination of

A.​ ​Gonorrhea
B.​ ​Syphilis
C.​ ​Granuloma inguinale
D.​ ​Lymphogranuloma venereum

143.​ ​Mild form of Parkinson’s disease can be managed by

A.​ ​Levodopa
B.​ ​Carbidopa
C.​ ​Trihexyphenidyl
D.​ ​Bromocriptine

144.​ ​Bowen’s disease occurs on skin as a result of

 A.​ ​Mercury ingestion
B.​ ​Arsenic ingestion
C.​ ​Copper ingestion
D.​ ​None of the above

145.​ ​Impaired swallowing or paresthesia of the mouth and face is found in

A.​ ​Peutz – Jegher syndrome
B.​ ​Guillain – Barre syndrome
C.​ ​Sjogren’s syndrome
D.​ ​Stevens – Johnson syndrome

146.​ ​Drug of choice for patient with rheumatic heart disease undergoing surgical procedure in the oral cavity is
A.​ ​Penicillin
B.​ ​Ampicillin
C.​ ​Amoxicillin
D.​ ​None of the above

147.​ ​The diagnostic setup was first proposed by

A.​ ​Calvin case

B.​ ​Edward H Angle

C.​ ​H D Kesling

D.​ ​William Conrad

148.​ ​A boy undergoing orthodontic treatment takes aspirin. This results orthodontic tooth movement to be

A.​ ​Faster than normal

B.​ ​Same as normal

C.​ ​Slower than normal

D.​ ​Cannot be predicted

149.​ ​Which of the following methods is least accurate in determining the site of new bone deposition in
laboratory animals

A.​ ​Implants

B.​ ​Radiographs

C.​ ​Tetracycline stains

 D.​ ​Histochemical stains

150.​ ​A cleft palate deformity occurs during which trimester of pregnancy

A.​ ​First

B.​ ​Second

C.​ ​Third

D.​ ​Fourth

151.​ ​The incidence of cleft lip with cleft palate in males and females can be described as

A.​ ​More common in females than in males

B.​ ​More common in males than in females

C.​ ​Equal incidence in males and females

D.​ ​The incidence varies yearly

152.​ ​In nursing bottle rampant caries, usually teeth involved are

A.​ ​All primary teeth

B.​ ​Primary maxillary incisors and primary first molar

C.​ ​Primary mandibular incisor and primary first molar

D.​ ​Only primary mandibular incisors

153.​ ​The causative organism for initiation of enamel caries is

A.​ ​Streptococci

B.​ ​Staphylococci

C.​ ​A. viscous

D.​ ​Lactobacilli

154.​ ​Name of the space between the lateral incisor and the same in maxillary deciduous teeth is
 A.​ ​Leeway space

B.​ ​Primate space

C.​ ​Bolton space

D.​ ​Freeway space

155.​ ​At the age of 6 to 7 years in the primary dentition, the inter dental spacing in maxilla usually ranges

A.​ ​Between 0 and 10 mm

B.​ ​Between 0 and 5 mm

C.​ ​Between 0 and 15 mm

D.​ ​Between 0 and 20 mm

156.​ ​The following represent/s possible treatment plane for the tooth with an exposed pulp

A.​ ​Extraction of the tooth

B.​ ​Pulp capping

C.​ ​Pulpectomy ( total removal of pulp)

D.​ ​All of the above

157.​ ​The treatment of choice for a deciduous tooth having recent mechanically exposed pulp is

A.​ ​Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy

B.​ ​5 – minute formocresol pulpotomy

C.​ ​7 – day formocresol pulpotomy

D.​ ​Pulpectomy

158.​ ​Bribery for the child dental patient should

A.​ ​Never be utilized because it rarely accomplishes any good

B.​ ​Always be utilized

 C.​ ​Never be used to induce good behavior

D.​ ​None of the above

159.​ ​How should toys be used in child management?

A.​ ​Gift

B.​ ​Bride

C.​ ​Reward

D.​ ​All of the above are correct

160.​ ​The basic fear of a child below 2 years on his first dental visit is related to

A.​ ​Anxiety from being separated from parents

B.​ ​Fear of infection

C.​ ​Fear of bur sound

D.​ ​Fear of white apron worn by dentist and nurses

161.​ ​ child’s behaviour problems in the dental office can be handled by famillarization of the basis of the
A
problem is

A.​ ​The parents

B.​ ​Pain

C.​ ​Emotional

D.​ ​Fear

162.​ ​With which public health dentistry is basically concerned?

A.​ ​Preventive and promotive

B.​ ​Promotive and therapeutic

C.​ ​Preventive and therapeutic

 D.​ ​All of the above

163.​ ​In developed colder countries the geriatric age group is

A.​ ​60+

B.​ ​65+

C.​ ​55+

D.​ ​50+

164.​ ​Ageing of the population is defined by the united Nations as ‘mature’ if the percentage of its aged
population is

A.​ ​Between 4 – 7%

B.​ ​Between 5 – 8%

C.​ ​Between 3 – 6%

D.​ ​Between 4 – 5%

165.​ ​Method used for disinfection of air is/are

A.​ ​Mechanical ventilation

B.​ ​Ultraviolet radiation

C.​ ​Chemical mists

D.​ ​All of the above

166.​ ​Teeth isolation using a cotton roll holder is better to cotton rolls alone because

A.​ ​Compression is placed on the salivary gland opening

B.​ ​The area to be treated is more easily observed

C.​ ​The lip is more easily placed

D.​ ​All of the above

167.​ ​Which of the following topical fluoride preparations requires a treatment regimen which does not
correspond to normal recall intervals

A.​ ​Sodium fluoride

B.​ ​Stannous fluoride

C.​ ​Acidulated phosphate fluoride

D.​ ​Potassium fluoride

168.​ ​Dental caries is observed

A.​ ​More in females

B.​ ​More in males

C.​ ​Equal in both males and females

D.​ ​Less in females

169.​ ​ hen the total effect on the body is more than the sum of the independent effects of two or more diseases,
W
it is called

A.​ ​Antagonism

B.​ ​Commensalism

C.​ ​Mutualism

D.​ ​Synergism

170.​ ​In adolescents high incidence of dental caries is due to

A.​ ​Frequency of sugar intake

B.​ ​Amount of sugar intake

C.​ ​Carelessness oral hygiene

D.​ ​Hormonal changes

171.​ ​Median is the

A.​ ​Average value of the variate

B.​ ​Minimal value of the variate

C.​ ​Central value of the variate

D.​ ​None of the above

172.​ ​Values of SD+2 fall with in range of

A.​ ​85 %

B.​ ​95%

C.​ ​98%

D.​ ​99 %

173.​ ​Father of biostatistics is

A.​ ​LH Rheen

B.​ ​John Graunt

C.​ ​Leone willians

D.​ ​Deane H Trendy

174.​ ​Surface tooth structure loss resulting from direct frictional forces between contacting teeth is

A.​ ​Abrasion

B.​ ​Abfraction

C.​ ​Erosion

D.​ ​Attrition

175.​ ​2’ of attrition index means

A.​ ​No wear

 B.​ ​Minimal wear

C.​ ​Noticeable flattening parallel to occlusal plane

D.​ ​Flattening of cusps and grooves

176.​ ​By cutting, 1/4​th​ of intercuspal distance

A.​ ​20% of tooth’s fracture resistance is lost

B.​ ​35% of tooth’s fracture resistance is lost

C.​ ​45% of tooth’s fracture resistance is lost

D.​ ​None

177.​ ​By cutting, 1/4​th​ of intercuspal distance

A.​ ​20% of tooth’s fracture resistance is lost

B.​ ​35% of tooth’s fracture resistance is lost

C.​ ​45% of tooth’s fracture resistance is lost

D.​ ​None

178.​ ​Cross section of a curette is

A.​ ​Round
B.​ ​Triangle
C.​ ​Oval
D.​ ​Semicircular

179.​ ​In hoe scaler blade is bent at

A.​ ​46
B.​ ​64
C.​ ​76
D.​ ​99

180.​ ​Mini fives are available in all standard Gracey curettes EXCEPT
A.​ ​9 – 10
B.​ ​10 – 11
C.​ ​11 – 12
D.​ ​13 – 14
181.​ ​Type of motion in piezoelectric scaler is
A.​ ​Circular
B.​ ​Vibratory
C.​ ​Linear
D.​ ​Elliptical

182.​ ​Causes of midline fracture in denture is due to all except

A.​ ​Placing teeth on maxillary tuberosity as forces are inclined

B.​ ​Tori

C.​ ​Frenum close to rest of the ridge

D.​ ​V-shaped vault

183.​ ​V-shaped vault is best for

A.​ ​Retention

B.​ ​Stability

C.​ ​Support

D.​ ​All of the above

184.​ ​Lasers most common used in prosthetics for the below reasons EXCEPT

A.​ ​Preparation of teeth to receive rest for R.P.D

B.​ ​Reduction of hyperplastic tissue

C.​ ​Gingivectomy

D.​ ​Frenectomy

185.​ ​Buccal corridor’ is synonymous with

A.​ ​Dark space

B.​ ​Negative zone

C.​ ​Buccal vestibule

 D.​ ​Peripheral seal in the buccal vestibule

186.​ ​Lingual flange of mandibular denture should extend upto _______ to present dislodgement

A.​ ​Mylohyoid ridge

B.​ ​2mm short of mylohyoid ridge

C.​ ​2mm beyond mylohyoid ridge

D.​ ​A and B

187.​ ​Materials used to fabricate permanent record bases are all EXCEPT

A.​ ​Titanium alloy

B.​ ​Gold alloy

C.​ ​Cobalt chromium alloy

D.​ ​Chromium nickel alloy

188.​ ​Bennet angle

A.​ ​L = (H/8) + 12

B.​ ​H = (L/8) + 12

C.​ ​H/8 = L+12

D.​ ​H+12 = (L/8)

189.​ ​Twirl – Bow is

A.​ ​Facial type of face bow

B.​ ​Ear piece type of face bow

C.​ ​Arbitary type of face bow

D.​ ​A and C
190.​ ​Average inter condylar distance for successful complete denture would be in the range of

A.​ ​120 – 140 mm

B.​ ​90 – 100 mm

C.​ ​100 – 120 mm

D.​ ​80 – 100 mm

191.​ ​Number of styli attached to pantograph are

A.​ ​Six

B.​ ​Four

C.​ ​Two

D.​ ​Eight

192.​ ​Theories of occlusion are all EXCEPT

A.​ ​Spherical theory

B.​ ​Conical theory

C.​ ​Neutrocentric theory

D.​ ​Organic theory

193.​ ​‘t’ sounds tend to appear like ‘d’ because

A.​ ​Teeth are placed far too anterior

B.​ ​Teeth are placed far too lingual

C.​ ​Teeth are placed far too posterior

D.​ ​Teeth are placed far too buccal

194.​ ​In reparative stage of gingival it is usually

A.​ ​Edematous
B.​ ​Fibrotic
 C.​ ​Firm and resilient
D.​ ​Both A and C

195.​ ​Colour imposed by anoxemia on gingival

A.​ ​Blue
B.​ ​Yellow
C.​ ​Green
D.​ ​Orange

196.​ ​Fibroblast from phenytoin induced gingival growth show increased synthesis of
A.​ ​Collagen
B.​ ​Sulfated glycosaminoglycan
C.​ ​Phenyl hydantoin
D.​ ​Proteoglycan

197.​ ​Generic term used to designate all discrete tumour and tumour like mass in gingiva is
A.​ ​Granuloma
B.​ ​Papilloma
C.​ ​Fibroma
D.​ ​Epulis

198.​ ​Dental treatment causing exostoses

A.​ ​Scaling
B.​ ​Implantation
C.​ ​Placement of free gingival graft
D.​ ​Bone graft

199.​ ​Clinical attachment loss in severe periodontitis

A.​ ​1 – 2 mm
B.​ ​0.5 – 1 mm
C.​ ​3 – 4 mm
D.​ ​5mm or above

200.​ ​Immunosuppressant effective in controlling lesions of erosive lichen planus

A.​ ​Cyclosporine
B.​ ​Tacrolimus
C.​ ​Methotrexate
D.​ ​Carboxy methyl cellulose

******

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