Practice Examination

Semester 1 - 2019

Faculty of Medicine, Nursing & Health Sciences

EXAM CODE: BMA1101

TITLE OF PAPER: Foundations of anatomy and physiology for health practice 1

EXAM DURATION: 2 hours writing time

READING TIME: 10 minutes

This is a PRACTICE paper. It will give you an opportunity to practice your examination skills. The questions
cover the style of questions contained in the final paper but the content areas covered in the practice questions
may be different from the content areas of the final examination.

The paper consists of two sections:

SECTION A: 50 multiple choice questions on Modules 1 – 5

SECTION B: 50 marks of short answer questions on Modules 1 – 5

The real exam paper carries 40% of the marks for this unit
The exam for this unit is a HURDLE – you must pass the real end of semester exam to pass the unit.

Section A: 50 marks
Section B: 50 marks
Total: 100 marks
.

Instructions for using the Multiple Choice Answer Sheet (not provided in the practice exam)

Use a dark lead pencil.

Fill in your Student Identification number in the spaces provided in the box headed CANDIDATE NUMBER.
Next blacken the circle under the number corresponding to the number written in each space for your candidate
number.

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 SECTION A

For each of the following 50 multiple choice questions, choose the one (1) alternative that best
completes the statement or answers the question. It is recommended that you spend about 50 minutes
on this section.
**This practice exam is designed to make you familiar with the layout of the real exam and to help you
study the concepts we have covered this semester. In this section, you can use the MCQs to help you
review the content by not only identifying the correct answer, but to also explaining why the other
options are incorrect (like we did in the workshops).**
___________________________________________________________________________________

1. The organs of the human body:

A. function entirely independently of each other

B. include bones, skin, heart and lung
C. are composed of a single tissue type
D. are composed of either cells or tissues

2. Which part of a homeostatic feedback loop would not be working if information were not being
sent to the control centre?

A. Effector
B. Stimulus
C. Response
D. Receptor

3. Which of the following statements about organic compounds is true?

A. Carbohydrates act solely as building materials for the body

B. DNA is a nucleic acid found mostly in the cytosol of cells
C. Enzymes can be reused to catalyse the same reaction multiple times
D. In water, sodium chloride dissociates into its individual ions

4. Solution A contains less H+ ions than solution B. Therefore, solution A __________________

compared to solution B.

A. is neutral
B. is more alkaline
C. is more acidic
D. has a lower pH

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5. The production of ATP via aerobic respiration occurs primarily in the:

A. absence of oxygen
B. presence of oxygen
C. nucleus of cells
D. cytosol of cells

6. Which of the following best describes the structure of the plasma membrane?

A. A phospholipid bilayer that surrounds the cell

B. A phospholipid monolayer that surrounds the cell
C. A highly rigid structure that protects the cells and organelles
D. A membrane composed mainly of cholesterol

7. ______________ can cross the plasma membrane directly without assistance because they are
_______________:

A. sodium ions; hydrophilic

B. glucose molecules; hydrophobic
C. steroids; lipid soluble
D. vitamins; water soluble

8. During the active transport of sodium and potassium via the Na+/K+ ATPase pump:

A. ATP is converted to ADP releasing the energy required by the pump

B. three potassium are transported to the intracellular environment
C. two sodium ions are exchanged for three potassium ions
D. two sodium ions are transported to the extracellular environment

9. Which of the following organelles is incorrectly described?

A. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of lipid synthesis

B. The golgi apparatus is the site of protein synthesis
C. The mitochondria produces large amounts of ATP via aerobic respiration
D. Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that break down cellular waste

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10. What is the function of a ribosome?

A. Transcribe DNA into RNA

B. Transport proteins to the plasma membrane
C. Remove and breakdown waste from the cell
D. Translate RNA to synthesise proteins

11. Blood is a type of:

A. epithelial tissue
B. connective tissue
C. nervous tissue
D. muscle tissue

12. Which of the following is a/are function(s) of epithelial tissue?

A. Muscle contraction
B. Communication
C. Energy storage and defence
D. Absorption and filtration

13. Which layer of the skin contains fast regenerating epithelial tissue?

A. Granulation tissue
B. Dermis
C. Epidermis
D. Hypodermis

14. Which of the following contributes towards making your skin waterproof?

A. Merkel cells
B. Dendritic cells
C. Keratin
D. Melanin

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15. In the skin, which of the following methods acts to cool your body?

A. Increased activity of sebaceous glands and sweat glands

B. Increased secretion of acid and sweat
C. Constriction of blood vessels and contraction of the arrector pili muscle
D. Dilation of blood vessels and increased activity of sweat glands

16. Vertebrae are classified as a(n):

A. irregular bone
B. short bone
C. flat bone
D. sesamoid bone

17. Division of the body along the frontal plane separates the body into:

A. lateral and medial

B. left and right
C. inferior and superior
D. anterior and posterior

18. Which of the following muscle types would be of most use to a marathon runner?

A. Type II
B. Type I
C. Type IIa
D. Type IIb

19. Skeletal muscle is:

A. uninucleated, striated and controlled by the autonomic motor system

B. multinucleated, non-striated and controlled by the somatic motor system
C. uninucleated, non-striated and controlled by the autonomic motor system
D. multinucleated, striated and controlled by the somatic motor system

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Use the following figure to answer question 20.

B A

20. When describing its location, point A is referred to as ______ to point B.

A. lateral
B. medial
C. superior
D. inferior

21. Compact bone:

A. is made up of osteons
B. contains mainly red marrow
C. is found primarily in the epiphysis of long bones
D. contains lattice-like structures known as trabeculae

22. Ishmal is at the final stage of a triathlon and needs to use his energy reserves. In bones, this
is located in the:

A. red marrow within the sternum

B. yellow marrow within the epiphysis of a long bone
C. yellow marrow within the medullary cavity of a long bone
D. red marrow within the medullary cavity of a long bone

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23. A joint that is immovable is functionally classified as:

A. fibrocartlaginous
B. diarthrotic
C. amphiarthrotic
D. synarthrotic

24. Marion has recently noticed pain in her knee, particularly when walking up stairs and
described the feeling like a tendon rubbing on a bone. Which structure in her knee is most
likely to be affected resulting in her pain?

A. Menisci
B. Bursae
C. Articular cartilage
D. Fibrous capsule

25. The sutures of the skull are remnants of which structures?

A. Fontanelles
B. Tendons
C. Articular cartilage
D. Fibrous capsules

26. During excitation – contraction coupling, in which direction are action potentials
conducted/propagated?

A. From the axon terminals to the axon hillock

B. From the epimysium, across the perimysium and on to the endomysium
C. From the synapse, along the sarcolemma towards the T-tubules
D. From the sarcoplasmic reticulum towards the muscle cell membrane

27. Which of the following activities would require the use of small motor units?

A. Putting a contact lens in place

B. Nodding your head
C. Lifting a heavy box
D. All of the above

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28. When calcium binds, troponin will:

A. inhibit the myosin binding sites on actin

B. move the troponin-tropomyosin complex exposing the myosin binding sites on actin
C. move the troponin-tropomyosin complex exposing the actin binding sites on myosin
D. release ADP and Pi to cause contraction

29. Which of the following processes yield the most ATP per molecule of glucose?

A. Lactic acid fermentation

B. Anaerobic respiration
C. Aerobic respiration
D. Creatine phosphate pathway

30. During skeletal muscle contraction, the sliding of actin and myosin across each other:

A. occurs when ATP binds to the myosin heads

B. is known as the power stroke
C. is referred to as excitation-contraction coupling
D. is triggered by formation of cross-bridges between the actin heads and myosin filaments

31. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The autonomic nervous system regulates visceral functions

B. The somatic motor system innovates skeletal muscle
C. The parasympathetic system innervates cardiac tissue to increase heart rate
D. The somatosensory system sends information about touch, pain, pressure, temperature
and vibration

32. Graded potentials hyperpolarize post-synaptic cells (i.e. cause an inhibitory post-synaptic
potential) when:

A. Chemically-gated chloride channels open

B. Voltage-gated sodium channels open
C. The resting membrane potential becomes less negative
D. Chemically-gated sodium channels open

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33. When sodium enters the neuron via chemically-gated ion channels, it can:

A. cause an excitatory graded potential

B. cause an inhibitory graded potential
C. cause the release of neurotransmitter from pre-synaptic vesicles
D. initiate the depolarisation stage of an action potential

34. Saltatory conduction:

A. occurs in non-myelinated neurons

B. requires Nodes of Ranvier
C. increases the speed of graded potentials
D. is slower than continuous conduction

35. In the brain, the central sulcus separates:

A. the anterior and posterior hemispheres

B. the left and right hemispheres
C. the gray and white matter
D. the frontal and parietal lobes

36. The premotor cortex:

A. initiates involuntary muscle movement

B. makes sense of motor commands
C. directs complex skeletal muscle movements
D. is located anterior to the longitudinal fissure

37. Wernicke’s area:

A. is located in the occipital lobe

B. directs the muscles involved in speech
C. is involved in language perception
D. allows us to recognise what we see

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38. The diencephalon:

A. produces melatonin
B. consists of the pons, midbrain and pineal gland
C. sits inferior to the cerebellum
D. works with the cerebellum and primary motor cortex to control movement

39. The cauda equina:

A. starts at L5; the approximate position of conus medullaris in adults

B. contains cell bodies of motor and sensory neurons
C. contains sympathetic nerve fibres
D. consists of spinal nerves that exit the vertebral column in lumbar and sacral regions

40. In the somatosensory pathway, the cell body of the:

A. first order neuron is located in the sensory nuclei of the spinal cord
B. third order neuron is located in the hypothalamus
C. second order neurons is located in the dorsal gray horn
D. upper motor neuron is located in the primary motor cortex

41. The autonomic motor nervous system:

A. regulates skeletal muscle

B. is under voluntary control
C. generates commands at the hypothalamus
D. generates commands at the primary motor cortex

42. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes:

A. increased smooth muscle contraction along the digestive tract

B. increased smooth muscle contraction surrounding the airways
C. pupil constriction
D. pupil dilation

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43. The sympathetic arm of the autonomic nervous system:

A. arises from the lumbar-sacral region

B. has long pre-ganglionic and short post-ganglionic fibres
C. exits the spinal cord between T1 and L2
D. has myelinated post-ganglionic neurons

44. Noradrenalin is released from:

A. parasympathetic post-ganglionic fibres

B. sympathetic adrenergic neurons
C. sympathetic pre-ganglionic neurons
D. sympathetic cholinergic fibres

45. The neurotransmitter GABA, is involved in:

A. Excitation-contraction coupling
B. Acetylcholine (ACh) release
C. Release of noradrenaline (NA) from the renal medulla
D. Inhibitory signalling in the CNS

46. Gustatory receptors belong to which subtype?

A. Mechanoreceptors
B. Thermoreceptors
C. Osmoreceptors
D. Chemoreceptors

47. The three elements involved in maintaining our sense of balance are:

A. vision, proprioception and the spiral organ of corti

B. vision, proprioception and the vestibular apparatus
C. hearing, proprioception and the vestibular apparatus
D. hearing, proprioception and the spiral organ of corti

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48. You are walking at night time, and want to have the best possible vision to see where you are
walking. The type of photoreceptors used are the _________, and there are more of them located
in your ____________ vision.

A. cones, peripheral
B. rods, central
C. rods, peripheral
D. cones, central

49. Which of the following represents the correct order of structures that light passes through before
being detected at the retina?

A. Cornea -> Pupil -> Lens

B. Lens -> Pupil -> Cornea
C. Lens -> Iris -> Cornea
D. Cornea -> Iris -> Lens

Use the following simplified figure of an eye to answer question 50.

50. The above image shows the light entering the eye of someone with __________. This is caused by
either the eyeball being too ____________, or the lens is unable to __________ enough for
__________ distance vision:

A. hyperopia; long; relax; long

B. hyperopia; short; contract; short
C. myopia; long; contract; long
D. myopia; long; relax; long

END OF SECTION A
Turn the page for section B

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SECTION B

Answer all of the following questions in the spaces provided. It is recommended that you spend about 60
minutes on these questions.
**When completing this practice exam for revision, it is a good idea to include as much information as
possible in your answers to these questions (i.e. more than the question asks for) as it is a tool you can use
to study the content we have covered throughout the semester.**
___________________________________________________________________________________

Module 1: The human body and homeostasis (5 marks)

Scenario (this is a new scenario)

Alexia is a regular football player with her local club and in recent weeks has felt more fatigued than
normal, requiring her to stop playing before the end of the game. Determined to find out why she does
not have the energy to complete a whole game, Alexia participates in a fitness test at a sports clinic, where
she runs on a treadmill for 30 minutes. During the test, Alexia is given an electrolyte drink to keep her
hydrated and blood samples are taken once the test is completed. The results of the blood test reveal low
levels of sodium and an increase in hydrogen ions above normal.

Questions

1. During the fitness test, Alexia’s body temperature rises slightly above normal. Using your knowledge
of homeostatic feedback loops, complete the flow chart of the steps required to return the body to
normal homeostatic limits. For each box you will need to include; 1) the component involved and 2)
a short description of its role (two have been partially completed for you). What type of feedback loop
is this? (2 marks)

1. Control centre (brain)

2. Information from receptor
integrated; command sent to effector

1. Effector (response)
1. Receptor
(thermoreceptors) 2. Activation of sweat
glands; dilation of blood
2. Detects changes in body vessels and increased
temperature blood flow to the skin

1. Stimulus (increase in body temp.)

2. Increased body temperature
initiates feedback loop

Type of feedback loop? _________Negative Feedback__________

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2. What are electrolytes? (0.5marks)
Substances that dissociate (break apart) into cations and anions when placed in solution.

3. List one (1) ion imbalance exhibited by Alexia at the end of the race? What is one (1) function of
this ion? (1 mark)
Sodium (low) – water balance, membrane function, action potentials, muscle contraction
Hydrogen ions (high) – changes in pH/acid-base balance

4. Which organic compound is responsible for providing Alexia with the energy required to run during
a football match? (0.5 marks)
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) or glucose

5. To overcome the energy deficit during exercise, protein from Alexia’s muscles are being broken
down to use for energy production.
a) What type of chemical reaction would break a protein into its individual amino acids?
(0.5 marks)
Catabolic reaction

b) Doctors indicate that some of Alexia’s muscle breakdown is due to the denaturation of proteins.
Based on her blood test results, what would be responsible for denaturing her proteins?
(0.5 marks)
High H+ levels making her blood acidotic. This can denature proteins.

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Module 2: Cells, tissues and the integumentary system (10 marks)

Scenario
Tom is adrift on a lifeboat in the Tasman Sea after a fire destroyed the Yacht he was holidaying on. Most
of his supplies were destroyed or sank and all he managed to save was a 1 litre bottle of fresh water. Tom
is rescued after 2 days at sea and upon examination by the attending paramedics it is noted that he is
severely dehydrated, disorientated and his skin is bleeding from blisters as a result of exposure to the sun.

Questions
1. Using your knowledge of transport across the plasma membrane, explain:
a) what type of solution seawater is. (1 mark)
Seawater has a very high concentration of solutes, thus it is hypertonic

b) the effect drinking sea water would have on solute and/or water movement across Tom’s cells
and why. (2 marks)
1 mark for each of the following points (students only need 2 for full marks)
- If Tom drank seawater, there would be a higher concentration of non-penetrating solutes on
the outside of the cell compared to the inside.
- Water would therefore move from the inside of Tom’s cells to the outside to attempt to
obtain equilibrium
- Tom’s cells would shrink due to the outward movement of water

c) the effect drinking sea water would have on the functioning of Tom’s cells and what symptom(s)
this relates to in the scenario above. (2 marks)
- The ability of Tom’s cells to function wold be decrease or lost completely
- If the nerve cells in Tom’s brain become dehydrated, this can lead to disorientation.

2. Using your knowledge of the skin and the information provided in the case study:
a) Identify the layer(s) of the skin that has/have been damaged. (1 mark)
Epidermis and dermis

b) Justify the answer you gave in part (a). (1 mark)

The damage to Tom’s skin resulted in bleeding, indicating that there is damage to the blood
vessels which are located in the dermis, thus epidermis must have been damaged in order to
also damage the underlying dermis.

c) Identify the main tissue type(s) in the layer(s) of the skin you identified in (a). (1 mark)
- Epidermis is composed mainly of epithelial tissue
- Dermis is composed mainly of connective tissue

d) Explain why Tom would now be more susceptible to infection. (1 mark)

1 mark for either of the following
- The ability of the skin to act as a barrier has been compromised allowing pathogens a way to
enter into the body
- If there is disruption to the acid mantle in the area, pathogenic bacteria may now be able to
colonise the area.

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3. Name the stage(s) of tissue repair that Tom’s skin undergoes and explain why these stages are
necessary? (1 mark)
Tom’s skin will undergo all three stages – inflammation, organisation (migration) and proliferation
(maturation) as both the dermis and epidermis need to be repaired.

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Module 3: The musculoskeletal system (15 marks)

Scenario
While driving to work, Abdullah, a 38 year old man, was in a car accident whereby the airbag was released,
crushing his right arm against the door frame. Abdullah was bleeding, in severe pain and unable to move
the proximal portion of his right arm. Unable to drive and in pain, Abdullah was taken by ambulance to
the emergency department. Examination by X-ray revealed Abdullah had fractured the diaphysis of his
right humerus, crushed the epiphysis and damaged the ligaments and articular capsule of the shoulder
joint. Further examination revealed that Abdullah was in good health with normal calcium levels meaning
he should recover.

Questions
1. In what anatomical region (i.e. cranial, gluteal) of the body is the fracture located? (1 mark)
Brachial

2. The stress of the crash would have caused Abdullah’s heart to beat faster. Given your knowledge of
muscles, what are two features of cardiac tissue? (1 mark)
Striated, involuntary, uninucleated

3. Based on shape, what class of bone is the humerus? (1 mark)

Long bone

4. Abdullah’s fracture occurred at the diaphysis of the humerus

a) What type of bone tissue is this region primarily composed of? (1 mark)
Compact bone
b) How does this type of bone tissue contribute to the function of the skeleton? (1 mark)
Strength in one direction, torsion strength, tension

5. The impact of the crash damaged the ligaments and articular capsule of Abdullah’s right shoulder
joint and crushed the epiphysis.
a) What type of joint is the shoulder joint? (0.5 marks)
Synovial / ball and socket / diarthrotic

b) Describe one role that ligaments serve in a joint (0.5 marks)

0.5 marks for either of the following
- Attach bone to bone
- Stabilise a joint (e.g. prevent hyperextension of a joint)

c) What does the articular capsule consist of and what is one function that each component
contributes to a joint? (2 marks)
0.5 marks for each component and 0.5 marks for each corresponding function
- Fibrous layer – strengthens joint / prevents articulating bones from being pulled apart
- Synovial membrane – produces synovial fluid (which reduces friction) / provides nutrients
and removes wastes

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 d) Briefly outline how bone remodelling will assist the repair of the epiphysis of Abdullah’s
humerus? (include the main cell types involved in your answer) (2 marks)
- Osteoclasts will remove bone from the damaged area via resorption (osteoclasts secrete
enzymes and acid to breakdown the ECM )
- Osteoblasts will act at the same site to build new bone by secreting ECM into the area,
rebuilding the bone tissue

6. Once the bones and joint have been repaired, Abdullah will require physiotherapy to restore the
muscle movement at his shoulder.
a) Abdullah has good calcium levels that will help his recovery. Why is calcium important for
muscle movement? (1 mark)
Calcium released from sarcoplasmic reticulum needed to expose mysosin binding site on actin.

b) Briefly describe the events involved in the excitation-contraction coupling of skeletal muscle
tissue. (4 marks)
0.5 marks for each of the following:
- Action potential arrives at axon terminal
- Release of Ach
- ACh binds sarcolemma causing ion channels to open
- Sarcolemma is depolarised and the action potential is generated
- AP travels down the T-tubules
- Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
- Calcium binds troponin
- Conformational change in tropomyosin that causes uncovering the myosin binding site on
actin

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Module 4: The nervous system (15 marks)

Scenario
After spending long hours working at her computer, Renee has slipped two discs in her cervical spine.
Protrusion of the disc has partially occluded the intervertebral foramina, resulting in severe nerve
compression, with radiating pain down her left arm, hand and fingers. In addition to the pain, Renee
experiences loss of tactile sensation in her fingers and random muscle twitches in her upper and lower
arm.

Questions
1. What is the name given to the type of nerve Renee has compressed? (1mark)
Spinal nerves

2. What does this nerve contain? (1mark)

Axons of sensory and motor neurons

3. Complete the table below to explain if and why a slipped disc in the cervical spine would affect
each of the following neurons. (2 marks)

a) Type of nerves b) Affected by c) Rationale for your answer to

Renee’s slipped disc? column b
Motor neurons Yes Motor neurons exit at all segments of
the spinal cord
Sensory neurons Yes Sensory neurons enter at all segment
of the spinal cord
Parasympathetic No Parasymp neurons exit only from the
neurons brainstem and sacral region via cauda
equina
Sympathetic neurons No Symp neurons exit only in thoracic
and L1/L2 region

4. Renee’s pain levels continue to increase and she starts to rely heavily on codeine tablets to
help dull the pain. Codeine decreased gut motility and secretions, eventually leading to
constipation. What arm/branch of the autonomic nervous system would normally promote gut
motility? Explain your reasoning. (1 mark)
Parasympathetic (rest and digest) – because this arm/branch promotes activity of the
digestive system which includes gut motility and secretions.

5. Codeine has been shown to decrease acetylcholine (ACh) release. Given your answer to
question 4 above, which synapse(s) could be affected in this particular division of the
autonomic nervous system? (2 marks)
Synapses at the pre- and post-ganglionic neurons as well as between the post-ganglionic
neurons and the effectors

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6. Describe the steps normally involved in the release of ACh at the synapse. (3 marks)
Arrival of an action potential at the axon terminal alters the resting membrane potential of
the membrane, causing voltage gated calcium channels to open. An influx of calcium into
the cell results in synaptic vesicles moving to axon terminal, fusing with the membrane and
releasing its neurotransmitter (ACh) into the synaptic cleft

7. Renee has experienced involuntary muscle twitches. Complete the following flow chart to
demonstrate your understanding of how motor information is normally relayed from the
brain to the effector. (5 marks)
Primary motor, upper motor, lower motor, ventral, sensory

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Module 5: Special senses (5 marks)

Scenario
You are visiting your favourite niece, who is normally delighted to see you (especially since you are
reliable for presents!). However, today she is distracted, inattentive, and is talking louder than normal.
When you ask her how she is, she mentions that she hasn’t had much sleep lately, and is complaining
about an earache and a runny nose. In order to distract her, you suggest that she watches TV with you.
Once you start watching, she asks you to turn up the volume, which you notice was already quite high.
But she then seems able to follow the deep and meaningful plot of Pepe Le Pew.
Questions
1. Assuming that the problem is a hearing issue, which region and structure of the ear do you think
has been affected? Explain your reasoning. (2 Marks)
Middle ear and Eustachian tube
Head cold and sniffling means Eustachian tube is swollen, increase of pressure inside middle ear
(tympanic cavity) reduces vibrations of ear drum, makes it harder to hear sounds

2. Some companies are beginning to produce headphones that use bone conduction to transmit sound.
Given that vibrations traveling through bone go straight to the cochlear, would your niece be able
to hear the tv properly if she was using these headphones? Explain your reasoning. (1 Marks)
Yes – because bone conduction remains normal she would be able to hear the sounds normally

3. Excluding the region indicated in question 1, what are the remaining two regions of the ear, and
what is the main role of each? (2 Marks)
Outer ear – funnelling or sound localisation
Middle ear – Amplification (no other acceptable answer, transmission of signal is not enough)
Inner ear – Conversion of sound into neural impulse, actual site of hearing etc
**Consecutive marks would be allowed**

END OF SECTION B

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