MCQS Power Generation PDF

POWER GENERATION SYSTEM
1) What is the main disadvantage of phase advancers?
a. Cannot be used for motors below 200 H.P

b. Produces noise
c. Can be used where synchronous motor is un admissible
d. None of these
2) Phase advancers are used for which among the following machines?
a. Transformers
b. Synchronous machines
c. Induction motors
d. DC machines
3) Which among these is the advantage of synchronous condensers?
a. Helps in achieving the stepless control of power factor.

b. The motor windings have a lower thermal stability.
c. The maintenance cost is low.
d. All of the above.
4) What is the advantage of the static capacitors?
a. Low losses
b. Easy installation
c. Lower maintenance
d. All of the above
5) Power factor can be improved by connecting which among these?
a. Static capacitors.
b. Resistors.
c. Synchronous condensers.
d. Both (a) and (c).
6) For which among the following consumers is penalty imposed for low power factor?
a. Residential and commercial consumers.

b. Industrial consumers.
c. Agricultural consumers.
7) The primary reason for the low power factor is due to the installation of
a. Induction motors
b. DC motors
c. Synchronous motors
d. Commutator motors
8) For a consumer what is the most economical power factor?
a. 0.25 – 0.5 lagging

b. 0.25 – 0.5 leading
c. 0.85 – 0.95 lagging
d. 0.85 – 0.95 leading
9) Lower power factor is usually not due to ____________.
a. Discharge lamp
b. Arc lamps
c. Incandescent lamps
d. Induction furnace
10) Which among the following happens in a low power factor?
a. Large kVA rating of the equipment.

b. Greater conductor size.
c. Reduced handling capacity of the system.
11) Active power and apparent power are respectively represented by _________.
a. kW and kVAR
b. kVAR and kVA
c. kVA and kVAR
d. kW and kVA
12) What is maximum value of power factor?
a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 1.5
d. 0.95
13) Which tariff is also known as the average power factor tariff?
a. Sliding scale tariff
b. kW tariff
c. kVAR tariff
d. kVA maximum demand tariff

14) A consumer having lower power factor contributes towards which factor?
a. Semi fixed charges.
b. Fixed charges.
c. Running charges.
d. Penalty is imposed.
15) What is/are the consequence/s of low power factor?
a. Increases the rating of station equipments only
b. Only line losses increases
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
16) What is the power factor tariff?
a. It considers only maximum demand.
b. It considers only semi fixed charges and the power factor.
c. It considers only power factor.
d. It considers the load factor.
17) Why is a big consumer charged at a lower rate than the small consumer?
a. Their maximum demand is small.
b. It improves the load factor.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. None of these.
18) Why is Maximum demand tariff not applicable to domestic consumers?
a. Low maximum demand
b. Low load factor
c. Lower energy consumption
d. Low power factor

19) Maximum demand tariff is applied for which kind of consumers?
a. Big consumers
b. Small consumers
c. Residential consumers
d. All of these
20) What is the difference between two part tariff and maximum demand tariff?
- Published on 21 Nov 15
a. A separate meter is used
b. A separate maximum demand meter is used
c. Semi fixed charges are also included
d. All of these
21) Which tariff is most ideal tariff for the consumer?
a. Two part tariff

b. Three part tariff
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
22) Which among the following are included in the three part tariff?
i. Fixed charges
ii. Running charges
iii. Semi fixed charges.
a. i, ii and iii
b. i and ii
c. i and iii
d. ii and iii
23) What is the main disadvantage of two port tariff?
a. He has to pay semi fixed charges.

b. He has to pay fixed charges.
c. He has to pay running charges.
d. None of the above.
24) A variable charge is based on what?
a. Energy consumption
b. Maximum demand
c. Peak load demand
d. All of the above
25) Fixed charge is dependent on what factor?
a. Energy consumption
b. Maximum demand
c. Peak load demand
d. All of the above
26) Two part tariff is charged on what basis?
a. Connected load
b. Units consumed
c. Maximum demand
d. Both (b) and (c)
27) Block rate tariff, where energy charge decreases with the increase in energy consumption,
a. Encourages the consumers for more consumption.

b. Discourages the consumers for more consumption.
c. Encourages the consumers to restrict their demand.
d. Encourages the consumers to improve the power factor.

28) Which tariff is used by the small commercial consumers?
a. Maximum demand tariff

b. Block rate tariff
c. Three part tariff
d. Two part tariff
29) Domestic consumers are charged _____________.
a. Flat demand tariff

b. Block rate tariff
c. Flat rate tariff
d. Off peak tariff
30) Flat rate tariff is charged on what basis?
a. Connected load.
b. Units consumed.
c. Maximum demand.
d. All of these
e. None of these
31) What is tariff?
a. The rate at which electrical energy is produced in the plant.
b. The rate at which electrical energy is supplied to the consumers.
d. None of these.
32) A transformer costing Rs 90,000 haws a useful life of 20 years. Determine the annual depreciation
charge using straight line method. Assume salvage to be 15,000.
a. 4000
b. 3750
c. 4350
d. 3500
33) The most suitable location for the power factor improvement device is
a. Near the electrical appliance which is responsible for the poor power factor.
b. At the sending end.
c. At the receiving end in case of transmission lines.
d. Both (a) and (c).
e. None of the abov
34) In a straight line method, annual depreciation charges are calculated by
a. The capital cost minus salvage value divided by the number of years of life.
b. The capital cost divided by the number of years of life.
d. None of these
35) Depreciation charge may be based on which method?
a. Straight line method.
b. Sinking fund method.
c. Both (a) & (b).
d. None of these.
36) The annual depreciation reserve depends on _______________.
a. Capital cost only.
b. Salvage value only.
c. On any method of calculation of depreciation factor.
d. All of these
37) What is meant by semi fixed charges?
a. It is the cost which is independent of maximum demands and units generated.
b. It is the cost which depends only on the units generated.
c. It is the cost which depends upon the maximum demand but it is independent of units generated.
d. None of these.
38) The capital cost of a power plant depends on ________________.
a. Total installed capacity only
b. Total number of units only
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
39) What does the annual fixed cost include?
a. Fuel, maintenance cost and labour
b. Interest, taxes, insurance and depreciation
c. Both (a) and (b)
40) Which components are included in the annual operating cost?
a. Fuel, maintenance cost and labour
b. Interest, taxes, insurance and depreciation
c. Both (a) and (b)

41) What are fixed charges?
a. Cost of investment irrespective of energy generated.
b. Operating cost of the fuel along with cost of investment plant.
c. Operating cost only.
42) Generators for the base load plants are usually designed for maximum efficiency around
a. 20% overload
b. Full load
c. 75% full load
d. None of these
43) Why is load shedding done?
a. Reducing peak demand on the system.
b. Repairing of machines.
c. Power factor improvement.
d. Efficient operation of equipment.
44) What happens in a load shedding?
a. System voltage is reduced.
b. System frequency is reduced.
c. System loads are switched off.
d. System power factor is changed.

45) For a nuclear plant, what is its useful life?
a. 10 years.
b. 30 years
c. 100 years
d. 60 years
46) Annual operating cost of a generating plant consists of
a. Fixed charges
b. Semi fixed charges
c. Operating or running charges
d. All of these
e. None of these
47) In a steam power station, electric power is generated at what power?
a. 440 V
b. 1.1 kV
c. 11 kV
d. 33 kV
48) What are the essential requirements for power plants to be operated as peak load plants?
a. Capability of quick start, synchronisation and taking up of system load.
b. Quick response to load variations.
c. Low capital cost.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
49) Which among the following plants have the least operating cost?
a. Steam plants
b. Hydro plants
c. Nuclear plants
d. Diesel plants
50) What is the modern trend in electric power generation?
a. To have a large number of small size thermal plants located at different places.
b. To have large size thermal plants near load centre.
c. To have large size thermal plants located near coal fields.
52) Interconnected systems have the advantage of
a. Reduced reserve plant capacity, capital cost per kW and economy in operation.
b. Improved load factor, diversity factor and operation efficiency and increased reliability of supply.
c. All of these
d. None of these
53) The yearly load duration curve of a power plant is a straight line. The maximum load is 850 MW
and minimum load is 650 MW. The capacity of the plant is 950 MW. What is the capacity factor and
the utilization factor?
a. 0.89, 0.78
b. 0.83, 0.65
c. 0.78, 0.89
d. 0.65, 0.83
54) A consumer consumes 400 kWh per day at a load factor of 0.3. If he increases the load factor to
0.6 without any increase in maximum demand. What is the consumption of energy in kWh?
a. 800 kWh
b. 650 kWh
c. 1125 kWh
d. 425 kWh
55) Utilization factor is defined as the ratio of
a. Average demand to the rated capacity of the plant.
b. Maximum demand on the power plant to the rated capacity of the power plant.
c. Rated capacity of the power plant to the maximum demand.
d. None of these
56) Determine the average demand of a plant if its load factor and maximum demand are 0.60 and
30 MW.
a. 20 MW
b. 18 MW
c. 50 MW
d. 13 MW
57) A generating station has a connected load of 55 MW and maximum demand of 20 MW. What is
the demand factor?
a. 0.4785
b. 0.3636
c. 2.75
d. 1100
58) The maximum demand on the power system is 100 MW. If the annual load factor is 40%.
Calculate the total energy generated in a year.
a. 3761 * 105 kWh
b. 4174 * 105 kWh
c. 3504 * 105 kWh
d. 3500 * 105 kWh
59) The power system experiences peak demand from ____________.
a. Midnight to 8 A.M
b. 8 A.M to 2 P.M
c. 2 P.M to 6 P.M
d. 6 P.M to 10 P.M
60) What is connected load?
a. Installed electrical load in the premises of the consumer.
b. Maximum load a consumer draws.
c. Load drawn by a consumer at any instant.
61) What is the value of demand factor?
a. Greater than unity.
b. Less than unity.
c. Always more than unity.
d. Normally more than unity.

62) What is demand factor?
a. Average load to maximum demand.
b. Maximum demand to connected load.
c. Connected load to maximum demand.
d. Maximum demand to average load.
63) Maximum demand on the power system is
a. Sum of the maximum demands of all its consumers.
b. Greatest average load in a specified time.
c. Peak value of load in a specified time.
64) What is the result of the product of diversity factor and maximum demand?
a. Average demand
b. Sum of consumers maximum demand
c. Installed capacity
d. Generated power
65) A large diversity factor of the load in a power system
a. Reduces the installation cost.
b. Increases the installation cost.
c. Does not affect the installation cost.

66) Diversity factor is helpful in computing which of the following factors?
a. Plant capacity
b. Average load
c. Units generated (kWh)
d. Peak demand
67) What is operating value of diversity factor?
a. Greater than unity
b. Less than unity
c. Always more than unity
d. Normally more than unity
68) What is the diversity factor?
a. A ratio of kWh generated to the product of plant capacity and the number of hours for which the
plant is in operation.
b. The ratio of sum of individual maximum demands to the maximum demand on power stations.
c. The ratio of actual energy produced to the maximum possible energy.
d. The ratio of maximum demand on the power station to the connected load.
69) In a power station, the cost of generation of power reduces most effectively when
_______________.
a. Diversity factor alone increases.
b. Both diversity factor and load factor increases.
c. Only load factor increases.
d. Both diversity factor and load factor decreases.

70) A thermal generating station has a installed capacity of 15 MW and supplies a daily load of 10
Mw for 12 hours and 5 MW for remaining 12 hours. The plant capacity factor for this station is
_______.
a. 1
b. 0.75
c. 0.67
d. 0.5
71) Capacity factor will be very low when the power plant _________________.
a. is operated as base load plant.
b. is operated for supplying base load as well as the peak loads.
c. is operated in emergency only.
d. is under maintenance.
72) What is the plant capacity factor?
a. A ratio of kWh generated to the product of plant capacity and the number of hours for which the
plant is in operation.
b. The ratio of sum of individual maximum demands to the maximum demand on power stations.
c. The ratio of actual energy produced to the maximum possible energy.
d. The ratio of maximum demand on the power station to the connected load.
73) An industrial consumer has a load pattern of 2000 kW 0.8 lag for 12 hours and 1000 kW unity
power factor for 12 hours. What is the load factor?
a. 0.5
b. 0.55
c. 0.6
d. 0.75
74) The load factor plays a key role in determining which among the following?
a. Plant capacity
b. Overall cost per unit generated
c. Overall demand
d. Both (a) and (c)
75) What is the load factor of a power plant?
a. Greater than unity
b. Less than unity
c. Always more than unity
d. Normally more than unity
76) What is a load factor?
a. The ratio of average to maximum demand.
b. The ratio of maximum demand to average load.
c. The product of maximum demand and average load.
d. The ratio of average load to the plant capacity.
77) What does the chronological load curve indicate?

a. Variation in demand factor during 24 hours.
b. Variation of demand from instant to instant during 24 hour.
c. The total energy consumed upto different times of the day.
d. The total number of hours for which a particular load lasts during the day.
78) Maximum and Minimum loads on the load duration curve is represented on which respective
side?
a. Left and Right.
b. Right and Left.
c. Randomly.
d. None of these.
79) What is the shape of the load duration curve?
a. Rectangular shape
b. Triangular shape
c. Parabolic shape
d. Free hand sketch
80) What does a load duration curve represent?
a. The variation of load during different hours of the day
b. Average load
c. The number of hours for which a particular lasts during the day
81) The mass curve is plotted from which of the following curve?
a. Chronological curve
b. Energy load curve
c. Load duration curve
d. None of these
82) What does a mass curve represent?
a. Average load
b. The total energy consumed by the load upto a particular time in a day
c. The number of hours for which a particular lasts during the day
d. The variation of load during different hours of the day
83) If the daily load curve is divided by 24, what does this curve represent?
a. Average load for the day
b. Connected load
c. Maximum demand
d. Demand factor
84) Load curve of a generation is always
a. Positive slope
b. Zero slope
c. Negative slope
d. Combination of (a), (b) and (c)
85) What does the highest point on the daily load curve represent?
a. Peak load
b. Maximum demand
c. Both (a) & (d)
d. None of these
86) What does the area under the load curve represent?
a. System voltage
b. Current
c. Energy consumed
d. Maximum demand
87) What is a load curve?
a. A plot of load vs current.
b. A plot of load vs time.
c. A plot of load vs duration of time.
d. Total number of units generated vs time.
88) In geo thermal power plants waste water is
a. Discharged back to earth.
b. Discharged into the sea.
c. Recirculated after cooling in cooling towers.
d. Evaporated in ponds.
89) Direct conversion of heat energy into electrical energy is possible through
a. MHD generators
b. Fuel or solar cells
c. Thermionic converters.
d. Both (a) and (c)
e. None of these
90) Presence of non – condensable gasses in a geo - pressured water causes
a. Pollution problem
b. Corrosion problem
c. Flow problem
d. All of the above
93) Tidal energy development needs
a. Huge capacity and long construction time.
b. Huge capacity and low construction time.
c. Low capacity and long construction time.
d. Low capacity and low construction time.
94) Thermal gradient in a geo thermal plant is given by
a. Heat flux * thermal conductivity
b. Heat flux / thermal conductivity
c. Thermal conductivity / heat flux
d. None of these
95) In a fuel cell, electrical energy is produced by

a. Reaction of hydrogen with oxygen
b. Thermionic action
c. Combustion of fuel in the absence of oxygen
d. All of the above

96) Tidal energy utilizes
a. Kinetic energy of water
b. Potential energy of water
c. Both (a) and (b)
98) Power output per unit volume of a MHD generator is proportional to
a. Specific electrical conductivity of gas
b. Square of the magnetic field strength
c. Square of the fluid velocity
d. All of these
99) In a MHD generator the conductor is made of
a. Copper
b. Liquid metal
c. Gas
d. Liquid metal or gas
100) What is the working fluid in closed cycle MHD system?
a. Helium and argon
b. Coal
c. Natural gas
d. Potassium
101) The harmful emissions such as sulphur are removed from gas before it is discharged to the
atmosphere through which instrument?
a. Duct
b. Mufflers
c. Stark
d. All of these
102) Coal is processed and burnt in the combustor of a hybrid MHD at a high temperature and
pressure with the preheated air to form which among the following element?
a. Steam
b. Plasma
c. Coke
d. None of these
103) The nature of the current developed in MHD generator is
a. AC
b. DC
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
104) Which of the following liquid metal is not used as a magneto hydrodynamic generation (MHD)
working fluid?
a. Potassium
b. Sodium
c. Lithium
d. All of these
105) In a solar collector, why is the transparent cover provided for?
a. Protect the collector from dust
b. Reduce the heat losses from collector beneath to atmosphere
c. Transmit solar radiation only
d. All of the above
106) Temperature attained by cylindrical parabolic collector is of the order of
a. 50 – 100 °C
b. 100 – 150 °C
c. 150 – 200 °C
d. 200 – 300 °C
107) What are pyrheliometers?
a. Instruments measures beam radiations
b. Diffuse radiations
c. Direct radiations only
108) The function of a solar collector is of converting solar energy into
a. Radiations
b. Electrical energy directions
c. Thermal energy
d. All of the above

109) Reflector mirrors used for exploiting the solar energy are called
a. Mantle
b. Heliostats
c. Diffusers
d. Ponds
110) A pyrometer is used for the measurements of
a. Diffuse radiations only.
b. Direct radiations only.
c. Both direct and diffused radiations.
111) The current density of a photo voltaic cell ranges from
a. 10 – 20 mA/cm2
b. 40 – 50 mA/cm2
c. 20 – 40 mA/cm2
d. 60 – 100 mA/cm2
112) What is the maximum possible output of a solar array?
a. 300 W/m2
b. 100 W/m2
c. 250 W/m2
d. 500 W/m2
113) In a fuel cell, cathode is of
a. Oxygen
b. Ammonia
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon monoxide
114) The output of the solar cell is of the order
a. 0.5 W
b. 1.0 W
c. 5.0 W
d. 10.25 W
115) For satellites the source of energy is
a. Solar cell
b. Fuel cells
c. Edison cells
d. Cryogenic storage
116) The efficiency of the solar cell is about
a. 25 %
b. 15 %
c. 40 %
d. 60 %
117) A module in a solar panel refers to_______________.
a. series arrangement of solar cells.
b. parallel arrangement of solar cells.
c. series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.
118) The temperature of the cooling water leaving the diesel engine should not exceed.
a. 25 °C
b. 40 °C
c. 85 °C
d. 70 °C
119) Heating value of diesel is around _________.
a. 4000 kcal/kg
b. 10000 kcal/kg
c. 15000 kcal/kg
d. 20000 kcal/kg
120) High output diesel engines are started by
a. self starter.
b. compressed air.
c. battery.
d. cranking.
121) Maximum temperature developed in a diesel engine is in the range of
a. 2000 - 2500 °C
b. 500 – 1000 °C
c. 1500 – 2000 °C
d. 1000 – 1500 °C
122) The identification of a two stroke engine is given by
a. Cooling system
b. Lubrication system
c. Absence of valve
d. All of these
123) The lubrication cost in a diesel power plant is _______.
a. High
b. Low
c. Moderate
d. Very low
124) Calculate the overall efficiency of the diesel plant if the fuel consumption is 0.24 kg per kWh and
the calorific value of the fuel being 10000 kcal/kg.
a. 30.78
b. 35.83
c. 28.73
d. 36.86
125) What is supercharging?
a. Pumping of air into the cylinder at the pressure greater than atmospheric pressure.
b. Pumping of air out of the cylinder at the pressure greater than atmospheric pressure.
c. Pumping of air into the cylinder at the pressure lower than atmospheric pressure.
d. Pumping of air out of the cylinder at the pressure lower than atmospheric pressure.
126) Which type of cylinder configuration is commonly used?
a. Vertical – in line
b. V – type
c. Horizontal type
d. All of these
127) Which among the following instruments are provided on the exhaust line to reduce the
pressure?
a. Ducts
b. Muffler
c. Strainers
d. Purifiers
128) It is very much necessary to treat the makeup water to remove the scale forming the impurities.
Which treatment is used?
a. Zeolite softener
b. Lime or lime soda treatment
c. Both (a) and (b)
129) What is the ranging capacity of the diesel plant?
a. 50 – 750 kW
b. 100 – 1175 kW
c. 75 – 3750 kW
d. 150 – 4575 kW
130) The diesel plants are mainly used ________.
a. as peak load plants.

b. as base load plants.
c. as standby power plants.
d. both peak and stand by plants.

131) The speed of the diesel engine may vary from
a. 0 – 100 rpm
b. 200 – 1000 rpm
c. 500 -5000 rpm
d. 1000 – 3000 rpm
132) In a 2 stroke engine, the operation cycle are completed in how many strokes and revolution?
a. 4 strokes and 2 revolutions
b. 2 stroke and 2 revolutions
c. 2 strokes and 1 revolution
d. 4 stroke and 4 revolutions
133) Which among these plants are most efficient?
a. Open cycle
b. Combined cycle
c. Closed cycle
d. None of these
134) Which material is used for the manufacture of the turbine blades?
a. Stainless steel
b. Carbon steel
c. High nickel alloy
d. High alloy steel

135) What is meant by inter cooling?
a. Removal of heat from compressed air between stages of compression.
b. Transfer of heat energy from exhaust gases to the compressed air flowing between compressor and
the combustion chamber.
c. To increase the temperature of partially expanded gases by burning more fuel.
136) What is regeneration?
a. Removal of heat from compressed air between stages of compression.
b. Transfer of heat energy from exhaust gases to the compressed air flowing between compressor and
the combustion chamber.
c. To increase the temperature of partially expanded gases by burning more fuel.
d. None of these
137) Which among these are used to improve the efficiency of gas turbines?
a. Regenerator.
b. Inter cooling.
c. Reheating.
d. All of these.
138) The efficiency of the open cycle gas plant is quite low. Why?
a. Gas gets cooled before reaching the turbine wheels.
b. A lot of mechanical energy is used up by the compressor.
d. None of these
139) What would be the temperature of the gas in the combustion chamber?
a. 500 °
b. 1600 °
c. 1200 °
d. 650 °
140) The compressor has to be started
a. Before starting the gas turbine.
b. After starting the gas turbine.
c. Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine.
d. At any time during the operation.
141) The heating value of gaseous fuels is about

a. 500 kJ/litre
b. 30 kJ/litre
c. 100 kJ/litre
d. 10 kJ/litre
142) The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following fuels?
a. Coal and Peat
b. Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil
c. Gas oil
d. Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel

143) What part or % of power developed is utilized for driving the compressor?
a. 65 %
b. 70 %
c. 55 %
d. 80 %
144) Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?
a. Reciprocating compressor
b. Screw compressor
c. Multistage axial flow compressor
d. None of these
145) Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant?
a. Condenser
b. Compressor
c. Boiler
d. None of these
146) Name the turbine developed on the basis of aircraft engine technology.
a. Brayton
b. Aerodynamic
c. Aero derivative
d. Rankine
147) Combined cycle power plants are suitable for ___________.
a. Base loads.
b. Peak loads.
c. Intermediate loads.
d. Both base and peak loads.
148) Gas turbine plants are not used ___________.
a. as peak load plants.
b. as base load plants.
c. as standby power plants.
d. in combination with the steam power plants.
149) The gas turbines are mainly used in ________.
a. Locomotives
b. Aircrafts
c. Automobiles
d. Pumping stations
150) On which cycle does the gas turbine work?
a. Carnot
b. Brayton
c. Dual cycle
d. Rankine cycle
154) What is the overall efficiency of the thermal plant?
a. The ratio of heat equivalent of electrical output to the heat of combustion of coal.
b. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of electrical output.
c. The ratio of heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to the turbine shaft to the heat of
combustion of coal.
d. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to
the turbine shaft.
155) The thermal efficiency of a steam plant is defined as ________________.
a. The ratio of heat equivalent of electrical output to the heat of combustion of coal.
b. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of electrical output.
c. The ratio of heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to the turbine shaft to the heat of
combustion of coal.
d. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to
the turbine shaft.
156) Ash handling system is mainly divided into________________ systems.
a. Mechanical handling
b. Pneumatic
c. Hydraulic
d. All of these
157) What is the important factor in fuel selection?
a. Cost of fuel.
b. Calorific value
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
158) Why is pulverised coal used?
a. Better burning.
b. Increased calorific value of coal.
c. Medium size units.
d. Less radiation loss.
159) What is pulverised coal?
a. Non smoking coal.
b. Coal free from ash.
c. Coal broken into fine particles.
d. Coal which burns for long time.
160) Which of the following is/are an/ the essential element/s for the combustion of fuel?
a. Oxygen
b. Correct fuel air ratio.
c. Proper ignition temperature.
d. All of these.
162) The elements that are combustible in the fuel are
a. Carbon and hydrogen.
b. Carbon, hydrogen and ash.
c. Carbon, hydrogen and sulphur.
d. Carbon, nitrogen and ash

163) On which factor does the calorific value of coal depend?
a. Ash content.
b. Size of coal particles
c. Moisture content.
d. Volatile material.
165) The coal with highest ash content is ________.
a. Lignite
b. Steam coal
c. Coking coal
d. Bituminous coal
166) What is the superior quality of coal called?
a. Anthracite
b. Coke
c. Bituminous
d. Peat
167) Name the system that is mainly employed for the disposal of fly ash.
a. Pneumatic
b. Hydraulic
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. Steam jet system

168) The best coal suitable for the production of energy is_________________.
a. Lignite
b. Bituminous
c. Anthracite
d. Peat
169) Evaporative type of condenser has
a. Water in pipes surrounded by steam outside.
b. Steam and cooling water mixed to give the condensate.
c. Steam in pipes surrounded by water.
170) Spray ponds are used to cool the warm water coming from the condenser in ________.
a. Large power plants
b. Small power plants
c. Medium power plants
d. Both medium and large power plants.
171) What is use of the air pumps in the condenser?
a. Remove water
b. Air leaking in the condenser and to maintain the vacuum
c. Maintain atmospheric pressure and the condenser
d. Both (a) & (b)

172) Water used in the steam plant is used for cooling in_______________.
a. Condenser
b. Turbine only
c. Boiler tube
d. Boiler tubes and turbines
173) A condenser condenses the steam coming out from___________.
a. Boiler
b. Turbine
c. Economizer
d. Super heater
174) The draught produced by the chimney is________________.

a. Forced draught
b. Natural draught
c. Induced draught
d. Balanced draught
175) The definition of the draught system is
a. A device used to pull in air.
b. The difference between absolute gas pressure at any point in a gas flow and the ambient
atmospheric pressure.
c. The sum of the absolute gas pressure at any point in a gas flow and the ambient atmospheric
pressure.
d. A device used to pull out air.

176) Air- preheater in a steam power plant_____________.
a. Recovers the heat from the flue gases leaving the economiser.
b. Improves combustion rate.
c. Raises the temperature of the furnace gases.
d. All of these.
177) The use of air preheater increase the temp of the air by about______________.
a. 50°
b. 20°
c. 5°
d. 30°
178) The reheat factor in a steam turbine depends on
a. Stage efficiency.
b. Initial pressure and temperature.
c. Exit pressure.
179) The governing principle of steam turbines are ________________.
a. Nozzle control governing
b. Throttle governing
c. Bypass governing
d. All of these
180) The pipes carrying the steam are made of _________.
a. Steel
b. Cast iron
c. Aluminium
d. Cobalt
181) A steam turbine with no nozzle is ________________.
a. Reaction turbine
b. Impulse turbine
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
182) Turbo alternators run at speeds
a. Constant speed of 3000 rpm.

b. Constant speed of 1000 rpm.
c. A variable speed of above 1000 rpm.

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POWER GENERATION SYSTEM

1) What is the main disadvantage of phase advancers?

a. Cannot be used for motors below 200 H.P

3) Which among these is the advantage of synchronous condensers?

a. Helps in achieving the stepless control of power factor.

a. Residential and commercial consumers.

a. 0.25 – 0.5 lagging

a. Large kVA rating of the equipment.

b. kVAR and kVA

c. kVA and kVAR

12) What is maximum value of power factor?

a. Sliding scale tariff

d. kVA maximum demand tariff

a. Semi fixed charges.

15) What is/are the consequence/s of low power factor?

a. Increases the rating of station equipments only

b. Only line losses increases

c. Both (a) and (b)

16) What is the power factor tariff?

a. It considers only maximum demand.

b. It considers only semi fixed charges and the power factor.

c. It considers only power factor.

d. It considers the load factor.

a. Their maximum demand is small.

b. It improves the load factor.

c. Both (a) and (b).

18) Why is Maximum demand tariff not applicable to domestic consumers?

a. Low maximum demand

b. Low load factor

c. Lower energy consumption

d. Low power factor

a. A separate meter is used

b. A separate maximum demand meter is used

c. Semi fixed charges are also included

21) Which tariff is most ideal tariff for the consumer?

a. Two part tariff

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

a. He has to pay semi fixed charges.

c. He has to pay running charges.

d. None of the above.

24) A variable charge is based on what?

c. Peak load demand

d. All of the above

25) Fixed charge is dependent on what factor?

c. Peak load demand

d. All of the above

26) Two part tariff is charged on what basis?

d. Both (b) and (c)

a. Encourages the consumers for more consumption.

c. Encourages the consumers to restrict their demand.

d. Encourages the consumers to improve the power factor.

a. Maximum demand tariff

c. Three part tariff

d. Two part tariff

29) Domestic consumers are charged _____________.

a. Flat demand tariff

c. Flat rate tariff

d. Off peak tariff

30) Flat rate tariff is charged on what basis?

31) What is tariff?

a. The rate at which electrical energy is produced in the plant.

b. The rate at which electrical energy is supplied to the consumers.