Modern Biology. Chapter Tests With Answer Key General and Advanced

Modern Biology ®
Chapter Tests
with Answer Key
General and Advanced
Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
The Science of Life
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. metabolism a. structure made of tissues

b. produces greatly magnified images of
______ 2. magnification
surface details
______ 3. cell c. increase of an object’s apparent size
______ 4. reproduction d. production of offspring

e. produces a greatly magnified image of
______ 5. resolution internal detail
______ 6. TEM f. sum of all chemical processes of an
organism
______ 7. organ g. capability of showing clear details
______ 8. SEM h. smallest unit of life that can carry out
all life’s processes
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
9. A scientist collects data to test a(n) .
10. Growth in living things occurs by cell and cell
11. A disadvantage of a(n) microscope is that living

specimens cannot be examined.
12. is the increase in an object’s apparent size, whereas
is the ability to show details clearly in an image.
13. are those that are

produced by the relationship between two base units or between two
derived units.
Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Modern Biology 5 Chapter Test
Name Class Date
The Science of Life, Chapter Test B continued
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______14. To maintain their internal organization, all living things must have a
constant supply of
a. oxygen. c. water.
b. carbon dioxide. d. energy.
______15. Reproduction involves the transfer of genetic information from

a. genes to DNA.
b. parents to offspring.
c. offspring to parents.
d. unicellular organisms to multicellular organisms.
______16. The stable internal environment maintained by living things is called

a. homeostasis. c. adaptation.
b. differentiation. d. interdependence.
______ 17. The most important driving force in evolution is

a. natural selection. c. autotrophy.
b. heterotrophy. d. asexual reproduction.
______18. The scientific process that involves using the five senses is
a. inference. c. modeling.
b. analyzing. d. observation.
______19. Data that are quantitative are always

a. described in words.
b. represented by numbers.
c. duplicated for verification.
d. the most accurate kind of data.
______20. A hypothesis is a statement that

a. is always true. c. is the same as a theory.
b. is usually true. d. can be tested.
______21. A broad and comprehensive statement of what is believed to be true

is a(n)
a. model. c. prediction.
b. theory. d. inference.
______22. The safety symbol for eye safety is a picture of

a. a hand. c. an electrical plug.
b. a flame. d. goggles.
______23. Two parents are required for the type of reproduction known as
a. asexual reproduction. c. sexual reproduction.
b. binary fission. d. cell differentiation.

Name Class Date
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. List three major themes of biology.
25. List seven major characteristics of life.
26. Would a field biologist who studies the ecology of a bird species necessarily
use the same scientific methods as a laboratory biologist who studies how a
virus infects cells? Why or why not?
27. Why is it important for scientists to communicate about their work, and what
are two common ways that they do so?
28. Why do scientists use SI (Système International d’Unités) rather than the
system of measurement adopted for use in their own country?
29. Which step in the scientific methods does the chart below represent?
Apparent
index case
KEY
Confirmed case
Person died
Person left community
Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4

4 cases 6 cases 7 cases 12 cases

Name Class Date
Follow the directions given below.

30. A microbiologist tested the rate of reproduction (called growth) of a bacterial
species in two kinds of bacterial food (called media). The data were organized
on the graph below. Analyze the data, and answer questions a–e.
Medium A
Bacterial growth
Medium B
0 12 24 36 48 76
Time (in hours)
a. At what time was the growth rate equal for the bacteria in both media?
b. Which medium produced the most rapid growth initially?
c. Which medium produced the most growth overall?
d. What does the descending part of the curves represent? What may have
caused this effect?
e. What can you predict about the results of a similar experiment run for one
week?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Chemistry of Life
Write the correct letter in the blank before each numbered term.
______ 1. covalent bond a. involves transferred electrons
______ 2. atom b. loss of an electron

c. substance that cannot be broken
______ 3. reduction
down
______ 4. compound d. involves shared electrons
______ 5. molecule e. a substance composed of two or

more elements
______ 6. ionic bond
f. gain of an electron
______ 7. oxidation g. simplest part of an element
______ 8. element h. simplest part of a substance that
can exist in a free state
Write the letter of the most correct answer in the blank.
______ 9. Elements tend to undergo chemical reactions that

their stability.
a. increase c. do not change
b. decrease d. disrupt
______10. Sodium chloride (table salt) is an example of a compound formed by

a. hydrogen bonding. c. ionic bonding.
b. covalent bonding. d. electromagnetic bonding.
______11. When pure water dissociates, it forms equal numbers of

a. hydroxide ions and sodium ions.
b. hydronium ions and water ions.
c. hydroxide ions and water ions.
d. hydroxide ions and hydronium ions.
______12. Matter can change from a solid to a liquid by the addition of energy,
which makes the particles in the matter
a. move faster. c. dissociate.
b. move slower. d. increase their specific heat.
______13. Charged particles that move around an atom’s nucleus are

a. electrons. c. ions.
b. protons. d. neutrons.

Name Class Date
Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test B continued
______14. Chemical bonds are broken, atoms are rearranged, and new bonds are
formed during
a. changes of state.
b. chemical reactions.
c. the addition of energy to an element.
d. measurement of pH of a solution.
______15. Atoms with filled orbitals in the outermost energy levels tend to
a. participate in chemical reactions.
b. not participate in chemical reactions.
c. participate only in redox reactions.
d. dissociate in water.
______16. In an ionic bond,

a. two ions of opposite charge are held together by electrical attraction.
b. two uncharged atoms share one or more pairs of electrons.
c. molecules of water are broken into hydroxide ions and hydronium
ions.
d. both atoms involved in the bond become negatively charged.
______ 17. Which of the following represents the correct order of states of matter
from that having the slowest moving particles to that having the fastest
moving particles?
a. gas, liquid, solid c. solid, gas, liquid
b. liquid, solid, gas d. solid, liquid, gas
______18. An attachment between atoms that results from the atoms sharing one
or more pairs of electrons is a(n)
a. ionic bond. c. reduction reaction.
b. covalent bond. d. oxidation reaction.
______19. A redox reaction

a. involves the transfer of electrons between atoms.
b. occurs between atoms with filled orbitals in the outer energy levels.
c. results in a net gain of electrons for the reactants.
d. does not involve transfer of energy.
______20. The amount of energy needed to start a chemical reaction is the

reaction’s
a. mechanical energy. c. free energy.
b. chemical energy. d. activation energy.
______21. A substance that neutralizes small amounts of acids or bases added

to a solution is a(n)
a. alkaline substance. c. catalyst.
b. solvent. d. buffer.

Name Class Date
______22. A chemical reaction that can proceed forward or backward is

represented by a
a. double arrow. c. plus sign.
b. single arrow. d. subscript.
______23. All compounds contain at least

a. one element. c. two elements.
b. one ionic bond. d. two ionic bonds.
Answer the questions in the space provided.
24. Why is it necessary for oxidation and reduction reactions to occur as paired
reactions?
25. What is the role of enzymes in chemical reactions occurring in living things?
26. Describe the relationship between the solute, the solvent, and the concentration
of a solution.
27. List two characteristics of acids and two characteristics of bases.
28. What is the pH scale, and what does its range of values mean?
29. What is the atomic mass and the atomic number of an atom that has
6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 6 electrons?

Name Class Date

30. The graph below depicts the rate of enzyme activity in relation to pH for two
enzymes, pepsin and trypsin. Both enzymes break down molecules in food
taken into the human body, but the enzymes act in series. Pepsin breaks some
bonds in very large molecules. Trypsin acts on the fragments produced by the
action of pepsin, breaking them into smaller units. Answer the questions
based on the graph.
Rate of enzyme activity
Pepsin Trypsin
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
pH
a. The liquid in the stomach has a pH of about 2. Which of the two enzymes
would be active in the stomach?
b. The liquid in the small intestine has a pH of about 8. Which of the two
enzymes would be active in the small intestine?
c. What must happen to the liquid as it passes from the stomach to the small
intestine for digestion to occur normally?
d. Consider the data on pH and enzyme activity shown in the graph. Do

enzymes typically function only at a specific pH, or can they function
at a range of pH values?
e. Can pepsin and trypsin function in the same environment? Why or why not?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Biochemistry
______ 1. nucleotide a. forms large molecules from smaller
ones
______ 2. hydrolysis
b. fatty acid linked to alcohol chain
______ 3. steroid c. monomer of many polysaccharides
______ 4. amino acid d. component of many lipids
e. monomer of nucleic acids
______ 5. condensation reaction
f. lipid not composed of fatty acids
______ 6. glucose g. monomer of proteins
______ 7. wax h. breaks large molecules into smaller
ones
______ 8. fatty acid i. influences the characteristics of
molecules
______ 9. functional group
each statement.
______10. The presence of four electrons in the outermost energy level of a

carbon atom enables
a. carbon atoms to form four covalent bonds with atoms of other
elements.
b. carbon atoms to form covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.
c. carbon atoms to form double bonds with other atoms.
d. All of the above
______11. The breakdown of polymers into monomers occurs through a process

known as
a. hydrolysis. c. dissociation.
b. condensation. d. removal of a functional group.
______12. Organic molecules that catalyze reactions in living systems are

a. phospholipids. c. polysaccharides.
b. enzymes. d. steroids.
______13. Lipids are good energy-storage molecules because

a. they can absorb a large amount of energy while maintaining a
constant temperature.
b. they have many carbon-hydrogen bonds.
c. they are composed of many simple sugars.
d. they cannot be broken down by enzymes.
Name Class Date
Biochemistry, Chapter Test B continued
______14. A compound found in living things that supplies the energy in one
of its chemical bonds directly to cells is
a. phosphate. c. ATP.
b. RNA. d. alcohol.
______15. Enzymes lower activation energy by

a. linking to the substrate and weakening bonds within the substrate.
b. becoming chemically changed and reacting with the substrate.
c. changing the temperature and pH of the substrate’s environment.
d. linking to the substrate permanently, creating a very large molecule.
______16. A compound that is stored as glycogen in animals and as starch in

plants is
a. alcohol. b. cellulose. c. glucose. d. phosphate.
______ 17. The three molecules shown below are

a. phosphates. b. isomers. c. not organic. d. steroids.
CH2OH CH2OH
CH2OH
H C O OH O H HO C O H
C H C C C H C
OH H H OH C OH H
HO C C H OH C C H C C OH
CH2OH
H OH OH H H OH
______18. In a triple bond, pair(s) of electrons are shared

between two atoms.
a. one b. two c. three d. four
______19. Amino acids become linked together by peptide bonds during

reactions.
a. condensation b. redox c. oxidation d. hydrolysis
______20. Without enzymes, the chemical reactions in your body would

a. happen too fast.
b. occur at much the same rate as they do with enzymes.
c. require a different pH.
d. occur too slowly to support life processes.
______21. Carbon atoms can bond together to form all the following EXCEPT
structures.
a. ring c. straight chain
b. inorganic d. branched chain
______22. ATP contains ________ phosphate groups.

a. one b. two c. three d. four

Name Class Date
______23. Which atoms are involved in a peptide bond?

a. C, H, N, and O c. N and O
b. C and O d. C, H, and O
______24. Energy is released when the bond between _______ in ATP are broken.
a. carbon atoms c. phosphate groups
b. ribose and adenine d. two ATP molecules
25. How does a condensation reaction differ from a hydrolysis reaction?
26. What are the structural differences between monosaccharides, disaccharides,

and polysaccharides?
27. Living things contain many different proteins of vastly different shapes and
functions. What determines the shape and thus the function of a particular
protein?
28. How does the structure of phospholipids, linear molecules with a polar end
and a nonpolar end, relate to their function in the cell membrane?
29. In the diagram of the molecule below, draw in lines as necessary to indicate
the presence of any double bonds.
H H
H C H H C H
C C
H H H H
C C C C C C
C C
H H H H
H C H
H
H

Name Class Date

30. The diagrams below illustrate a variety of chemical structures. Write the
correct name from the following list in the blank below each diagram.
Not every name will be used.
alcohol fatty acid
dipeptide nucleotide
disaccharide polysaccharide
enzyme/substrate complex water
CH2OH
CH2OH
H C O H H
O
C H C C
OH H H OH C
O H H
HO C C C C
CH2OH O
OH H
H OH
a c
O OH
C
H C H
H CH3
H C H
H C H H N C C N C C OH
H C H H H O H H O
H C H
d
H C H
H C H
H C H
H C H
H C H
H C H
H C H
H C H
H C H
H C H
b e

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Cell Structure and Function
term or phrase.
______ 1. mitochondrion a. stores DNA and synthesizes RNA
______ 2. endoplasmic reticulum b. digests molecules, old organelles,

and foreign substances
______ 3. plasma membrane c. site of protein synthesis
______ 4. ribosome d. processes and packages sub-
stances produced by the cell
______ 5. cell e. prepares proteins for export and
______ 6. Golgi apparatus synthesizes steroids
f. regulates movement of substances
______ 7. nucleus into and out of cell
______ 8. lysosome g. transfers energy to ATP
h. the basic unit of life
______ 9. The maximum size to which a cell may grow is limited mainly by the
cell’s
a. shape. c. function.
b. surface area. d. internal organization.
______10. The discovery of cells is linked most directly with

a. early investigations of causes of diseases.
b. observations of large, unicellular organisms.
c. the development of the microscope.
d. efforts to reproduce organisms in the laboratory.
______11. Which of the following are components of the plasma membrane that
have a significant role in its functioning?
a. lipids c. carbohydrates
b. proteins d. All of the above
______12. In which of the following types of cells would you expect to find a
large number of mitochondria?
a. bone c. muscle
b. skin d. blood

Name Class Date
Cell Structure and Function, Chapter Test B continued
______13. Microfilaments and microtubules

a. contain digestive enzymes.
b. function in cell structure and movement.
c. are sites of protein synthesis.
d. are sites of photosynthesis.
______14. Which of the following is the correct order of structures in living

things, from the simplest to the most complex?
a. cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
b. cells, organs, tissues, organ systems
c. cells, organs, organ systems, tissues
d. organ systems, organs, tissues, cells
______15. Short, hairlike organelles that can move and may cover a unicellular
organism or line the respiratory tract are called
a. chromatin strands. c. cilia.
b. flagella d. spindle fibers.
______16. Name two functions of the proteins embedded in the plasma

membrane.
a. They transport substances across the membrane and aid in
protein synthesis.
b. They store wastes and form the outer layer of the membrane.
c. They serve as attachment sites for molecules in the extracellular
fluid and transport substances across the membrane.
d. They aid in cell movement and serve as attachment sites for mole-
cules in the extracellular fluid.
______ 17. Which of the following membrane proteins are integral proteins?
a. cell-surface markers c. transport proteins
b. receptor proteins d. All of the above
______18. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Colonial organisms are multicellular.
b. Colonial organisms are unicellular.
c. Colonial organisms have specialized tissues.
d. The cells of colonial organisms are genetically different from each
other.
______19. Which scientist determined that cells come only from other cells?
a. van Leeuwenhoek c. Schwann
b. Schleiden d. Virchow
______20. Which of the following helps plant cells remain rigid?

a. plasma membrane c. chloroplast
b. nucleus d. central vacuole

Name Class Date
Refer to the figure below, which shows the packaging and

distribution of proteins inside the cell, to answer questions 21–23.
A B
Cell membrane C
______21. The structures labeled A are

a. vesicles. c. ribosomes.
b. lysosomes. d. chloroplasts.
______22. The structure labeled B is

a. the endoplasmic reticulum. c. a mitochondrion.
b. a Golgi apparatus. d. the nucleus.
______23. The structure labeled C is a(n)

a. mitochondrion. c. ribosome.
b. endoplasmic reticulum. d. vesicle.
24. What are the three parts of the cell theory?
25. Name two different kinds of animal cells, and describe how their shape is
related to their function.

Name Class Date
26. Describe two differences between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells.
Refer to the diagram below to answer question 27.
27. The diagram depicts a plant cell. Write the names of structures a–e in the blanks.
c
b d
e
a
f. Which of these structures are found in plants but not in animals?
28. What are the major roles of the nucleus, and what parts of the nucleus carry
out these roles?
29. What is a colonial organism, and what does it have in common with a multi-
cellular organism?
30. Where in the cell do the following steps of energy conversion occur?
a. Glucose taken into the cell
b. Glucose boken down to yield ATP
c. ATP used for cellular activities

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Homeostasis and Cell Transport
term or phrase.
______ 1. plasmolysis a. relatively low solute concentration

b. membrane-bound organelle
______ 2. vesicle
c. uptake of large particles
______ 3. hypertonic
d. shrinking of cells
______ 4. concentration gradient e. uptake of solutes or fluids
f. bursting of cells
______ 5. cytolysis
g. concentration difference across space
______ 6. hypotonic
h. relatively high solute concentration
______ 7. phagocytosis
______ 8. pinocytosis
______ 9. The process of diffusion requires

a. a cell membrane.
b. an aqueous solution.
c. a difference in the concentration of molecules throughout a space.
d. All of the above
______10. If the molecular concentration of a substance is the same throughout

a space, the substance
a. has a large concentration gradient.
b. is in equilibrium.
c. will undergo diffusion.
d. will undergo osmosis.
______11. A type of transport in which water moves across a membrane and

down its concentration gradient is
a. simple diffusion. c. diffusion through ion channels.
b. facilitated diffusion. d. osmosis.
______12. Net movement of water across a cell membrane occurs

a. from a hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution.
b. from a hypertonic solution to a hypotonic solution.
c. from an isotonic solution to another isotonic solution.
d. through gated water channels.
Name Class Date
Homeostasis and Cell Transport, Chapter Test B continued
______13. All forms of passive transport depend on

a. energy from the cell in the form of ATP.
b. the kinetic energy of molecules.
c. ion channels.
d. carrier proteins.
______14. Sodium-potassium pumps

a. move Na ions and K ions into cells.
b. move Na ions and K ions out of cells.
c. move Na ions out of cells and K ions into cells.
d. move Na ions into cells and K ions out of cells.
______15. Which of the following processes is

illustrated in the diagram at right?
a. the action of the
sodium-potassium pump Exterior of cell
Cytosol
b. pinocytosis
c. endocytosis
d. exocytosis
______16. A structure that can move excess water

out of unicellular organisms is a
a. carrier protein.
b. contractile vacuole.
c. ion channel.
d. cell membrane pump.
______ 17. Most of the time, the environment that plant cells live in is
a. isotonic. c. hypotonic.
b. hypertonic. d. None of the above
______18. Plasmolysis of a human red blood cell would occur if the cell were
a. in an isotonic solution. c. in a hypotonic solution.
b. in a hypertonic solution. d. None of the above
______19. The diffusion of ions across the membrane is influenced by which of

the following?
a. the electrical charge of the ion
b. only the concentration gradient of the ion
c. the number of enzymes in the cell membrane
d. Both (a) and (c)
______20. Ion channels may open or close in response to

a. stretching of the membrane.
b. a change in electrical charge.
c. the binding of a molecule to the ion channel.
d. All of the above

Name Class Date
______21. Without sodium-potassium pumps, cells

a. might lose sodium.
b. might not be able to transmit electrical impulses.
c. would shrivel up.
d. Both (a) and (b)
______22. When a cell uses energy to transport a particle through the cell
membrane to an area of higher concentration, the cell is using
a. diffusion. c. osmosis.
b. active transport. d. facilitated diffusion.
23. Describe how different kinds of cells react to hypertonic solutions.
24. Name three types of passive transport and three types of active transport.
25. Describe what would happen to the molecules in a drop of ink dropped into a
beaker of water. What is this process called?
26. What is the fundamental difference between carrier proteins that participate
in facilitated diffusion and carrier proteins that function as pumps?
27. How do ions cross the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane?

Name Class Date
28. Describe the action of the sodium-potassium pump.
29. Contrast endocytosis with exocytosis.

30. The diagrams below illustrate cells carrying out different types of transport
across their cell membranes. Identify each process by writing the correct
term in the blank below each diagram. Then answer the question.
Bacterium Cl
O2
CO2
a b c
K Glucose
Na
d e f
g. Which of the above processes are active-transport processes?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Photosynthesis
term or phrase.
______ 1. carotenoids a. adds phosphate group to ADP
______ 2. ATP synthase b. absorb violet, blue, and red light

c. component colors of white light
______ 3. photosystem
d. series of linked chemical reactions
______ 4. G3P e. three-carbon molecule in Calvin cycle
______ 5. RuBP f. reflect yellow and orange

g. five-carbon molecule in Calvin cycle
______ 6. visible spectrum
h. cluster of pigment molecules
______ 7. chlorophylls
______ 8. biochemical pathway
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
9. The is the most
common pathway of carbon dioxide fixation.
10. Plants use three-carbon molecules produced during stage 2 of
to make organic compounds.
11. Light-absorbing are located in the membranes of
12. High-energy electrons move along the thylakoid membrane from
photosystem to photosystem .
13. The oxygen produced in photosynthesis comes from
______14. What product of the light reactions of photosynthesis is released and

does not participate further in photosynthesis?
a. ATP c. H2O
b. NADPH d. O2
Name Class Date
Photosynthesis, Chapter Test B continued
______15. Where does the energy required for the Calvin cycle originate?
a. ATP and NADPH produced by the light reactions
b. O2 produced by the light reactions
c. the sun’s heat
d. chlorophyll in the leaf cells
______16. Protons are moved into the thylakoid using energy from
a. ATP. c. electrons in the transport chain.
b. NADPH. d. the sun’s heat.
______ 17. At the end of the photosystem I transport chain, electrons

a. combine with NADP to form NADPH.
b. combine with ADP to form ATP.
c. are ejected out of the membrane, into the stroma.
d. enter photosystem II.
______18. Carbon atoms are fixed into organic compounds in

a. the Calvin cycle. c. electron transport chains.
b. the light reactions. d. photosystems I and II.
______19. To produce the same amount of carbohydrate, C4 plants lose less

a. ATP than C3 plants. c. water than C3 plants.
b. carbon dioxide than C3 plants. d. RuBP than C3 plants.
______20. Which of the following environmental factors will cause a rapid

decline in the photosynthesis rate if the factor rises above a certain
level?
a. light intensity c. carbon dioxide
b. temperature d. oxygen
Refer to the figure below to answer questions 21 and 22.
______21. In the diagram of a chloroplast, the light reactions would occur in area
a. a. c. c.
b. b. d. d.
______22. In the diagram of a a

chloroplast, the
reactions of the
Calvin cycle would
occur in area
a. a
b. b.
c. c. b
d. d.
d

Name Class Date
______23. Accessory pigments differ from chlorophyll a in that they

a. absorb all wavelengths of light.
b. absorb only yellow and orange light.
c. are not directly involved in the light reactions of photosynthesis.
d. have no function in photosynthesis.
24. Describe the internal structure and the external structure of a chloroplast.
25. What happens to the components of water molecules that are split during the
light reactions of photosynthesis?
26. How is ATP formed in photosynthesis?
27. What is the fate of most of the G3P molecules in the fourth step of the Calvin
cycle? What happens to the remaining G3P molecules?

Name Class Date
28. How do CAM plants differ from C3 and C4 plants? How does this difference
allow CAM plants to exist in hot, dry conditions?
29. Photosynthesis is said to be “saturated” at a certain level of CO2. What does

this mean?

30. The diagram below illustrates the site of the light reactions in the thylakoid
membrane. Identify the primary electron acceptors, photosystem I, photo-
system II, and the electron transport chains by writing the correct term in
each blank. Then answer the question.
a b
Light Light
NADPH
NADP
c f
g. What structure that is found in the thylakoid membrane and is important

to chemiosmosis is not shown in the diagram?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Cellular Respiration
term or phrase.
______ 1. citric acid a. first pathway of cellular respiration

b. glycolysis and anaerobic pathways
______ 2. kilocalorie
c. product of acetyl CoA and
______ 3. glycolysis oxaloacetic acid
______ 4. aerobic respiration d. location of glycolysis
e. electron acceptor
______ 5. cell membrane
f. location of electron transport chain
______ 6. cytosol in prokaryotes
g. unit of energy
______ 7. NAD
h. cellular respiration in the presence
______ 8. fermentation of oxygen
______ 9. In aerobic respiration, glucose molecules are converted into acetyl

CoA molecules when they enter
a. the Krebs cycle. c. glycolysis.
b. the electron transport chain. d. the Calvin cycle.
______10. Yeast cells produce alcohol and carbon dioxide in the process of
a. lactic acid fermentation. c. aerobic respiration.
b. alcoholic fermentation. d. cytosol respiration.
______11. In cellular respiration, glycolysis immediately precedes the

a. Krebs cycle. c. electron transport chain.
b. Calvin cycle. d. light reactions.
______12. In cellular respiration, more energy is transferred in ________ than in

any other step.
a. glycolysis c. the Krebs cycle
b. lactic acid fermentation d. the electron transport chain
______13. ________ donate electrons to the electron transport chain.

a. ATP and NADH c. ATP and NAD
b. FADH2 and NADH d. NAD and ATP

Name Class Date
Cellular Respiration, Chapter Test B continued
______14. The breakdown of organic compounds to produce ATP is known as

a. cellular respiration.
b. lactic acid fermentation.
c. alcoholic fermentation.
d. photosynthesis.
______15. Glycolysis begins with glucose and produces

a. G3P.
b. lactic acid.
c. acetyl CoA.
d. pyruvic acid.
______16. An important molecule generated by both lactic acid fermentation and

alcoholic fermentation is
a. ATP.
b. NADH.
c. CO2.
d. NAD.
______ 17. In the first step of aerobic respiration, pyruvic acid from glycolysis
produces CO2, NADH, H, and
a. citric acid.
b. acetyl CoA.
c. oxaloacetic acid.
d. lactic acid.
______18. The electron transport chain is driven by two products of the Krebs
cycle—
a. oxaloacetic acid and citric acid.
b. H2O and CO2.
c. NADH and FADH2.
d. acetyl CoA and ATP.
______19. What happens to electrons as they are transported along the electron
transport chain?
a. They lose energy.
b. They gain energy.
c. They are pumped into the space between the inner and outer mito-
chondrial membranes.
d. They combine with O2 and protons to form water.
______20. The energy efficiency of cellular respiration is approximately

a. 2 percent.
b. 39 percent.
c. 66 percent.
d. 100 percent.

Name Class Date
Refer to the diagram of mitochondrion below to answer questions 21 and 22.
______21. In the diagram, the reactions of the Krebs cycle would occur in area
a. a. c. c.
b. b. d. d.
______22. In the diagram, the electron transport chain is located in area

a. a. c. c.
b. b. d. d.
c d
b
a
______23. In alcoholic fermentation, ethyl alcohol is produced from

a. NAD. c. lactic acid.
b. NADH. d. pyruvic acid.
24. The fourth step of glycolysis yields four ATP molecules, but the net yield from
glycolysis is only two ATP molecules. Explain this discrepancy.
25. Under what conditions would cells in your body undergo lactic acid
fermentation?
26. Glycolysis produces only 2% of the energy that would be produced if an equal
quantity of glucose were completely oxidized. What has happened to the
remaining energy in the glucose?

Name Class Date
27. Explain the role of oxaloacetic acid with respect to the cyclical nature of
Krebs cycle.
28. What happens to electrons that accumulate at the end of the electron
transport chain?
29. Where in the mitochondrion do protons accumulate, and what is the source
of the protons?

30. The diagram below depicts the pathways of cellular respiration. Rectangles
denote substances involved in cellular respiration and ovals denote processes.
Identify the processes by writing the correct term in each blank.
Glucose
a 2 ATP
No O2 O2
Pyruvic acid
b c
Acetyl CoA 2 ATP
Lactic acid Ethyl alcohol
NADH, FADH2
e 34 ATP

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Cell Reproduction
term or phrase.
______ 1. mitotic spindle a. the period during which DNA is copied

b. the first phase of interphase
______ 2. prophase
c. the phase of mitosis during which
______ 3. asexual reproduction chromosomes move to opposite poles
______ 4. S phase d. the time between cell divisions
e. equally divides chromatids between
______ 5. interphase offspring cells
______ 6. G1 phase f. equally divides an animal cell into
two offspring cells
______ 7. cleavage furrow
g. the first phase of mitosish.
______ 8. anaphase h. the production of offspring from one
parent
Questions 9–11 refer to the sequence below.
G1 S G2 M C
9. The sequence above represents the
10. The S in the sequence represents the phase in which
occurs.
11. Phases G1, S, and G2 in the sequence above are collectively called
12. Spindle fibers made of help to move the
chromosomes apart during mitosis.
13. A disease caused by uncontrolled cell division is .
14. In the first stage of binary fission, the DNA is .

Name Class Date
Cell Reproduction, Chapter Test B continued
______15. If an organism has 12 chromosomes in each body cell, how many chro-
mosomes would you expect to find in the organism’s gametes?
a. 4 c. 10
b. 6 d. 12
______16. During which phase of meiosis do tetrads form?

a. prophase I c. metaphase II
b. telophase I d. anaphase II
______ 17. The division of the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell is called

a. mitosis. c. cytokinesis.
b. binary fission. d. cytoplasmic streaming.
______18. Which of the following events occurs during synapsis?

a. replication of the DNA c. division of the cytoplasm
b. appearance of spindle fibers d. pairing of homologues
______19. During mitosis and meiosis, kinetochore fibers are thought to

a. control cytokinesis. c. move chromosomes.
b. make centromeres. d. join chromatids.
______20. Histones are proteins that

a. are found only in prokaryotic cells.
b. aid in the packing of DNA in eukaryotic cells.
c. aid in controlling the activity of regions of DNA.
d. All of the above
______21. Spermatogenesis results in

a. four haploid cells.
b. one haploid cell and three polar bodies.
c. four diploid cells.
d. two sperm cells and two polar bodies.
______22. Each offspring cell produced by binary fission contains

a. half the chromosomes of the original cell.
b. twice as many chromosomes as the original cell had.
c. an identical copy of the original cell’s chromosome.
d. an independent assortment of the original cell’s chromosomes.
______23. Crossing-over results in genetic recombination by

a. reducing the original cell’s chromosome number by half.
b. randomly separating the maternal and paternal chromosomes.
c. mixing half the maternal chromosomes with half the paternal
chromosomes.
d. permitting the exchange of genetic material between maternal and
paternal chromosomes.
Name Class Date
______24. What structure not found in animal cells forms along the midline of a
dividing plant cell?
a. cleavage furrow c. cell plate
b. chloroplast d. kinetochore
25. Describe how you could determine if a dividing cell is a prokaryote or a
eukaryote. What structures would you look for?
26. List two ways that meiosis differs from mitosis.
27. In the space below, draw a diagram of the cell cycle. Label and briefly
describe the events that take place during each phase of the cell cycle.

Name Class Date
28. How do the products of spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ?
29. What is independent assortment, and how does it affect the genetic makeup
of offspring cells?

30. The diagrams below depict phases of the cell cycle. Identify the phases by
writing the correct term in each blank. Indicate the correct sequence of the
phases by writing a number next to the name of the phase. Then answer the
question.
a b c
d e f
g. What type of cell division is depicted above? Justify your answer.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Fundamentals of Genetics
______ 1. homozygous dominant a. a segment of DNA that controls a

particular hereditary trait
______ 2. genotype
b. a cross involving one pair of
______ 3. monohybrid cross contrasting traits
c. an alternative form of a gene
______ 4. heredity d. an organism having two different
alleles for a trait
______ 5. allele e. the genetic makeup of an organism
______ 6. heterozygote f. a contrasting form of a hereditary
characteristic
______ 7. trait g. having two similar, dominant alleles
for a trait
______ 8. gene h. the transmission of characteristics
from parents of offspring
______ 9. Offspring of the P generation are called the

a. F1 generation. c. P1 generation.
b. F2 generation. d. offspring generation.
______10. The law of segregation states that alleles separate during

a. self-pollination. c. cross-pollination.
b. formation of gametes. d. crossing-over.
______11. An organism that is homozygous for flower color could NOT have the
genotype
a. Qq. c. qq.
b. QQ. d. QQRR.
______12. A cross in which two traits are tracked is a

a. self-pollinated cross. c. monohybrid cross.
b. test cross. d. dihybrid cross.
______13. A heterozygous individual would have the following genotype:

a. pp c. Zz
b. YY d. None of these

Name Class Date
Fundamentals of Genetics, Chapter Test B continued
______14. In a monohybrid cross between a homozygous dominant parent and a

homozygous recessive parent, one would predict the offspring to be
a. 3:4 homozygous dominant. c. 1:4 homozygous recessive.
b. 2:4 heterozygous. d. all heterozygous.
______15. In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents, one would

expect the offspring to be
a. 1 pp : 3 PP. c. 1 PP : 2 Pp : 1 pp.
b. 3 Pp : 1 pp. d. all Pp.
______16. In guinea pigs, black fur is dominant. A black guinea pig is crossed
with a white guinea pig. If the litter contains a white offspring, the
genotype of the black-haired parent is probably
a. homozygous dominant. c. homozygous recessive.
b. heterozygous. d. None of the above.
______ 17. Segregation of alleles occurs during

a. mitosis. c. fertilization.
b. meiosis. d. pollination.
______18. If two parents with dominant phenotypes produce an offspring with a

recessive phenotype, then probably
a. both parents are heterozygous. c. both parents are homozygous.
b. one parent is heterozygous. d. one parent is homozygous.
______19. A trait occurring in 400 offspring out of a total of 1,600 offspring has a
probability of
a. 0.04. b. 0.25. c. 0.50. d. 0.75.
______20. Suppose you have found a new species of plant. Some of the plants
have yellow flowers, and some have red flowers. You cross a red-
flowering plant with a yellow-flowering plant. All of the offspring
have orange flowers. Suggest a possible genotype for the offspring.
a. RR b. Rr c. RR d. rr
Refer to the diagram at right to answer questions 21 and 22.
______21. The diagram represents a Punnett GI Gi gI gi

square of a GI
a. dihybrid cross.
b. monohybrid cross. Gi X
c. homozygous homozygous cross.
d. dominant recessive cross. gI
______22. The genotype of the cell labeled X is gi

a. GGII. c. ggii.
b. GgIi. d. GGIi.

Name Class Date
Answer the questions in the space provided.

23. List the steps in Mendel’s experiments on pea plants. Include the
P generation, F1 generation, and F2 generation.
24. In the space below, write the equation for probability.
25. Distinguish between codominance and incomplete dominance. Give an

example of each type of inheritance.
26. Purple flowers are completely dominant in pea plants. How can you
determine the genotype of a purple-flowering pea plant? Draw a Punnett
square for each of the possible genotypes.
27. In tomatoes, red fruit color is dominant over yellow fruit color. Predict the
genotypic ratio of offspring produced by crossing a homozygous dominant
parent with a homozygous recessive parent. Draw a Punnett square to
illustrate your prediction.
28. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant over green seeds. Predict the
genotypic ratio of offspring produced by crossing two parents heterozygous
for this trait. Draw a Punnett square to illustrate your prediction.
29. In step 1 of his experiments, how did Mendel ensure that each variety of
garden pea was true-breeding for a particular trait?

Name Class Date

30. The Punnet square below illustrates a prediction of color and texture in garden
peas. Refer to the Punnett square as you answer the following questions.
QT Qt qT qt
QT QQTT QQTt QqTT
Qt QQTt QQtt QqTt Q = green

q = yellow
T = smooth
qT QqTT QqTt qqTT t = wrinkled
qt QqTt Qqtt qqTt
a. Does the Punnett square represent a monohybrid cross or a dihybrid cross?

How do you know?
b. List the genotypes of the parents.
c. Complete the Punnett square. Then list all the genotypes predicted by the
Punnett square.
d. Give the genotypic ratio predicted by the Punnett square for the cross.
e. Give the phenotypic ratio predicted by the Punnett square for the cross.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis
term or phrase.
______ 1. anticodon a. site of translation

b. repeating subunits of DNA and RNA
______ 2. codon
c. group of three sequential bases of mRNA
______ 3. deoxyribose
d. substitutes for thymine in RNA
______ 4. double helix e. links together amino acids in a protein
f. identifies the specific amino acid for tRNA
______ 5. nucleotides
g. sugar found in DNA
______ 6. peptide bond
h. spiral shape of DNA
______ 7. ribosome
______ 8. uracil
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
9. The information contained in a molecule of mRNA is used to make proteins
during the process of .
10. Nucleotide sequences of tRNA that are complementary to codons on mRNA
are called .
11. Nucleotides that make up RNA contain the nitrogen bases adenine, guanine,
cytosine, or .
12. Avery’s experiments demonstrated that DNA is the
13. Transcription begins when an enzyme called
binds to the beginning of a gene on a region of
DNA called a promoter.
14. The instructions for building a protein are written as a series of three-
nucleotide sequences called .

Name Class Date
DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis, Chapter Test B continued
______15. Which of the following bonds to one specific type of amino acid?
a. mRNA c. rRNA
b. tRNA d. DNA
______16. New mRNA is made through the process of

a. duplication. c. translation.
b. transcription. d. crystallography.
______ 17. Complementary base pairing links

a. amino acids. c. phosphate groups.
b. nitrogenous bases. d. proteins.
______18. Damaged DNA is usually repaired by

a. purines. c. enzymes.
b. nucleotides. d. ribosomes.
______19. During replication, the two strands of DNA separate at a point called a
a. helicase. c. replication fork.
b. ribosome. d. mutation.
______20. A section of one DNA strand has the sequence ACCGAGGTT. What is
the sequence of an mRNA transcribed from this section of DNA?
a. ACCGAGGUU c. TGGCTCCAA
b. ACCGAGGTT d. UGGCUCCAA
Refer to the figure at right to answer questions 21–22.
______21. In the nucleic acid shown , the X
structure labeled X represents

a(n)
a. nitrogenous base.
b. deoxyribose molecule.
c. amino acid.
d. phosphate group.
______22. Which type bond will form at the Y
point labeled Y?
a. peptide bond
b. covalent bond
c. hydrogen bond
d. nitrogen bond
______23. Which type of molecule is shown in the diagram

at right?
a. tRNA c. stop codon
b. mRNA d. methionine

Name Class Date
24. Describe the differences between transcription and translation.
25. Compare the structure of DNA with the structure of RNA.
26. Explain the significance of the start codon and the stop codons.
27. Describe the structure and function of three different types of RNA.
28. List the steps of DNA replication.
29. Why did Hershey and Chase use radioactive elements in their experiments?

Name Class Date

30. The data in the table below show the amount of each type of nucleotide by
percentage found in samples of DNA taken from the organisms listed. Refer
to the table as you answer the following questions.
Distribution (in percent) of Nitrogen-Containing Bases in Various Organisms

Organism G A C T
Mold 15.2 34.3 14.9 35.1

Plant 19.7 41.2 19.5 42.1
Mollusk 17.4 32.3 17.9 34.7
Reptile 12.9 35.6 13.2 35.7
Mammal 14.6 39.5 13.8 37.6
a. List the terms that the abbreviations G, C, A, and T refer to.
b. Describe the pairing behavior of nitrogen-containing bases in DNA and RNA.
c. Do the data support the base-pairing rules? Why or why not?
d. Do the data support the near-universality of the genetic code? Explain your
answer.
e. What percentage of uracil would you expect to find in an mRNA molecule

isolated from the mollusk referred to in the table? Explain your answer.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Gene Expression
term or phrase. a. prevents uncontrolled cell division
______ 1. oncogene b. substance that increases the risk

of cancer
______ 2. mutation c. noncoding control sequence in a eukaryotic
gene
______ 3. euchromatin
d. gene that causes cancer
______ 4. tumor-suppressor gene e. development of an organism’s form
______ 5. enhancer f. regulates development during
morphogenesis
______ 6. morphogenesis
g. changes in a cell’s DNA
______ 7. homeotic gene h. uncoiled form of DNA
______ 8. carcinogen
9. Transcription begins when an enzyme called
binds to the beginning of a gene on a region of
DNA called a promoter.
10. Because of its position on the operon, the is able

to control RNA polymerase’s access to the structural genes.
11. The lac operon is switched off when a protein called a(n)
is bound to the operator.
12. In eukaryotic gene regulation, proteins called
help arrange RNA polymerases in the correct
position on the promoter.
13. In eukaryotes, long segments of nucleotides with no coding information
are called .

Name Class Date
Gene Expression, Chapter Test B continued
______14. The spread of cancer cells beyond their original site is called
a. gene expression. c. metastasis.
b. morphogenesis. d. cell differentiation.
______15. Pre-mRNA is a form of RNA that contains
a. euchromatin.
b. prokaryotic transcription factors.
c. introns and exons.
d. only exons.
______16. Operons have been identified in
a. prokaryotes only. c. archaebacteria only.
b. eukaryotes only. d. both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
______ 17. Liver cells differ from muscle cells in the same organism because of
a. different chromosomes. c. crossing-over.
b. morphogenesis. d. cell differentiation.
______18. Active transcription in eukaryotes occurs within
a. an operon. b. an operator. c. euchromatin. d. an enhancer.
______19. The activation of a gene that results in the formation of a protein is called
a. translation. c. enhancement.
b. gene expression. d. gene repression.
______20. An operon consists of
a. a group of operators.
b. a group of structural genes.
c. an operator, a promoter, and structural genes.
d. lactose, polymerase, and operators.
Refer to the diagram below to answer questions 21 and 22.
______21. The structure labeled X in the diagram is called

a. a repressor protein. c. a promoter.
b. lactose. d. RNA polymerase.
______22. The diagram shows an operon that is
a. turned on. b. translated. c. repressed. d. turned off.
structural genes
X
Name Class Date
______23. Normal genes that control a cell’s growth and differentiation are called
a. tumor-suppressor genes.
b. oncogenes.
c. proto-oncogenes.
d. growth factors.
24. How is it beneficial for cells to be able to control gene expression?
25. Describe the process shown in the diagram below.
Is this cell prokaryotic or eukaryotic?
What do the structures labeled A and B represent?
NUCLEUS
B A B A B
A
B B B
CYTOPLASM

Name Class Date
26. List three ways cancer cells differ from normal cells.
27. Describe how mutations in proto-oncogenes or tumor-suppressor genes could

lead to cancer.
28. Describe the role of homeotic genes in the development of Drosophila.
29. Compare the genomes of prokaryotes with those of eukaryotes.

30. The list below represents steps in the regulation of the lac operon. Label the
steps in the order they occur. The first one has been done for you.
______ a. Repressor protein binds to the operator.
______ b. Lactose binds to repressor protein, releasing the protein from the
operator.
______ c. RNA polymerase blocked from transcribing structural genes.
______ d. Enzymes break down lactose.
______ e. Structural gene mRNA is translated into enzymes.

1
______ f. Lactose is introduced to bacterial cell.
______ g. RNA polymerase transcribes structural genes.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics
______ 1. translocation a. autosomal dominant gene

b. controlled by multiple alleles
______ 2. chromosome map
c. substitution, deletion, or addition
______ 3. Huntington’s disease of a single nucleotide
d. a piece of one chromosome
______ 4. linked genes breaks off and reattaches to a
nonhomologous chromosome
______ 5. sex linkage e. genes found on the same chromosome
______ 6. point mutation f. determined by crossing-over data
g. failure of homologous chromosomes
______ 7. nondisjunction to separate during meiosis
h. presence of a gene on a sex
______ 8. ABO blood group chromosome
9. Nondisjunction, which gives an individual three copies of chromosome 21,
results in .
10. - mutations occur in

body cells and affect an individual but are not inherited.
11. A frameshift mutation occurs any time a mutation results in the insertion or
deletion of one or more in a gene.
12. characters show many degrees of variation

because they result from the additive effects of several
13. Many human conditions are complex because they are influenced both by the
and by .
14. In order to produce a male offspring, an egg must be fertilized by a sperm
carrying a .
15. If two genes cross over 35 percent of the time, they will be
map units apart on a chromosome map.

Name Class Date
Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics, Chapter Test B continued
______16. If two genes are closely arranged on a chromosome, they probably will
a. cross over. c. control the same trait.
b. segregate separately. d. be inherited together.
______ 17. Which of the following mutations does not affect an organism but can
be passed on to offspring?
a. somatic cell c. germ cell
b. translocation d. substitution
______18. Which of the following is a point mutation that does not result in a
frame shift?
a. addition c. deletion
b. substitution d. inversion
______19. Genetic disorders in human chromosomes can be determined by

removing a small piece of tissue from a structure that lies between the
uterus and the placenta. This procedure is called
a. amniocentesis. c. chorionic villi sampling.
b. fetoscopy. d. genetic counseling.
______20. If the parents of a child have the ABO blood group genotypes I AI B
and ii, what are the possible blood types of the child?
a. A or B c. O
b. A only d. AB
______21. A man and woman are both heterozygous for the pattern-baldness
allele, but only the man loses his hair. This is an example of a(n)
a. Y-linked trait. c. sex-influenced trait.
b. X-linked trait. d. sex-linked trait.
______22. The chromosome map below indicates that

a. X and Y cross over about 15 percent of the time.
b. X and Y cross over more frequently than X and Z do.
c. X and Z cross over about 15 percent of the time.
d. Y and Z cross over about 15 percent of the time.
X Y Z
0 10 15 25 40
______23. Which of the following genotypes is possible for a person whose ABO
blood type is B?
a. I BI B c. Both a and b
b. ii d. None of the above

Name Class Date
24. Why is hemophilia carried by females and yet rarely expressed in females?
25. Describe how linked genes are an exception to Mendel’s principle of

independent assortment.
26. Describe the difference between a chromosome mutation and a gene mutation.
27. Distinguish between multiple-allele traits and polygenic traits.
28. Use the data table below to draw a chromosome map of traits A, B, and C.
Include the number of map units between each trait in your chromosome map.
Crossing-Over Data
Trait Percentage of cross-over
A and C 5
C and B 15
A and B 20
29. Explain the difference between a sex-linked trait and a sex-influenced trait.

Name Class Date

30. Complete the pedigree below based on the information given in a. You may
have to add shading and symbols to the diagram. Then follow the directions
in b and c.
a. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a single-allele recessive trait.

• A husband and wife both have parents who are heterozygous for
cystic fibrosis.
• The husband and wife are also heterozygous for the trait.
• Their son has cystic fibrosis.
• Their second child, a daughter, is normal for the trait.
• Their third child, another daughter, is a carrier of the trait.
b. Draw a key for the completed pedigree in the space below.
c. Predict the possible phenotypes of a child born to the F2 son if the son
marries a woman who does not carry the cystic-fibrosis trait.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Gene Technology
term or phrase.
______ 1. recombinant DNA a. separates DNA fragments by size and

charge
______ 2. length polymorphisms
b. ring of DNA found in bacteria
______ 3. sticky end c. rapidly copies DNA segments
______ 4. genetic engineering d. combination of DNA from different
sources
______ 5. gel electrophoresis e. variations in the DNA intervals between
______ 6. VNTRs genes
f. single-stranded part of a DNA fragment
______ 7. plasmid that has been cut by restriction enzymes
______ 8. PCR g. application of molecular genetics
h. repeating nucleotide sequences
9. Recombinant DNA is made when a DNA fragment from one species is put
into the DNA of .
10. Any two fragments of DNA cut by the same restriction enzyme can pair
because their ends are .
11. Genetic engineering has benefited humans afflicted with diabetes by
developing bacteria that produce .
12. In PCR, the original DNA sample to be copied, DNA ,
free , and are mixed.
13. Scientists with the Human Genome Project discovered that there are only
about protein-coding genes in the human genome.
______14. An exact copy of a gene is called a

a. plasmid. b. donor gene. c. cloning vector. d. clone.
Name Class Date
Gene Technology, Chapter Test B continued
______15. Which of the following is NOT a current application of DNA technology?

a. the insertion of pest-resistance genes into crop plants
b. the production of human insulin by bacterial cells
c. the production of clotting factors for people with hemophilia
d. the insertion of normal genes into human fetuses that carry
defective genes
______16. Restriction enzymes

a. cleave DNA only between G and A in a GAATTC nucleotide sequence.
b. cleave DNA at specific sites within specific sequences of DNA.
c. recognize specific genes and cleave them out of a DNA molecule.
d. All of the above
______ 17. Recombinant DNA is

a. plasmid DNA to which a piece of foreign DNA has been added.
b. any combination of DNA from a bacterium and a eukaryote.
c. any combination of DNA from two or more different sources.
d. bacterial DNA to which a cloning vector has been added.
______18. A pattern of bands made up of specific DNA fragments is a

a. restriction enzyme. c. homeotic gene.
b. cloning vector. d. DNA fingerprint.
______19. A process that separates DNA fragments according to size and charge is
a. gel electrophoresis. c. polymerase chain reaction.
b. RFLP analysis. d. the isolation of a gene.
______20. Gene therapy currently

a. can be used to treat certain diseases, such as cystic fibrosis.
b. can be used to cure certain diseases, such as cystic fibrosis.
c. provides cures for diseases that can be passed on to the next
generation.
d. All of the above
______21. The purpose of the Human Genome Project is

a. to determine the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome.
b. to answer fundamental questions about genome structure and
function.
c. to map the location of every gene on each of the chromosomes of
humans.
d. All of the above
______22. Crop plants have been modified by genetic engineering to make them
a. more nutritious. c. resistant to weedkillers.
b. resistant to insects. d. All of the above

Name Class Date
______23. DNA technology is being used to produce medicines by

a. growing genetically engineered bacteria and collecting human DNA
that they produce.
b. growing genetically engineered bacteria and collecting human
proteins that they produce.
c. Neither a nor b
d. Both a and b
24. Name the role of each of the following in a recombinant DNA experiment that
produces an insulin-producing bacterium:
cloning vector
insulin gene
host organism
25. What is gene therapy? How does it differ from traditional treatments?
26. Describe two ways that DNA fingerprinting has been used.
27. Discuss the accuracy of DNA fingerprints.
28. List one potential advantage and disadvantage of genetic engineering.
29. The diagrams below represent steps involved in making a DNA fingerprint.
Sequence the steps by writing the appropriate numerals in the spaces provided.
Photographic DNA
Radioactive fragments
DNA film
DNA
Gel Gel
a b c d

Name Class Date

30. The figure below represents some of the steps involved in making recombinant
DNA. Step 1 shows a segment of DNA that is being cut by the restriction
enzyme EcoR1. Answer the following questions based on the figure.
STEP 1 DNA
G A A T T C G A A T T C
C T T A A G C T T A A G
Restriction enzyme cuts

the DNA into fragments.
STEP 2 Original DNA
Original DNA
DNA fragment is added

from another source.
Two fragments
bond together.
STEP 3 New DNA
Original DNA DNA from another source
STEP 4
a. Complete Steps 2 and 3 by writing the first letter of each missing nucleotide
in the circles provided in the figure (A = adenine, G = guanine, T = thymine,
C = cytosine).
b. What role do restriction enzymes play in genetic engineering?
c. Name the type of bonds that form between the sticky ends in the figure.
d. Name what would happen if a different restriction enzyme were used to cut
the second source of DNA.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
History of Life
term or phrase.
______ 1. biogenesis a. photosynthetic, unicellular prokaryotes
______ 2. endosymbiosis b. production of organic molecules by

oxidation of inorganic molecules
______ 3. archaebacteria c. life arising from nonliving things
______ 4. cyanobacteria d. collections of droplets composed of
various organic molecules
______ 5. ribozyme e. one organism living inside another in
______ 6. coacervates a mutually beneficial relationship
f. RNA that can act as a catalyst
______ 7. chemosynthesis
g. life arising from other life
______ 8. spontaneous generation h. often chemosynthetic, unicellular
prokaryotes
______ 9. Thomas Cech found a type of RNA that can act as a catalyst in some
chemical reactions. What did he call this type of RNA molecule?
a. an enzyme c. a ribozyme
b. DNA d. a coacervates
______10. How do scientists theorize that Earth formed?

a. repeated collisions of debris in space
b. the melting of a large asteroid
c. nuclear fusion
d. explosions of radioactive dust
______11. You are determining the age of an organic object using the carbon-14
dating technique and you know that the half-life of carbon-14 is 5,730
years. If only 25 percent of the original amount of carbon-14 is left in
the object, approximately how old is the object?
a. 57,300 years c. 5,730 years
b. 11,460 years d. 1,143 years
______12. A French botanist wrote in 1609, “There is a tree . . . in Scotland. From
this tree leaves are falling; upon one side they strike the water and
slowly turn into fishes, upon the other they strike the land and turn
into birds.” What biological hypothesis or principle was he describing?
a. spontaneous generation c. biogenetic evolution
b. endosymbiosis d. chemosynthesis
Name Class Date
History of Life, Chapter Test B continued
______13. Before life arose on this planet, which of these gases was present in
the atmosphere?
a. oxygen c. carbon
b. ozone d. nitrogen
______14. What type of organic molecules were Miller and Urey able to produce
in their 1953 experiment?
a. proteins c. carbohydrates
b. prokaryotes d. amino acids
______15. Which of the following is true of microspheres and living cells?

a. Both have organelles.
b. Both have membranes.
c. Both grow and have genetic material.
d. Both use oxygen.
______16. Based on the conditions of early Earth and experimentation, scientists

have inferred that the first cellular life-forms were anaerobic prokary-
otes and that they used
a. photosynthesis to generate energy.
b. ozone for respiration.
c. organic molecules for food.
d. chemosynthesis for respiration.
______ 17. What role did ozone play in the evolution of early life on this planet?
a. The ozone layer protected Earth’s surface from ultraviolet radiation,
which damages DNA.
b. Early life was damaged by oxygen, but it used ozone as a means of
respiration.
c. Ozone was an important element in the processes of chemosynthesis
and photosynthesis.
d. Breaking the chemical bonds in ozone molecules released energy
for use by cyanobacteria.
______18. Aerobic respiration may have protected early unicellular organisms

from damage by
a. binding ozone.
b. binding oxygen.
c. capturing ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
d. slowing radioactive decay of important elements.
______19. Two types of autotrophy include

a. spontaneous generation and biogenesis.
b. chemosynthesis and photosynthesis.
c. biogenesis and photosynthesis.
d. biogenesis and chemosynthesis.

Name Class Date
20. Why is the carbon-14 dating technique used only for organic objects less than
about 60,000 years old?
21. Francesco Redi’s experiment was one of the first documented examples of a
controlled experiment. Describe the control group, the experimental group,
and the independent and dependent variables.
22. What were the objections to Spallanzani’s experimental design and conclusions,
and how did Pasteur address these criticisms in his own experiment?
23. How does the discovery of microspheres and coacervates support hypotheses
of the origin of life?
24. In what respect are RNA molecules and proteins similar?
25. Explain the hypothesis of endosymbiosis with respect to the origins of two
organelles found in eukaryotic cells.
26. The first life-forms arose approximately years ago.
27. Pasteur’s experiment disproved the process of .
28. Ozone in the absorbs ultraviolet radiation.
29. The earliest life-forms may have been similar to .

Name Class Date

30. The figure below illustrates the Miller-Urey apparatus. Use the figure to
answer questions a–e.
A
E
a. What substance is contained in the reaction chamber labeled A?
b. What substance travels through the tubing labeled B?
c. What is the structure labeled C, and what is its function?
d. What gases are present in the reaction chamber labeled D?
e. What is released at the valve labeled E?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Theory of Evolution
term or phrase.
______ 1. natural selection a. the lowest stratum in a sequence of
strata is the oldest
______ 2. fitness
b. trace of long-dead organism
______ 3. acquired trait c. process which results in similar traits in
unrelated species
______ 4. biogeography
d. process in which many related species
______ 5. fossil evolved from a single ancestral species
e. trait that is not determined by genes
______ 6. principle of superposition
f. an organism’s contribution to the next
______ 7. convergent evolution generation
______ 8. adaptive radiation g. differential reproductive success
caused by the environment
______ 9. phylogeny h. study of geographical distribution of
organisms
______10. adaptation
i. trait that makes an individual successful
______11. vestigal structure
j. determined by radiometric dating
______12. absolute age k. whale pelvis
l. relationships among groups of organisms
______13. From the principle of superposition, what can generally be determined

about fossils in a sequence of sedimentary rocks?
a. the absolute age of the fossils
b. the relative age of the fossils
c. how well adapted the fossil organisms were to their environment
d. the embryology of the fossil species
______14. An analysis of the DNA from these organisms would indicate that
a. their DNA is identical.
b. they are all transitional species.
c. their nucleotide sequences show many similarities.
d. they all have the same number of chromosomes.

Name Class Date
Theory of Evolution, Chapter Test B continued
______15. Analogous features

a. look different and have dissimilar embryological origins.
b. look similar but have dissimilar embryological origins.
c. look similar and have similar embryological origins.
d. look different but have similar embryological origins.
______16. Although they do not have recent common ancestors, birds and bats
have similar body shapes necessary for powered flight. What pattern
of evolution does this relationship represent?
a. divergent evolution c. vestigial structures
b. convergent evolution d. coevolution
______ 17. The pattern of evolution that is usually a response to different habitats is
a. artificial selection. c. divergent evolution.
b. coevolution. d. convergent evolution.
______18. Which of the following is an acquired human characteristic?

a. number of bones in the hand
b. eye color
c. the presence of a tailbone in humans
d. large muscles from weight lifting
______19. Which of the following is an impediment to understanding the

evolutionary history of all organisms?
a. presence of vestigial structures c. lack of homologous structures
b. lack of transitional fossils d. presence of analogous structures
______20. Evolution is defined as an ongoing process that occurs when

a. the genetic makeup of a population changes.
b. an organism becomes extinct.
c. the environment changes due to the activities of humans.
d. a baby is born with a birth defect.
______21. What does the presence of a vestigial structure in a modern organism

indicate?
a. Natural selection prepares the anatomy of organisms so that in the
future the vestigial structure can be used.
b. The vestigial structure was not used by the modern organism, so it
became nonfunctional within the organism’s lifetime.
c. A limited number of genes are expressed during the lifetime of an
organism.
d. The structure probably was functional in some ancestor of the
modern organism.
______22. The most precise information about the evolution of life is

contained within
a. the fossil record. c. molecules of protein.
b. the geologic column. d. molecules of DNA.
Name Class Date
______23. In order to be considered an evolutionarily favorable trait for an organ-

ism, a trait must increase the individual’s
a. likelihood of becoming fossilized.
b. success at leaving healthy offspring.
c. food intake.
d. range of suitable habitats.
24. Explain Lamarck’s theory of evolution, and tell what he was right about and
what he was wrong about.
25. Recount two of Darwin’s observations made during the voyage of the Beagle
that led to his hypothesis of species modification over time.
26. How is the breeding of domestic animals such as dogs similar or dissimilar to
natural selection?
27. Briefly explain what Darwin meant by “descent with modification.”
28. Briefly explain what Darwin meant by “natural selection.”
29. What similarities between bats and rats would cause scientists to infer that
these two organisms share an evolutionary history?

Name Class Date
30. Satellite photos recently Geological Cross-Sections
revealed the existence 0
Magna Media Parva
of an unexplored group A B C
of islands, shown below, 1.0
Millions of years ago

A B C
named the Latin
Archipelago. You are the 2.0
A B B
leader of a natural-history
expedition to seek out 3.0
A B
new organisms on the
4.0
islands. On your team are A A
geologists, biogeographers, 5.0
and molecular biologists. A
After extensive effort, they
present you with data
about the fossil record Hemoglobin—Amino Acid Differences
of and biochemical Species A Species B Species C
similarities of three new
Species A 0 5 10
animal species, which you
name A, B, and C. Use the Species B 5 0 5
cross-section of geological Species C 10 5 0
strata shown at top right
and the table shown at
bottom right to answers
questions a–c below.
Insula Magna Insula Media Insula Parva
Species Species
Species B C
A
a. Which is the oldest species, and which is the youngest species?
b. Are the results of the molecular examination (the hemoglobin–amino acid

differences) consistent with the geological-strata results?
c. According to the molecular and geological data, which species are most
closely related? Which are least closely related?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Population Genetics and Speciation
term or phrase.
______ 1. morphology a. changes in a population’s genetic

material
______ 2. reproductive isolation
b. choosing a mate that resembles oneself
______ 3. evolution c. an organism’s structure and appearance
______ 4. gene flow d. alterations of DNA
e. females choosing a mate based on
______ 5. sexual selection appearance
______ 6. assortative mating f. anatomical barriers to successful breed-
ing
______ 7. mutation
g. physical separation of populations
______ 8. geographic isolation h. movement of genes between populations
______ 9. Evolution at the genetic level is called

a. microevolution. c. allopatric speciation.
b. population genetics. d. genetic drift.
______10. The total genetic information available in a population is called the

a. genetic equilibrium. c. allele frequency.
b. gene pool. d. phenotype frequency.
______11. Reproductive isolation can result in

a. allopatric speciation. c. sympatric speciation.
b. immigration. d. emigration.
______12. Genotypic variation in a population can increase through

a. maintenance of genetic equilibrium for many generations.
b. an increase of the quality and quantity of available food.
c. recombination of genes by independent assortment.
d. prevention of immigration and emigration between populations.
______13. Genetic drift is

a. the movement of genes between populations.
b. changes in allele frequency caused by random events.
c. physical isolation of a population by geography.
d. immigration and emigration among populations.
Name Class Date
Population Genetics and Speciation, Chapter Test B continued
______14. What is a consequence of violating the Hardy-Weinberg genetic

equilibrium assumptions?
a. evolution c. mutation
b. reproductive isolation d. sexual selection
______15. The most common kind of selection, which results in the average form
of a trait, is
a. sexual selection. c. direction selection.
b. stabilizing selection. d. disruptive selection.
______16. The biological species concept is useful only for

a. extinct organisms.
b. organisms that reproduce asexually.
c. organisms that reproduce sexually.
d. None of the above
______ 17. The morphological-species concept classifies organisms on the basis

of their
a. ecological relationships. c. ability to reproduce.
b. structure and appearance. d. behavior.
______18. Sexual selection is a form of

a. reproductive isolation. c. genetic drift.
b. morphological speciation. d. nonrandom mating.
______19. Speciation often results from

a. directional selection. c. disruptive selection.
b. sexual selection. d. stabilizing selection.
______20. Mice that have been separated into two populations by the construction
of a new road through their range are considered
a. geographically isolated. c. prezygotically isolated.
b. reproductively isolated. d. morphologically isolated.
______21. One source of genotypic variation that occurs within a single organism
and that may be the result of environmental factors is
a. reproduction isolation c. assortative mating.
b. gene flow. d. mutation.
22. Explain why genetic drift is more likely to occur in a population with few
members.

Name Class Date
23. What are the five conditions that must be met to establish Hardy-Weinberg
genetic equilibrium in a population?
24. What is the effect of gene flow between populations?
25. Explain the significance of the bell curve with respect to traits in a population.
26. Explain the difference between punctuated equilibrium and gradual

evolutionary change.
27. The figure below shows a sample of four o’clock flowers. These flowers
show incomplete dominance for color. Flowers with homozygous dominant
genotype (RR) are red; flowers with homozygous recessive genotype (rr) are
white, and flowers with heterozygous genotype (Rr) are pink. Compute the
allele frequency and the phenotype frequency for the flowers shown.
Pink Red Pink White Red Pink Red Pink
28. Explain the difference between the morphological and biological concepts
of species.
29. Explain why sexual selection could not occur in a population that was in
genetic equilibrium.

Name Class Date

30. The graphs shown below show the distribution of size of leeches found in
Carver Creek at the beginning and end of a 40-year period. Answer the
following questions based on the graphs.
1940 1980
Number
Number
0 5 10 0 5 10
Length (cm) Length (cm)
a. Which type of selection occurred in this leech population before 1940?
b. Which type of selection was occurring in this leech population between

1940 and 1980?
c. What is the most common body length of leeches in 1940 and in 1980?
d. In 1941, a species of fish that eats leeches was introduced to Carver Creek.
Based on the data in the graph, what would be a logical hypothesis regard-
ing the fish’s food preference?
e. How would you test the hypothesis you proposed in item d?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Classification of Organisms
term or phrase.
______ 1. Archaea a. kingdom; includes Euglena and amoebas
______ 2. Bacteria b. domain; includes chemosynthetic bacteria
______ 3. Eukarya c. kingdom; includes mushrooms and molds
d. kingdom; includes humans and insects

______ 4. Animalia
e. kingdom; includes disease-causing bacteria
______ 5. Archaebacteria
f. domain; includes both plants and animals
______ 6. Eubacteria
g. kingdom; includes chemosynthetic bacteria
______ 7. Fungi
h. domain; includes disease-causing bacteria
______ 8. Protista
i. group of related genera
______ 9. order
j. group of related classes
______10. class k. group of related species
______11. genus l. group of related orders
______12. phylum m. group of related families
______13. family
______14. Which of the following taxonomic categories refers only to plants?

a. phylum c. division
b. class d. kingdom
______15. Linnaeus grouped structurally similar organisms of a single type into

the category called a
a. species. c. class.
b. genus. d. order.
______16. The species identifier denoting the species of the leopard frog, Rana
pipiens, is
a. leopard. c. Rana.
b. frog. d. pipiens.

Name Class Date
Classification of Organisms, Chapter Test B continued
______ 17. The main criterion used by Linnaeus to classify organisms is their
a. phylogeny. c. morphology.
b. taxonomy. d. habitat.
______18. The branch of biology that names and groups organisms according to
their characteristics and evolutionary history is
a. morphology. c. phylogeny.
b. taxonomy. d. embryology.
______19. An ancestry diagram made by grouping organisms according to their

shared derived characters is called a
a. phylogenetic diagram. c. phylum.
b. taxonomic category. d. cladogram.
______20. A modern systematic taxonomist would likely consider the following

when classifying an organism:
a. the fossil record, morphology, embryological development, and
macromolecules
b. the fossil record, morphology, embryological development, and
habitat
c. behavior, morphology, embryology, and habitat
d. the fossil record, macromolecules, habitat, and embryological
development
______21. The evolutionary history of an organism is its

a. morphology. c. classification.
b. taxonomy. d. phylogeny.
______22. In the table below, which level of classification is represented by the

cell labeled A?
a. kingdom c. division
b. phylum d. order
______23. In the table below, which of the following best fits the cell labeled B?
a. sapiens c. Homo
b. Canis d. Animalia
Classification of Three Different Organisms

Organism Class A Family Genus
Bacterium Scotobacteria Spirochaetales Spirochaetaceae Cristispira

Box elder Angiospermae Sapindales Aceraceae Acer
Human Mammalis Primates Hominidae B

Name Class Date
24. List the levels of classification developed by Linnaeus, from the broadest
category to the most specific.
25. Compare and contrast Aristotle’s system of classification with that of Linnaeus.
26. The kingdom Protista includes a wide variety of organisms that are more
distantly related to each other than plants are to animals. Why are they
grouped together in one kingdom?
27. What does a cladogram of a group of organisms represent.
28. Explain how embryological evidence helps to define phylogeny.
29. Compare and contrast the six-kingdom system of classification with

the three-domain system. What evidence prompted the development
of the three-domain system?

Name Class Date

30. The phylogenetic diagram below shows one hypothesis about the relationships
among the Galápagos finches that Darwin catalogued. The diagram is based
on morphological evidence alone. Use the tree to answer the questions below.
C. heliobates Camarhynchus G. fortis G. magnirostris
pallidus
G. fuliginosa
Woodpeckerlike
G. scandens G. conirostris
C. pauper C. psittacula
Seed-eating
C. parvulus
Cactus-eating
Certhidea Pinaroloxias
G. difficilis olivacea inornata
Insectivorous
C. crassirostris
Vegetarian Ground finches

Tree finches Warblerlike
Common ancestor
a. Early finches diverged into ground finches and tree finches (which include
the warblerlike finches). What environmental pressures might have caused
this divergence?
b. Compare the number of insectivorous species with the number of cactus-

eating species. What does this suggest about the diversity of food sources
for both types of birds?
c. The finches’ environments and food are noted on this tree, but this informa-
tion did not contribute to shaping the diagram. The diagram derives from
the birds’ morphology. What morphological feature might all three seed-
eating ground finches have in common?
d. What evidence might a cladistic taxonomist use to propose that any two
species in this diagram share a close evolutionary relationship?
e. What kinds of information available to modern taxonomists might cause

them to reconsider the branching patterns shown on this diagram?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Introduction to Ecology
term or phrase.
______ 1. community a. where an organism lives

b. ammonia converted into nitrates and
______ 2. generalist nitrites
c. members of a single species living in
______ 3. ecology
one place at one time
______ 4. resources d. organisms interacting in a specific area
e. nitrates converted into nitrogen gas
______ 5. habitat f. a species with a broad niche
g. study of the interactions between
______ 6. population
organisms and their environment
______ 7. nitrification h. energy and materials needed by a
species
______ 8. denitrification
______ 9. Organisms that obtain energy by making their own organic molecules
are called
a. consumers. c. producers.
b. herbivores. d. decomposers.
______10. The broadest, most inclusive level of organization in ecology is

a. an ecosystem. c. a population.
b. a community. d. the biosphere.
Refer to the figures below to answer question 11.
D
A B C
______11. Which of the figures depict a conformer?

a. A c. C
b. B d. D
Name Class Date
Introduction to Ecology, Chapter Test B continued
______12. When organisms affect and are affected by other organisms in their
surroundings and by the nonliving parts of their environment,
it is called
a. ecology. c. interdependence.
b. disturbances of the ecosystem. d. modeling.
______13. Heat is lost during the transfer of energy between

a. species. c. populations.
b. trophic levels. d. ecosystems.
______14. Some organisms adjust their tolerance to abiotic factors through

a. adaptation. c. application.
b. acclimation. d. resources.
______15. Conformers are organisms that

a. use energy to control internal conditions.
b. change over many generations.
c. do not regulate internal conditions.
______16. A long term strategy to avoid unfavorable conditions by moving to

another, more favorable habitat is called
a. dormancy. c. hibernation.
b. migration. d. All of the above
______ 17. Food chains differ from food webs in that food chains
a. include more organisms than do food webs.
b. include producers and consumers, while food webs include only
consumers.
c. depict only one line of energy transfer, while food webs depict
many interrelated food chains.
d. depict only one line of energy transfer to a top consumer, while
food webs depict all possible lines of energy transfer to a top
consumer.
______18. Which of the following has the most immediate effect on net
primary productivity?
a. population size and density
b. light, temperature, and precipitation
c. living space and geochemical cycles
d. carnivores, omnivores, and detritovores
______19. The rate at which trees produce sugars from photosynthesis is

a. the biomass.
b. gross primary productivity.
c. net primary productivity.
d. comparative productivity.

Name Class Date
20. What is a trophic level, and what determines an organism’s trophic level?
21. Explain an advantage to and a limitation of the use of models in ecology.
22. What does it mean when ecologists say that a species has a broad niche?
23. List the five levels of organization in the environment.
24. Look at the picture at right, and list the biotic factors you see. Name any
abiotic factors that might interact with this environment.
25. How are the terms acclimation, dormancy, and migration related?
26. Explain whether a conformer or a regulator could tolerate a wider range of

conditions.
27. What are the two methods by which autotrophs produce food?

Name Class Date
28. Explain the three major processes in the water cycle.
29. During which process(es) in the carbon cycle is carbon converted from an
inorganic form into an organic form?
30. Refer to the drawing below as you answer a–c.
50 cm
40 cm
Growth
30 cm
20 cm
10 cm
1 2 3 4 5 6
0° C 8° C 18° C 28° C 38° C

Temperature
a. What kind of graph is shown above? What does it measure?
b. If you could give more water and sunlight to plant 1 and plant 6, could you
expect a change in their growth as measured by this graph? Explain.
c. Explain what might happen if plant 2 were exposed to 28°C temperature

and plant 4 were exposed to 13°C temperature.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Populations
term or phrase.
______ 1. S-shaped curve a. exponential growth model

b. individuals spread as far apart
______ 2. clumped distribution
as possible
______ 3. limiting factors c. used to show mortality data
d. logistic growth model
______ 4. carrying capacity
e. restrain growth of a population
______ 5. random distribution f. individuals dispersed by wind
g. individuals clustered around
______ 6. J-shaped curve food resources
______ 7. uniform distribution h. population size the environment
can support for a long time
______ 8. survivorship curve
______ 9. If the birth rate in a population is 65 births per 1,000 individuals and
the death rate is 70 deaths per 1,000 individuals, what is the growth
rate of the population?
a. 0.005 b. 0.005 c. 0.05 d. 0.5
______10. Which of the following processes add individuals to a population?

a. birth and emigration c. death and immigration
b. death and emigration d. birth and immigration
______11. Which of the following is an example of a density-independent factor?

a. an earthquake c. shortage of nesting material
b. shortage of a food resource d. an infectious disease
______12. Which of the following definitions of a property of populations is

incorrect?
a. Population size is the number of individuals in a population.
b. Population density is the number of individuals in a population
per unit area or volume.
c. Population dispersion is the distribution of individuals in a
population over time.
d. Population dynamics include birth rate, death rate, and life
expectancy.

Name Class Date
Populations, Chapter Test B continued
______13. When the birth rate and the death rate of a population are equal, and
there is no immigration or emigration, the
a. population is growing in size.
b. population is remaining constant in size.
c. population is decreasing in size.
d. life expectancy of individuals in the population is very great.
______14. Exponential growth of a population may occur

a. in populations of bacteria grown in the laboratory.
b. at times following the logistic population growth model.
c. in the absence of limiting factors.
d. All of the above
______15. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the carrying capacity

of an environment?
a. It is determined by density-independent factors.
b. It may vary as the environment changes.
c. Population growth ceases because the birth rate equals the
death rate.
d. It is the maximum number of individuals the environment
can support over a long period of time.
Refer to the figure below to answer questions 16 and 17.
______16. The graph of population age struc- Age Male Female

ture shown at right most likely 80+
75–79
represents the population of a 70–74
developed country because 65–69
60–64
a. there are more females than
55–59
males in the oldest age class. 50–54
b. there are many more people in 45–49
40–44
the pre-reproductive age classes 35–39
than there are in the post- 30–34
25–29
reproductive age classes. 20–24
c. the population has a large 15–19
potential for rapid growth. 10–14
5–9
d. the population size is relatively Under 5
even throughout all the age 6 4 2 0 2 4 6
groups. Percentage of population
______ 17. The graph of the age structure of a population represents the
a. birth and death rates of the population.
b. life expectancy of the population.
c. likelihood of an individual surviving to an old age.
d. percentage of people in each age and gender group.

Name Class Date
______18. Populations that contain only a few individuals are

a. genetically more diverse than large populations.
b. able to withstand environmental disturbances because they become
genetically uniform as a result of inbreeding.
c. susceptible to extinction from environmental disturbances because
they are less able to recover from such changes.
d. All of the above
______19. In the exponential model of population growth, the birth rate

a. is dependent on the death rate.
b. is steady and may be small.
c. must be less than the death rate.
d. must be large and may be variable.
______20. How did the agricultural revolution promote human population growth?
a. It improved economic conditions for many people.
b. It improved the availability and stability of food supplies.
c. It enabled people to move to new areas.
d. It prevented infectious diseases.
______21. Beginning about 1650, the global human population

a. had a low birth rate and a high death rate.
b. reached the Earth’s carrying capacity.
c. began to grow exponentially.
d. had a birth rate equal to the death rate.
22. How can a population appear to be uniformly distributed when it is viewed up
close but clumped in its distribution when viewed from far away?
23. What is the difference between density-independent limiting factors and

density-dependent limiting factors? Provide an example of each.
24. The global human population growth rate increased dramatically after World
War II. What component of the following equation for determining growth
rate changed in order for this to occur?
birth rate death rate growth rate

Name Class Date
25. Describe the age structure of the population of a developing country .
26. Describe the age structure of the population of a developed country.
27. What type of survivorship curve is characteristic of species in which most
individuals live close to the full life expectancy?
28. What type of survivorship curve is characteristic of species in which most
individuals die at a very young age?
29. What type of survivorship curve is characteristic of species in which individuals

die at a relatively constant rate throughout their life span?
30. The mark-and-recapture method is used to estimate the size of animal popula-
tions. Individuals are captured at random, marked, and returned to the
population. After a fixed time, another sample is taken (recaptured). The ratio
of the total number of marked individuals to the number of unmarked individ-
uals in the second sample is then determined. Use the equation below to find
an estimate of a population size by solving for N, where T number marked
in first capture, t number of marked animals recaptured, n total animals
recaptured, and N estimate of the total population.
T t

N n
a. Six ferrets were removed from an abandoned prairie dog town, marked
with radio collars, and returned. Two weeks later, 12 ferrets were recap-
tured. Three wore collars. Estimate the size of the population of ferrets.
b. In a second recapture, 12 ferrets were recaptured and six had collars.

Estimate the size of the population. Compare this with your original estimate.
c. If no ferrets with collars are recaptured, can you estimate the size of the
total population? Why or why not?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Community Ecology
term or phrase.
______ 1. mutualism a. relative abundance of each species

b. killing and consuming another
______ 2. species richness
organism
______ 3. parasitism c. interaction in which both species
benefit
______ 4. secondary succession
d. sequence of species in a disturbed area
______ 5. commensalism e. type of symbiosis in which one species
benefits and the other is harmed
______ 6. primary succession
f. number of species in a community
______ 7. predation
g. interaction in which one species
______ 8. species evenness benefits
h. plants growing where bare rock was
______ 9. herbivore
i. plant-eater
______10. carnivore j. eats animals
______11. In order to reduce competition, two species living in the same area will
utilize different resources in the environment. This is an example of
a. interspecific competition. c. mimicry.
b. competitive exclusion. d. resource partitioning.
______12. When two or more dangerous species look similar it is called

a. competitive exclusion. c. Müllerian mimicry.
b. commensalism. d. Batesian mimicry.
______13. Which of the following is a common pioneer species?

a. lichens c. dogwood trees
b. conifer trees d. small shrubs
______14. Which of the following is an example of mimicry?

a. heat-sensitive pits of rattlesnakes
b. leaflike coloration of a mantis
c. bright coloration of certain frogs
d. colored rings of a coral snake

Name Class Date
Community Ecology, Chapter Test B continued
______15. Which of the following is NOT an example of a predator’s adaptation

for finding prey?
a. spiders’ webs that trap flying insects
b. stripes on a tiger’s coat that blend with the grassland habitat of
small animals
c. stripes on a nonpredatory wasp that resemble the stripes of a
predatory wasp
d. rattlesnakes’ heat-sensitive pits that detect warm-bodied prey
______16. Which of the pairs of parasites listed below are endoparasites?

a. tapeworms and leeches
b. malaria parasites and tapeworms
c. leeches and fleas
d. ticks and mosquitoes
______ 17. Competition is most intense between closely related species that
a. are similar in appearance. c. use the same resources.
b. have different beak sizes. d. use different resources.
______18. An ecologist studying an ocean ecosystem performed an experiment in

which predatory sea stars were removed from the ecosystem. After the
removal of the sea stars,
a. the ecosystem became more diverse.
b. the size of the ecosystem was reduced.
c. food webs in the ecosystem became more complex.
d. the number of species in the ecosystem was reduced.
______19. The longest-held hypothesis to explain the relationship between species

richness and community stability states that communities with more
species
a. contain more links between species and thus can withstand greater
disturbance.
b. inhabit large land areas, which are always richer in species than
small land areas.
c. recover more quickly from environmental disturbances.
d. can evolve more new species than communities with fewer species.
______20. Pioneer species

a. disperse many seeds over a large area.
b. are usually small plants.
c. are usually fast-growing.
d. All of the above
______21. When two species in a community are both competing for the same
limited resource and one is eliminated, it is an example of
a. commensalism. c. a predator-prey relationship.
b. competitive exclusion. d. resource partitioning.

Name Class Date
______22. Species richness in grasses was found to improve a community’s

stability. Which of the following results led to this conclusion?
a. Species-rich grass plots that were subjected to freezing temperatures
lost less plant mass and took more time to recover than grass plots
with fewer species.
b. Species-rich grass plots that were subjected to drought lost less
plant mass and took less time to recover than grass plots with
fewer species.
c. Species-rich grass plots that were subjected to human habitat
destruction lost fewer plants than grass plots with fewer species.
d. All of the above
______23. In the process of succession,

a. an unchanging climax community is the final stage.
b. organisms change the environment so that it can support the
growth of other species.
c. progress toward a climax community cannot be altered by further
disturbances.
d. grasses are present in primary succession but absent in secondary
succession.
24. What are the adaptive advantages of thorns, tough leaves, and toxins to plants?
25. Explain why a species of barnacles, Semibalanus balanoides, is dominant

in areas that are usually under water and another species of barnacles,
Chthamalus stellatus, is dominant in areas that have prolonged dry periods.
26. What kind of relationship is illustrated by cattle egrets and Cape buffalo?
What kind of relationship is illustrated by flowers that are pollinated by
nectar-feeding bats?
27. How are humans causing a decrease in species richness in certain environments?

Name Class Date
28. Describe the environmental conditions present during succession in Glacier

Bay, Alaska.
29. Explain the difference between species richness and species evenness.

30. In desert regions of the southwestern United States, some species of ants and
rodents eat seeds produced by desert plants. Many seeds are consumed by
both animals. An experiment was conducted to determine the effects of ants
and rodents on seed numbers in the wild. In this experiment, (1) only ants
were removed from some plots of land, (2) only rodents were removed from
some plots, (3) both ants and rodents were removed from some plots, or (4)
both ants and rodents were allowed to remain on some plots. After a period
of time, data were collected from the plots. These data are presented in the
table below. Use the table to answer questions a–c.
Only ants Only rodents Ants and rodents Ants and rodents
removed removed removed remain
Number of ant colonies 0 547 0 313

Number of rodents 176 0 0 123
Number of seeds
per square meter 356 375 1,527 362
a. Which plots were the control plots in this experiment?
b. What happened to the seed density in plots in which either ants or rodents
were removed?
c. What happened to the seed density in plots in which both ants and rodents
were removed?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Ecosystems
term or phrase.
______ 1. tundra a. grasslands rich in wildlife and having some

trees and two seasons—wet and dry
______ 2. benthic zone
b. nonparasitic plants that live on other
______ 3. neritic zone organisms
c. open ocean area beyond the continental
______ 4. epiphytes
shelf
______ 5. temperate grasslands d. area in ocean where photosynthesis occurs
e. biome characterized by permafrost
______ 6. photic zone
f. areas with intermediate rainfall, rich soil,
______ 7. oceanic zone and mostly grasses
______ 8. savannas g. area along the bottom of the ocean
h. ocean over a continental shelf
______ 9. taiga
i. area with mild, rainy winters and hot, dry
______10. chaparral summers with periodic fires
j. also called boreal forest
______11. Aquatic species that can tolerate a wide range of salinities would be
well-adapted to which of the following aquatic environments?
a. the intertidal zone c. estuaries
b. the neritic zone d. eutrophic lakes
______12. What are the three main types of forests?

a. taiga, boreal forest, and tropical
b. boreal forest, tundra, and tropical
c. tropical, temperate, and tundra
d. tropical, temperate, and taiga
______13. Which of the following is NOT a terrestrial biome?

a. desert b. estuary c. taiga d. chaparral
______14. What are the most productive terrestrial ecosystems?

a. tropical rain forests
b. savannas
c. temperate grasslands
d. deciduous forests
Name Class Date
Ecosystems, Chapter Test B continued
______15. In which oceanic zone do coral reefs form?

a. the intertidal zone c. the aphotic zone
b. the oceanic zone d. the neritic zone
______16. Which of the following best characterizes the differences between

tundra and taiga biomes?
a. Tundra biomes are located at lower latitudes than taiga biomes.
b. Tundra biomes are warmer and have lower average annual
precipitation than taiga biomes.
c. Tundra has small, slow-growing plants with root systems limited
by a layer of permafrost, while taiga has trees adapted to cold
temperatures.
d. Tundra has extremely long and cold winters, and taiga has short
and warm winters.
______ 17. Temperate deciduous forests are characterized by

a. pronounced seasons with high average annual precipitation.
b. the presence of trees that lose their leaves during the winter.
c. mild winters, moderate average annual precipitation, and broad-
leaved trees.
d. pronounced seasons, broad-leaved trees, and grasses being the
dominant plants.
______18. Orchids and bromeliads are common in tropical rain forests and are
examples of non-parasitic plants known as
a. coniferous plants.
b. deciduous plants.
c. veldts.
d. epiphytes.
______19. The photic zones of the oceans differ from the aphotic zones in that
a. there are living things in the photic zones but no living things in the
aphotic zones.
b. the photic zones are colder than the aphotic zones.
c. the photic zones are found near the tropics, while the aphotic zones
are found far from the tropics.
d. the photic zones receive sunlight, while the aphotic zones do not.
______20. The greatest number of different biomes may be observed on a

a. plain. c. beach.
b. mountain. d. tundra.
______21. Animals that live in savannas

a. must deal with long periods of drought.
b. must be able to survive cold temperatures.
c. are primarily carnivores.
d. are primarily omnivores.

Name Class Date
22. How are the different terrestrial biomes distinguished?
23. What are the three main types of grasslands and how are they characterized?
24. Why are trees rare in the tundra biome?
25. Why are the floors of tropical rain forests relatively free of vegetation?
26. What adaptations are required for organisms that live in the intertidal zone?
27. Why are freshwater wetlands important economically and environmentally?
28. What are the distinguishing characteristics of a tropical rain forest, and how
do they differ from those of temperate deciduous forests?

Name Class Date
29. Lakes and ponds can be divided into two categories. What are these
categories, and how do they differ from each other?
Refer to the graph below to answer questions 30a through 30d.

30. The graph shown below shows the average temperature and precipitation in
some of the terrestrial biomes. Use the graph to answer the following questions.
Temperature and Moisture in Biomes

Average Annual Precipitation (cm)
400
300
Tropical
Forest
200
Temperate
forest
100
Taiga Savanna
Temperate
grassland
ra
Tund
⫺10 0 10 20 30
Average Temperature (⬚C)
a. Which of the biomes shown has the lowest average annual precipitation
and highest average temperatures?
b. Which biome has an average temperature that is always above 19º C?
c. What is the average temperature range and average annual precipitation of

the taiga biome?
d. What is the average annual precipitation of the tropical forest biome?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Humans and the Environment
term or phrase.
______ 1. chlorofluorocarbon a. identification and maintenance of

natural areas
______ 2. biodiversity
b. concentration of chemical at the top
______ 3. biological magnification of food chain
c. destroys ozone
______ 4. genetic diversity
d. the variety of organisms at a site
______ 5. keystone species e. the reversal of damage to natural areas
______ 6. restoration biology f. increases carbon dioxide levels
g. amount of genetic variation at a site
______ 7. conservation biology
h. loss can unbalance ecosystem
______ 8. fossil-fuel burning i. visible air pollution
______ 9. biosphere j. ecologically friendly tourism
k. rocky part of Earth
______10. smog
l. death of entire species
______11. geosphere m. everywhere life exists
______12. ecotourism
______13. extinction
______14. The inorganic portion of the soil would be considered to be part of the
a. geosphere.
b. atmosphere.
c. hydrosphere.
d. biosphere.
______15. The measure of biodiversity that considers the number of individuals

of each species in an area is called
a. species richness.
b. species evenness.
c. genetic variation.
d. genetic distribution.

Name Class Date
Humans and the Environment, Chapter Test B continued
______16. Many scientists think that humans have caused an increase in the size
of the ozone hole by
a. burning large quantities of fossil fuels.
b. generating a lot of carbon dioxide that has resulted in an increase in
the atmospheric carbon dioxide level.
c. releasing large quantities of chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere.
d. All of the above
______ 17. Which of the following measures of biodiversity takes into considera-
tion the number of species present at a site as well as the number of
individuals of each species?
a. species evenness c. species diversity
b. species richness d. All of the above
______18. What is the term commonly used to describe the trend shown in
the graph?
a. biodiversity crisis c. global warming
b. ozone depletion d. water pollution
Global Temperature
15.4
15.2
Temperature (°C)
15
14.8
14.6
14.4
14.2
Time
______19. Habitat destruction, hunting, and introduction of invasive species are

top reasons for the mass extinction of species today. Which is the
major cause of all three?
a. volcanic eruptions c. global warming
b. human activities d. secondary succession
______20. Which of the following are reasons to value biodiversity.

a. development of new medicines
b. use as possible food sources
c. maintaining a healthy environment
d. All of the above

Name Class Date
______21. Whooping cranes are particularly vulnerable to extinction because

a. they are aquatic birds, and water availability in aquatic habitats
varies over time.
b. they are prey to many predators along their flyways.
c. they are typically small birds and often don’t survive their migrations.
d. they require a critical habitat at intervals along their migratory route
as well as at their destinations.
______22. The Florida Everglades is an unusual ecosystem in that

a. the large, slow-moving river that flows through it is linked to other
vast, bodies of water.
b. the inland water systems are composed of salt water.
c. it is home to many species of water birds.
d. it is mainly swampland.
______23. Which of the following is NOT a part of the plan to restore the
Everglades?
a. elimination of some of the drainage canals that were built to drain
water from the region
b. removal of melaleuca trees
c. designation of all Everglade species as endangered species
d. purchase of additional land for park protection
24. Explain whether the greenhouse effect has a positive or negative effect on the
life on Earth.
25. What effects might a thinning of the ozone layer have on humans and other
organisms?
26. As Earth’s human population continues to increase, are upper atmospheric ozone
levels, atmospheric carbon dioxide levels, global temperature, undeveloped
land areas, and various natural resources expected to increase or decrease?

Name Class Date
27. In what ways have humans affected biodiversity?
28. Describe the origins and strategies of debt-for-nature swaps and ecotourism.
29. What problems have been encountered in the attempt to reintroduce whooping
cranes to the wild?
30. The flowchart below depicts some effects of human intervention on Earth’s
ecosystems. Complete the flowchart by writing appropriate responses in
spaces a–f.
Natural ecosystem
Human intervention
in the form of in the form of
Disturbed ecosystem
burning of habitat a biodiversity preservation restoration

fossil fuels destruction strategies in developing efforts
countries
e such as
such as
such as
which which chlorofluorocarbons
results in reduces
such as
preserving habitats
of migratory birds
b c d f the
Everglades
restoration
plan

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Bacteria
term or phrase.
______ 1. Rhizobium a. peptidoglycan is absent in cell walls
b. obtain energy from inorganic
______ 2. photoautotrophic bacteria
substances
______ 3. bacteria c. produce many antibiotics
______ 4. chemoautotrophic bacteria d. archaea

e. peptidoglycan is present in cell walls
______ 5. Gram-negative bacteria
f. produce an endotoxin
______ 6. actinomycetes g. capture energy from sunlight
______ 7. halophiles h. perform nitrogen fixation
______ 8. archaea
9. Bacteria that can survive only in the absence of oxygen are called
.
10. The archaea are more closely related to than they
are to .
11. Gram-negative bacteria appear when they undergo

Gram staining.
12. The evolution of populations of pathogenic bacteria that antibiotics cannot
kill is called .
13. The terms bacteria and archaea refer to members of different
.
______14. Which of the following associations incorrectly describes an

archaea and its characteristics?
a. halophile—high salt environments
b. methanogen—aerobic environments
c. thermoacidophile—hot, acidic environments
d. methanogen—cow intestinal tract
Name Class Date
Bacteria, Chapter Test B continued
______15. Gram-positive bacteria differ from Gram-negative bacteria in

a. their response to the Gram stain.
b. the make-up of their cell walls.
c. the type of toxins they produce.
d. All of the above
______16. Which of the following bacteria are thought to be responsible for

establishing Earth’s oxygen-rich atmosphere?
a. methanogens c. cyanobacteria
b. extreme halophiles d. spirochetes
______ 17. Genetic recombination in bacteria

a. is a form of sexual reproduction.
b. includes transformation and translation.
c. includes transformation and transduction.
d. always requires a sex pillus.
______18. Bacterial cells typically lack

a. a cell membrane. c. a cell wall.
b. mitochondria. d. a chromosome.
______19. Which of the following is NOT a bacterial structure that provides the
type of movement indicated?
a. pilus—crawling motion
b. flagellum—turning and tumbling while moving forward
c. slime layer—gliding by wavelike contractions of the outer membrane
d. spiral shape—corkscrew motion
______20. Genetic recombination in bacteria always involves

a. viruses.
b. transfer of DNA through a sex pillus.
c. transfer of one or more plasmids.
d. transfer of genes between bacterial cells.
______21. Bacterial diseases of the intestines are usually transmitted by

a. sneezes and coughs. c. contaminated water or food.
b. direct contact. d. contaminated wounds.
______22. Which of the following is not a mechanism of action of an antibiotic?

a. inhibiting cell wall synthesis c. inhibiting protein synthesis
b. inhibiting conjugation d. All of the above
______23. On what basis have bacteria traditionally been classified?

a. shape c. type of metabolism
b. response to Gram stain d. All of the above

Name Class Date
24. Identify three ways that bacteria are used to produce substances for human use.
25. Explain how chemoautotrophs differ from photoautotrophs.
26. Define the term recombination as it applies to bacteria, and list three ways
that genetic recombination occurs in bacteria.
27. Describe two ways that bacteria cause disease.
28. Explain why antibiotic resistance among bacteria is increasing.
29. The diagrams below represent three common bacterial shapes. Label each
bacterial shape in the space provided.
a b c

Name Class Date

30. The diagram below represents a bacterial cell. Label each structure indicated
in the spaces provided. Then describe the function of the structures listed
below the figure.
a. Structure a
b. Structure b
c. Structure c
d. Structure d
e. Structure e

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Viruses
term or phrase.
______ 1. reverse transcriptase a. protein structure in all viruses

b. bacteriophage integrated in host DNA
______ 2. provirus
c. virus that is able to replicate but not
______ 3. envelope cause disease in its host
______ 4. inactivated virus d. protein in some RNA viruses
e. place where a virus attaches to host cell
______ 5. prophage
f. membrane structure in some viruses
______ 6. attenuated virus g. HIV integrated in host DNA
______ 7. capsid h. virus that does not replicate within

its host
______ 8. receptor
9. In 1935, scientists concluded that an infective agent that could be crystallized
was unlikely to be made up of .

10. Cell lysis results when the phage enzyme digests
the host cell wall.
11. Specific flu shots are needed every year because the flu virus
very rapidly.
12. Chickenpox and are caused by the same
varicella-zoster herpesvirus.
13. When a proto-oncogene is converted to a(n) ,
cancer results.
______14. A viral genome consists of

a. either DNA or RNA. c. both RNA and protein.
b. either DNA or protein. d. both DNA and RNA.

Name Class Date
Viruses, Chapter Test B continued
______15. The lytic cycle differs from the lysogenic cycle in that the
a. lysogenic cycle kills the host cells and the lytic cycle does not kill
host cells.
b. lytic cycle occurs immediately following infection and the lysogenic
cycle occurs after a period of months or years.
c. lytic cycle kills the host cells and the lysogenic cycle does not kill
host cells.
d. lytic cycle is characteristic of bacteriophages and the lysogenic
cycle is characteristic of viruses that infect eukaryotic cells.
______16. The viral nucleic acid becomes integrated into the host cell’s DNA
during a virus’s
a. lytic cycle. c. lytic cycle and lysogenic cycle.
b. lysogenic cycle. d. None of the above
______ 17. Which of the following is not effective in viral-disease prevention or

treatment?
a. antibiotics
b. vaccines
c. antiviral drugs
d. control of animals that spread viruses
______18. Which of the following associations between a virus and the human
disease it causes is incorrect?
a. HIV—AIDS c. hepatitis B virus—yellow fever
b. chickenpox virus—shingles d. influenza virus—flu
______19. Wendell Stanley is best known for

a. determining the structure of HIV.
b. being first to culture a virus.
c. being the first to crystallize a virus.
d. producing the first vaccine against TMV.
______20. Reverse transcriptase

a. synthesizes RNA using DNA as a template.
b. synthesizes DNA using protein as a template.
c. synthesizes DNA using RNA as a template.
d. All of the above
X
______21. The diagram represents a(n)

a. adenovirus. c. bacteriophage.
b. retrovirus. d. AIDS virus.
______22. The structure labeled X in the diagram is

a. nucleic acid. c. the tail.
b. the collar. d. a tail fiber.
Name Class Date
______23. What most limits the effectiveness of vaccines in preventing viral

diseases?
a. It is difficult to make enough vaccine to protect the entire population.
b. Viruses constantly change, and the vaccine may not be effective
against a new form of a virus.
c. Occasionally a vaccine can cause the disease it is meant to prevent.
d. Some viral diseases are caused by a combination of two or more
viruses.
24. Explain why viruses are thought to have evolved from cells.
25. Distinguish between a temperate virus and a virulent virus.
26. Are viruses considered living organisms? Why or why not?
27. The diagram below represents an HIV particle. Label each structure indicated
in the space provided.

Name Class Date
28. Compare viroids and prions with viruses.
29. Explain how human actions facilitate outbreaks of disease caused by

emerging viruses.

30. In a virology lab, bacterial cells infected with a temperate DNA virus were
cultured. After causing the virus to become lytic, the researchers purified the
viruses and analyzed their DNA. They found that some of the DNA was not
viral DNA. Further analysis showed that the nonviral DNA was from the
genome of the infected bacterial cells.
a. Explain how and when the bacterial genes became integrated in the viral
genome.
b. List and describe each step of the lysogenic cycle.
c. Sequence the steps of the lytic cycle shown below.
a b c d e

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Protists
term or phrase.
______ 1. Trypanosoma a. moves by pseudopodia

b. causes malaria
______ 2. Paramecium
c. moves by cilia
______ 3. Dinoflagellates
d. have radially arranged spines
______ 4. radiolarians e. transmits malaria to humans
f. cause red tides
______ 5. Giardia
g. causes sleeping sickness
______ 6. Amoeba
h. known to contaminate stream water
______ 7. Plasmodium in the United States
______ 8. Anopheles
9. Protists probably originated when ancient prokaryotes lived inside larger
prokaryotes and eventually became , a process
called endosymbiosis.
10. During conjugation, protists exchange haploid .
11. forms the base of nearly all marine and freshwater

food chains.
12. Brown algae resemble plants because they have a rootlike
, a stemlike , and a
leaflike .
13. The stage of the Plasmodium life cycle that infects the
is the sporozoite. The stage that
infects
is the merozoite.

Name Class Date
Protists, Chapter Test B continued
______14. Protozoan habitats are characterized by the presence of

a. host organisms. c. moisture.
b. algae. d. blood.
______15. Which of the following is characteristic of many algae?

a. pyrenoids c. a macronucleus
b. a conjugation tube d. cilia
______16. Sarcodines use their pseudopodia for

a. capturing food. c. movement.
b. engulfing food. d. All of the above
______ 17. Which of the following structures is NOT involved in feeding in ciliates?
a. contractile vacuole c. oral groove
b. cilia d. gullet
______18. Certain sarcodines affect Earth’s geology by

a. secreting acids that break down rock into soil.
b. ingesting calcium carbonate and secreting silicon dioxide.
c. having mineralized shells that form limestone after they die.
d. washing up onto shores when they die, and causing the accumulation
of silicon dioxide and calcium carbonate.
______19. Slime molds typically live

a. in moist environments containing dead plant material.
b. on moist, living plants.
c. in water.
d. inside living animals.
______20. Which of the following best describes the life cycle of a plasmodial
slime mold?
a. The feeding form is nonmotile, and the fruiting body is motile.
b. The feeding form is motile, and the fruiting body is nonmotile.
c. The feeding form can survive in dry environments, and the fruiting
body cannot.
d. The feeding form is unicellular, and the fruiting body is multicellular.
______21. Pseudopodia are extensions of a sarcodine’s

a. pellicle. b. cilia. c. flagella. d. cytoplasm.
______22. In Paramecium, the macronucleus

a. participates in the exchange of genetic material during conjugation.
b. is also called the micronucleus.
c. contains the micronucleus.
d. contains multiple copies of DNA.

Name Class Date
______23. All oomycotes can be characterized as

a. living in aquatic environments.
b. saprophytes.
c. parasites.
d. having filamentous bodies.
24. Would a motile protist or a nonmotile protist be more likely to be free-living?
Explain your answer.
25. Explain the role of algae in aquatic-ecosystem food chains.
26. Distinguish between the terms protist and protozoan.
27. The diagram below represents asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction
in Chlamydomonas. Label the two types of reproduction in the spaces provided.
a. b.
Meiosis
Mitosis
Zygospore
(2n) Zoospores
Zygote
Mature cell
(n)
+ Gamete
Mitosis
– Gamete Zoospores

Name Class Date
28. List the phyla that contain seaweeds. How do seaweeds compare with other
algae?
29. Describe three means of locomotion among animal-like protists.

30. The diagram below represents a protozoan.
a. Label each structure in the space indicated.
b. Give the phylum and the genus of the organism shown above.
c. Describe the path food takes through the organism shown above.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Fungi
term or phrase.
______ 1. mold a. visible, cuplike sexual reproductive

structure
______ 2. Amanita sp.
b. association between a fungus and plant
______ 3. zygosporangium roots
c. fused gametangia
______ 4. candidiasis
d. tangled mass of hyphae
______ 5. ascocarp e. yeast infection
______ 6. yeast f. poisonous mushroom
g. association between a fungus and a green
______ 7. lichen alga
______ 8. mycorrhiza h. unicellular fungi that resemble bacteria
9. All fungi reproduce both asexually and sexually except
10. The cell walls of fungi are composed of .
11. Basidia are , which means that they contain

two nuclei.
12. A hypothesis about the origins of fungi suggests that fungi evolved from
through endosymbiosis.
13. The fungal toxin is produced by some species

of Aspergillus and causes liver cancer in humans.

Name Class Date
Fungi, Chapter Test B continued
each statement. Refer to the diagram at right to answer questions 14 and 15.
______14. The fungus represented in the diagram is a(n)
a. zygomycete. Spore
b. basidiomycete.
c. ascomycete.
Sporangiophore
d. oomycete.
______15. The type of reproduction represented
in the diagram is called
a. sexual reproduction.
b. asexual reproduction.
c. alternation of generations.
d. meiosis.
______16. A mycelium is an interwoven mat of

a. spores. b. septa. c. hyphae. d. conidia.
______ 17. All asexual reproductive spores in fungi are

a. diploid.
b. haploid.
c. produced in sporangia.
d. produced on either “plus” or “minus” hyphae.
______18. Which of the following is NOT a means by which humans use fungi to
make food?
a. cooking fungal structures c. alcohol production
b. genetically engineering fungi d. bread production
______19. Which of the following is NOT a medically useful substance produced

by a fungus?
a. penicillin b. hepatitis B vaccine c. cortisone d. aflatoxin
______20. Fungi cause disease in humans through

a. infection only. c. infection and allergies.
b. allergies only. d. infection, poisoning, and allergies.
______21. Unlike animals, fungi

a. ingest their food before digesting it.
b. photosynthesize their food before digesting it.
c. photosynthesize their food before ingesting it.
d. digest their food before ingesting it.
______22. The structure labeled X in the diagram at right

is called a(n)
a. coenocytic hypha. c. septum.
b. mycelium. d. conidia.
X

Name Class Date
______23. The fungus represented at right is a(n)

a. zygomycete.
b. basidiomycete.
c. ascomycete.
d. deuteromycete.
24. List three different kinds of asexual spores formed by fungi, and describe how
they are produced.
25. How does a gametangium differ from a zygosporangium?
26. What are mycorrhizae, and what is their ecological role?
27. Identify one way in which fungi differ from organisms in each of the other
kingdoms of eukaryotic organisms.
28. Explain why being able to reproduce both sexually and asexually is an adap-
tive advantage.
29. Compare an ascocarp with a basidiocarp.

Name Class Date

30. An experiment was conducted in which a lichen, the lichen’s component
fungus, and the lichen’s component alga all were grown in three different
locations. In each location, ten 1-cm diameter disks each of the lichen, the
fungus, and the alga were set on the ground, watered, and allowed to grow for
three months. The data in the table below show the average size of the disks
of lichen, fungus, and alga in each of the three locations after three months.
Comparison of the Growth of Lichen, Fungus, and Alga

Average disk diameter (cm)
Organism Location 1 Location 2 Location 3
Lichen 4 5 5.5
Fungus alone 1.5 0 5
Alga alone 1 0 4.5
a. What hypothesis were the experimenters testing?
b. What were the independent and dependent variables in this experiment?
c. What are your interpretations of the results obtained in each of the three
locations?
d. What conclusions can you make about the hypothesis?
e. If location 2 is bare rock how might lichen contribute to ecological succes-

sion?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
The Importance of Plants
term or phrase.
______ 1. cereals a. leaf, stem, root, and seed foods

b. beneficial plant-fungus interaction
______ 2. hay fever
c. foods of the pea family
______ 3. legumes
d. allergic response to plant pollen
______ 4. nitrogen fixation in roots e. dry fruits of grain plants
f. roots or underground stems
______ 5. fruits
g. beneficial plant-bacteria interaction
______ 6. mycorrhize
h. foods usually containing seeds
______ 7. root crops
______ 8. vegetables
______ 9. What are mycorrhizae?

a. fungal disease that infects plants.
b. insect pollinators of flowers
c. symbiotic relationship between fungi and plant roots
d. parasitic relationship between fungi and plant roots
______10. The cultivation of plants for human consumption is thought to have

begun
a. 100,000 years ago. c. 1,100 years ago.
b. 20,000 years ago. d. 11,000 years ago.
______11. Aspirin comes from the

a. white willow plant. c. cinchona plant.
b. yew plant. d. foxglove plant.
______12. Ninety percent of our food supply comes from species of plants.
a. 10 c. 100
b. 20 d. 2000
______13. Most of the world’s cultivated land is used to grow

a. cereals. c. legumes.
b. root crops. d. vegetables.

Name Class Date
The Importance of Plants, Chapter Test B continued
______14. Legumes can be grown without the use of

a. irrigation. c. farm machinery.
b. pesticides. d. nitrogen fertilizer.
______15. Which of the following is a root crop?

a. soybean c. cassava
b. peanuts d. sorghum
______16. Which of the following is scientifically classified as a fruit but

commonly referred to as a vegetable?
a. broccoli c. green beans
b. cabbage d. asparagus
______ 17. Which of the following is not currently used to increase food production?
a. carbon dioxide sprays on fields c. fertilizers
b. pesticides d. improved cultivars
______18. Wheat is
a. one of the oldest agricultural crops.
b. one of the crops produced in the largest amounts worldwide.
c. a crop that has been modified by humans over time.
d. All of the above
______19. Fungi can

a. cause disease in plants.
b. increase plant uptake of water and inorganic nutrients.
c. change the structure of plant roots.
d. All of the above
______20. Which of the following is NOT a poisonous plant?

a. holly c. giant ragweed
b. mistletoe d. tobacco
______21. Which two cereal grains are grown in greatest quantity?

a. corn and wheat c. sorghum and corn
b. rice and wheat d. rice and barley
22. Identify three nondietary uses of plants.

Name Class Date
23. Identify three ways that humans have increased food production.
24. Where do scientists hope to find new sources of medicines?
25. How does the overgrowth of water hyacinth on lakes and rivers negatively
affect the environment?
26. In the space below each illustration, describe what effect the insect may have
on the plant and what might happen if an insecticide were used on the plant.
27. Identify three substances used by plants that are also needed by humans.
28. Give three examples of harmful plants, or plant produces.

Name Class Date
29. Classify the following food crops: rice, nutmeg, oregano, zucchini, lentils,
sweet potato, and pear.

30. Refer to the tables below to answer questions a–c. Some legumes and grains
are rated according to how much of each of four amino acids they contain. A
rating of D indicates that the food contains a tiny amount of an amino acid. A
rating of A indicates that the food contains a day’s allowance of an amino acid
Table A Legumes
Legume Amino acids
1/4 –1/3 cup, dry tryptophan isoleucine lysine cysteine and
methionine
Kidney beans C B A+ D
Lima beans C B A+ C
Tofu A B A C
Lentils C B A+ D
Navy beans C B A+ D
Table B Grains
Grain Amino acids
1/4 –1/3 cup, dry tryptophan isoleucine lysine cysteine and
methionine
Wheat B C C B
Rye C C C B
Barley A C C B
Millet A+ C C B
Oatmeal B C C B
a. According to Table A, which legume is the best source of all of the amino
acids rated?
b. According to Table B, which grain is the best source of all of the amino acids
rated?
c. Compare the ratings of the legumes with those of the grains. Are legumes and
grains high in the same amino acids? Explain your answer.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Plant Evolution and Classification
term or phrase.
______ 1. gametophyte a. waxy covering on plant surfaces

b. diploid plant that produces spores
______ 2. xylem
c. transports organic compounds in any
______ 3. dicot direction
______ 4. phloem d. parallel leaf venation
e. haploid plant that produces eggs and
______ 5. rhizome sperm
______ 6. cuticle f. transports water and dissolved substances
in one direction
______ 7. sporophyte
g. underground stem of ferns
______ 8. monocot h. net leaf venation
9. In nonvascular plants, the smaller, nongreen
generation depends on the generation for nutrients.
10. Seed plants whose seeds do not develop within a fruit are called
11. Plants in phylum Pterophyta have coiled young leaves called
and mature leaves called .
12. The three phyla of nonvascular plants are ,
, and .
13. Club mosses produce a , which is a cluster of
sporangia-bearing modified leaves.
______14. Sphagnum is often used

a. for medicinal purposes. c. to enrich soil and help it retain water.
b. as a food. d. as a combustible fuel.
Name Class Date
Plant Evolution and Classification, Chapter Test B continued
______15. Nonvascular plants are distinguished by the

a. absence of xylem and phloem. c. absence of cuticle.
b. presence of rhizomes. d. presence of spores.
______16. A seed is
a. a modified spore.
b. produced on the gametophyte.
c. a plant embryo inside a protective coat.
d. All of the above
______ 17. Which of the following is not an ecological role of mosses?

a. on rock, accumulating inorganic and organic matter that other
plants can grow in
b. preventing soil erosion from rainfall by covering the soil’s surface
c. growing in areas where vegetation has been destroyed by fire
d. growing faster than undesirable plants
______18. Bryophytes are

a. nonvascular plants that produce roots but not stems and leaves.
b. nonvascular plants that live in moist environments.
c. completely terrestrial because they do not require water in order
to reproduce sexually.
d. All of the above
______19. All vascular plants

a. have conducting tissues and alternation of generations.
b. are large, have conducting tissues, and produce spores.
c. have conducting tissues and produce seeds.
d. have conducting tissues and produces spores, seeds, and flowers.
______20. True roots, stems, and leaves are characteristics of

a. all plants. c. all seed plants.
b. all vascular plants. d. all angiosperms.
______21. Which of the following phyla of plants produces seeds?

a. Lycophyta c. Pterophyta
b. Sphenophyta d. Coniferophyta
______22. The plant structure shown at right is

part of a
a. nonvascular, flowering plant.
b. vascular, seeded gymnosperm.
c. vascular, seeded angiosperm.
d. nonvascular liverwort.

Name Class Date
______23. The plant structure shown at right

is part of a
a. nonvascular, seedless fern.
b. vascular, seedless cycad.
c. vascular, seeded angiosperm.
d. nonvascular, seedless gymnosperm.
24. What are the primary functions of spores and seeds?
25. In what ways do green algae differ from plants?
26. Why do nonvascular plants have to live in moist environments?
27. Name three bryophytes, and identify their common characteristics.
28. Which plant phylum contains the tallest and most massive plants? Is this a
phylum of nonvascular, seedless vascular, or seed plants?
29. Conifers are often found living at high elevations in locations with cold, dry
winters. What characteristic enables them to retain their leaves in these
conditions?

Name Class Date

30. Examine the diagram of a generalized life cycle of land plants below as you
8
Sporophyte
1
7
6 2
4 Gametophyte
3
a. What type of cell reproduction occurs during stage 1?
b. What is the name of the structures produced during stage 2? Are these
haploid or diploid? What type of cell reproduction occurs during stage 4?
c. What is/are the name(s) of the structures produced during stage 5? Are
these haploid or diploid?
d. What process occurs during stage 6?
e. What is the name of the structures produced during stage 7 ? What struc-
ture is produced between stages 7 and 8 in gymnosperms and angiosperms?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Plant Structure and Function
term or phrase.
______ 1. collenchyma a. even, thick-walled, rigid cells

b. meristem between xylem and phloem
______ 2. lateral root
c. root branching off of a primary root
______ 3. intercalary meristem
d. irregular, thick-walled cells
______ 4. fibrous root system e. root system with an enlarged
primary root
______ 5. sclerenchyma
f. meristem found only in monocots
______ 6. taproot system g. root system with many branch roots
______ 7. parenchyma h. thin-walled cells that can be cube-shaped
or elongated
______ 8. vascular cambium i. allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and
water to diffuse in and out of leaf
______ 9. palisade mesophyll
j. site of most photosynthesis in leaves
______10. spongy mesophyll
k. movement of carbohydrates through
______11. translocation plants
______12. Which of the following is an example of a plant macronutrient?

a. iron b. boron c. zinc d. potassium
______13. Some monocots grow in length through

a. intercalary meristems. c. the cork cambium.
b. lateral meristems. d. the vascular cambium.
______14. Which type of plant cell functions in metabolic activities such as

photosynthesis, storage, and healing?
a. collenchyma c. sclerenchyma
b. parenchyma d. All of the above
______15. Which of the following associations between a plant tissue system and
its function(s) is incorrect?
a. dermal tissue system—absorption, gas exchange, protection
b. ground tissue system—support, storage, photosynthesis
c. vascular tissue system—support, transport
d. All of the above are correct.
Name Class Date
Plant Structure and Function, Chapter Test B continued
______16. Primary growth in roots results in _____ and secondary growth results
in _____
a. lengthening of roots; thickening of roots.
b. lengthening of roots; branching of roots.
c. germination of roots; lengthening of roots.
d. production of the apical meristem; division of cells in the apical
meristem.
______ 17. The function of the endodermis in roots is to

a. absorb water and minerals from the soil.
b. produce branch roots.
c. store water and/or carbohydrates.
d. regulate the movement of substances into the vascular tissue of
the root.
______18. Which of the following associations between a root structure and its
function(s) is incorrect?
a. epidermis—absorption of water and minerals
b. cortex—storage of water and/or starch
c. endodermis—structural support and anchorage of the plant
d. vascular cylinder—transport of water, minerals, and carbohydrates
______19. Which of the following may be found in stems but not in roots?
a. apical meristems c. vascular tissue
b. nodes d. secondary growth
______20. Lateral roots form from _____ , while lateral stems form from _____
a. the pericycle inside the root; buds on the surface of the stem.
b. the pericycle on the surface of the root; buds inside the stem.
c. the endodermis inside the root; buds on the surface of the stem.
d. meristematic tissue throughout the root; meristematic tissue in
nodes of the stem.
______21. Annual rings in woody plants form as a result of

a. the production of secondary phloem, which contains cells of
different sizes that were produced during different times of the
growing season.
b. the production of alternating rings of secondary xylem and secondary
phloem.
c. the production of secondary xylem, separated by bands of vascular
cambium.
d. the production of secondary xylem, which contains cells of different
sizes that were produced during different times of the growing season.

Name Class Date
______22. Which of the following associations between a leaf adaptation and its
function is incorrect?
a. tendrils—support of a climbing vine
b. tubular leaves—trapping insects
c. spines—increasing the photosynthetic surface area
d. dense coating of hairs—reducing light absorption
______23. Water is transported from the roots to the leaves of a plant by the
process of
a. expiration. c. primary growth.
b. transpiration. d. absorption.
24. What is the function of tracheids?
25. What are the lateral meristems of plants, and what is their function?
26. What adaptations of roots maximize water and mineral absorption?
27. Identify the structures that a water molecule would move through on its way
from the soil into the xylem of a plant root.
28. Identify the cells depicted in the illustration, describe

how they function, and describe their role in the
activities conducted by leaves.

Name Class Date
29. How are carbohydrates transported throughout a plant?

30. The diagram depicts several processes that occur in plants. For each of the
lettered processes, identify the activity occurring and the specific structure
and location where the process occurs. Refer to the diagram as you write
your answers on lines a–e below.
CO2
a
O2 Light
Water
b
e
Sugars
c
d
Water and
minerals
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Plant Reproduction
term or phrase.
______ 1. stamen a. male gametophyte

b. stigma, style, and ovary
______ 2. heterospory
c. producing only one type of spore
______ 3. embryo sac
d. legumes, grains, nuts, and achenes
______ 4. fleshy simple fruits e. anther and filament
f. female gametophyte
______ 5. dry simple fruits
g. producing two types of spores
______ 6. pistil
h. berries, pomes, drupes, and pepos
______ 7. pollen grain i. female reproductive structure
j. male reproductive structure
______ 8. homospory
______ 9. antheridium
______10. archegonium
______11. The lifecycles of mosses and most ferns are

a. heterosporous.
b. homosporous.
.c. neither homosporous nor heterosporous.
d. both homosporous and heterosporous.
______12. Double fertilization occurs in

a. mosses. b. gymnosperms. c. angiosperms. d. ferns.
______13. How do the sporophytes of mosses differ from those of ferns and
conifers?
a. Sporophytes of mosses are the dominant form.
b. Sporophytes of mosses produce zygotes.
c. Sporophytes of mosses produce diploid spores.
d. Sporophytes of mosses are not photosynthetic.
______14. A dominant gametophyte, homospory, archegonia and antheridia, eggs

and flagellated sperm, and zygotes developing in the archegonium
characterize the life cycle of
a. ferns. b. mosses. c. conifers. d. flowering plants.
Name Class Date
Plant Reproduction, Chapter Test B continued
______15. Which of the following is characteristic of conifers but not of mosses

or ferns?
a. a dominant sporophyte c. nonmotile sperm cells
b. antheridia and archegonia d. homospory
______16. In the life cycle of a fern,

a. archegonia and antheridia are produced on the same gametophyte.
b. antheridia produce egg cells and archegonia produce sperm cells.
c. megaspores and microspores are produced.
d. pollen grains transport nonmotile sperm cells to egg cells.
______ 17. Which of the following statements about a floral part and its function
is incorrect?
a. The stamen produces microspores that develop into pollen grains.
b. The pistil produces megaspores that develop into embryo sacs.
c. Sepals protect the other parts of a developing flower.
d. Petals provide nourishment for a developing embryo.
______18. During fertilization in flowering plants, one sperm cell fuses with an
egg cell to form a zygote and a second sperm cell fuses with two polar
nuclei to form
a. a single polar nucleus. c. a second zygote.
b. endosperm. d. an ovum.
______19. Large, showy flowers tend to be ____, while small, inconspicuous

flowers tend to be ____.
a. wind-pollinated; animal-pollinated
b. cross-pollinated; self-pollinated
c. animal-pollinated; wind-pollinated
d. bird- or mammal-pollinated; insect-pollinated
______20. In monocot seeds, food is stored in the ____, while in dicot seeds, it is
stored in the ____.
a. plumule; seed coat c. endosperm; cotyledons
b. cotyledons; endosperm d. plumule; endosperm
______21. The diagrams below show different structures in the life cycle of flower-
ing plants. Which sequence of letters corresponds to the following
sequence of structures: male gametophyte, female gametophyte, product
of fertilization?
a. A, B, C b. B, C, A c. C, A, B d. C, B, A
A B C

Name Class Date
Plant Reproduction, Chapter Test B continued
______22. Which of the following produces an aggregate fruit formed from several
pistils of a single flower?
a. milkweed plant c. sunflower plant
b. apple plant d. strawberry plant
______23. Adaptations that aid fruit and seed dispersal include

a. bright fruit coloration.
b. winglike extensions of seed coats.
c. very small seeds.
d. All of the above
24. Write the following structures in their proper order of production in the life
cycle of a fern plant: antheridium and archegonium, egg and sperm cells,
mature gametophyte, mature sporophyte, sporangium, spores, and zygote.
25. What are the products of meiosis in megaspore mother cells, and what happens
to these products?
26. What are the products of meiosis in microspore mother cells, and what happens
to these products?
27. How do the vegetative propagation methods of layering, grafting, tissue

culturing and making cuttings differ from each other?
28. What factors may be required to break dormancy of a seed, and what is an
adaptive advantage of seed dormancy?
29. What is required for almost all seeds to germinate?

Name Class Date
Plant Reproduction, Chapter Test Bcontinued

30. Use the diagram below of an incomplete, generalized life cycle of a plant to
Sporophyte
A
E
4. 1.
B
D
Male gametophyte
2.
C
Female gametophyte
3.
a. Label the structures indicated by the numbered spaces in the diagram.

b. At which stage(s) in the diagram, A, B, C, D, and/or E, does mitosis occur?
c. At which stage(s) in the diagram, A, B, C, D, and/or E, does meiosis occur?
d. At which stage(s) in the diagram, A, B, C, D, and/or E, does fertilization

occur?
e. Which structures in the completed diagram are haploid?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Plant Responses
term or phrase.
______ 1. thigmonasty a. promotes cell division, promotes lateral buds
______ 2. auxin b. closes stomata, promotes dormancy

c. movement response to cycle of light
______ 3. ethylene and darkness
______ 4. phytochrome d. promotes cell growth, inhibits lateral buds
e. movement response to touch
______ 5. abscisic acid
f. promotes growth by elongation and seed
______ 6. cytokinin germination
g. pigment involved in photoperiodism
______ 7. nyctinasty
h. promotes fruit ripening and abscission
______ 8. gibberellin i. growth response to touching a solid object
______ 9. vernalization j. low-temperature stimulation of flowering
______10. thigmotropism
______11. Indoleacetic acid, indolebutyric acid, and naphthalene acetic acid are
examples of what group of plant hormones?
a. auxins
b. gibberellins
c. abscisic acids
d. cytokinins
______12. The movement of sunflowers to face toward the sun is an example of

a. gravitropism. b. chemotropism. c. heliotropism. d. thigmotropism.
______13. Asters commonly flower in the summer. They would be categorized as

a. day-neutral plants. c. short-day plants.
b. long-day plants. d. long-night plants.
______14. Which of the following is NOT a function of auxins?

a. promoting apical dominance
b. increasing fruit number
c. promoting seed dormancy
d. preventing fruit drop

Name Class Date
Plant Responses, Chapter Test B continued
______15. In many plants, the branches near the shoot tip are shorter than
branches near the base. This is referred to as
a. chemotropism. c. thigmonasty.
b. nyctinasty. d. apical dominance.
______16. Which of the following is NOT a commercial use of auxins?

a. the promotion of root formation on leaf and stem cuttings
b. the prevention of fruit drop before maturity
c. the increase in the number of fruits produced per plant
d. the induction of stomatal closure
______ 17. Cytokinins and auxins are used commercially to promote

a. seed dormancy.
b. root and shoot formation in tissue cultures.
c. fruit ripening.
d. fruit drop so that remaining fruits become larger.
______18. Which of the following associations between a tropism and the

environmental stimulus to which it responds is incorrect?
a. chemotropism—chemicals produced in a particular part of the plant
b. gravitropism—the force of gravity
c. phototropism—the duration of daylight
d. thigmotropism— contact with a solid object
______19. Which of the following is NOT a function of nastic movements?

a. discouraging insect feeding c. capturing insect prey
b. reducing water loss d. growing toward a light source
______20. Which of the following is the cause of the plant responses depicted in
the illustration?
a. auxin produced at the shoot tip
b. gain and loss of turgor pressure in cells
c. contact with an animal
d. gravity
DAY NIGHT

Name Class Date
______21. The critical night length for a plant is the number of hours of darkness
required to
a. induce flowering. c. convert Pfr to Pr .
b. prevent flowering. d. convert Pr to Pfr .
______22. Vernalization requires exposure to

a. a critical night length to induce flowering.
b. a critical night length to prevent flowering.
c. cold temperatures to induce flowering.
d. cold temperatures to prevent flowering.
______23. Cell elongation on the shaded side of a plant is part of the phenomenon
called
a. gravitropism. c. thigmotropism.
b. phototropism. d. chemotropism.
24. The expression “one bad apple spoils the barrel” refers to the effects of which
type of plant hormone? Explain the meaning of the expression.
25. Why is leaf abscission an adaptive advantage?
26. What is the currently accepted explanation for the mechanism of gravitropism?
27. What is the fastest type of plant movement, and how fast does it occur?
28. Under what conditions, natural or artificial, will a long-day plant flower?
29. When do most biennial plants flower?

Name Class Date

30. The illustrations below depict experiments conducted by Fritz Went in the
1920s to determine the mechanism of phototropism. Refer to the illustrations
as you answer questions a–e.
Shoot Tip Chemicals Agar block Shoot grows

tip placed in tip placed on in direction
excised on agar diffuse another opposite
block into agar shoot with location of
block its tip agar block
removed
Shoot Agar block Agar block Shoot

tip without placed on continues
excised shoot tip another to grow
shoot with straight
its tip upwards
removed
a. Based on your study of plant hormones, what kind of plant hormone is likely
to have caused the shoot tip in part A of the experiment to bend as it grew?
b. Which step, A or B above, served as a control in this experiment?

c. How could you test whether your answer to item a is correct?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Introduction to Animals
term or phrase.
______ 1. Annelida a. sea star
______ 2. Chordata b. sea anemone

c. crayfish
______ 3. dorsal
d. sponge
______ 4. Mollusca e. snail
______ 5. ventral f. segmented worm

g. rotifer
______ 6. anterior
h. frog
______ 7. Echinodermata i. process by which blood cells develop
______ 8. Cnidaria j. head

k. belly
______ 9. organogenesis
l. process by which urinary system
______10. differentiation develops
m. back
______11. Porifera
______12. Arthropoda
______13. Rotifera
______14. Which two types of tissue are found only in animals?

a. reproductive and circulatory
b. plasma membrane and cellulose
c. photosynthetic and autotrophic
d. nervous and muscular
______15. In multicellular organisms, different kinds of cells perform different

tasks. What is the adaptation of a cell for a particular function called?
a. differentiation
b. specialization
c. development
d. segmentation

Name Class Date
Introduction to Animals, Chapter Test B continued
______16. What is a germ layer?

a. the outer covering of cells in the digestive system
b. a fundamental tissue type found in animal embryos
c. a part of the body to which muscles are attached
d. a part of the body where ingested bacteria multiply
______ 17. What is the trait common to all invertebrates?

a. no backbone c. indirect development
b. bilateral symmetry d. exoskeleton
______18. What internal structure is a functional part of an open circulatory

system, which is found in arthropods and mollusks?
a. lungs c. integument
b. kidney d. coelom
______19. Many characteristics of vertebrates are adaptations to life on land and

fall into two broad categories. What are these categories?
a. internal fertilization and heterotrophy
b. protection from extreme heat and cold
c. body support and water conservation
d. cephalization and bilateral symmetry
______20. From what germ layer do the skeleton, muscles, and blood of an
animal arise?
a. ectoderm c. endoderm
b. mesoderm d. blastoderm
______21. In protostomes, the blastopore develops into the

a. mesoderm. c. mouth.
b. archenteron. d. anus.
______22. What characteristic is displayed by the animal in the diagram?

a. cephalization
b. lack of symmetry
c. radial symmetry
d. three germ layers
______23. What would happen to the cells of a grasshopper zygote if they were
separated at the four-celled stage of development?
a. The cells would develop into four separate but complete grasshoppers.
b. The cells would undergo an indirect larval stage of development.
c. The cells would merge together again and form one individual.
d. The cells would not develop and therefore would die.

Name Class Date
24. As inferred by scientists, what were the steps involved in the evolution of
multicellular animals?
25. What two characteristics of sponges are unique in the kingdom Animalia?
26. What is segmentation, and is it found in all animals?
27. There are many differences between the development of protostomes and the
development of deuterostomes. What are two similarities in the way the
coelom is formed in these animals?
28. Label the diagrams below with the type of mesoderm formation shown, and
on each diagram, label the blastocoel, the coelom, and the archenteron.
a e
b f
c g
d h

Name Class Date
29. List four characteristics of the development of a human embryo that differ
from the development of a clam embryo.

30. The following characteristics are normally seen in vertebrates only, inverte-
brates only, or both. In the space provided, indicate which group or groups of
organisms show the traits listed:
a. two germ layers
b. three germ layers
c. radial symmetry
d. bilateral symmetry
e. cephalization
f. exoskeleton
g. endoskeleton
h. segmentation
i. backbone
j. sexual reproduction
k. external fertilization
l. open circulatory system
m. closed circulatory system
n. gills
o. lungs

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Sponges, Cnidarians, and Ctenophores
term or phrase.
______ 1. Hydrozoa a. stage of cnidarian life cycle

b. jellylike material
______ 2. spongin
c. contains a nematocyst
______ 3. cnidocyte
d. the coral class
______ 4. polyp e. Obelia is in this class
f. skeleton protein
______ 5. Scyphozoa
g. food-filled ball of amebocytes
______ 6. Cubozoa
h. particle of calcium carbonate or
______ 7. amebocyte silicon dioxide
i. the box jelly class
______ 8. planula
j. regrowth of tissues
______ 9. regeneration k. free-swimming cnidarian larva
______10. spicule l. Aurelia is in this class
m. a cell in a sponge that moves through
______11. gemmule the body cells, supplying nutrients and
removing wastes
______12. Anthozoa
______13. mesoglea
______14. The type of cell that draws water into a sponge is called
a. an osculum. c. a cnidocyte.
b. a collar cell. d. an amebocyte.
______15. Water leaves the interior of a sponge through

a. the osculum. c. an ostia.
b. an incurrent siphon. d. an amebocyte.
______16. Sponges reproduce asexually by producing

a. polyps. c. medusae.
b. spores. d. gemmules.

Name Class Date
Sponges, Cnidarians, and Ctenophores, Chapter Test B continued
______ 17. In jellyfish (Scyphozoa), sexual reproduction occurs during the

a. budding stage. c. medusa stage.
b. sessile stage. d. polyp stage.
______18. How many germ layers do cnidarians have?

a. zero c. two
b. one d. three
______19. The Portuguese man-of-war is a member of the

a. phylum Cubozoa. c. phylum Anthozoa.
b. class Hydrozoa. d. class Scyphozoa.
______20. A distinguishing defensive structure of cnidarians is the

a. colloblast. c. tentacle.
b. osculum. d. nematocyst.
______21. A distinguishing feature of the phylum Ctenophora is the

a. colloblast. c. hypoblast.
b. osculum. d. nematocyst.
______22. Ctenophores have a sensory structure for orientation called the

a. colloblast. c. nerve net.
b. semicircular canal. d. apical organ.
______23. Sponges and cnidarian polyps are similar in that they both
a. are bioluminescent.
b. are sessile.
c. have no true tissues.
d. display radial symmetry.
24. Trace the path of a food particle that is swept into the body of a sponge from
ingestion to removal of wastes.
25. Describe the various modes of reproduction used by sponges.

Name Class Date
26. Compare the bodies of sponges and cnidarians. How many cell layers are
found in each organism? How many openings does the central body cavity
of each organism have? Which phylum has mesoglea?
27. What body type is found in the dominant form of a typical scyphozoan?
How does that differ from the body type of an anthozoan?
28. What symbiotic organisms are found within coral cells? Why are corals
largely restricted to shallow depths near the equator?
29. The figures below show two cnidarian forms. In the blank below each figure,
label the form of the animal shown. On each figure, label the epidermis,
gastrovascular cavity, and mouth.
a e
b f
c g
d h

Name Class Date

30. The diagram below shows the life cycle of the common jellyfish Aurelia.
Answer the questions below based on the diagram.
A
D
B C
a. What type of fertilization, internal or external, is occurring in A?
b. What is the structure indicated by B called?
c. What is the larval structure indicated by C called? What happens to

this larva?
d. How are offspring produced by the structure indicated by D?
e. Would these offspring likely be genetically different from or genetically

similar to each other? Explain your answer.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Flatworms, Roundworms, and Rotifers
term or phrase.
______ 1. cephalization a. caused by a filarial worm
______ 2. pharynx b. contains both ovaries and testes

c. collects excess water
______ 3. trematodes and monogeneans
d. evidenced in planarians by
______ 4. snail the position of the eyespots
______ 5. proglottid e. associated with cysts
f. ingests food and excretes wastes
______ 6. elephantiasis
g. always parasitic
______ 7. rotifer
h. intermediate host
______ 8. gastrovascular cavity
i. planarian digestive system
______ 9. trichinosis j. parasitic flukes
______10. hookworm k. typically free-living

l. rotifer excretory chamber
______11. mastax
m. breaks food into pieces
______12. flame cell
______13. cloaca
each statement.
______14. The lack of a respiratory system in flatworms is compensated

for by their
a. flat shape. c. gastrovascular cavity.
b. bilateral symmetry. d. parasitic lifestyle.
______15. Planarians move over solid surfaces with the aid of

a. pseudopodia. c. cilia and mucus.
b. parapodia. d. retractile hooks.
______16. Animals that are typically hermaphroditic include

a. hookworms. c. rotifers.
b. Ascaris. d. flatworms.
______ 17. Flukes are protected against the host’s immune system by
a. flame cells. c. an endoskeleton.
b. a layer of cilia. d. the tegument.
Name Class Date
Flatworms, Roundworms, and Rotifers, Chapter Test B continued
______18. The anterior, knob-shaped portion of a tapeworm is called the

a. mouth. c. proglottid
b. scolex. d. crown.
______19. Animals that lack digestive systems include

a. rotifers. c. hookworms.
b. tapeworms. d. flukes.
______20. The life cycle of a beef tapeworm has

a. one type of host.
b. two types of hosts.
c. three types of hosts.
d. at least two but sometimes three types of hosts.
______21. The most common roundworm that parasitizes humans in the

United States is
a. the hookworm. c. the pinworm.
b. Ascaris. d. Trichinella.
______22. Rotifers respond to dry conditions by

a. dying.
b. migrating toward water.
c. drying up until wet conditions return.
d. reproducing rapidly by binary fission.
______23. Platyhelminthes have

a. three germs layers and a coelom.
b. three germs layers and a pseudocoelom.
c. three germs layers and no body cavity.
d. two germ layers and no body cavity.
24. Describe the life cycle of Schistosoma.
25. Describe three methods used to prevent trichinosis infection.

Name Class Date
26. How does a flatworm tegument differ from a roundworm cuticle?
27. How does an acoelomate differ from a pseudocoelomate? Name a phylum of

acoelomates with three germ layers.
28. Compare a planarian’s movement through water with its movement over
a surface.
29. In the diagram below of Dugesia, label the pharynx, the excretory tubule,
a nerve, and the eyespots.
b
c

Name Class Date

30. Recently in Europe, multiple cases of trichinosis were tracked down to a
single restaurant where diners ate uncooked horse meat. The restaurant
owner claims that no one contracted trichinosis from his horse meat. The
diagram below shows an example of the life cycle of Trichinella in the wild.
Refer to the diagram as you answer questions a–e.
a. Are horses a likely host of Trichinella? Why or why not?
b. Where would a human most likely be placed in this diagram of the life cycle
of Trichinella?
c. How can a person who eats meat avoid being infected by Trichinella?
d. What part of their life cycle are Trichinella in when they are ingested by a
new host?
e. Infections by parasitic worms are often difficult to control. The medicines

given for worm infections are frequently very hard on the body of the host,
unlike antibiotics given for bacterial infections. Why might this be true?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Mollusks and Annelids
term or phrase.
______ 1. Polychaeta a. functions in excretion

b. twisting of visceral mass
______ 2. cephalopod
c. class of annelids with antennae
______ 3. siphon
d. carries water currents
______ 4. nephridium e. has foot concentrated near head
f. class of annelids with suckers
______ 5. Oligochaeta
g. cephalopod with an exterior shell
______ 6. nautilus
h. class of earthworms
______ 7. torsion
______ 8. Hirudinea
______ 9. A coelom differs from a pseudocoelom in that in a coelom

a. the cavity does not contain fluid.
b. the body-wall muscles are separated from the gut.
c. the circulatory system is surrounded by endoderm.
d. the cavity is filled with endoderm.
______10. A feature shared by many mollusks and annelids is

a. an open circulatory system. c. a trochophore larva.
b. complete body segmentation. d. a pseudocoelom.
______11. A feature of some mollusks but not of annelids is

a. setae. c. a trochophore larva.
b. complete segmentation. d. a radula.
______12. The primary function of the radula is to

a. aid in feeding. c. aid in excretion.
b. process nerve signals. d. aid in dispersal.
______13. The radula is

a. a smooth layer beneath the cuticle.
b. a flexible, tonguelike strip with teeth.
c. a type of ganglion.
d. a rough layer just outside the cuticle.
Name Class Date
Mollusks and Annelids, Chapter Test B continued
______14. The circulatory system of a gastropod

a. is closed. c. lacks a heart.
b. is open. d. lacks a hemocoel.
______15. Land snails differ from aquatic snails in that land snails
a. are hermaphrodites.
b. have separate sexes.
c. respire by means of a modified lung.
d. do not have tentacles.
______16. One advantage of a segmented body in earthworms is

a. the presence of both a pseudocoelom and a coelom.
b. increased mobility.
c. radial symmetry.
d. the ability to function even when some segments are damaged.
______ 17. To move, earthworms use

a. circular muscles only.
b. both radial muscles and circular muscles.
c. longitudinal muscles only.
d. both circular muscles and longitudinal muscles.
______18. Leeches differ from oligochaetes and polychaetes in that leeches

a. have tentacles. c. have numerous setae.
b. never live on land. d. lack setae.
______19. All annelids have a(n)

a. closed circulatory system and a radula.
b. closed circulatory system and a mantle.
c. closed circulatory system and a nerve cord.
d. open circulatory system and a series of hearts.
______20. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of annelids?

a. gills or lungs c. a highly specialized gut
b. organ systems d. segmented bodies
______21. When soil in the digestive tract of an earthworm leaves the crop,
it passes to the
a. pharynx. b. gizzard. c. esophagus. d. anus.
22. Why are terrestrial snails more active when the air around them is moist?

Name Class Date
23. How are cephalopods adapted as predators?
24. What feature of mollusks and annelids suggests that they share a common
ancestor? Name a feature that mollusks and annelids do not share.
25. Do annelids have a structure comparable to the molluscan mantle? Explain

your answer in terms of the mantle’s function.
26. What is the advantage of a closed circulatory system? Name one class of
mollusk that has such a system.
27. How does an earthworm obtain oxygen from the environment? How does this
limit the earthworm’s potential habitats?
28. Describe three differences between polychaetes and annelids.

Name Class Date
29. How do the various annelid classes differ with regard to their natural habitats?

30. The diagram below is of a typical mollusk. Refer to the diagram as you
answer items a–c.
a e
b f
c g
d h
a. Label structures a–h in the figure above.
b. How does the mantle help protect a mollusk?
c. How is the surface area for gas exchange optimized in the mollusk?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Arthropods
term or phrase.
______ 1. tagma a. synthesizes the exoskeleton

b. set of fused segments
______ 2. antenna
c. sessile as an adult
______ 3. epidermis
d. necessary for growth
______ 4. chelicera e. reproductive appendage
f. legs and antennae
______ 5. molting
g. parasitize humans
______ 6. appendages
h. web-weaving organ
______ 7. spinneret i. one eye and three pairs of appendages
j. feeler
______ 8. millipede
k. functions in respiration
______ 9. nauplius
l. two leg pairs per segment
______10. barnacle m. pincerlike mouthpart
______11. swimmeret
______12. crayfish walking leg
______13. ticks
______14. Muscles that move the segments of arthropods are attached to which
layer of the exoskeleton?
a. the outer layer
b. the middle layer
c. the inner layer
______15. During its lifetime, a typical arthropod will molt

a. at most once, although some arthropods never molt.
b. once.
c. twice.
d. many times.

Name Class Date
Arthropods, Chapter Test B continued
______16. All arthropods have

a. a pseudocoelom and an exoskeleton.
b. a true coelom and an endoskeleton.
c. a true coelom and an exoskeleton.
d. jointed appendages and an endoskeleton.
______ 17. One difference between trilobites and crustaceans is the

a. great variation among the various limbs of a trilobite.
b. presence of both mandibles and chelicerae in trilobites.
c. fact that trilobites are extinct.
d. fact that crustaceans are extinct.
______18. A protective feature of the crustacean exoskeleton is the

a. absence of calcium carbonate.
b. presence of cellulose.
c. absence of chitin.
d. presence of calcium carbonate.
______19. Of the following, the diet of a sowbug is most similar to that of a

a. centipede.
b. crayfish.
c. millipede.
d. spider.
______20. Food-handling appendages of a typical arachnid include

a. mandibles and chelicerae.
b. chelicerae and maxillae.
c. maxillae and maxillipeds.
d. chelicerae and pedipalps.
______21. One of the differences between spiders and crustaceans is the

a. presence of book lungs in spiders.
b. closed circulatory system of spiders.
c. dorsal nerve cord of crustaceans.
d. presence of green glands in spiders.
______22. Myriapods include

a. crustaceans.
b. spiders.
c. centipedes.
d. trilobites.
______23. Imagine an arthropod consisting of 40 segments. The greatest number

of legs is expected if that arthropod is a
a. spider. c. centipede.
b. millipede. d. scorpion.

Name Class Date
24. What features of an arthropod’s body provide evidence of cephalization? Give
at least two examples.
25. Describe the arthropod molting process.
26. List all of the arthropod subphyla, and provide one example of a familiar
animal for each subphylum.
27. Describe the structures of the crayfish that are involved with the tail flip.
28. What appendages do spiders use to inject venom into their prey? Where in the
spider’s body is venom produced?
29. How do centipedes capture, kill, and tear apart their prey? In your explana-
tion, emphasize the role of each relevant appendage type.

Name Class Date

30. The diagram below is of a typical spider. Use the diagram to answer items a–c.
a e
b f
c g
d h
a. Label structures a–h in the figure above.
b. Describe how the excretory system of spiders is adapted to life on land.
c. What are the disadvantages of molting?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Insects
term or phrase.
______ 1. tympanum a. modified ovipositor

b. one of two species is harmful
______ 2. nymph
c. tears food
______ 3. Müllerian mimicry
d. vibrating membrane in some
______ 4. Batesian mimicry sound-producing insects
e. species identification
______ 5. kin selection
f. both species are harmful
______ 6. barbed stinger g. most-posterior tagma
______ 7. round dance h. indicates a nearby food source

i. holds food
______ 8. waggle dance
j. an immature form in some insects
______ 9. ability to fly k. helps to explain insect success
______10. abdomen l. indicates a distant food source

m. might explain honeybee altruism
______11. labrum
______12. mandible
______13. cricket chirp
______14. Unlike other arthropods, insects have

a. the ability to fly.
b. a segmented body.
c. a set of jointed appendages.
d. an exoskeleton.
______15. In winged insects, the wings are found on the

a. head.
b. thorax.
c. abdomen.
d. labrum.

Name Class Date
Insects, Chapter Test B continued
______16. The insect order that includes true bugs is

a. Coleoptera. c. Lepidoptera.
b. Hymenoptera. d. Hemiptera.
______ 17. The study of insects is called

a. entomology. c. enterology.
b. ecology. d. entelechy.
______18. Male mosquitoes are attracted to female mosquitoes by

a. the buzzing of wings.
b. the color pattern of the hind wings.
c. light flashes produced by the abdomen.
d. a pheromone secreted from the thorax.
______19. African sleeping sickness is transmitted by

a. a mosquito. c. earworms.
b. a flea. d. the tsetse fly.
______20. Commercially valuable products produced by insects do not include

a. silk. c. atropine.
b. wax. d. shellac.
______21. Increasing the propagation of one’s own genes by helping a closely

related individual is called
a. innate behavior. c. natural selection.
b. kin selection. d. Batesian mimicry.
______22. When the honeybee hive becomes overcrowded,

a. queen factor production is dramatically increased.
b. the queen leaves, followed by about half of the workers.
c. most of the workers leave, but the queen stays behind.
d. the colony dies off.
______23. Queen factor is a

a. high-protein substance fed to the larvae.
b. pheromone that attracts male bees to the hive.
c. pheromone that prevents female larvae from developing into queens.
d. component of honey.
24. Describe the defensive behavior of the bombardier beetle.

Name Class Date
25. How do the roles of pheromones differ in ants and moths?
26. How do the mouthparts of drone bees differ from those of workers, and why
might this difference be expected?
27. Describe the eyes of the grasshopper, focusing on the types of eyes, the
number of each type, and the function of each type.
28. Insects are eaten by humans in many parts of the world. The table below
includes one representative from each of three different insect orders. The
table shows the percentage of the daily nutritional requirements of humans
that 100 g of each type of insect provides. Overall, which order appears to be
most nutritious for humans? What is the common name of insects in this order?
Nutritional Value of Insects in Three Orders

Nutrient Isoptera Lepidoptera Coleoptera
Energy 21.5% 13% 19.7%

Magnesium 104% 13.5% 7.5%
Copper 680% 70% 70%
Calcium 4% 36% 19%
Zinc unknown unknown 158%
29. The stingers of wasps differ from those of honeybees. Which insect displays
altruistic behavior, and how is this related to the difference in the stingers?

Name Class Date

30. In the diagrams below, label each stage of metamorphosis and the type of
metamorphosis illustrated, then answer the questions that follow.
a
b c d
f g h i
j. What is the adaptive advantage of complete metamorphosis in terms of

competition for resources?
k. What is the adaptive advantage of complete metamorphosis in terms of

survival in harsh conditions?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Echinoderms and Invertebrate Chordates
term or phrase.
______ 1. basket star a. where water enters a tunicate

b. where water enters a sea star
______ 2. tunicate
c. component of sea-star nervous system
______ 3. lancelet
d. a hollow dorsal tube
______ 4. pentaradial symmetry e. endoskeleton of sea urchins and
sand dollars
______ 5. pharyngeal pouch
f. member of the class Ophiuroidea
______ 6. incurrent siphon g. member of the class Crinoidea
______ 7. madreporite h. lancelet water elimination structure
i. a type of urochordate
______ 8. test
j. part of a tube foot
______ 9. atriopore k. distinguishing characteristic of
echinoderms
______10. ampulla
l. chordate characteristic seen in both
______11. nerve ring lancelets and adult tunicates
m. a cephalochordate
______12. sea lily
______13. chordate nerve cord
______14. The age of echinoderms has been estimated as

a. more than 500 million years.
b. less than that of vertebrates.
c. approximately 100 million years.
d. at least one billion years.
______15. Sea cucumbers compose the

a. class Asteroidea. c. phylum Holothuroidea.
b. phylum Asteroidea. d. class Holothuroidea.
______16. Sea stars move about with the aid of

a. cilia. c. aboral ambulacral plates.
b. tube feet and water pressure. d. pedicellariae.

Name Class Date
Echinoderms and Invertebrate Chordates, Chapter Test B continued
______ 17. Sea stars are

a. hermaphroditic and have internal fertilization.
b. hermaphroditic and have external fertilization.
c. separate sexes and have external fertilization.
d. separate sexes and have internal fertilization.
______18. Two similarities between chordates and annelids are

a. a ventral nerve cord and segmentation.
b. bilateral symmetry and segmentation.
c. bilateral symmetry and a backbone.
d. bilateral symmetry and a sessile existence.
______19. Cephalochordates and urochordates

a. are terrestrial.
b. spend part of their lives on land and part in the water.
c. live in the ocean.
d. live in fresh water.
______20. The small pincers that surround the spines on the surface of a sea star
are called
a. madreporites.
b. pedicellariae.
c. ampullae.
d. crinoids.
______21. In the diagram of an echinoderm at right, the surface shown is the

a. ventral surface.
b. dorsal surface.
c. aboral surface.
d. oral surface.
______22. Chordates and echinoderms are both

a. protostomes. c. pseudocoelomates.
b. deuterostomes. d. acoelomates.
______23. The jaws and inner ear of terrestrial chordates derive from the
a. coelom.
b. ventral nerve cord.
c. muscle segments of the nerve cord.
d. pharyngeal pouches.

Name Class Date
24. Describe the fates of the notochord among the chordate subphyla Vertebrata,
Cephalochordata, and Urochordata.
25. Name four chordate features that are not found in echinoderms.
26. Describe the differences in morphology between young tunicates and adult
tunicates.
27. Describe the importance of the regeneration of body parts to sea-star defense
and reproduction.
28. Describe sexual reproduction among the tunicates. Are there separate sexes?
If so, how are they distinguished?
29. What is “Aristotle’s lantern”?

Name Class Date

30. Animals of the three phyla of chordates share four distinctive morphological
traits at some time during their development: a notochord, a dorsal nerve
cord, pharyngeal pouches, and a postanal tail. The table below shows the fate
of each trait in an adult animal. Use the table to answer questions a–e.
Fates of Chordate Features in Three Subphyla

Feature Vertebrata Cephalochordata Urochordata
Notochord becomes backbone retained lost

Dorsal nerve cord becomes spinal cord retained lost
Pharyngeal pouches becomes structures
in throat and ear retained retained
Postanal tail retained in most species retained lost
a. Animals of which subphylum most closely resemble an idealized chordate?
b. Which of the three subphyla has lost a structure important to movement,

particularly swimming?
c. In which subphylum are most of the embryological features retained, but in

a modified form?
d. Two of the three chordate subphyla contain only marine animals; which
two are they? If you knew nothing about a particular animal except that
it is sessile, would you think that the animal lives in the water or on land?
e. Name a representative animal from each of the three chordate orders.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Fishes
term or phrase.
______ 1. gill a. covers and protects the gills

b. controls buoyancy
______ 2. kidney
c. remove excess Na and C1 ions
______ 3. operculum
d. allows gas exchange
______ 4. olfactory sac e. describes the body of a freshwater
fish
______ 5. lateral line
f. detects chemicals in water
______ 6. swim bladder g. containing lower concentrations of
solutes than the surroundings
______ 7. rectal gland
h. collects deoxygenated blood
______ 8. sinus venosus i. whiskerlike organ that functions in
taste
______ 9. hypertonic
j. filters wastes from blood
______10. hypotonic
k. has valves to prevent backflow into
______11. barbel the ventricle
l. detects vibrations in water
______12. conus arteriosus
m. holds liquid waste to be expelled
______13. urinary bladder
______14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic shared by all verte-

brates?
a. vertebrae
b. scales
c. cranium
d. endoskeleton
______15. The major function of the gills is to

a. exchange gases.
b. sense chemicals.
c. regulate buoyancy.
d. detect vibrations.

Name Class Date
Fishes, Chapter Test B continued
______16. Which of the following is a characteristic shared by all members of

the class Chondrichthyes?
a. skeleton made of bone
b. herbivory
c. placoid scales
d. freshwater habitat
______ 17. Which of the following is an example of a lobe-finned fish?

a. perch c. salmon
b. trout d. lungfish
______18. The balance between salt and water in the body of a fish is maintained
by the kidneys and what other organ?
a. gills
b. heart
c. liver
d. swim bladder
______19. In bony fishes, the main pumping chamber of the heart is the
a. atrium. c. sinus venosus.
b. ventricle. d. conus arteriosus.
______20. A cartilaginous skeleton, placoid scales, and paired fins are

characteristic of class
a. Myxini. c. Actinopterygii.
b. Chondrichthyes. d. Amphibia.
Refer to the diagram below to answer questions 21–23.
______21. The structure represented by X in the diagram is the

a. dorsal fin. c. pectoral fin.
b. pelvic fin. d. caudal fin.
______22. The structure represented by Y in the diagram is the

a. operculum. c. pectoral fin.
b. gill filament. d. ventricle.
______23. The animal shown in the diagram belongs to the class

a. Vertebrata.
b. Actinopterygii.
c. Chondrichthyes.
d. Myxini.
Y
X
Name Class Date
24. Describe the lateral-line system.
25. Briefly describe the type of fertilization found in each of the following classes:
Chondrichthyes, Actinopterygii, and Myxini.
26. Name the senses a shark uses to detect prey.
27. Trace the flow of blood through the fish heart.
28. How did the evolution of jaws and paired fins benefit fish?
29. The tissues in a fish’s body are denser than water, so the tendency to sink is
a problem. Describe how this problem is resolved in cartilaginous fishes and
bony fishes.

Name Class Date

30. Use the table below to answer questions a–e. Note that characteristics listed
apply to the majority of species in each group.
Skeletal Characteristics of Vertebrates

Presence of Composition of Presence of
Group Class vertebrae skeleton scales or
feathers
Lampreys and
hagfishes 3. yes cartilage no
Sharks, rays,
and skates Chondrichthyes yes 5. yes
1. Actinopterygii yes bone 6.
Amphibians Amphibia yes bone no
Reptiles Reptilia yes bone yes
Birds 4. yes bone yes
2. Mammalia yes bone no
a. Complete the table by filling in the blanks.
b. Which groups listed in the table possess a cranium?
c. To which subphylum do the groups listed in the table belong?
d. Are there more aquatic classes or terrestrial classes of animals shown in

the table?
e. What is a skeletal characteristic found only in aquatic vertebrates?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Amphibians
term or phrase.
______ 1. cerebellum a. filters nitrogenous waste

b. directs oxygenated and deoxygenated
______ 2. medulla oblongata
blood to different areas
______ 3. kidney c. regulates muscular coordination
______ 4. amplexus d. frog mating embrace

e. caecilians
______ 5. vent
f. membrane holding small intestine in place
______ 6. mesentery g. controls heart rate and respiration rate
______ 7. conus arteriosus h. fused vertebrae

i. receives oxygenated and deoxygenated
______ 8. ileum blood
______ 9. modified digestive j. coiled middle portion of small intestine
pouches k. opening for exiting waste materials
______10. order Anura l. precursor to lungs

m. toads
______11. order Gymnophiona
______12. urostyle
______13. atrium
______14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Ichthyostega?

a. four strong limbs
b. large tail fin
c. five toes on each hind foot
d. large, sharp teeth
______15. The hormone thyroxine circulates in a frog’s bloodstream and stimulates

a. amplexus.
b. digestion.
c. fertilization.
d. metamorphosis.

Name Class Date
Amphibians, Chapter Test B continued
______16. Which of the following is a member of the order Caudata?

a. salamander c. toad
b. caecilian d. frog
______ 17. In amphibians, the main pumping chamber of the heart is the
a. sinus venosus. c. ventricle.
b. right atrium. d. left atrium.
______18. What structure transmits sounds between the eardrum and the inner ear?
a. columella
b. nictitating membrane
c. tympanic membrane
d. cerebellum
______19. The process by which a frog develops from an egg to an adult form is
called
a. amplexus.
b. metamorphosis.
c. spawning.
d. reproduction.
______20. To aid in the process of respiration, most adult amphibians make use
of their lungs as well as their
a. skin. c. cloaca.
b. gills. d. cerebrum.
______21. An important similarity between amphibians and lobe-finned fishes is

a. the bones of the fish fin and the bones of the amphibian limb.
b. both must return to the water to breed.
c. both have a cartilaginous skeleton.
d. they evolved at the same time in the sea.
Refer to the figure at right to answer questions 22 and 23.
______22. In the diagram, the structure

labeled X is a
a. kidney.
b. liver.
c. pancreas. X
d. lung.
______23. In the diagram, the structure

labeled Y is the
a. ileum.
b. duodenum.
Y
c. cloaca.
d. columella.

Name Class Date
24. Describe how a frog breathes.
25. List four major characteristics of living amphibians.
26. How does the skin of amphibians relate to the types of habitats in which an
amphibian can survive?
27. Identify three features of the frog skeleton that are adaptations for life on
land.
28. Describe the changes that occur during frog metamorphosis.
29. Describe two examples of parental care in amphibians.

Name Class Date

30. The diagrams below represent different stages in the life cycle of a frog.
In the blank below each diagram, number the stages 2–6. Note that the
first stage (d) has been labeled for you. In the blank lines below each
diagram, describe what the diagram illustrates.
1
a d
b e
c f

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Reptiles
term or phrase.
______ 1. elapid a. turtles and tortoises

b. ancient flying reptile
______ 2. pterosaur
c. dinosaur ancestor
______ 3. Crocodilia d. venomous snake
______ 4. Squamata e. protein
f. chameleon
______ 5. Chelonia
g. ventricular divider
______ 6. dinosaur h. tuatara
______ 7. plesiosaur i. ear bone
j. ancient terrestrial reptile
______ 8. Rhynchocephalia
k. constrictor
______ 9. thecodont l. ancient aquatic reptile
______10. keratin m. gavial
______11. septum
______12. columella
______13. gopher snake
______14. The span of time often called the Age of Reptiles is the
a. Permian period.
b. Mesozoic era.
c. Cretaceous period.
d. Carboniferous period.
______15. The lining of most reptile’s lungs might be divided into numerous
small sacs called
a. amnions.
b. bronchi.
c. arteries.
d. alveoli.

Name Class Date
Reptiles, Chapter Test Bcontinued
______16. A snake is most likely to use Jacobson’s organ to

a. locate prey. c. reproduce.
b. inject venom. d. detect heat.
______ 17. Which of the following is an advantage of ectothermy?

a. provides enough energy for sustained exertion
b. enables reptiles to live in cold climates
c. requires little energy
d. results in high metabolism
______18. The pattern of reproduction among some reptiles in which the egg is
retained within the female’s body until shortly before or after hatching
is called
a. viviparity. c. ovoviviparity.
b. ectothermy. d. endothermy.
______19. Which of the following is a venomous lizard?

a. Komodo dragon
b. Gila monster
c. copperhead
d. chameleon
______20. Which snakes kill prey by injecting venom through large, mobile fangs
at the front of the mouth?
a. constrictors
b. elapids
c. vipers
d. monitors
______21. In the diagram, what structure, labeled X, is responsible for the

exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide with the environment?
a. allantois
b. embryo
c. chorion
d. amnion
______22. In the diagram, the membrane

X
labeled Y represents what part
of the amniotic egg?
a. allantois
Y
b. amnion
c. chorion
d. yolk sac

Name Class Date
Reptiles, Chapter Test B continued
______23. Unlike the skin of amphibians, the skin of reptiles

a. has bony scales like those of fishes.
b. is moist, thin, and watertight.
c. is thick, scaly, and not watertight.
d. is thick, scaly, and watertight.
24. Describe the asteroid-impact hypothesis to explain the extinction of the
dinosaurs 65 million years ago.
25. Describe three characteristics of turtles not shared with other reptiles.
26. Explain how a snake is able to swallow something larger than its head.
27. Describe how crocodiles capture their prey.
28. Identify and describe three groups of reptiles that lived during the Mesozoic era.
29. Describe the position and function of the amnion in the reptilian egg.

Name Class Date
Reptiles, Chapter Test B continued

30. Use the simplified schematic diagram of the reptilian circulatory system
below to answer items a–e.
Lungs
2
3
Right
atrium
Body
a. On the above diagram, draw arrows to show the path of blood flow through
the reptilian circulatory system.
b. For each numbered point in the diagram, indicate in the corresponding
blank below whether the blood is oxygenated, deoxygenated, or mixed
when the reptile is at rest.
1. 3.
2. 4.
c. If the ventricles were completely separated at the dotted line, would the
blood at each labeled point be oxygenated, deoxygenated, or mixed?
1. 3.
2. 4.
d. In which order of reptiles are the ventricles completely separated?
e. Under what conditions would diverting blood from the lungs be advanta-
geous to a reptile?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Birds
term or phrase.
______ 1. Anseriformes a. swans, geese and ducks

b. turkeys, chickens, and quails
______ 2. Passeriformes
c. pigeons and doves
______ 3. Columbiformes
d. raptors
______ 4. Struthioniformes e. precocial young
f. used for incubating eggs
______ 5. Ciconiiformes
g. site of shell deposition
______ 6. Psittaciformes
h. ancestral bird with folded wings
______ 7. Galliformes i. adapted to snaring insects in midair
j. parrots
______ 8. Strigiformes
k. owls
______ 9. swift
l. perching songbirds
______10. duck m. ostriches
______11. oviduct
______12. Sinornis
______13. brood patch
______14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Archaeopteryx?

a. shortened, fused tail c. feathers
b. hollow bones d. teeth
______15. Which of the following characteristics is shared by dinosaurs and

modern birds?
a. teeth c. claws on forelimbs
b. furcula d. hollow bones
______16. Hooked structures that project from the barb of a feather are
a. follicles. c. barbules.
b. shafts. d. vanes.

Name Class Date
Birds, Chapter Test B continued
______ 17. Birds in temperate climates usually molt in

a. early spring. c. late summer.
b. early winter. d. late spring.
______18. The pygostyle is part of a bird’s

a. pectoral girdle.
b. beak.
c. flight muscles.
d. spine.
______19. A scientist who studies birds is called a(n)

a. entomologist. c. anthropologist.
b. ornithologist. d. botanist.
Refer to the diagram below to answer questions 20 and 21.
______20. In the diagram, which part of a bird’s digestive system is responsible

for kneading and crushing food?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
______21. In the diagram, what is the name of the organ labeled 1?

a. proventriculus c. gizzard
b. liver d. crop
2
3
1
______22. The vocalizations of songbirds are produced by a structure at the base

of the trachea called a
a. syrinx. c. crop.
b. pygostyle. d. vane.
Name Class Date
______23. Two characteristics of the bird skeleton that are adaptations to flight are
a. hollow bones, keeled sternum
b. non-fused bone, flexible skeleton
c. dense strong bones, keeled sternum
d. absence of bones in wings, presence of furcula
24. Explain the functions of posterior and anterior air sacs in the respiratory
system of a bird.
25. Compare the terms altricial and precocial as they pertain to bird reproduction
and parental care.
26. List three cues birds may use when navigating during migration.
27. How are birds from the orders Strigiformes and Ciconiiformes similar? How
are they different?
28. List four important characteristics of birds.
29. Summarize one hypothesis for the evolution of flight.

Name Class Date

30. Refer to the diagram below to answer items a–e.
b
f
c
d
g
a. Identify each labeled structure in the diagram.
b. Which organ systems are shown in the diagram?
c. Describe two ways that the organ systems shown are adapted for flight
d. In what way does the gizzard compensate for the lack of teeth?
e. What function does the crop serve?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Mammals
term or phrase.
______ 1. Lagomorpha a. flying mammals

b. born at an early stage of development
______ 2. Rodentia
c. mammalian ancestor
______ 3. Monotremata
d. cats, bears, and pinnipeds
______ 4. Carnivora e. hoofed mammals with an even
number of toes
______ 5. Marsupalia
f. evidence of the relationship between
______ 6. Artiodactyla humans and some extinct anthropoids
g. rabbits, hares, and pikas
______ 7. Cetacea
h. egg-laying mammals
______ 8. Chiroptera i. having one hole in the skull
______ 9. synapsid j. largest mammalian order
k. Homo sapiens first evolved in Africa
______10. therapsid
l. exclusively aquatic mammals
______11. prehensile appendage m. grasping tail
______12. bipedalism
______13. recent-African-origin hypothesis
______14. Which of the following characteristics is shared by all mammals?

a. presence of a cecum c. presence of a rumen
b. lactation in females d. viviparous reproduction
______15. Which of the following features is associated with endothermy?

a. specialized teeth c. two-chambered heart
b. single lower jawbone d. diaphragm
______16. Mammals that give birth to live young are described as

a. viviparous. b. oviparous. c. terrestrial. d. omnivorous.
______ 17. The long, pointed nose and sharp teeth of shrews are adaptations for
a diet that is
a. herbivorous. b. carnivorous. c. insectivorous. d. oviparous.

Name Class Date
Mammals, Chapter Test B continued
______18. The adaptation that allows perissodactyls to digest the cellulose of

plant material is called
a. an appendix. c. a rumen.
b. a cecum. d. an intestine.
______19. Which specialized mammalian teeth, responsible for gripping, punctur-

ing, and tearing, are especially long in carnivores?
a. incisors
b. canines
c. premolars
d. molars
______20. Two aquatic orders of mammals include

a. Proboscidea and Sirenia.
b. Primates and Lagomorpha.
c. Edentata and Proboscidea.
d. Sirenia and Cetacea.
Refer to the figures at right to answer questions 21–23.
______21. Which mammal belongs

to the order Marsupalia?
a. Armadillo
b. Monkey
c. Opossum
d. Platypus
______22. Which mammal is Monkey

oviparous?
a. Armadillo
b. Monkey Armadillo
c. Bat
d. Platypus
______23. Which mammal is able

to use echolocation
to find food?
a. Armadillo
b. Monkey
c. Bat Bat
d. Opossum
Platypus
Opossum

Name Class Date
24. How did the extinction of dinosaurs affect mammalian evolution?
25. Describe one similarity and two differences between the orders Artiodactyla
and Perissodactyla.
26. How do the adaptations of mammalian circulatory and respiratory systems

contribute to endothermy?
27. Describe the adaptive features for locomotion that characterize the water-
dwelling cetaceans, sirenians, and pinnipeds. Include examples from each
of the three orders in your answer.
28. Describe one similarity and one difference in the reproduction of

monotremes, marsupials, and placental mammals.
29. List the six important characteristics of mammals.

Name Class Date

30. Use the diagrams of three mammalian skulls below to answer items a–e.
a b c
a. Label each of the above skulls with the name of the order to which it
belongs: Cetacea, Carnivora, or Insectivora.
b. Explain how the features of skull a and skull c are related to each
organism’s diet.
c. Which skull is most like that of a mole? Explain your answer.
d. What is the large comblike structure in skull c called? How is it used?
e. The brain of a mammal is about 15 times heavier than a similarly sized fish,
amphibian, or reptile. What part of the brain accounts for most of this size
difference?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Animal Behavior
term or phrase.
______ 1. stimulus a. toads burrowing into the mud and remaining

dormant during the winter
______ 2. reasoning
b. the goal of all behaviors
______ 3. signal c. the cause of a behavior
______ 4. learning d. scrub jays giving up the opportunity to

reproduce in order to help their sisters
______ 5. survival and raise their young
reproduction e. organization in a wolf pack that reduces
competition and aggressive behavior
______ 6. dominance
hierarchy f. Orcas swimming from California to Alaska
when the salmon spawn
______ 7. social group g. influences the expression of innate and
______ 8. altruism non-innate behaviors
h. humpback whales gathering where abundant
______ 9. circadian rhythm krill are brought to the surface by ocean
currents
______10. migration
i. honeybees tending a hive and scouting for
______11. hibernation food together
______12. optimality j. Canada geese mating for life
hypothesis k. a student going to school during the day
and sleeping at night
______13. monogamy
l. a dog’s growling and snarling
m. a chimpanzee stacking boxes in order to
reach food placed up high
______14. When Konrad Lorenz raised a group of newly hatched goslings,

they showed
a. operant conditioning. c. imprinting.
b. reasoning. d. classic conditioning.
______15. Fixed action pattern behaviors are always

a. innate. c. imprinted.
b. learned. d. taught.

Name Class Date
Animal Behavior, Chapter Test B continued
______16. Reasoning involves

a. using past experiences. c. developing an insight.
b. analyzing a problem. d. All of the above
______ 17. Complex behavior has components that are both genetic and
a. innate. b. learned. c. fixed action. d. imprinted.
______18. Learning that can occur only during a specific period early in the life
of an animal is called
a. conditioning. b. learning. c. innate. d. imprinting.
______19. An animal that is active at night would probably use a signal involving
a. sound. b. color. c. posture. d. movement.
______20. Human infants begin to learn language at about six months of age using
a. classical conditioning. c. trial-and-error.
b. imprinting. d. fixed action pattern behavior.
______21. Which of the following behaviors is most likely innate?

a. earthworms coming out of the ground after a heavy rain
b. a cat responding to the sound of a can opener
c. birds returning to a neighborhood bird feeder
d. a baby taking her first steps
______22. Aggressive behavior can be adaptive in that it

a. reduces competition for mates.
b. results in animals with exaggerated features, such as horns.
c. generally results in the stronger animal breeding.
d. All of the above
______23. Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?

a. a bullfrog that remains hidden in the reeds
b. a bright blue South American frog that is poisonous
c. a viceroy butterfly that resembles a noxious-tasting monarch
d. a spotted fawn that blends into the dappled light of a forest
24. Give an example of an innate behavior and a learned behavior, and explain
the origins of these behaviors.

Name Class Date
25. Why is it important that courtship signals be unique for each species?
26. How does natural selection explain why male lions new to a pride kill the
cubs of other males?
27. Recall that a rat in a Skinner box and a chimpanzee in a room obtained food
that was hidden or placed out of reach. Explain why the rat demonstrated
operant condition and the chimpanzee demonstrated reasoning.
28. Describe two advantages of courtship behavior and give an example.
29. Contrast the costs and benefits of living in a social group.

Name Class Date

30. Use the graphs to answer questions a–c.
Activity Level
Activity Level
Activity Level
12 24 36 48 60 72 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Ja
Ju
Se
N
ov
n
ar
ay
pt
y
Hour Day
Month
b c
a
a. Label each graph with the type of cycle it represents: annual, circadian,
or lunar.
b. Give an example of each of the three cycles represented.
c. Describe the factors that influence cyclical behavior.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Skeletal, Muscular, and Integumentary Systems
term or phrase.
______ 1. cardiac muscle a. tough membrane covering bone

b. bends a joint
______ 2. ligament
c. cell layers covering body surfaces
______ 3. extensor
d. attaches muscle to bone
______ 4. appendicular skeleton e. straightens a joint
f. pumps blood through the body
______ 5. periosteum
g. includes bones in arms and legs
______ 6. epithelial tissue
h. holds the bones of a joint in place
______ 7. tendon
______ 8. flexor
______ 9. The skeletal system

a. protects from infection and disease.
b. provides structure, support, and protection for internal organs.
c. maintains water balance and chemical balance and eliminates
waste products.
d. regulates body temperature and protects the body from pathogens.
______10. The reproductive organs are located within the

a. cranial cavity. c. thoracic cavity.
b. spinal cavity. d. pelvic cavity.
______11. What type of tissue consists of cells that transmit electrical impulses?
a. connective tissue c. nervous tissue
b. epithelial tissue d. muscle tissue
______12. Blood cells are produced in the

a. periosteum. c. epiphyseal plate.
b. bone marrow. d. synovial fluid.
______13. Muscles move bones by

a. pulling them. c. stretching back and forth.
b. pushing them. d. relaxing.

Name Class Date
Skeletal, Muscular, and Integumentary Systems, Chapter Test B continued
______14. An example of a semimoveable joint is a

a. pivot joint. c. hinge joint.
b. saddle joint. d. None of the above
______15. Nails and hair both contain

a. melanin. c. dermal pits.
b. living cells. d. keratin.
______16. Which of the following occurs when a skeletal muscle contracts?

a. The myosin heads remain attached to actin filaments.
b. The myosin filaments overlap.
c. The myosin heads bend outward.
d. The sarcomeres shorten.
______ 17. The skin contains

a. exocrine glands. c. oil glands.
b. sweat glands. d. All of the above
______18. The axial skeleton includes bones of the

a. arms and legs. c. shoulder.
b. skull and spine. d. hips.
______19. The function of the respiratory system is to

a. control gas exchange between the blood and lungs.
b. extract and absorb nutrients from food.
c. defend against pathogens and disease.
d. help regulate body temperature.
______20. Which of the following lists the components of muscle tissue in the
correct order from smallest to largest?
a. actin and myosin filaments, myofibril, sarcomere
b. sarcomere, muscle fiber, myofibril
c. myofibril, muscle fiber, actin and myosin filaments
d. actin and myosin filaments, sarcomere, myofibril
______21. Muscle fatigue and soreness may result when

a. ATP consumption equals ATP production.
b. ATP consumption is less than ATP production.
c. ATP consumption exceeds ATP production.
______22. Bone elongation takes place in an area known as the
a. synovial joint. c. ossification cartridge.
b. epiphyseal plate. d. Haversian canal.
______23. Which of the following results when the immune system attacks body
tissues and causes joints to become deformed?
a. osteoarthritis c. osteocystitis
b. ossification d. rheumatoid arthritis
Name Class Date
24. Briefly describe how a muscle contracts.
25. What are the four primary functions of the skin?
26. Explain the difference between tissues and organs.
27. Distinguish the epidermis from the dermis.
28. Name the two types of bone marrow, and briefly describe the function
of each.
29. Label the three types of joints shown in the diagrams below.
SHOULDER ELBOW WRIST
a b c

Name Class Date

30. Refer to the figure of the human arm below as you answer a–e. Label each
part of the figure in the spaces provided.
a. Is the muscle labeled a a flexor or an extensor?
b. Is the muscle labeled c a flexor or an extensor?
c. Define the term insertion. Where is the insertion of a located?

Where is the insertion of c located?
d. Define the term origin. Where is the origin of a located?

Where is the origin of c located?
e. What type of moveable joint is b?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
term or phrase.
______ 1. left ventricle a. carries oxygen in blood

b. pumps blood into the systemic circulation
______ 2. arteriole
c. produces sounds for communication
______ 3. tricuspid valve d. engulfs microorganisms
______ 4. atrioventricular node e. is an air passageway
f. conducts blood into capillaries
______ 5. lymph node
g. filters components of lymph
______ 6. mitral valve h. relays electrical impulses
______ 7. hemoglobin i. AV valve on the right side of the heart
j. prevents backflow of blood into the left
______ 8. phagocyte
atrium
______ 9. semilunar valve k. prevents backflow of blood into the
ventricles
______10. larynx
______11. trachea
______12. Which compartment of the heart would receive blood flowing in the
wrong direction through a defective mitral valve?
a. right atrium c. right ventricle
b. left atrium d. left ventricle
______13. Which of the following is found in veins but not in arteries?

a. smooth muscle cells c. connective tissue
b. endothelial cells d. valves
______14. Arteries that carry blood with a high concentration of carbon dioxide
are part of
a. the cardiovascular system. c. pulmonary circulation.
b. the circulatory system. d. All of the above

Name Class Date
Circulatory and Respiratory Systems, Chapter Test B continued
______15. The lymphatic system

a. transports blood back to the heart.
b. has veins.
c. connects with systemic circulation.
d. All of the above
______16. Which of the following is NOT a component of blood?

a. platelets c. alveolar cells
b. leukocytes d. red blood cells
______ 17. Which type of cell contains proteins that are important for oxygen
transport?
a. erythrocytes c. platelets
b. leukocytes with nuclei d. alveolar cells
______18. Platelets are required for the formation of

a. lymph. c. red blood cells.
b. blood clots. d. antibodies.
______19. Immediately before entering alveoli, inspired air passes through

a. veins. c. bronchioles.
b. the trachea. d. bronchi.
______20. What determines whether carbon dioxide is absorbed or released

by blood?
a. air pressure within alveoli
b. concentration gradients
c. phagocytes
d. relative amounts of hemoglobin
______21. The diaphragm

a. divides the heart into a right and left side.
b. covers the aortic valve when it is closed.
c. is important for breathing.
______22. Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood cause

a. the breathing rate to decrease.
b. the breathing rate to increase.
c. nerve cells in the cerebrum to increase activity.
d. oxygen levels in the blood to increase and then decrease.
______23. Lymph tissues include all of the following EXCEPT

a. lymph nodes
b. the spleen.
c. blood vessels.
d. tonsils.

Name Class Date
24. Is it important to know the blood type of a blood donor if only the donor’s
plasma will be used? Explain your answer.
25. What prevents backflow of blood as it returns to the heart?
26. What is systemic circulation?
27. Why is mucus important to the normal functioning of the respiratory system?
28. Briefly describe how air is inspired.
29. Identify the labeled structures of the human heart in the diagram below.
c
h

Name Class Date

30. Use the diagram of gas exchange in the lungs below to answer questions a–e.
O2
CO2
BLOOD
Alveolus
Capillary wall
a. In the lungs, what determines the direction of the diffusion of oxygen and
carbon dioxide between the blood and alveoli?
b. In the lungs, is carbon dioxide more concentrated in the alveoli or

in the blood?
c. How does holding your breath affect the concentrations of oxygen

and carbon dioxide in your lungs? Does holding your breath affect
the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide? Explain your answer.
d. What is the function of red blood cells in gas exchange?
e. Most of the carbon dioxide released by cells travels in the blood as

bicarbonate ions. What happens to bicarbonate ions in the lungs?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
The Body’s Defense Systems
term or phrase.
______ 1. phase I a. reaction to harmless antigens

b. stimulates an immune response
______ 2. phase II
c. cell-mediated immune response
______ 3. phase III
d. traps pathogens
______ 4. mucus e. attacks the body’s own cells
f. humoral immune response
______ 5. B cells
g. opportunistic infections develop
______ 6. antigen
h. resistance to a specific pathogen
______ 7. autoimmune disease i. activate lymphocytes
j. B cells make antibodies, but
______ 8. interleukins
T cells decline
______ 9. cytotoxic T cells k. asymptomatic stage
______10. allergy
______11. immunity
______12. Antibodies are produced by

a. T cells. b. plasma cells. c. macrophages. d. antigens.
______13. The skin is an effective nonspecific defense mechanism because it

a. secretes antibodies. c. secretes mucus.
b. releases sweat that contains lysozyme. d. is sterile.
______14. Natural killer cells

a. engulf infected cells.
b. are involved in specific defense mechanisms.
c. puncture cell membranes.
d. produce antibodies.
______15. All components of the immune system

a. are ductless.
b. contain white blood cells.
c. are controlled by the nervous system.
d. filter blood.
Name Class Date
The Body’s Defense Systems, Chapter Test B continued
______16. Cytotoxic T cells are

a. lymphocytes. c. capable of killing cells.
b. white blood cells. d. All of the above
______ 17. In order to be activated, a B cell must recognize its specific antigen and
a. initiate cell division. c. be recognized by interferon.
b. be stimulated by interleukins. d. pass through the thymus.
______18. Which of the following is necessary for immunity?

a. fever above 105°F c. swelling of lymph nodes
b. formation of memory cells d. release of histamines
______19. In the immune system, macrophages

a. stimulate the inflammatory response.
b. display antigens.
c. produce antibodies.
d. stimulate a secondary immune response.
______20. In an immune response, antigens are recognized by

a. neutrophils. c. bacteria.
b. plasma cells. d. cell surface receptors.
______21. AIDS is caused by

a. air borne viruses. c. a DNA virus.
b. a decrease in helper T cells. d. All of the above
______22. Koch developed a procedure for identifying the

a. causative agent for a disease.
b. steps in the inflammatory response.
c. relationship between B and T cells.
d. relationship between AIDS and opportunistic infections.
______23. Which of the following is true about the spleen?

a. It is the largest lymphatic organ.
b. It stores blood cells.
c. It helps to manufacture blood cells.
d. All of the above
24. What is a primary difference between the body’s nonspecific and specific
defenses?

Name Class Date
25. Briefly describe the steps of the inflammatory response.
26. What is a primary characteristic of an autoimmune disease?
27. Why is a vaccine for HIV difficult to develop?
28. Is being infected with HIV the same as having AIDS? Explain your answer.
29. In this graph of an immune response, a b c

during which time period would the
Antibody concentration in blood
first antibodies to the pathogen be

produced? Which period of time would
involve the most rapid division of
B cells? What responses are represented
by these two time periods?
Time

Name Class Date

30. You have been asked to perform an experiment to determine the relationship
between the secretion of interleukins and the presence of various combina-
tions of macrophages, helper T cells, a specific antigen (called A), and an
unknown substance. In your laboratory, you can maintain cells in culture and
simulate interaction between cells and substances that occur in the body. You
have been supplied with the following:
• antigen A
• purified helper T cells that respond to antigen A
• purified macrophages
• an unknown substance
The results of this experiment are shown in the graph below. Use the graph
to answer a–c.
Cell culture constituents
Macrophages and Antigen A
Helper T cells and Antigen A
Macrophages and
Helper T cells
Macrophages and Helper T

cells and Antigen A
Interleukin-1
Macrophages and Helper T
cells and Antigen A and Interleukin-2
Unknown
Amount of interleukin secreted
a. What is required for secretion of interleukin-2 by helper T cells?
b. How does the unknown substance affect secretion of interleukin-2 by helper

T cells?
c. Suggest two possible ways that the unknown substance affects secretion of
interleukin-2.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Digestive and Excretory Systems
term or phrase.
______ 1. fruits a. transport(s) urine to urinary bladder
______ 2. proximal convoluted tubule b. collect(s) blood filtrate

c. secrete(s) bile
______ 3. peristalsis
d. functional unit of kidney
______ 4. molars e. secrete(s) hydrochloric acid
______ 5. grains f. rhythmic muscle contractions

g. mechanical digestion
______ 6. gastric glands
h. reabsorption of glucose
______ 7. liver i. located at the base of the food guide
pyramid
______ 8. ureters
j. excretes carbon dioxide and water
______ 9. scurvy vapor
k. excretes water, salts, and nitrogen
______10. nephron
wastes
______11. Bowman’s capsule l. can result from insufficient vitamin C
______12. skin m. two to four servings per day are

recommended
______13. lung
each statement.
______14. Bile aids the digestion of

a. carbohydrates. c. fats.
b. proteins. d. vitamins.
______15. Which type of nutrient is sodium?

a. vitamin c. mineral
b. protein d. fat
______16. Nonessential amino acids

a. are not needed for protein synthesis.
b. are surplus amino acids that can be excreted.
c. can be produced within the body.
d. All of the above

Name Class Date
Digestive and Excretory Systems, Chapter Test B continued
______ 17. Most absorption within the gastrointestinal tract takes place in the
a. pancreas. c. stomach.
b. small intestine. d. large intestine.
______18. Chemical digestion begins in the

a. mouth. c. stomach.
b. esophagus. d. small intestine.
______19. Lacteals are

a. excellent sources of thiamin.
b. associated with the large intestine.
c. found within the stomach.
d. required for absorption of fatty acids.
______20. The renal medulla is

a. the outermost portion of the kidney.
b. characterized by the absence of nephrons.
c. the location of the loops of Henle.
d. a source of digestive enzymes.
Refer to the diagram at right to answer questions 21–23.
______21. The structure shown in the

diagram is a c
a. villus.
b. nephron.
c. ureter.
d
d. urethra.
______22. In the diagram, most b

reabsorption takes place
at the structure labeled
a. a.
b. b.
c. c.
d. d.
______23. In the diagram, blood is filtered

from the site labeled
a. a.
b. b.
c. c. a
d. d.

Name Class Date
24. What is a nutrient?
25. How are carbohydrates absorbed by the body?
26. Explain why gastric fluid does not harm the stomach.
27. Why is close interaction of the circulatory and urinary systems important?
28. Does the gallbladder secrete bile? Briefly explain your answer.
29. Why is osmotic pressure important for proper kidney functioning?

Name Class Date

30. Refer to the diagram of the human digestive system below to answer a–e.
d
b
e
c
a. Label each structure in the diagram.

b. Which organ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract? What is this organ’s
role in digestion?
c. Distinguish between chemical digestion and mechanical digestion.
d. Describe how nutrients are absorbed into the circulatory system through
the small intestine.
e. What is the role of pepsin in digestion?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Nervous System and Sense Organs
term or phrase.
______ 1. myelin sheath a. conducts action potentials
______ 2. diencephalon b. psychoactive effects include

sensory distortion, hallucinations,
______ 3. synaptic cleft and numbness
c. outer layer of the cerebrum
______ 4. cerebral cortex
d. psychoactive effects include disorientation,
______ 5. sensory receptor confusion, and memory loss
______ 6. spinal reflex e. gap between neurons

f. risks associated with use include lung
______ 7. axon damage and loss of motivation
______ 8. tympanic membrane g. vibrates in response to sound waves
h. examples include tranquilizers and alcohol
______ 9. depressants
i. a neuron that detects stimuli
______10. cocaine j. psychoactive effects include increased
activity of the central nervous system
______11. inhalants
k. an involuntary movement
______12. hallucinogens l. increases speed of an action potential
______13. THC m. contains important relay centers
______14. Spinal nerves are

a. bundles of dendrites.
b. part of the peripheral nervous system.
c. part of the gray matter.
d. only efferent neurons.
______15. Auditory information travels to the

a. brain stem. c. cerebral cortex.
b. thalamus. d. All of the above
______16. Neurons that make up the optic nerve are

a. efferent neurons. c. photoreceptors.
b. motor neurons. d. afferent neurons.

Name Class Date
Nervous System and Sense Organs, Chapter Test B continued
______ 17. The gray matter of the spinal cord does NOT include
a. cell bodies. c. axons.
b. dendrites. d. motor neurons.
______18. When cocaine interferes with reuptake receptors on a

presynaptic neuron, the
a. postsynaptic cell is overstimulated.
b. number of neurotransmitter receptors decreases.
c. excess neurotransmitters remain in the synaptic cleft.
d. All of the above
______19. The peripheral nervous system includes

a. the somatic system.
b. the autonomic system.
c. the sensory division.
d. All of the above
______20. When the voltage across the cell membrane of a neuron is at resting
potential,
a. the inside of the cell is positive relative to the outside.
b. there are more sodium ions outside the cell than inside the cell.
c. the cell membrane is not functioning correctly.
______21. Drug use that alters normal functioning of neurons and synapses
results in
a. addiction. c. tolerance.
b. withdrawal. d. None of the above
______22. Hair cells are

a. located in the middle ear.
b. found in the olfactory epithelium.
c. important for hearing and balance.
d. found in the cerebellar cortex.
______23. The effect of nicotine is similar to acetylcholine in which of the

following ways?
a. It increases blood flow to the hands and feet.
b. It decreases blood pressure and increases heart rate.
c. It increases both blood pressure and heart rate.
d. It raises the oxygen levels in the brain.

Name Class Date
24. Explain the difference between an afferent neuron and an efferent neuron.
25. Briefly explain how the relative concentrations of sodium ions and potassium
ions inside and outside a neuron change during an action potential.
26. Briefly describe how the patellar (knee-jerk) reflex operates.
27. How is taste detected? What type of sensory receptor is involved with the
perception of taste?
28. What is a neurotransmitter?
29. Identify the parts of the neuron that are labeled in the diagram below.

Name Class Date

30. Refer to the graph below to answer a–e.
40
Voltage (in millivolts)

20
0 A B
–20
–40
–60
–80
Time
a. What process is illustrated in the graph?
b. What causes changes in the permeability of a neuron’s cell membrane that

enable this process to occur?
c. What is happening in period A?
d. What is happening in period B?
e. In the period immediately following B, what must occur in the neuron

before another sharp rise in voltage can take place? What is this period
called?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Endocrine System
term or phrase.
______ 1. steroid hormone a. regulated by the hypothalamus

b. stimulates transfer of calcium to bone
______ 2. second messenger
tissue
______ 3. negative feedback c. characterized by insulin deficiency
______ 4. diabetes mellitus d. stimulates bones cells to release calcium
into the blood
______ 5. releasing hormone e. diffuses through target cell membrane
______ 6. pituitary gland f. helps reabsorb sodium ions from fluids
removed by the kidneys
______ 7. exocrine gland
g. secretes its products into ducts
______ 8. epinephrine h. stimulates liver cells to release glucose
into the bloodstream
______ 9. calcitonin
i. last step inhibits the first step
______10. parathyroid hormone j. released by the pineal gland and thought
to be involved in establishing daily
______11. aldosterone
biorhythms
______12. glucagon k. amplifies a hormone signal
l. produced by the adrenal medulla
______13. melatonin
m. produced by neurosecretory cells
______14. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Hormones are transported in the bloodstream.
b. Amino acids can be hormones.
c. Hormones can act without binding to receptors.
d. Hormones influence the activity of distant target cells.
______15. Second messengers are needed for

a. testosterone.
b. amino acid–based hormones.
c. steroid hormones.
d. sex hormones.

Name Class Date
Endocrine System, Chapter Test B continued
______16. Which of the following is directly involved in the action of most amino
acid–based hormones?
a. testosterone
b. cyclic AMP
c. glucose
d. prostaglandins
______ 17. Iodized salt helps prevent goiter by providing iodine for production of
a. thyroxine. c. prostaglandins.
b. oxytocin. d. insulin.
______18. Releasing hormones bind to receptors on

a. posterior-pituitary cells.
b. hypothalamic cells.
c. anterior-pituitary cells.
d. neurons.
______19. Hormones secreted by the parathyroid glands are involved in the

a. metabolism of glucose.
b. metabolism of proteins.
c. regulation of blood glucose levels.
d. regulation of blood calcium levels.
______20. Which of the following endocrine glands secretes hormones that have
major effects on body temperature?
a. testes c. thyroid gland
b. posterior pituitary d. pancreas
______21. The pituitary gland functions in the negative feedback control of

a. norepinephrine secretion.
b. epinephrine secretion.
c. testosterone secretion.
d. All of the above
______22. The islets of Langerhans contain

a. modified neurons that secrete hormones.
b. endocrine cells that are surrounded by exocrine cells.
c. endocrine cells that store glucose.
d. endocrine cells that are controlled by the pituitary gland.
______23. If the pituitary cells are normal, an abnormally high blood concentration
of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) would indicate that
a. the negative feedback mechanism is not working.
b. the negative feedback mechanism is working.
c. too much thyroxine is being secreted.

Name Class Date
24. What are releasing hormones? Give an example of a releasing hormone and
describe its actions.
25. How are positive feedback mechanisms different from negative feedback
mechanisms?
26. What characteristic of feedback mechanisms is common to both steroid

hormones and amino acid–based hormones? Briefly explain your answer.
27. How might a pancreatic islet cell transplant be more advantageous than daily
injections of insulin in treating type I diabetes?
28. What is meant by a “hypoglandular” condition? Give an example of such a

condition.
29. How is the solubility of steroid hormones related to their function?

Name Class Date

30. Refer to the table below to answer a–e.
An 18-year-old male has not experienced puberty. A series of diagnostic tests
to analyze hormone levels was performed, and the results appear in the table
below.
Diagnostic Test Results
Test Result
Measurement of testosterone level in the blood Low testosterone level

Measurement of naturally occurring Low LH level
luteinizing hormone (LH) level in the blood
Injection of LH-releasing hormone into No increase in LH level
the bloodstream followed by measurement
of LH level in the blood
a. According to the data, why has the young man not experienced puberty?
b. What are the two structures or glands that control the endocrine function
of the testes?
c. Considering the test results, which gland is probably the primary cause of
the low testosterone level? Explain your answer.
d. How does testosterone secretion affect LH secretion?
e. If the third test had resulted in an increase in the blood level of LH, what
would be the primary cause of low testosterone levels?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test B
Reproductive System
term or phrase.
______ 1. flagellum a. site of fertilization

b. secretes an alkaline fluid that neutralizes
______ 2. epididymis
traces of urine in the urethra
______ 3. scrotum c. receives ejaculated sperm
______ 4. vas deferens d. secretes an alkaline fluid that neutralizes

the acids in the female reproductive
______ 5. fallopian tube system
e. site of sperm maturation
______ 6. follicle
f. includes the placenta, uterine lining, and
______ 7. vagina amnion
______ 8. placenta g. cells surrounding an immature egg
h. process in which a fetus leaves the
______ 9. prostate gland mother’s body
______10. bulbourethral gland i. passes nutrients from mother to fetus
j. 9-month pregnancy period
______11. afterbirth
k. sperm tail
______12. labor l. transports sperm to urethra
______13. gestation m. temperature is lower than in the
abdomen
______14. The nucleus of a sperm is found in its

a. tail.
b. midpiece.
c. head.
d. chromosomes.
______15. Seminiferous tubules are located within each

a. ovary.
b. seminal vesicle.
c. epididymis.
d. testis.

Name Class Date
Reproductive System, Chapter Test B continued
______16. The secretions of the prostate gland contribute to

a. the completion of meiosis.
b. the production of semen.
c. sperm maturation.
d. the survival of eggs in the uterus.
______ 17. Both eggs and sperm

a. are self-propelled.
b. have the haploid (1n) number of chromosomes.
c. are produced continuously.
d. All of the above
______18. Which of the following secretes estrogen in response to LH stimulation?

a. uterus
b. fallopian tube
c. ovary
d. blastocyst
______19. When the corpus luteum stops secreting progesterone,

a. menstruation can occur.
b. the uterine lining sloughs off.
c. FSH levels can begin to rise.
d. All of the above
______20. At the instant of sperm and egg fusion, which stage of the menstrual
cycle would normally be occurring?
a. ovulation
b. follicular phase
c. menstruation
d. luteal phase
______21. The transformation of a zygote to a blastocyst requires

a. implantation.
b. cleavage.
c. the zygote to be a haploid cell.
d. All of the above
______22. The yolk sac is formed during the

a. first trimester of pregnancy.
b. second trimester of pregnancy.
c. third trimester of pregnancy.
d. formation of an egg.
______23. Which male reproductive organ has functions similar to those of an

ovary?
a. seminal vesicle c. testis
d. penis b. prostate

Name Class Date
24. How is the corpus luteum formed and why is it important to reproduction?
25. Is menopause a phase of the menstrual cycle? Explain your answer.
26. Describe the function(s) of the epididymis.
27. Does each ovary produce one egg per menstrual cycle? Explain your answer.
28. Describe the relationship between the cervix, the vagina, and the uterus.
29. Identify the labeled structures in the diagram below. What process is
illustrated by the diagram?

Name Class Date

30. Use the diagram below to answer a–e.
a
a. Identify the labeled structures in the diagram. What events are illustrated
by the diagram?
b. Blood levels of three hormones rise sharply before this event. What are
these hormones?
c. How does structure b affect the uterine lining?
d. What occurs immediately after the complete degeneration of structure b?
e. Trace the path of the egg after it leaves the ovary, assuming fertilization
does not occur.

TEACHER RESOURCE PAGE
Answer Key
The Science of Life The Science of Life
Chapter Test A (General) Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1. c 8. f 1. f
2. g 9. c 2. c
3. e 10. c 3. h
4. h 11. d 4. d
5. a 12. b 5. g
6. d 13. a 6. e
7. b 7. a
14. cell 8. b
15. tissues, organs, organ systems 9. hypothesis
16. homeostasis 10. division, enlargement
17. reproduction 11. electron
18. closely 12. Magnification, resolution
19. evolution 13. Derived units
20. stimulus 14. d
21. metabolism 15. b
22. Scientists can use information in an 16. a
article in a scientific publication to 17. a
develop or modify their own hypothe- 18. d
ses. They can also use the information 19. b
to repeat the experiments and confirm 20. d
the author’s results. Science journals 21. b
provide a means of communication for 22. d
scientists all over the world. 23. c
23. A knowledge of biology is important 24. diversity and unity of life; interdepend-
so that you can make informed personal ence of organisms; evolution of life
decisions about your health, your 25. organization and cells; response to
environment, and the way you live. stimuli; homeostasis; metabolism;
Pollution, new technologies, the growth and development; reproduction;
world’s food supplies, and curing change through time
diseases are all problems that affect 26. No; scientists use scientific methods in
human society. It is important to be a way that is best suited to answer the
scientifically informed about these questions they ask.
issues. 27. Communication allows scientists to
24. Because all living things need energy build on the work of other scientists.
to grow, move, and interpret informa- Scientists publish their findings in
tion, there must be a mechanism by journals or present them at
which organisms obtain this energy conferences.
and use it. Metabolism is the sum of 28. The SI is a universal, standardized
all the chemical reactions an organism form of measurement that allows
uses to carry out life. scientists to compare results.
25. Because no organism lives forever, 29. organizing and analyzing collected
reproduction ensures the continuation data
of a species. If organisms did not
reproduce, their species would soon
disappear.

Holt Biology 405 Answer Key
30. (a) about 24 hours (b) Medium B is dissolved. The concentration is the
(c) Medium A (d) The descending part amount of solute in a fixed amount of
of the curves represents a decline in the solution.
the growth rate over time because of 27. Acids have a sour taste and are highly
the depletion of nutrient media. corrosive in concentrated forms.
(e) The growth rate should eventually Bases have a bitter taste and tend
reach zero for the bacteria in both to feel slippery.
media. 28. The pH scale is a system of comparing
the relative concentrations of hydro-
Chemistry of Life nium ions and hydroxide ions in a
solution. Its values range from 0 to 14,
Chapter Test A (General)
1. a 12. f with values less than 7 denoting acid-
2. a 13. a ity and those greater than 7 denoting
3. a 14. e alkalinity.
4. d 15. h 29. atomic mass: 14; atomic number: 6
5. b 16. b 30. (a) pepsin (b) trypsin (c) The liquid
6. d 17. d must become alkaline. (d) According
7. d 18. c to the graph, enzymes function best at
8. d 19. g certain pH levels. (e) No; according to
9. c the graph, a low pH is required for
10. b pepsin to function, and a high pH
11. c is required for trypsin to function.
20. polar, nonpolar
21. hydrogen, covalent Biochemistry
22. water Chapter Test A (General)
23. hydronium
24. sodium ions, chloride ions 1. c 11. e
25. catalyst 2. c 12. h
3. a 13. c
4. b 14. b
Chemistry of Life 5. c 15. f
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 6. a 16. d
1. d 12. a 7. c 17. g
2. g 13. a 8. d 18. j
3. f 14. b 9. b 19. a
4. e 15. b 10. i
5. h 16. a 20. A—carbohydrate; B—lipid; C—protein
6. a 17. d 21. Carbohydrates such as the monosac-
7. b 18. b charide glucose shown here are found
8. c 19. a in cells as a source of energy (glu-
9. a 20. d cose), as energy storage molecules
10. c 21. d (glycogen and starch), or as structural
11. d 22. a molecules (cellulose). Lipids such as
23. c the fatty acid shown here are found in
24. In redox reactions, electrons are trans- cells as energy storage molecules
ferred between atoms, so the reactions (fats) or in cell membranes as struc-
always occur together. tural molecules (phospholipids).
25. In living things, enzymes act as catalysts Proteins are found in cells as enzymes
to speed up chemical reactions. and structural proteins in the body
26. A solute is the substance that is (hair, muscles).
dissolved in a solution. A solvent
is the substance in which the solute

Modern Biology 406 Answer Key
22. Organic compounds are composed 28. The polar, hydrophilic heads of phos-
primarily of carbon atoms (have a pholipids comprise the interior and
carbon backbone) covalently bonded exterior surfaces of the cell mem-
to other elements—typically hydrogen brane, and the nonpolar, hydrophobic
and oxygen. tails of phospholipids form the middle
23. Living things require energy for all of the cell membrane.
of the processes of life. Energy is 29. (from left to right) alternating double
required for the chemical reactions bonds between carbons; CH2 CH2;
that make up an organism’s metabo- CH2 C(CH3) CH CH2
lism. Organisms also use a great deal 30. a. disaccharide; b. fatty acid; c. water;
of energy to maintain homeostasis. d. dipeptide; e. nucleotide
24. ATP is the main energy currency of
cells. Cell Structure and Function
25. Cholesterol is needed by the body for Chapter Test A (General)
nerve and other cells to function. It is
also a component of cell membranes. 1. c 9. c
2. e 10. d
Biochemistry 3. b 11. d
4. a 12. c
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 5. d 13. b
1. e 13. b 6. d 14. b
2. h 14. c 7. b 15. d
3. f 15. a 8. a 16. d
4. g 16. c 17. cell theory
5. a 17. b 18. flagella
6. c 18. c 19. cytoskeleton
7. b 19. a 20. rough
8. d 20. d 21. proteins
9. i 21. b 22. DNA contains information about
10. d 22. c heredity. DNA determines the charac-
11. a 23. a teristics of a cell, and it directs the
12. b 24. c cell’s activities.
25. Monomers link to form polymers 23. Small cells can exchange substances
through a condensation reaction. more readily than large cells can
Hydrolysis is a reversed condensation because small objects have a higher
reaction and causes the breakdown of surface area-to-volume ratio. As a
complex molecules. result, substances do not need to
26. A monosaccharide is a simple sugar travel as far to reach the center of
that is a monomer of carbohydrates. A a smaller cell.
disaccharide consists of two monosac- 24. Mitochondria harvest energy from
charides bonded together. A polysac- organic compounds to make ATP.
charide consists of at least three 25. The cytoskeleton is a network of thin
bonded monosaccharides. protein tubes and filaments that criss-
27. The shape of a protein is determined cross the cytosol. They give shape to
by the way the protein’s amino acids the cell from the inside and act as a
interact with one another. Amino acid system of internal tracks on which
interactions can cause a protein to items move around inside the cell.
bend or fold. Protein shape can also
be influenced by temperature and the
type of solvent in which a protein is
dissolved.

Cell Structure and Function Homeostasis and

Chapter Test B (Advanced) Cell Transport
1. g 13. b Chapter Test A (General)
2. e 14. a 1. e 11. b
3. f 15. c 2. i 12. c
4. c 16. c 3. h 13. d
5. h 17. d 4. f 14. c
6. d 18. b 5. a 15. d
7. a 19. d 6. b 16. d
8. b 20. d 7. c 17. b
9. b 21. c 8. g 18. b
10. c 22. a 9. d 19. c
11. d 23. d 10. d 20. a
12. c 21. energy
24. (1) All living things are composed of 22. passive transport
one or more cells. (2) Cells are the 23. equilibrium
basic units of structure and function in 24. active transport
an organism. (3) Cells come only from 25. carrier proteins
the reproduction of existing cells.
25. Answers will vary. Skin cells are flat Homeostasis and
and platelike for covering and protect-
ing the body’s surface. Nerve cells are Cell Transport
specialized for transmitting nerve Chapter Test B (Advanced)
impulses. 1. d 12. a
26. Answers include the following: eukary- 2. b 13. b
otes contain a membrane-bound nucleus 3. h 14. c
and other organelles; prokaryotes do 4. g 15. d
not. 5. f 16. b
27. a. secondary cell wall; b. central 6. a 17. c
vacuole; c. nucleus; d. chloroplast; 7. c 18. b
e. primary cell wall. f. The central 8. e 19. a
vacuole, chloroplast, and cell wall 9. c 20. d
are found in plants but not in animals. 10. b 21. b
28. Answers include the following: The 11. d 22. b
nucleus contains DNA and RNA. 23. The rigid cell walls of plants prevent
Ribosomes are synthesized and them from expanding too much as the
partially assembled in the nucleolus. cells take in water through osmosis.
The contents of the nucleus are Some unicellular eukaryotes have
enclosed by the nuclear envelope. contractile vacuoles that collect
RNA is synthesized in the nucleus excess water and pump it out of the
and then passes into the cytoplasm cell. Many animal cells increase the
through pores in the nuclear envelope. water concentration inside the cell by
29. A colonial organism is a collection of removing dissolved particles from the
genetically identical cells that live cytoplasm to maintain homeostasis. If
together in a closely connected group. cells are not able to prevent excess
It is thought that multicellular organisms water from entering the cell, they may
arose from a colonial ancestor. expand and eventually burst.
30. a. plasma membrane; b. mitochondria; 24. passive: diffusion, osmosis, and
c. cytoplasm and other organelles facilitated diffusion; active: sodium-
potassium pump, endocytosis, and
exocytosis

25. Ink molecules at a high concentration 25. The energy used in the Calvin cycle is
in the water would move to an area of supplied by the ATP and NADPH that
lower concentration by a process are produced in the first stage (light
called diffusion. reactions) of photosynthesis.
26. Carrier proteins do not need to provide
additional energy in facilitated diffusion Photosynthesis
because substances move down their Chapter Test B (Advanced)
concentration gradients.
27. Ions cross the cell membrane by pass- 1. f 5. g
ing through proteins known as ion 2. a 6. c
channels. 3. h 7. b
28. During a cycle of the sodium-potassium 4. e 8. d
pump, three sodium ions are actively 9. Calvin cycle
transported out of the cell and two 10. photosynthesis
potassium ions are actively transported 11. pigments, thylakoids
into the cell. 12. II, I
29. In endocytosis, cells ingest external 13. water
substances by folding the cell mem- 14. d 19. c
brane inward to form a vesicle. In 15. a 20. b
exocytosis, cells release substances 16. c 21. c
by the fusion of a vesicle with the cell 17. a 22. d
membrane and the expulsion of the 18. a 23. c
vesicle’s contents into the extracellular 24. Each chloroplast is surrounded by a
environment. pair of membranes. Inside the inner
30. a. endocytosis; b. diffusion through membrane is a system of membranes
ion channels; c. passive diffusion; arranged as flattened sacs called
d. sodium-potassium pump; thylakoids. Thylakoids are layered
e. facilitated diffusion; f. exocytosis; in stacks called grana, and they are
g. endocytosis, sodium-potassium surrounded by a solution called the
pump, and exocytosis stroma.
25. Four electrons become available to
Photosynthesis replace those lost by chlorophyll mole-
cules in photosystem II. Protons remain
Chapter Test A (General) inside the thylakoid, while oxygen
1. g 11. k diffuses out of the chloroplast.
2. f 12. c 26. Energy from excited electrons is used
3. d 13. b to pump a high concentration of protons
4. a 14. a into the thylakoid. These protons then
5. c 15. c flow into the stroma and down their
6. j 16. d concentration gradient, providing the
7. b 17. c energy to drive the conversion of ADP
8. e 18. d into ATP, which is catalyzed by ATP
9. i 19. c synthase.
10. h 20. a 27. Most of the G3P is converted back
21. carbon dioxide into RuBP, but some G3P is used to
22. electrons make organic compounds.
23. slower (less) 28. CAM plants take in carbon dioxide at
24. No, the rate of photosynthesis will night and release it into the Calvin
increase with temperature up to a cycle during the day. CAM plants lose
certain point, beyond which tempera- less water than either C3 or C4 plants.
ture becomes too high for cellular 29. It means that the rate of photosynthe-
enzymes to function properly. When sis does not increase when the CO2
the temperature exceeds this point, the concentration exceeds a certain level.
rate of photosynthesis will decrease.
30. a. primary electron acceptor; b. primary 26. Much of the energy originally contained
electron acceptor; c. photosystem II; in glucose is held in pyruvic acid.
d. electron transport chain; e. photo- 27. Oxaloacetic acid regenerates coenzyme
system I; f. electron transport chain; A when it reacts with acetyl CoA to
g. ATP synthase form citric acid in step one of the
Krebs cycle. Coenzyme A is needed to
Cellular Respiration begin the Krebs cycle again.
28. The electrons react with oxygen to
form water.
1. g 10. d 29. the mitochondrial matrix; NADH and
2. f 11. b FADH2
3. d 12. d 30. a. glycolysis; b. lactic acid fermentation;
4. a 13. b c. alcoholic fermentation; d. Krebs
5. c 14. d cycle; e. electron transport chain
6. b 15. c
7. e 16. d Cell Reproduction
8. i 17. b
9. h 18. d
19. NAD 1. f 10. b
20. phosphate 2. e 11. d
21. ATP, oxygen 3. h 12. b
22. glycolysis 4. i 13. c
23. Krebs cycle 5. a 14. c
24. aerobic 6. c 15. b
25. In cells deprived of sufficient oxygen 7. d 16. d
for aerobic respiration, pyruvic acid 8. g 17. a
will undergo fermentation to recycle 9. j 18. b
NAD. This recycled NAD is needed 19. During anaphase, the spindle fibers
to continue making ATP through help to separate the chromatids by
glycolysis. dragging them to the opposite poles
of the cell.
Cellular Respiration 20. Crossing-over results in the exchange
Chapter Test B (Advanced) of genetic material between maternal
and paternal chromosomes. This
1. c 13. b results in genetic recombination
2. g 14. a because a new genetic mixture is
3. a 15. d created.
4. h 16. d 21. Sexual reproduction creates genetic
5. f 17. b recombinations that may change the
6. d 18. c characteristics of the organisms. If
7. e 19. a there has been a change in environ-
8. b 20. b mental conditions that would require
9. c 21. b an adaptation by the organism, the
10. b 22. c new combinations of genes might
11. a 23. d enable a species to adapt rapidly to
12. d new conditions.
24. Two ATP molecules are used in step 22. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis both
one. produce gametes. Spermatogenesis
25. When muscle cells are involved in occurs in males in the testes; oogene-
strenuous exercise and the body cannot sis occurs in females in the ovaries.
supply them with oxygen rapidly Spermatogenesis results in four
enough to carry out aerobic respiration, haploid sperm cells. Oogenesis results
lactic acid fermentation will occur. in one haploid ovum and three polar
bodies, which eventually die.
23. In asexual reproduction, a single par- 28. Spermatogenesis yields four sper-
ent passes copies of all of its genes to matids. Oogenesis yields one egg cell
each of its offspring. In contrast, in and three polar bodies.
sexual reproduction, two parents each 29. Independent assortment is the random
form reproductive cells (gametes) that separation of the homologous chromo-
have one-half the number of chromosomes. It results in genetic variation.
somes. These gametes join to form a 30. a. metaphase (3); b. cytokinesis (6);
diploid offspring. c. prophase (2); d. telophase (5);
24. Animal cells lack cell walls. In animal e. interphase (1); f. anaphase (4);
cells, the cytoplasm is divided when g. mitosis; two diploid cells are
a cleavage furrow pinches the cell in produced
half. In plant cells, the Golgi apparatus
forms vesicles that fuse in a line along Fundamentals of Genetics
the center of the cell and form a cell Chapter Test A (General)
plate. A new cell wall then forms on
each side of the cell plate. 1. F2
25. Each chromosome is a single molecule 2. Pp and pp
of DNA wrapped tightly around histones. 3. 3:1
The DNA-histone coils are coiled 4. self-pollinate, true-breeding
further to pack the DNA into a 5. 1:2:1
chromosome. 6. a 15. c
7. c 16. b
Cell Reproduction 8. a 17. c
9. b 18. d
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 10. b 19. e
1. e 5. d 11. b 20. b
2. g 6. b 12. a 21. d
3. h 7. f 13. c 22. a
4. a 8. c 14. d 23. c
9. cell cycle 24. Mendel calculated an approximate 3:1
10. DNA synthesis ratio of contrasting traits. He derived
11. interphase this ratio by counting plants express-
12. microtubules ing each type of trait he was compar-
13. cancer ing. Using division, he found that the
14. copied ratio of plants expressing the domi-
15. b 20. b nant trait to plants expressing the
16. a 21. a recessive trait was about 3:1.
17. c 22. c 25. The law of segregation states that the
18. d 23. d two factors for a trait are separated
19. c 24. c during the formation of gametes. The
25. A prokaryote would have a circular law of independent assortment states
molecule of DNA attached to the inner that the factors for two different traits
surface of the plasma membrane. A separate independently of one another
eukaryote would contain the following during the formation of gametes. We
structures at some stage of cell division: now know that this is true only when
nucleus, centrosome, mitotic spindle, the genes for the two traits are located
kinetochore fibers, polar fibers, indi- far apart on the same chromosome or
vidual rod-shaped chromosomes, on separate chromosomes.
nucleolus, and other organelles.
26. Meiosis results in haploid cells. The
cells produced during meiosis differ
genetically from the original cell.
27. Diagrams should include G1, S, G2, M
(mitosis), and C (cytokinesis) phases.
Fundamentals of Genetics 30. (a) The Punnett square represents a

dihybrid cross because two traits are
Chapter Test B (Advanced) tracked. (b) both parents are QqTt (c)
1. g 12. d QQTT, QQTt, QQtt, QqTT, QqTt, Qqtt,
2. e 13. c qqTT, qqTt, qqtt (d) 1/16 QQTT: 2/16
3. b 14. d QqTT: 2/16 QQTt: 4/16 QqTt: 1/16 QQtt:
4. h 15. c 2/16 Qqtt: 1/16 qqTT: 2/16 qqTt: 1/16
5. c 16. b qqtt (e) 9/16 with smooth, green seeds;
6. d 17. b 3/16 with wrinkled, green seeds, 3/16
7. f 18. a with smooth, yellow seeds, and 1/16
8. a 19. b with wrinkled, yellow seeds
9. a 20. b
10. b 21. a DNA, RNA, and
11. a 22. b Protein Synthesis
23. Mendel produced true-breeding plants
by allowing plants to self-pollinate.
He cross-pollinated plants pure for 1. h 11. l
contrasting traits (P generation). He 2. g 12. k
allowed the flowers from the F1 gener- 3. c 13. c
ation to self-pollinate to produce the 4. a 14. b
F2 generation. 5. b 15. a
24. Probability equals the number of times 6. i 16. c
an event is expected to happen divided 7. e 17. a
by the number of times an event could 8. j 18. c
happen. 9. d 19. b
25. In incomplete dominance, two or more 10. f 20. b
alleles influence the phenotype, result- 21. A gene’s instructions for making a
ing in a phenotype intermediate protein are transferred from DNA to
between the dominant trait and the mRNA during the process of transcrip-
recessive trait, as with four o’clock tion. In translation, tRNA, rRNA, and
flowers. In codominance, both alleles ribosomes use the instructions on the
are expressed in a heterozygous off- mRNA to put together the amino acids
spring, as in human blood types. that make up the protein.
26. Use a test cross. Cross the purple- 22. RNA consists of a single strand of
flowering plant (PP) with a white- nucleotides instead of the two strands
flowering plant (pp). Students should that form the DNA double helix. RNA
draw a Punnett square for each of the nucleotides have the five-carbon sugar
following genotypes: PP and Pp. ribose rather than the sugar deoxyri-
27. Students should predict that 100 bose found in DNA nucleotides. RNA
percent of the offspring will be nucleotides have a nitrogenous base
heterozygous for fruit color. called uracil instead of the base
28. Students should predict a thymine found in DNA nucleotides.
1YY : 2Yy : 1yy. 23. DNA helicases are enzymes that sepa-
29. Mendel allowed each variety of garden rate the strands of the double helix of
pea to self-pollinate for several genera- the DNA molecule. The separation is
tions, selecting plants from each gen- accomplished by breaking the hydrogen
eration that exhibited one form of a bonds that link the complementary
trait. He did this until all of the off- bases.
spring of a given variety produced 24. a piece of double-stranded DNA
only one form of a particular trait. 25. A–hydrogen bonds; B–sugar-phosphate
chain; C–nitrogenous base

DNA, RNA, and 28. (1) Helicases separate the two strands
of DNA at replication forks. (2) DNA
Protein Synthesis polymerases construct a complemen-
Chapter Test B (Advanced) tary chain one nucleotide at a time.
1. f (3) Replication ends with two identical
2. c copies of the original DNA molecule.
3. g 29. Radioactive elements were used
4. h because they can be followed or
5. b traced. They were used to locate the
6. e genetic material of bacteriophages
7. a after they infected bacteria.
8. d 30. (a) guanine, cytosine, adenine, and
9. translation thymine (b) Guanine pairs with cyto-
10. anticodons sine; adenine pairs with thymine.
11. uracil (c) Yes; the percentage of cytosine is
12. transforming agent or genetic material about the same as the percentage of
13. RNA polymerase guanine, and the percentage of thymine
14. codons is about the same as the percentage of
15. b adenine. (d) Yes; DNA of vastly different
16. b organisms contains the same four
17. b nucleotides. (e) 34.7 percent; the
18. c percentage of uracil should match
19. c the amount of thymine because
20. d uracil replaces thymine in mRNA.
21. a
22. c Gene Expression
23. a Chapter Test A (General)
24. In transcription, RNA is produced
from DNA. In translation, polypeptides 1. homeotic gene
are assembled from information in 2. DNA chip
mRNA. 3. malignant
25. DNA is a double helix formed from 4. metastasis
nucleotides that have deoxyribose and 5. mutation
a phosphate group as the backbone. 6. repressor protein, off
The bases of DNA are cytosine, gua- 7. RNA polymerase
nine, thymine, and adenine. RNA is 8. eukaryotes
formed from nucleotides that have 9. carcinogen
ribose and a phosphate group as the 10. tumor
backbone. The bases of RNA are 11. b
cytosine, guanine, adenine, and uracil. 12. d
26. These codons mark the beginning and 13. c
ending of a gene that is being translated. 14. b
27. mRNA is a single, uncoiled chain of 15. a
nucleotides that carries genetic infor- 16. a
mation from the nucleus to the site of 17. d
translation in eukaryotes. tRNA consists 18. d
of nucleotides folded into a hairpin 19. c
shape and binds to amino acids. rRNA 20. b
consists of nucleotides in a globular 21. When present in prokaryotic cells,
form. Along with proteins, rRNA lactose binds to the repressor protein
makes up ribosomes. and changes the protein’s shape. The
repressor prevents RNA polymerase
from binding to the promoter. The

change in shape releases the repressor. 18. c
With the blocking effect eliminated, 19. b
the transcription of genes that code 20. c
for lactose-metabolizing enzymes 21. d
proceeds. 22. a
22. Introns are long segments of nucleotides 23. c
in eukaryotic genes with no coding 24. By controlling gene expression and
information. After transcription, making only needed proteins, cells
enzymes remove introns from the conserve resources.
mRNA molecule before the mRNA is 25. The diagram shows transcription of
transcribed. DNA into pre-mRNA and of pre-mRNA
23. Many eukaryotic genes are interrupted into mRNA in the nucleus of a eukary-
by segments of non-coding DNA called otic cell. Structures labeled A represent
introns. The segments of DNA that are introns, and those labeled B represent
expressed are called exons. After tran- exons.
scription, exons are joined together 26. Cancer cells divide when densely
and then translated. packed or when they are no longer
24. Transcription factors are regulatory attached to other cells; they continue
factors, which control mostly tran- to divide indefinitely.
scription in eukaryotes. In eukaryotes, 27. Mutations could affect the regulatory
an enhancer must be activated for a abilities of these genes, allowing cells
gene to be expressed. Transcription to multiply uncontrolled and leading
factors initiate transcription by binding to cancer.
to enhancers and to RNA polymerases. 28. In Drosophila, homeotic genes deter-
25. The lac operon consists of a cluster of mine where certain anatomical struc-
genes that enables a bacterium to tures will develop.
build the proteins needed for lactose 29. The genomes of eukaryotes are larger
metabolism only when lactose is than those of prokaryotes and are
present. Some of the genes determine located on several chromosomes
whether or not other genes will be rather than on a single circular
expressed; the other genes code for chromosome.
enzymes that break down lactose. 30. (a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 7 (d) 5 (e) 4 (f) 1 (g) 3
Gene Expression Inheritance Patterns and

Chapter Test B (Advanced) Human Genetics
1. d Chapter Test A (General)
2. g 1. a
3. h 2. a
4. a 3. d
5. c 4. b
6. e 5. c
7. f 6. d
8. b 7. c
9. RNA polymerase 8. c
10. operator 9. polygenic inheritance
11. repressor protein 10. genetic disorders
12. transcription factors 11. recessive
13. introns 12. map units
14. c 13. Y
15. c 14. g
16. a 15. a
17. d 16. d

17. i 19. c
18. f 20. a
19. c 21. c
20. b 22. c
21. e 23. a
22. h 24. Hemophilia is caused by a recessive
23. Some traits are controlled by several X-linked gene. Thus, a female would
genes rather than by only one. Each have to receive two copies of the gene
gene contributes to the final gene to express the disease. Males only
expression. have one X chromosome, so the allele
24. Most sex-linked characteristics are is always expressed if it is present.
carried as alleles on the X chromosome. 25. The principle of independent assort-
A male would express a sex-linked ment states that genes separate inde-
recessive trait if he gets the gene for pendently during the formation of
the trait from his mother. He cannot get gametes. Genes that are linked remain
an X chromosome from his father. A together during the formation of
female would have to get the gene for gametes.
the recessive trait on both of the X 26. Chromosome mutations are changes
chromosomes she receives—the one in the structure of a chromosome or
from her mother and the one from her loss of an entire chromosome. Gene
father. mutations may involve large segments
25. An individual with cystic fibrosis has of DNA or a single nucleotide.
two copies of a defective gene that 27. Multiple-allele traits are controlled by
makes a protein necessary to pump three or more alleles of the same gene
chloride into and out of cells. The air- that code for a single trait. Polygenic
ways of the lungs of these individuals traits are controlled by two or more
become clogged with thick mucus. different genes.
Treatments can relieve some of the 28. The chromosome map sequence is A—
symptoms, but there is no cure for this C—B with five map units between A
disorder. and C, 15 map units between C and B,
and 20 map units between A and B.
Inheritance Patterns and 29. A sex-linked trait is controlled by a
Human Genetics gene found on a sex chromosome.
Because of sex hormones, a sex-
Chapter Test B (Advanced) influenced trait is expressed differ-
1. d ently in men and women who have
2. f the same genotype.
3. a 30. (a) The pedigree should be completed
4. e according to the information about
5. h cystic fibrosis in the family. (b) A pos-
6. c sible key may include the following:
7. g = male noncarrier; = female
8. b noncarrier; = male with cystic fibro-
9. Down syndrome sis; = female with cystic fibrosis;
10. Somatic-cell = male carrier; = female carrier.
11. nucleotides (c) A child born to the F2 son with
12. Polygenic, genes fibrosis and a female noncarrier
13. environment, genes would be a carrier of the trait.
14. Y chromosome
15. 35
16. d
17. c
18. b

Gene Technology Gene Technology

Chapter Test A (General) Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1. a 1. d
2. b 2. e
3. d 3. f
4. c 4. g
5. d 5. a
6. a 6. h
7. a 7. b
8. d 8. c
9. a 9. another species
10. c 10. complementary
11. DNA fingerprint 11. insulin
12. plasmids 12. polymerase, nucleotides, primers
13. clones 13. 20,000
14. restriction enzymes 14. d
15. probes 15. d
16. complementary, sticky 16. b
17. b 17. c
18. d 18. d
19. e 19. a
20. a 20. a
21. c 21. d
22. Answer should include any three of 22. d
the following: made crop plants more 23. b
tolerant of environmental conditions, 24. A cloning vector is used to clone the
more resistant to weed-controlling gene for insulin and then transfer it to
herbicides, less susceptible to insect another organism. An insulin gene is
damage, resistant to certain diseases, isolated from a human cell and then
and more nutritious. transferred to a host organism via a
23. Goats have been altered and cloned cloning vector. The host organism
to produce milk that contains human receives the recombinant DNA.
blood-clotting factors. Pig organs have 25. Gene therapy is the treatment of a
been altered so they do not trigger genetic disorder by introducing a gene
organ rejection if transplanted into into a cell or by correcting a gene
human recipients. Animals are being deficit in a cell’s genome. It differs
cloned as models for the study of from traditional treatments in that it
human disease, such as cystic fibrosis. attempts to correct the gene defect
24. DNA fingerprints are used in paternity that causes the disorder.
cases, in forensics, and in the identifi- 26. DNA fingerprinting has been used to
cation of the genes that cause genetic compare samples of blood or tissue
disorders. found at a crime scene with those of a
25. Gel electrophoresis uses an electrical suspect, and it has been used to deter-
field within a gel to separate DNA frag- mine whether two individuals are
ments by their size and charge, allow- related.
ing the fragments to be identified. 27. DNA fingerprints are very accurate
because they compare segments of
DNA that tend to vary the most
between individuals. If all 13 sites are
used, the odds of two people having
the same profile is smaller than the
number of people on Earth.

28. Advantages include the development decayed by 60,000 years. More accurate
of safer, more-effective vaccines and measurements of older samples can
pharmaceutical products and products be made using isotopes with longer
that will improve agricultural yields. half-lives.
Disadvantages include the development 21. The control group consisted of open
of superweeds and the possibility that jars containing meat; in the experimen-
genetically engineered crops will harm tal group, the jars were covered by net-
the environment. ting. The independent variable was the
29. a. 3; b. 1; c. 4; d. 2 presence of adult flies; the dependent
30. (a) Labeled diagrams should resemble variable was the appearance of maggots.
the similar image in the chapter text. 22. Critics held that Spallanzani had boiled
(b) Restriction enzymes are used to cut his flasks of broth too long, destroying
DNA at specific sites within nucleotide the “vital force” in the air. Pasteur’s
sequences. The pieces of DNA that are flasks remained open to the air.
cut by these enzymes can bind with 23. Microspheres or coacervates—or
DNA from another source that has structures like them—can grow and
been cut with the same restriction might have contained early self-repli-
enzyme. (c) hydrogen bonds (d) The cating RNA molecules.
restriction enzyme would cut the DNA 24. The shapes of both depend on the
at a different nucleotide sequence, and sequences of their nucleotide compo-
the sticky ends would not match. nents and on the hydrogen bonds
between those nucleotides.
History of Life 25. Chloroplasts are thought to have
originated as photosynthetic bacteria
Chapter Test A (General) that were engulfed by a larger, non-
1. d 14. c photosynthetic cell. Similarly, mito-
2. e 15. c chondria are thought to have
3. a 16. d originated as aerobic bacteria.
4. c 17. b 26. 4 billion
5. b 18. c 27. spontaneous generation
6. d 19. d 28. upper atmosphere
7. d 20. b 29. archaebacteria
8. b 21. b 30. (a) water (b) water vapor, or steam (c)
9. b 22. a electrode; it provides energy to start
10. d 23. b chemical reactions (simulates light-
11. c 24. c ning) (d) H2O, or water vapor, H2, CH4,
12. a 25. b and NH3 (e) organic compounds
13. b
Theory of Evolution
History of Life Chapter Test A (General)
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 1. b 14. b
1. g 11. b 2. c 15. d
2. e 12. a 3. c 16. c
3. h 13. d 4. b 17. d
4. a 14. d 5. c 18. a
5. f 15. b 6. b 19. e
6. d 16. c 7. d 20. b
7. b 17. a 8. b 21. g
8. c 18. b 9. c 22. i
9. c 19. b 10. c 23. j
10. a 11. a 24. h
20. The half-life of carbon-14 is relatively 12. a 25. f
brief (5,730 years) so most of it has 13. d
Theory of Evolution Population Genetics

Chapter Test B (Advanced) and Speciation
1. g 13. b Chapter Test A (General)
2. f 14. c 1. c 10. c
3. e 15. b 2. e 11. c
4. h 16. b 3. a 12. a
5. b 17. c 4. b 13. a
6. a 18. d 5. d 14. c
7. c 19. b 6. b 15. c
8. d 20. a 7. d 16. d
9. l 21. d 8. b 17. c
10. i 22. d 9. b
11. k 23. b 18. Stabilizing selection results in fewer
12. j individuals in a population that have
24. Lamarck wrongly suggested that alleles promoting extreme types.
organisms acquired traits that helped Individuals become more similar, and
them survive and that they passed these genetic diversity decreases.
traits to offspring. He was correct in 19. The three major ways that genotypic
observing that populations change variation occurs are by mutations, by
over time. recombination during meiosis, and by
25. Sample answer: Darwin observed the random pairing of gametes.
species in many different areas which 20. disruptive selection
had similar body forms and occupied 21. The extreme traits of body color are
similar habitats; he also observed being selected for.
many similar species of finches on the 22. The allele frequency is calculated by
Galápagos Islands with beaks adapted dividing the number of a certain allele
to different foods. by the total number of alleles of all
26. The breeding of animals by humans— types in the population.
artificial selection—is similar to natu- 23. no net mutations occur, individuals
ral selection in that it modifies the neither enter or leave the population,
genetic material of a species over gen- large population, individuals mate ran-
erations. It is different in that humans, domly, and selection does not occur
rather than the environment, select the 24. Genetic drift is when allele frequen-
traits to be amplified. cies in a population change as a result
27. Newer forms of organisms are actually of chance or random events.
the modified descendants of older 25. Allopatric speciation occurs when
species. species form as a result of geographic
28. The environment selects traits that isolation. Sympatric speciation occurs
increase an organism’s fitness, that is, when species form as a result of
its reproductive success. reproductive isolation in the same
29. same general body shape; backbone; geographic area.
tail; eye; homologous arm/wing and leg
30. (a) A is the oldest; C is the youngest.
(b) yes (c) Species A and B and species
B and C are most closely related;
species A and C are least closely
related.

Population Genetics choose to mate with males based on

certain traits.
and Speciation 30. (a) stabilizing (b) disruptive (c) about
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 6.0 cm in 1940; about 3.25 and 8.0 cm
1. c 12. c in 1980 (d) The fish prefers medium-
2. f 13. b size (4 cm–7 cm long) leeches
3. a 14. a (e) Answers will vary. For example,
4. h 15. b fish in captivity could be offered a
5. e 16. c number of leeches ranging from
6. b 17. b 1 cm to 10 cm long, and the fishes’
7. d 18. d preferences could be noted.
8. g 19. c
9. a 20. a Classification of Organisms
10. b 21. d Chapter Test A (General)
11. c
1. c 11. c
22. In a small population, an individual
2. d 12. c
accounts for a relatively large fraction
3. d 13. d
of the total number of alleles. Thus,
4. a 14. c
the reproductive success of an
5. b 15. d
individual can have a large impact on
6. d 16. e
allele frequencies in the population.
7. a 17. a
23. no net mutations; no immigration or
8. b 18. b
emigration; large population; random
9. b 19. f
mating; no selection
10. d 20. c
24. Gene flow results in changes in allele
21. Animalia
frequencies.
22. Archaebacteria
25. The graphic representation of a trait
23. Fungi
in a population is a bell-shaped curve
24. Eukarya
because the average form of the trait
25. Eubacteria
is found in most members, while
extreme forms of the trait are found
in few members. Classification of Organisms
26. In punctuated equilibrium, a species Chapter Test B (Advanced)
does not change for a long period of
1. b 13. i
time but then changes rapidly over a
2. h 14. c
short period of time. In gradual evolu-
3. f 15. a
tionary change, a species changes
4. d 16. d
slowly and steadily over a long period
5. g 17. c
of time.
6. e 18. b
27. allele frequencies: R = 10/16 = 0.625;
7. c 19. d
r = 6/16 = 0.375; phenotype frequencies: 8. a 20. a
red = 3/8 = 0.375, pink = 4/8 = 0.5,
9. m 21. d
white = 1/8 = 0.125
10. l 22. d
28. Morphological species are classified
11. k 23. c
based on the internal and/or external
12. j
structure and appearance of an organ-
24. kingdom, phylum/division, class,
ism. Biological species are classified
order, family, genus, species
by whether a group of organisms can
25. Aristotle grouped organisms as plants
successfully interbreed, but cannot
and animals, as did Linnaeus. Aristotle
breed with other groups.
also grouped organisms by habitat.
29. To be in genetic equilibrium, indivi-
Linnaeus grouped morphologically
duals in a population must only mate
related organisms into a seven-level
randomly. In sexual selection, females
hierarchy.
26. Kingdom Protista includes all eukary- 24. Energy is always lost when it is trans-
otes that are not plants, animals, or ferred from one trophic level to the
fungi. It contains unicellular and next.
multicellular organisms that lack 25. Producers capture from the sun all the
specialized tissues. energy for an ecosystem.
27. A cladogram for a group of organisms
represents one possible interpretation Introduction to Ecology
for the evolutionary relationships Chapter Test B (Advanced)
between the organisms in the group
being investigated. 1. d 11. a
28. Animals that have similar embryologi- 2. f 12. c
cal development probably shared a 3. g 13. b
relatively recent ancestor. 4. h 14. b
29. In the three-domain system, domain 5. a 15. c
Archaea consists of kingdom 6. c 16. b
Archaebacteria; domain Bacteria is 7. b 17. c
composed of kingdom Eubacteria; and 8. e 18. b
domain Eukarya is composed of king- 9. c 19. b
doms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and 10. d
Animalia. The three-domain system is 20. A trophic level indicates an organism’s
based on comparisons of rRNA, which position in a sequence of energy
indicates how long ago any two organ- transfer levels in an ecosystem that
isms shared a common ancestor. is occupied by one or more types of
30. (a) This divergence might have been organisms. An organism’s trophic level
caused by a decreased availability of is determined by its source of food.
food preferred by the ancestral birds. 21. Models help ecologists understand the
(b) Insects probably were a more environment and make predictions
plentiful food source than cactus. about how it might change. Models are
(c) Their beaks are adapted for cracking limited in their applications because
seeds. (d) A cladistic taxonomist might they cannot account for every variable
use evidence of shared derived charac- in an environment.
ters, such as a beak shape that differed 22. A species with a broad niche can live
from that of an ancestor. (e) analyses in a variety of places and can use a
of genetic material variety of resources.
23. biosphere, ecosystem, community,
Introduction to Ecology population, and organism
24. Trees, grass, animals, flowers, and all
Chapter Test A (General) other living components are biotic
1. d 12. b factors. Sunlight, seasonal changes,
2. a 13. c storms, fires, and earthquakes are
3. b 14. b some examples of abiotic factors.
4. c 15. d 25. Each is a response that allows
5. d 16. f organisms to avoid unfavorable
6. b 17. g environmental conditions.
7. b 18. d 26. A regulator could tolerate a wider
8. c 19. a range of environmental conditions,
9. d 20. b because their internal conditions are
10. b 21. c kept at the optimal range over a wide
11. c 22. e range of external conditions.
23. Without bacteria and fungi, dead 27. photosynthesis and chemosynthesis
organisms would not decompose, and 28. The three major processes in the
the nutrients within their bodies water cycle are evaporation, precipita-
would be unavailable to other living tion, and transpiration. Evaporation is
organisms. the change from liquid water to water
vapor and adds water to the atmos- Populations
phere. Precipitation is the process by
which water vapor leaves the atmos-
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
phere as rain, snow, fog, sleet, etc. 1. d 12. c
Transpiration is the process by which 2. g 13. b
plants take in water through their 3. e 14. d
roots and release water through their 4. h 15. a
leaves. 5. f 16. d
29. Carbon is converted from an inorganic 6. a 17. d
form into an organic form during 7. b 18. c
photosynthesis. 8. c 19. b
30. (a) It is a tolerance curve that repre- 9. b 20. b
sents plant growth under varying 10. d 21. c
temperatures. (b) No; improvement 11. a
in growth will not be observed. Both 22. When viewed up close, the individuals
plants are outside their temperature in a population may be evenly spaced.
tolerance range. (c) Plant 2 would When viewed from farther away, how-
begin to grow faster and plant 4 ever, the individuals may be found to
would exhibit slowed growth. be clustered around a food or water
source.
Populations 23. Density-independent limiting factors
Chapter Test A (General) reduce the population by the same
amount, regardless of its size. Examples
1. a 8. c include weather, floods, and fires.
2. c 9. a Density-dependent limiting factors
3. d 10. c place greater limits on population
4. e 11. c growth as the population density
5. b 12. b increases. Examples include limited
6. c 13. c resources, such as food.
7. b 14. b 24. The death rate decreased.
15. population size, population density, 25. The country probably has more young
age structure, and dispersion people than old people.
16. exponential growth 26. The country probably has more old
17. Population B has the greater potential people than young people.
for rapid population growth because 27. Type I
of the high percentage of people of 28. Type III
reproductive age. Population A will 29. Type II
most likely have a higher death rate 30. Solve the proportions as follows:
than population B, due to the high T t
percentage of older people in
N
n, Tn tN
population A. 6 3 72
18. Density-dependent (a) = , 6(12) 3N, N,
N 12 3
19. Life expectancy N 24 ferrets
20. emigration 6 6 72
21. limiting factor (b) = , 6(12) = 6N, N,
N 12 6
22. inbreeding N 12 ferrets (half of the original estimate)
23. more (c) No; t would equal zero, incorrectly
24. developed indicating an infinite number of
25. demographic transition ferrets.

Community Ecology 28. Following retreat of the last glaciers,

only barren rock and till remained.
Chapter Test A (General) Freezing and thawing gradually broke
1. a 14. e the rock into smaller pieces. Lichens
2. a 15. f eventually colonized the barren rock
3. d 16. a and released minerals from the rock,
4. b 17. i forming a thin layer of soil that
5. a 18. b enabled small grasslike plants and
6. d 19. c shrubs to grow.
7. b 20. d 29. Species richness is the number of
8. c 21. j species in the community, while species
9. c 22. g evenness is the relative abundance of
10. b 23. interspecific competition each species.
11. b 24. parasitism 30. (a) plots with both ants and rodents
12. d 25. disturbance (b) The seed density did not change
13. h significantly. (c) The seed density
greatly increased (almost tripled).
Community Ecology
Chapter Test B (Advanced) Ecosystems
1. c 13. a
2. f 14. d 1. c 12. b
3. e 15. c 2. a 13. d
4. d 16. b 3. b 14. f
5. g 17. c 4. c 15. a
6. h 18. d 5. c 16. g
7. b 19. a 6. b 17. h
8. a 20. d 7. a 18. c
9. i 21. b 8. a 19. i
10. j 22. b 9. b 20. e
11. d 23. b 10. d 21. b
12. c 11. a 22. j
24. Thorns, tough leaves, and toxins, such 23. permafrost
as strychnine and nicotine, protect 24. intertidal zone
plants from herbivorous predators by 25. Biomes
providing structures or chemicals that
discourage the herbivores from eating Ecosystems
the plants. Chapter Test B (Advanced)
25. These two species are competitors.
Chthamalus stellatus grows best in 1. e 12. d
areas exposed to prolonged dry 2. g 13. b
periods. Under these conditions, 3. h 14. a
Chthamalus outcompetes Semibalanus 4. b 15. d
balanoides. Semibalanus usually 5. f 16. c
grows best underwater. Under these 6. d 17. b
conditions, it outcompetes 7. c 18. d
Chthamalus. 8. a 19. d
26. commensalism; mutualism 9. j 20. b
27. Humans are reducing the size of natu- 10. i 21. a
ral habitats. This reduction causes a 11. c
decrease in the number of species 22. The different terrestrial biomes are
(species richness) that can be sup- distinguished by the characteristic
ported in these habitats. This is the plants and animals that occur, but
species-area effect. most are identified by their dominant
plant life.
23. The three types of grasslands are Humans and the

temperate grasslands, savannas, and
chaparral. Temperate grasslands are
Environment
characterized by thick, rich soils, with Chapter Test A (General)
dense, tall grasses in moist areas and 1. b 8. d
short grasses in drier areas. Savannas 2. c 9. b
have dry, thin, porous, and nutrient- 3. a 10. d
poor soils, with tall grasses and scat- 4. d 11. a
tered trees. Chaparral areas have 5. c 12. f
thick, rocky, nutrient-poor soil, with 6. b 13. e
evergreen shrubs and scattered trees. 7. b 14. c
24. Trees are rare because of the short 15. hydrosphere
growing season and because the 16. biodiversity
permafrost doesn’t allow the tree 17. extinction
roots to penetrate down into the soil. 18. smog
25. The forest floors of tropical rain forests 19. keystone
are relatively free of vegetation because 20. Sample answer: Knowledge of ecology
little sunlight can penetrate the thick is an essential tool to solving environ-
forest canopy down to the forest floor. mental problems. Individuals can take
26. Organisms that live in the intertidal steps to conserve energy such as by
zone must be able to tolerate periodic using bicycles or public transportation
exposure to air and avoid dehydration. and by recycling or other conservation
They must also be able to withstand efforts.
the force of strong waves. 21. Sustainability is the desired condition
27. Freshwater wetlands are important of the relationship between humans
because they filter pollutants out of and the environment. It means the wise
the water that flows through them, use of renewable resources in a way
they provide spawning grounds for that will enable the human population
many economically important species, to survive indefinitely.
they are important stopovers for 22. Acid precipitation began to be produced
migratory birds, they are home to when industries and cars began to
many endangered species, and they release air polluntants that combined
control flooding. with water vapor in the atmosphere to
28. Tropical rain forests are located near form acidic precipitation. Such sources
the equator and have year-round grow- of air pollution did not exist 200 years
ing seasons, abundant precipitation, tall ago.
trees, and the highest species richness 23. Many species offer possible benefits to
of all biomes. Temperate deciduous humans, and we could lose our chance
forests are located farther from the to learn about these species. For
equator and have pronounced seasons, example, plant and animal species
lower annual precipitation, and lower are used as food and medicine.
species richness than tropical rain 24. Since 1960, the levels of carbon dioxide
forests do. in the atmosphere and the average
29. Lakes and ponds are characterized global temperature have both risen
as either eutrophic or oligotrophic. steadily. The correlation of increasing
Eutrophic lakes and ponds are rich temperatures with increasing carbon
in organic matter and vegetation. dioxide levels is very close. Many
Oligotrophic lakes and ponds contain scientists believe that the two are
little organic matter. related. However, correlation does
30. (a) savanna, (b) tropical forest, not prove cause and effect. Both
(c) temperature: approximately 6º C global temperature and levels of
to 5º C; precipitation: approximately 0 greenhouse gases may be changing
cm to 200 cm, (d) approximately 125 cm because of other variables that have
to 450 cm. not yet been recognized.
25. The ozone layer protects life on Earth taking steps to protect its biodiversity.
from ultraviolet radiation from the sun. In ecotourism, natural areas are
preserved in order to attract tourist
Humans and the business.
29. Some problems that have been faced
Environment in the attempt to reintroduce whoop-
Chapter Test B (Advanced) ing cranes include the low genetic
1. c 13. l diversity of the species; the need to
2. d 14. a recreate aspects of the crane’s behavior,
3. b 15. d such as the courtship dance, to insure
4. g 16. c that the birds will successfully mate;
5. h 17. c and the need to teach the young
6. e 18. c cranes the migration route using small
7. a 19. b aircraft. Other problems include the
8. f 20. d need to protect the crane’s habitat
9. m 21. d along the entire migration route.
10. i 22. a 30. (a) release of chemicals into the envi-
11. k 23. c ronment (b) increased atmospheric
12. j carbon dioxide levels and global warm-
24. The greenhouse effect has a positive ing (c) biodiversity (d) debt-for-nature
effect on life on Earth. Without the swaps or ecotourism (e) conservation
greenhouse effect Earth would be too efforts (f) reintroducing the whooping
cold to support life as we know it. crane
25. A thinning of the ozone layer would
allow more ultraviolet radiation to Bacteria
reach Earth’s surface, possibly result- Chapter Test A (General)
ing in an increase in mutations, such
as those that cause skin cancer, in 1. b 12. d
humans and other organisms. 2. d 13. d
26. Upper atmospheric ozone levels are 3. d 14. c
expected to decrease. Atmospheric 4. c 15. h
carbon dioxide levels are expected to 5. b 16. g
increase. Global temperature is 6. b 17. b
expected to increase. Undeveloped 7. d 18. a
land areas are expected to decrease, 8. c 19. f
and various natural resources, such as 9. a 20. d
clean water, fossil fuels, and forested 10. d 21. e
areas, are expected to decrease. 11. a 22. i
27. Humans have caused biodiversity to 23. any four of the following: cholera,
decrease by causing extinctions of tooth decay, anthrax, Lyme disease,
other species, through pollution, over- botulism, gonorrhea, tuberculosis,
hunting, and habitat destruction from food poisoning
activities such as mining, agriculture, 24. Bacteria can be identified and classified
and construction. However, humans by their shapes, by their reaction to
have also tried to protect and restore Gram staining, by their biochemical
biodiversity in some cases. properties, and by their evolutionary
28. Both debt-for-nature swaps and eco- relationships.
tourism originated to help conserve 25. Bacteria secrete exotoxins into their
biodiversity in poor countries. In a environment. These toxins, which are
debt-for-nature swap, a richer country poisonous to eukaryotic cells, can
or private organization pays some of cause disease. Bacteria also produce
the debts of a poorer country in endotoxins, which are released when
exchange for the poorer country’s the cell dies.

Bacteria Viruses
Chapter Test B (Advanced) Chapter Test A (General)
1. h 4. b 1. d 10. c
2. g 5. f 2. c 11. h
3. e 6. c 3. b 12. b
7. d 4. c 13. e
8. a 5. b 14. g
9. obligate anaerobes 6. a 15. f
10. eukaryotes, bacteria 7. d 16. a
11. pink 8. c 17. d
12. antibiotic resistance 9. b
13. domains 18. virus
14. b 19. living cells or host cells
15. d 20. DNA, RNA
16. c 21. prions
17. c 22. macrophage or immune
18. b 23. any four of the following: chickenpox;
19. a influenza; smallpox; colds; hepatis B,
20. d C, and D; AIDS.
21. c 24. Viruses cause disease in many living
22. b organisms and therefore have a major
23. d impact on the living world.
24. Answers include food production or 25. The first viruses may have evolved from
processing by fermentation, digestion of early cells, since viruses need host cells
proteins in foods, digestion of carbohy- for replication. Early viruses may have
drates in foods, production of industrial been naked pieces of nucleic acid from
and organic chemicals and fuels in min- early cells. Over time, a protective
ing and petroleum recovery, and the protein coat evolved.
cleanup of chemical and oil spills.
25. Chemoautotrophs extract energy from Viruses
chemicals taken from the environment, Chapter Test B (Advanced)
while photoautotrophs harvest energy
from sunlight. 1. d 5. b
26. Recombination is a nonreproductive 2. g 6. c
means by which bacteria acquire new 3. f 7. a
combinations of genes. Recombination 4. h 8. e
includes transformation, conjugation, 9. cells
and transduction. 10. lysozyme
27. Bacteria cause disease by secreting 11. mutates
endotoxins or exotoxins and by 12. shingles
destroying body tissues. 13. oncogene
28. The overuse of antibiotics has encour- 14. a 19. c
aged the evolution of resistant strains 15. b 20. c
of bacteria. 16. b 21. c
29. a. spirillum; b. bacillus; c. coccus 17. a 22. a
30. (a) Pili allow bacteria to adhere to 18. c 23. b
surfaces and enable conjugation. 24. Because viruses depend on cells in
(b) The cell wall protects and gives order to replicate, it is thought that
shape to bacteria. (c) The chromosome viruses were probably pieces of
carries genetic information. nucleic acid that were able to travel
(d) Plasmid contains genes obtained from one cell to another.
through genetic recombination.
(e) Flagella enable movement.
25. A virulent virus undergoes the lytic 13. Phytoplankton

cycle and causes disease by invading a 14. holdfast, stipe, blade
host cell, producing new viruses, 15. sporozoite, merozoite
destroying the host cell, and then 16. pseudopodia
releasing the newly formed viruses. A 17. amoeba
temperate virus replicates via the lyso- 18. flagellum
genic cycle and does not kill the host 19. mastigophoran or euglenoid
cell immediately. 20. cilia
26. No; viruses do not have all of the 21. ciliate
characteristics of life, such as cells, 22. The kingdom Protista is considered
metabolism, homeostasis, growth, the most diverse kingdom because its
and reproduction. members are classified by exclusion.
27. a. glycoprotein; b. capsid; c. RNA Eukaryotes that cannot be classified
genome; d. reverse transcriptase; as fungi, plants, or animals are classified
e. envelope as protists.
28. Viroids and prions are like viruses in 23. Possible answers include the follow-
that they cause disease, are very small, ing: amebiasis through contaminated
and are not composed of cells. Viroids food or water, giardiasis through
are composed of RNA only, prions are contaminated food or water, sleeping
made of protein only, and viruses sickness through the bite of an
contain DNA or RNA and protein. infected tsetse fly, leishmaniasis
29. When humans enter previously undevel- through sand flies, and cryptospordiosis
oped habitats, they may come into through contact with feces from
contact with animals that carry previ- infected animals.
ously unknown viruses and become 24. In the second stage of the life cycle of
infected through contact. This contact Plasmodium, merozoites infect the
may cause infection and spread of the host’s red blood cells and divide rap-
disease. idly. In about 48 hours, the blood cells
30. (a) When the virus was temperate, its rupture, releasing more merozoites
DNA became integrated into the host’s and toxic substances into the host’s
genome. During viral replication, parts body and initiating a cycle of chills and
of the bacterial genome were probably fever. The cycle repeats itself every 48
replicated with the viral genome and hours as new blood cells are infected.
integrated into the viral capsid during 25. Protists produce large amounts of
assembly. (b) The lysogenic cycle oxygen and organic matter; they help
begins with the attachment of the recycle materials; they form the foun-
virus to a host cell, injection of viral dation of food webs. Protists also cause
DNA into the host cell, and integration serious diseases in humans and live-
of the viral DNA into the host genome. stock. The cost of treating infected
As the host cell multiplies, the viral livestock is passed on to consumers.
DNA is also replicated and included in
each offspring cell. (c) a. 2; b. 5; c. 1; Protists
d. 4; e. 3 Chapter Test B (Advanced)
Protists 1. g 5. h
2. c 6. a
Chapter Test A (General) 3. f 7. b
1. b 6. d 4. d 8. e
2. d 7. c 9. organelles
3. c 8. c 10. micronuclei
4. c 9. d 11. phytoplankton
5. b 10. c 12. holdfast, stipe, blade
11. endosymbiosis 13. liver, red blood cells
12. Diatoms
14. c 19. a 15. ascus

15. a 20. b 16. digestive enzymes
16. d 21. d 17. mycelium, hyphae
17. a 22. d 18. zygosporangia, asci, basidia
18. c 23. d 19. infections or diseases
24. A motile protozoan; it is able to move 20. gills, basidia
toward food sources and to escape 21. yeasts
harsh environments. 22. hyphae
25. Algae constitutes one of the primary 23. crustose
energy sources in aquatic ecosystems. 24. A mycorrhiza is a relationship between
Known collectively as phytoplankton, a fungus and the roots of vascular
they form the base of nearly all marine plants. The fungus transfers minerals
and freshwater food chains. from the soil to the plant. The plant
26. A protist is any member of kingdom provides the fungus with carbohydrates.
Protista. A protozoan is a protist that A lichen is a relationship between a
moves without cilia or flagella. fungus and a photosynthetic partner
27. (from left to right) sexual; asexual such as an alga, a cyanobacterium, or
28. Rhodophyta and Phaeophyta; Seaweeds both. The fungus, usually an
are large, multicellular algae that store ascomycete, protects the photosyn-
food as carbohydrates, live in marine thetic partner and provides it with
environments, and have structures mineral nutrients. The photosynthetic
that resemble leaves, stems, and partner provides the fungus with
roots of plants. Most other algae carbohydrates.
are unicellular. 25. Fungi are thought to have arisen from
29. Pseudopodia are cytoplasmic exten- unicellular endosymbiotic prokaryotes
sions that enable ameboid movement. about 460 million years ago.
Cilia beat in synchronized strokes,
causing the protist to rotate on its Fungi
axis. The rapid whipping motion of Chapter Test B (Advanced)
flagella pushes or pulls the protist
through water. 1. d 5. a
30. (a) a. anal pore; b. gullet; c. cilia; d. 2. f 6. h
oral groove; e. food vacuole; f. pellicle; 3. c 7. g
g. contractile vacuole (b) Ciliophora; 4. e 8. b
Paramecium (c) Cilia sweep food 9. deuteromycotes
down the oral groove to the mouth 10. chitin
pore and into the gullet, which forms 11. dikaryotic
food vacuoles that circulate through- 12. prokaryotes
out the cytoplasm. The food is then 13. aflatoxin
digested, and waste exits from the 14. a
anal pore. 15. b
16. c
Fungi 17. b
18. b
Chapter Test A (General) 19. d
1. d 7. a 20. d
2. b 8. d 21. d
3. d 9. d 22. c
4. b 10. b 23. b
5. a 11. c 24. Some fungi produce sporangiospores
6. d 12. d on the tips of stalked sporangiophores;
13. organic matter some fungi produce conidia on the
14. spore tips of stalklike conidiophores; some
fungi produce cells that dry and
fragment off from the parent hyphae; The Importance of Plants
and some fungi produce new cells
(spores) by budding.
25. A gametangium is a single cell that 1. d 12. c
contains a haploid nucleus of one 2. c 13. d
mating type. A zygosporangium is 3. d 14. f
a structure that forms when two 4. b 15. j
gametangia of compatible mating 5. a 16. a
types merge and their nuclei fuse 6. c 17. g
to form a zygote. 7. d 18. i
26. Mycorrhizae are symbiotic associations 8. b 19. e
between a fungus and the roots of a 9. c 20. b
plant. They increase mineral uptake 10. b 21. h
from the soil by plants and thus 11. b 22. c
promote plant growth. 23. Quinine
27. Fungi are primarily multicellular, while 24. nut
most protists are unicellular; fungi are 25. root crops
heterotrophic, while plants are
autotrophic; fungi are nonmotile, The Importance of Plants
while animals are motile. Chapter Test B (Advanced)
28. When the environment is favorable,
asexual reproduction ensures a rapid 1. e 12. b
spread of the species. When the envi- 2. d 13. a
ronment is unfavorable, sexual repro- 3. c 14. d
duction enables genetic 4. g 15. c
recombination, increasing the likeli- 5. h 16. c
hood that offspring will survive in the 6. b 17. a
environment. 7. f 18. d
29. Both are reproductive structures of 8. a 19. d
fungi, are composed of dikaryotic 9. c 20. c
hyphae, and are large and easily visible. 10. d 21. a
The basidiocarp has basidia, which 11. a
produce basidiospores. The ascocarp 22. Answers will vary but may include
has asci, which produce ascospores. medicines derived from plants, clothing
30. (a) The hypothesis is that symbiotic fibers, fuels, and any other nonfood
organisms can grow where the uses of plants.
individual organisms cannot grow. 23. Answers include the use of irrigation,
(b) location; diameter of organism fertilizers, and pesticides; improvements
(c) In location 1, the lichen grew well, in cultivars; farm machinery; food
but the fungus and the alga grew preservation techniques; and methods
poorly. In location 2, the lichen grew of controlling diseases, weeds, and
well, but neither the fungus nor the pests.
alga survived. In location 3, all three 24. Scientists hope to find sources of new
organisms grew well. (d) The hypoth- medicines in wild plants that have not
esis is supported by the results; yet been researched, such as those
lichens grow where neither the fungus growing in the tropics.
nor the component alga can grow. 25. Water hyacinth grows in dense popula-
(e) Lichens contribute to ecological tions, impedes the passage of boats,
succession by producing soil from shades underwater plants, and
bare rock. consumes oxygen in the water.
26. The insect on the left can harm the
plant by eating it, and the plant might
benefit from an insecticide. The insect

on the right can benefit the plant by 23. Seeds protect the plant embryo before
pollinating it. Eliminating the pollinator it starts to grow and nourish it during
with an insecticide could affect the early growth. Seeds help disperse, or
plant’s reproduction. spread, the embryos of seed plants,
27. Answers will vary but may include thus reducing or eliminating competi-
nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, iron, tion for resources between parent and
magnesium, oxygen, carbon dioxide, offspring. Finally, seeds make it possi-
and water. ble for plant embryos to wait until
28. Answers will vary, but could include environmental conditions are favor-
tobacco, cocaine, alcohol, opium, poi- able before beginning to grow.
son ivy, poison oak, holly, mistletoe, 24. Fruit that smells sweet when ripe is
and various types of pollen. likely to attract animals who will eat
29. rice—cereal, nutmeg—spice, the fruit. The seeds inside the fruit will
oregano—herb, zucchini—vegetable, then be dispersed when they pass
lentils—legume, sweet potato—root undigested from the animals’ bodies.
crop, and pear—fruit. 25. Some flowers, such as roses, have
30. (a) tofu (b) millet (c) No; legumes are brightly colored petals or strong scents.
high in isoleucine and lysine, while These characteristics attract insects
grains are high in tryptophan, cysteine, and other animals that carry pollen and
and methionine. therefore increase the likelihood of
cross-pollination. Other flowers, such
Plant Evolution and as garden peas, are adapted for self-
Classification pollination. The flowers of oaks and
grasses have small greenish flowers
Chapter Test A (General) that are adapted for wind pollination.
1. d
2. a Plant Evolution and
3. b Classification
4. a
5. c Chapter Test B (Advanced)
6. b 1. e 5. g
7. b 2. f 6. a
8. d 3. h 7. b
9. b 4. c 8. d
10. c 9. sporophyte, gametophyte
11. d 10. gymnosperms
12. c 11. fiddleheads, fronds
13. b 12. Bryophyta, Hepatophyta, and
14. alternation, generations, sporophyte, Anthocerophyta
gametophyte 13. strobilus
15. water, nutrients 14. c
16. protect, nourish 15. a
17. Xylem 16. c
18. nonvascular 17. d
19. angiosperms 18. b
20. bryophytes 19. a
21. pterophyta 20. c
22. Like all nonvascular plants, mosses 21. d
require a film of water for fertilization 22. b
to occur because the sperm must 23. c
swim to the egg. In vascular plants 24. The primary function of spores and
with seeds (such as roses), sperm are seeds is to protect and disperse the
able to reach and fertilize eggs without plant’s reproductive cells.
swimming through a film of water.
25. Green algae require water for disper- 24. Organic compounds move from a
sal of reproductive structures, and source, where they are made or
they lack protection from water loss stored, to a sink, where they are used.
and structural support. Leaves and roots are sources. Roots,
26. Nonvascular plants must live near stems, and developing fruits are sinks.
water because they lack means of 25. Sugar from a source enters the phloem
transporting water and require water by active transport. This increases the
for sexual reproduction. sugar concentration in the phloem and
27. Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts are causes water to enter the phloem cells
bryophytes. They are mostly terres- from the xylem by osmosis. Pressure
trial; live in moist environments; are builds up inside the phloem and forces
nonvascular; lack true roots, leaves, the sugar through the phloem. Sugar
and stems; and have an alternation of then moves from the phloem into a
generations life cycle. sink by active transport.
28. Coniferophyta; seed plants
29. Their leaves are needle-shaped and Plant Structure and Function
have a small surface area. Chapter Test B (Advanced)
30. (a) meiosis (b) spores; haploid;
mitosis (c) gametes (eggs and sperm); 1. d 13. a
haploid (d) fertilization (e) zygotes; 2. c 14. b
seed 3. f 15. d
4. g 16. a
Plant Structure and Function 5. a 17. d
6. e 18. c
Chapter Test A (General) 7. h 19. b
1. c 8. b 8. b 20. a
2. a 9. d 9. j 21. d
3. c 10. c 10. i 22. c
4. d 11. d 11. k 23. b
5. d 12. b 12. d
6. a 13. d 24. The function of tracheids is to trans-
7. d 14. c port water and minerals.
15. c 25. The lateral meristems of plants are
16. leaves the vascular cambium and the cork
17. Collenchyma cambium. They cause secondary
18. storage growth.
19. mesophyll, ground 26. Root hairs, branch roots, and mycor-
20. stomata, transpiration rhizal associations increase the
21. xylem, phloem, ring absorbing surface area of roots.
22. air spaces 27. Water moves from the soil to the
23. Most stomata open during the day and epidermis, cortex, endodermis, and
close at night. When epidermal cells of pericycle of the vascular cylinder,
leaves pump potassium ions into guard and then into the xylem.
cells, water moves into the guard cells 28. Guard cells; they accumulate potassium
by osmosis. This water influx make ions and water, which causes them to
the guard cells swell, which causes swell and bow apart, forming a stoma.
them to bow apart and form a pore. In leaves, stomata regulate the
During darkness, potassium ions are exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen
pumped out of the guard cells. Water and water loss.
then leaves the guard cells by osmosis, 29. Carbohydrates are actively transported
causing the guard cells to shrink and into sieve tubes, and water enters the
the pore to close. sieve tubes by osmosis. Osmotic
pressure pushes the carbohydrates

into adjacent sieve tubes and to parts 23. The pollen tube links a pollen grain
of the plant that lack carbohydrates. with an ovule. Each grain contains two
Carbohydrates are then actively sperm that travel through the tube to
transported out of the sieve tubes the ovule. One sperm fuses with the
into storage or energy-requiring cells. egg and forms the zygote. The other
30. (a) gas exchange; occurs through sperm fuses with two other haploid
stomata (b) photosynthesis; occurs nuclei and develops into the
primarily in palisade mesophyll cells endosperm. The zygote and the
of leaves (c) translocation; occurs in endosperm develop into a seed,
sieve tubes of roots, stems, and leaves which grows into a new sporophyte.
(d) water pulled upward; occurs in 24. Many plants produce structures that
tracheids and vessel elements of roots, can grow into new plants. Some exam-
stems, and leaves (e) transpiration; ples are bulbs, corms, rhizomes, and
occurs through stomata tubers, which are modified stems.
Pieces of roots, stems, and leaves may
Plant Reproduction also grow into new plants.
Chapter Test A (General) 25. The stolon of a strawberry plant is a
horizontal runner or aboveground
1. b 8. d stem that can produce leaves and
2. a 9. b roots at its nodes. When the runner
3. c 10. a node reaches the ground it will grow
4. b 11. d roots and leaves to produce a new
5. d 12. b strawberry plant.
6. c 13. c
7. d Plant Reproduction
14. gametophytes, pistil
15. pollen, pollen tube, ovule
16. cotyledon 1. e 13. d
17. sepals, petals, stamens, pistil 2. g 14. b
18. sporophyte 3. f 15. c
19. fertilization 4. h 16. a
20. vegetative parts 5. d 17. d
21. The diploid sporophyte produces hap- 6. b 18. b
loid spores by meiosis. The spores fall 7. a 19. c
to the ground and grow into haploid 8. c 20. c
gametophytes, which produce 9. j 21. d
gametes—sperm and eggs—by 10. i 22. d
mitosis. When water covers the 11. b 23. d
gametophytes, sperm can swim to the 12. c
archegonia and fertilize the eggs inside 24. mature sporophyte, sporangium, spores,
of them. The zygotes, or fertilized mature gametophyte, antheridium and
eggs, grow into new sporophytes. archegonium, egg and sperm cells,
22. At the time of pollination, the scales of zygote
a female cone are open, exposing the 25. Meiosis in megaspore mother cells
ovules. When a pollen grain lands near produces four megaspores. Three of
an ovule, a slender pollen tube grows these degenerate and one produces an
out of the pollen grain and into the embryo sac containing an egg cell.
ovule. The sperm moves through the 26. Meiosis in microspore mother cells
pollen tube and enters the ovule to produces four microspores. Each of
reach the egg. The pollen tube provides these produces pollen grains. The tube
a way for the sperm to reach the egg cell produces a pollen tube leading to
without having to swim through water. an ovule. The generative cell produces
two sperm cells, which move into the

ovule and fuse with the egg cell and as they follow the sun’s movements
the polar nuclei there. across the sky.
27. Making cuttings involves growing new 22. Plants are categorized as either short-
plants from pieces of stem, root, or day plants, long-day plants, or day-
leaf. Layering involves inducing root neutral plants. Short-day plants flower
formation on a stem. Grafting involves in the spring or fall when days are
attaching two or more plant parts to short and nights are long. Long-day
form a single plant. Tissue culture plants flower in the summer when
involves growing new plants from small days are long and nights are short.
pieces of tissue in sterile nutrient media. Day-neutral plants are not affected
28. Factors required to break dormancy by day length.
in certain seeds include light, low 23. Cytokinins promote cell division and
temperature, and abrasion by acid or promote lateral bud development in
other agents. These help prevent seeds dicots.
from germinating before environmental 24. Nastic movements are plant movements
conditions are suitable for growth of that occur in response to environmental
the plant. stimuli, but are independent of the
29. water, oxygen, and the appropriate stimuli direction. Examples include
temperature range the Venus’ flytrap that closes when
30. (a) 1. spores; 2. sperm; 3. eggs; 4. zygote touched and the prayer plant that has
(b) B and C (c) A (d) D (e) spores, male leaves that fold up at night.
gametophyte, female gametophyte, 25. The changing leaf colors are a photo-
sperm, and eggs periodic response and a temperature
response to the short day, longer
Plant Responses nights, and cooler temperatures of
Chapter Test A (General) autumn. The leaves stop producing the
green pigment chlorophyll, allowing
1. c 10. a the red, orange, and yellow pigments
2. c 11. g in the leaves to become visible.
3. a 12. a
4. a 13. f Plant Responses
5. c 14. h
6. b 15. d
7. d 16. c 1. e 13. b
8. d 17. e 2. d 14. c
9. b 18. b 3. h 15. d
19. The result of the auxin spray on fruit 4. g 16. d
trees depends on the plant’s stage of 5. b 17. b
development when the spray is 6. a 18. c
applied. If auxin is sprayed on young 7. c 19. d
fruits, some will drop off allowing the 8. f 20. b
remaining fruits to grow larger. If it is 9. j 21. a
sprayed on fruits several weeks before 10. i 22. c
they are ready to be picked, it will 11. a 23. b
prevent the fruits from dropping. 12. c
20. Roots grow downward under the influ- 24. Ethylene; one rotting apple will produce
ence of gravity. This is an example of ethylene gas, which stimulates nearby
gravitropism. Roots are positively apples to ripen and spoil.
gravitropic, because auxins accumulate 25. Leaf abscission causes dead, damaged,
along the lower side of the roots and or infected leaves to drop to the
the roots grow downward. ground rather than shading healthy
21. Heliotropism or solar tracking is leaves or spreading disease.
the movement of leaves or flowers

26. Auxins accumulate on the lower sides Introduction to Animals

of horizontally oriented stems and
roots. Auxins stimulate stem cells to
elongate, resulting in upward growth 1. f 13. g
of the shoot, and inhibit elongation of 2. h 14. d
root cells, resulting in downward 3. m 15. b
growth of the root. 4. e 16. b
27. Thigmonastic movements; some thig- 5. k 17. a
monastic movements occur within a 6. j 18. d
few seconds of a stimulus. 7. a 19. c
28. Long-day plants will flower when the 8. b 20. b
number of hours of continuous dark- 9. l 21. c
ness is shorter than critical night 10. i 22. b
length, or when a period of darkness 11. d 23. d
longer than critical night length is 12. c
divided into two dark periods each 24. Scientists have inferred that multicel-
shorter than critical night length. lular invertebrates may have devel-
29. Biennial plants flower in the spring of oped from colonies of loosely
their second year of growth. connected flagellated protists.
30. (a) auxin (b) step B; the agar block did Colonial protists may have lost their
not contain plant hormones, and no flagella over the course of evolution as
changes in growth were observed.
(c) Synthetic auxin could be applied to individualized cells in the colony grew
an agar block and then the agar block more specialized.
placed on one side of a decapitated 25. Sponges have no body symmetry and
shoot tip. If the shoot tip were to bend no true tissues.
in the direction opposite the location 26. Segmentation refers to a body com-
of the agar block, then the results posed of a series of repeating similar
would indicate that auxin causes the units. It is not found in all animals;
results observed in part A of Went’s some invertebrate phyla are not seg-
experiments. mented.
27. The coelom forms from rapid cell divi-
Introduction to Animals sion in the blastocoel. The newly dif-
Chapter Test A (General) ferentiated mesodermal cells spread
out and completely line the newly
1. a 12. a formed coelom.
2. d 13. e 28. a. blastocoel; b. archenteron; c. coelom;
3. d 14. g d. schizocoely; e. blastocoel; f. coelom;
4. a 15. a g. archenteron; h. enterocoely
5. d 16. f 29. A human embryo undergoes radial,
6. b 17. h indeterminate cleavage; the coelom
7. c 18. c forms by enterocoely; and the blasto-
8. c 19. i pore becomes the anus. In contrast,
9. a 20. d a clam embryo undergoes spiral,
10. b 21. b determinate cleavage; the coelom
11. b forms by schizocoely; and the blasto-
22. mesoderm pore becomes the mouth.
23. radial symmetry 30. a. invertebrates; b. both; c. inverte-
24. hermaphrodite brates; d. both; e. both; f. invertebrates;
25. organogenesis g. vertebrates; h. both; i. vertebrates;
j. both; k. both; l. invertebrates; m. both;
n. both; o. vertebrates

Sponges, Cnidarians, 26. Both sponges and cnidarians have two

cell layers (though only cnidarians
and Ctenophores have true tissues); the central body
Chapter Test A (General) cavity of both has one opening, and
1. c 10. f cnidarians have mesoglea.
2. c 11. j 27. The dominant body form found in
3. d 12. i scyphozoans is the medusa, while the
4. b 13. a dominant body form found in antho-
5. c 13. a zoans is the polyp.
6. d 14. e 28. Algae; the conditions of shallow equa-
7. a 15. h torial seas allow the algae to live and
8. b 16. c undergo photosynthesis.
9. g 17. d 29. a. epidermis; b. gastrovascular cavity;
18. choanocytes c. mouth; d. medusa; e. mouth; f. gas-
19. gemmule trovascular cavity; g. epidermis; h.
20. hermaphrodite polyp
21. medusa 30. (a) external (b) blastula (c) Planula; it
22. polyp attaches to the sea floor. (d) The polyp
23. apical organs forms a stack of medusae that are
24. nerve net released into the water.(e) Identical;
25. ctenophore they are the result of the union of
a single egg and sperm.
Sponges, Cnidarians,
and Ctenophores Flatworms, Roundworms,
Chapter Test B (Advanced) and Rotifers
1. e 13. b
2. f 14. b 1. a 9. c
3. c 15. a 2. b 10. d
4. a 16. d 3. a 11. a
5. l 17. c 4. d 12. b
6. i 18. c 5. d 13. f
7. m 19. b 6. c 14. g
8. k 20. d 7. b 15. e
9. j 21. a 8. h
10. h 22. d 16. tegument
11. g 23. b 17. proglottids
12. d 18. snail
24. The food that a sponge collects is 19. eyespot
engulfed and digested by collar cells. 20. scolex
Nutrients then pass to amebocytes, 21. The pseudocoelom contains fluid. This
which spread the nutrients among the fluid serves as a simple circulatory
sponge’s other body cells. Waste prod- and gas exchange system, carrying
ucts diffuse out of cells and leave the nutrients, oxygen, and carbon dioxide
sponge’s body through the osculum. throughout the animal’s body. The
25. Sponges reproduce asexually by bud- materials move into and out of cells
ding or by regeneration. When sponges by diffusion.
reproduce sexually, sperm from one 22. cooking meat thoroughly to kill all
sponge are released in the water and larvae it may contain; wearing shoes
join with the egg of another sponge, in areas where animal hosts are com-
producing a swimming larva that even- monly found; and wearing protective
tually becomes a sessile adult sponge. clothing when wading in waters that
may be contaminated with Schistosoma

23. Planarians are hermaphrodites that 28. Planaria swim with a wavelike motion.
reproduce sexually when two individu- They move over a surface on a layer of
als transfer sperm to each other. They mucus they secrete, propelled by the
also reproduce asexually by splitting cilia that cover their bodies.
in two to form two individuals. 29. a. eyespots; b. excretory tubule;
24. They absorb food from the host’s c. nerve; d. pharynx
intestine directly through their skin. 30. (a) No; horses do not eat meat.
25. Rotifers sweep food into the mouth (b) after the pig (c) by eating only
with a crown of beating cilia. The food meat that has been inspected for
moves from the mouth to the mastax, cysts and by cooking meat thoroughly
where it is ground into smaller parti- (d) larval (the larvae are contained in
cles. The food is further digested in cysts embedded in muscle) (e) Worms
the stomach, and the nutrients are are animals, and medicines that kill
absorbed in the intestine. them can also affect their animal
hosts. Bacteria are very different from
Flatworms, Roundworms, eukaryotic animal cells, and many
and Rotifers antibiotics attack bacterial structures
that animal cells do not share, such
Chapter Test B (Advanced) as the cell wall.
1. d 13. l
2. f 14. a Mollusks and Annelids
3. j 15. c Chapter Test A (General)
4. h 16. d
5. b 17. d 1. a 11. d
6. a 18. b 2. c 12. c
7. k 19. b 3. b 13. g
8. i 20. b 4. d 14. i
9. e 21. c 5. c 15. e
10. g 22. c 6. a 16. a
11. m 23. c 7. d 17. f
12. c 8. c 18. h
24. Fertilized eggs are released in the 9. b 19. d
urine and feces of humans, the pri- 10. a 20. b
mary host. In water, ciliated larvae 21. radula
develop and invade the bodies of 22. setae, parapodia
snails, the intermediate host. The lar- 23. trochophore
vae develop tails and become free- 24. gills
swimming. The tailed larvae enter the 25. incurrent siphons
skin of a human swimming or wading
in the water, and the cycle repeats. Mollusks and Annelids
25. feeding only cooked meat scraps to Chapter Test B (Advanced)
animals used for food; inspecting meat
1. c 12. a
for the presence of cysts; cooking
2. e 13. b
meat thoroughly
3. d 14. b
26. The tegument is composed of cells;
the cuticle is not. 4. a 15. c
5. h 16. d
27. An acoelomate does not have a body
6. g 17. d
cavity. A pseudocoelomate has a body
7. b 18. d
cavity, and mesoderm lines the outer
8. f 19. c
body wall. Platyhelminthes, or flat-
9. b 20. a
worms, are acoelomates with three
10. c 21. b
germ layers.
11. d

22. The mantle that lines a terrestrial Arthropods

snail’s mantle cavity must be moist
for respiration to occur. During dry
conditions, the snail closes itself up 1. d 12. f
in its shell. 2. m 13. i
23. Cephalopods have strong, beaklike 3. h 14. c
jaws and tentacles with suction cups 4. j 15. o
for seizing prey. They have well- 5. a 16. c
developed nervous systems, including 6. b 17. a
a lobed brain and complex eyes, and 7. e 18. d
are capable of complex behavior. They 8. n 19. d
have a closed circulatory system for 9. g 20. a
more rapid transport of nutrients and 10. k 21. b
wastes, and they have jet propulsion. 11. l 22. d
Both allow for a highly active lifestyle. 23. head, thorax, abdomen
24. Answers include the trochophore 24. crustaceans
larva and the coelom. Annelids are 25. four
segmented, while mollusks are not.
25. No; an important function of the mantle Arthropods
is secretion of a shell. Annelids do not Chapter Test B (Advanced)
have a shell.
26. In a closed circulatory system, blood 1. b 13. g
moves more rapidly. Members of 2. j 14. c
Cephalopoda have a closed circulatory 3. a 15. d
system. 4. m 16. c
27. Oxygen diffuses through the skin of 5. d 17. c
the earthworm. The environment must 6. f 18. d
be moist and cool. 7. h 19. c
28. Polychaetes differ from other annelids 8. l 20. d
in that polychaetes have antennae and 9. i 21. a
specialized mouthparts. They are also 10. c 22. c
the only annelids that have a tro- 11. e 23. b
chophore stage of development. 12. k
29. There are some differences in habitat: 24. Segmented appendages around the
Oligochaeta live in soil or fresh water; mouth and eyes are examples of
Polychaeta are mostly marine; and features associated with cephalization.
Hirudinea live in calm, fresh water or 25. Before a molt, an arthropod’s tissues
in moist vegetation on land. swell, straining the exoskeleton. A
30. (a) a. shell; b. gill; c. mantle cavity; hormone that induces molting is then
d. anus; e. heart; f. mantle; g. stomach; produced, causing epidermal cells to
h. ganglia (b) The mantle secretes secrete enzymes that digest the inner
hard shells that protect the mollusk. layer of the exoskeleton. The epider-
(c) The evolution of gills has maximized mis synthesizes a new exoskeleton,
the area available for gas exchange in and the old exoskeleton is shed.
the mollusk. 26. Trilobita (the extinct trilobites),
Crustacea (lobsters, crayfish, sow
bugs, pill bugs), Chelicerata (spiders,
scorpions, mites, ticks), Myriapoda
(millipedes, centipedes), and
Hexapoda (insects)

27. Abdominal muscles; the telson and Insects

uropods, which together act as a pad-
dlelike tail, help propel the crayfish
during tailflips. 1. d 13. e
28. Spiders use chelicerae (fangs) to 2. j 14. a
inject poison into their prey. Venom 3. f 15. b
is produced in poison glands in the 4. b 16. d
cephalothorax. 5. m 17. a
29. Centipedes kill their prey with poison 6. a 18. a
claws and tear the meat apart with 7. h 19. d
mandibles and maxillae. 8. l 20. c
30. (a) a. stomach; b. poison gland; 9. k 21. b
c. chelicera (fang); d. pedipalp; 10. g 22. b
e. Malpighian tubule; f. silk gland; 11. i 23. c
g. gut; h. book lung (b) The excretory 12. c
system of spiders is adapted to life on 24. The bombardier beetle defends itself
land by Malpighian tubules, which by spraying a hot stream of a noxious
enable spiders to conserve water by chemical from an opening on its
reabsorption. (c) The main disadvan- abdomen that can be rotated.
tage of molting is that each new 25. Ants lay a pheromone on the ground
exoskeleton takes a few days to harden, to guide other ants to food sources.
rendering an arthropod vulnerable to Female moths secrete pheromone to
predation and desiccation. attract mates.
26. The mouthparts of drones are too short
Insects to feed on flower nectar, so drones
Chapter Test A (General) must be fed by workers. You would
expect the mouthparts of workers to
1. g 9. e be functional because workers collect
2. h 10. f food, work in the hive, and feed the
3. j 11. b members of the colony.
4. d 12. a 27. Grasshoppers have two kinds of eyes,
5. a 13. d simple and compound. There are three
6. c 14. b simple eyes and two compound eyes.
7. i 15. b The simple eyes detect light intensity.
8. b 16. d The compound eyes detect intensity,
17. head, thorax, abdomen movement, and form images.
18. hemolymph, open 28. Isoptera (termites)
19. gizzard, midgut 29. The honeybee has a barbed stinger
20. touch, smell and displays altruistic behavior. After
21. vibrates in response to sound it stings another animal, the honeybee
22. exchanges gases with the environment flies away. The stinger remains in the
23. contains digestive, respiratory, circula- animal, and the bee’s internal organs
tory, and reproductive organs are ripped out. The wasp has a smooth
24. During development, the larva uses stinger that can be removed from its
habitats and food sources different enemy when the wasp flies away.
from those of the adult. Competition 30. a. incomplete metamorphosis; b. egg;
between larva and adult is reduced, c. nymph; d. adult grasshopper;
thus increasing the chance for survival e. complete metamorphosis; f. egg;
in each stage of the insect life cycle. g. larva; h. pupa; i. butterfly; j. Larvae
25. biting and chewing, piercing and and adults do not compete for food
sucking, sponging and lapping and space. k. The pupa and chrysalis
protect an insect during the winter
and thus enhance the insect’s chances
of survival.
Echinoderms and excurrent siphon into the surrounding

water, where fertilization occurs.
Invertebrate Chordates 29. Aristotle’s lantern is the jawlike feeding
Chapter Test A (General) structure of sea urchins that consists
1. f 11. a of teeth and muscles.
2. d 12. d 30. (a) Cephalochordata (b) Urochordata
3. e 13. d (c) Vertebrata (d) Cephalochordata
4. a 14. b and Urochordata; In the water; most
5. h 15. a sessile animals filter food from water.
6. c 16. a (e) Cephalochordata: lancelet;
7. b 17. c Urochordata: tunicates; Vertebrata:
8. g 18. c sample answers include any fish,
9. d 19. b amphibian, reptile, bird, or mammal.
10. a 20. a
21. water, vascular Fishes
22. common ancestor Chapter Test A (General)
23. nerve ring
1. e 11. c
24. sea cucumbers
2. c 12. d
25. pharyngeal pouches or slits
3. d 13. c
4. f 14. a
Echinoderms and 5. b 15. b
Invertebrate Chordates 6. a 16. a
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 7. c 17. d
8. b 18. c
1. f 13. d
9. d 19. c
2. i 14. a
10. d 20. a
3. m 15. d
21. opercula
4. k 16. b
22. lampreys, hagfish
5. l 17. c
23. scales, age
6. a 18. b
24. optic tectum
7. b 19. c
25. countercurrent flow
8. e 20. b
9. h 21. c
10. j 22. b Fishes
11. c 23. d Chapter Test B (Advanced)
12. g 1. d 13. m
24. In vertebrates, it leaves only a trace 2. j 14. b
after the backbone is developed. 3. a 15. a
In cephalochordates, it is retained. 4. f 16. c
In tunicates, it is lost during 5. l 17. d
metamorphosis. 6. b 18. a
25. notochord, dorsal nerve cord, post-anal 7. c 19. b
tail, and pharyngeal pouches or slits 8. h 20. b
26. Young tunicates have all four chordate 9. e 21. d
characters, whereas adults have only 10. g 22. a
the pharyngeal pouches or slits. 11. i 23. b
27. The arms of a sea star can detach and 12. k
regenerate as a defense mechanism. 24. The lateral-line system consists of a
Regeneration is important to repro- row of sensory structures that run
duction because each arm of a sea star along each side of the fish’s body and
contains a pair of ovaries or testes. are connected by nerves to the brain.
28. Tunicates are hermaphrodites. Sperm The structures detect vibrations in
and eggs are released through the the water.
25. Members of Myxini and Actinopterygii 21. Caudata

use external fertilization, where the 22. Caecilians are blind and legless. They
male releases sperm as the female have teeth for capturing and consuming
releases eggs. Members of Chond- prey, and chemosensory tentacles for
richthyes use internal fertilization, in detecting prey. All of these are adapta-
which the male transfers sperm into tions for a burrowing lifestyle.
the female’s body with claspers. 23. Mucous glands embedded in the skin
26. Answers include the following: sense supply a lubricant that keeps the skin
of smell (detects chemicals with moist. This moist surface is necessary
nostrils); lateral-line system (detects for cutaneous respiration.
vibrations in water); vision; sensitive 24. Oxygen-poor blood from the body
to electric fields. enters the right atrium. Oxygen-rich
27. Deoxygenated blood enters the sinus blood from the lungs enters the left
venosus and then moves into the larger atrium through the pulmonary veins.
atrium. Contraction of the atrium The blood from both atria enters the
moves the blood to the ventricle, the ventricle, which pumps the blood to
main pumping chamber of the heart. the conus arteriosus and then to the
The ventricle pumps blood through lungs and the body. Oxygen-poor is
the conus arteriousus and eventually sent to the lungs. Oxygen-rich blood
to the gills. is sent to the body.
28. Jaws allow fish to seize and manipulate 25. The male Darwin’s frog broods the
prey; paired fins increase stability and eggs in his vocal sacs where they
maneuverability. hatch and undergo metamorphosis.
29. Cartilaginous fishes either keep moving Female gastric-brooding frogs swallow
to maintain a vertical position or store their eggs, which hatch and mature in
large amounts of low-density lipids. the stomach. Females of some species
Bony fishes have a swim bladder, sit on their eggs until they hatch.
which contains a mixture of gases
from the bloodstream and regulates Amphibians
the amount of gas in the body to Chapter Test B (Advanced)
adjust body density.
30. (a) 1. bony fish; 2. mammals; 1. c 13. i
3. Myxini; 4. Aves; 5. cartilage; 2. g 14. c
6. yes (b) all of them (c) Vertebrata 3. a 15. d
(d) aquatic (e) The skeleton is 4. d 16. a
composed of cartilage. 5. k 17. c
6. f 18. a
Amphibians 7. b 19. b
8. j 20. a
Chapter Test A (General) 9. l 21. a
1. e 9. d 10. m 22. d
2. a 10. c 11. e 23. c
3. b 11. a 12. h
4. c 12. b 24. During inhalation, the floor of the
5. d 13. c mouth drops and the nostrils open. Air
6. b 14. d is then pushed into the lungs as the
7. c 15. c floor of the mouth is raised and the
8. d nostrils close.
16. cutaneous 25. Accept four of the following: metamor-
17. cloacal, vent phosis; moist, thin skin without scales;
18. metamorphosis feet that lack claws; gills, lungs, and
19. ventricle skin for respiration; eggs laid in water
20. lungs or moist places; external fertilization.

26. The moist skin of amphibians is 24. Chelonia—turtles; Rhynchocephalia—

vulnerable to dehydration, so most tuataras; Squamata—lizards and snakes;
amphibians live in moist environments Crocodilia—crocodiles and alligators
and are active at night. Desert amphib- 25. A turtle’s shell is streamlined and disk
ians remain in moist burrows deep in shaped. Depending on the species, the
the soil, coming out to feed and repro- carapace (top) and plastron (bottom)
duce only after heavy rains. are made of fused plates of bone
27. Answers include a rigid spine to bear covered with horny shields or tough,
the weight of the body; strong limbs to leathery skin. In most species, the
support the body while moving or vertebrae and ribs are fused to the
standing; and a fused lower forelimb inside of the carapace. The shell
(radio-ulna) and hind limb provides protection and support
(tibiofibula). for muscle attachments.
28. The tadpole gradually changes from its
aquatic form to its terrestrial form, Reptiles
growing legs, losing its tail and gills, Chapter Test B (Advanced)
and developing jaws and functional
lungs. 1. d 13. k
29. The male Darwin’s frog takes the eggs 2. b 14. b
into his vocal sacs, where the eggs 3. m 15. d
hatch and undergo metamorphosis. 4. f 16. a
Females of some species of frogs sit 5. a 17. c
on their eggs to keep them moist. 6. j 18. c
30. (a) 5; young frog coming onto land 7. l 19. b
(b) 3; tadpole lives in water (c) 6; adult 8. h 20. c
frog (d) 1; male fertilizes eggs (e) 4; 9. c 21. a
tadpole is growing legs and still living 10. e 22. c
in water (f) 2; fertilized eggs in water 11. g 23. d
12. i
Reptiles 24. This hypothesis suggests that a huge
asteroid hit Earth, sending so much
Chapter Test A (General) dust into the atmosphere that the
1. c 9. d amount of sunlight reaching Earth’s
2. b 10. b surface was greatly reduced. The
3. a 11. d resulting climatic changes led to mass
4. d 12. c extinction.
5. c 13. b 25. The body of a turtle is covered by a
6. b 14. a shell; the pelvic and pectoral girdles
7. a 15. c lie within the ribs; and turtles have a
8. b sharp beak instead of teeth.
16. ectotherms 26. The upper and lower jaws are loosely
17. alveoli hinged and move independently; the
18. plastron lower jaw, palate, and parts of the
19. amniotic, ancestor skull are joined by a flexible ligament
20. Mesozoic era that allows the snake’s head to stretch
21. asteroid impact hypothesis around its prey.
22. autotomy 27. A crocodile lies waiting until an animal
23. A snake’s jaw is very flexible because approaches and then attacks quickly.
it has several points of movement. At It can see and breathe while it is qui-
one of these points––the chin––the etly submerged in water, and it can
halves of the lower jaw are connected feed underwater due to a valve that
by an elastic ligament that permits the prevents water from entering its air
lower jaw to spread apart when a passages.
large meal is being swallowed.
28. Answers include three of the following: amount of oxygen transported to the
Dinosaurs were a diverse group of rep- body cells. Also, because the flow of
tiles that varied in size, form, and habi- blood in the lungs runs in a different
tat. Icthyosaurs were aquatic reptiles direction than the flow of air, oxygen
that resembled dolphins. Plesiosaurs absorption is increased.
were also aquatic, with long, flexible 25. One hypothesis states that the ances-
necks and compact bodies. Pterosaurs tors of birds were tree dwellers that
were flying reptiles. glided between the branches; a second
29. The amnion is a membrane that hypothesis holds that winglike struc-
surrounds the embryo; it encloses tures were used for stability and prey
the salty fluid in which the embryo capture in ground-dwelling species.
floats and develops.
30. (a) Arrows should be drawn from the Birds
body to the right atrium, then to the Chapter Test B (Advanced)
lungs, then from the lungs to the left
atrium, then to the ventricle, and back 1. a 13. f
to the body. (b) 1. deoxygenated; 2. l 14. a
2. mixed; 3. oxygenated; 4. mixed 3. c 15. c
(c) 1. deoxygenated; 2. deoxygenated; 4. h 16. c
3. oxygenated; 4. oxygenated 5. d 17. c
(d) Crocodilia (e) Bypassing the lungs 6. j 18. d
allows an inactive reptile to conserve 7. b 19. b
energy and raise its temperature quickly. 8. k 20. c
9. i 21. d
Birds 10. e 22. a
11. g 23. a
Chapter Test A (General) 12. h
1. c 10. a 24. Both types of air sacs store air. The
2. g 11. c anterior air sacs receive oxygen-rich
3. f 12. b air and send it to the lungs. The poste-
4. b 13. a rior air sacs receive oxygen-depleted
5. h 14. c air leaving the lungs.
6. a 15. b 25. Precocial refers to birds that lay many
7. e 16. c eggs and incubate them for long periods
8. d 17. b of time. Altricial refers to birds that
9. d lay few eggs that hatch quickly.
18. amniotic, scales 26. Answers include three of the following:
19. contour feathers position of stars, topographical land-
20. forelimbs marks, Earth’s magnetic field, changes
21. ducks in air pressure, and low-frequency
22. scales sounds.
23. Contour feathers cover an adult bird’s 27. Both have a sharp, curved beak and
body and give it shape. Specialized talons, which are used for hunting.
contour feathers on the wings and Members of Strigiformes hunt at night
tail help provide lift for flight. Down and rely on their sense of hearing.
feathers cover young birds and are Members of Ciconiiformes hunt during
found beneath the contour feathers the day and use their keen sense of
of adults. Down feathers conserve vision.
body heat by providing insulation. 28. Answers include feathers; wings; a
24. A bird lung is more efficient. The lungs lightweight, rigid skeleton; endothermic
are connected to a series of air sacs metabolism; a beak; oviparity; and an
that make one-way air flow possible. efficient respiratory system consisting
Thus, the lungs are exposed only to of air sacs connected to the lungs.
oxygenated air, which increases the
29. Answers may include that flight 24. Once dinosaurs became extinct, new
evolved in tree-dwellers that jumped habitats and ecological roles became
between branches, glided, and eventu- available to mammals without the
ally flapped wings, or that flight danger of predation by dinosaurs,
evolved on the ground and wings were allowing mammals to diversify.
used to stabilize animals leaping after 25. Both are ungulates, or hoofed mam-
prey. mals. Artiodactyls have an even num-
30. (a) a. proventriculus; b. gizzard; ber of toes and a rumen for breaking
c. kidney; d. large intestine; e. cloaca; down cellulose. Perissodactyls have an
f. crop; g. heart (b) digestive and odd number of toes and a cecum.
excretory systems (c) In birds, the 26. Separated ventricles of the heart
passage of food through the digestive prevent the mixing of oxygenated and
system is very rapid. The excretory deoxygenated blood. Mammals also
system is efficient and lightweight; have a large internal lung surface area
most birds do not store liquid waste. and a diaphragm. These adaptations
(d) The gizzard often contains small increase the supply of oxygen, which
stones that aid in the grinding of food. is needed for the fast metabolism of
(e) The crop stores and moistens food. endothermic animals.
27. All have streamlined bodies similar to
Mammals those of fish. The forelimbs and hind
Chapter Test A (General) limbs of pinnipeds are paddlelike for
swimming. The forelimbs of cetaceans
1. b 10. a and sirenians are flippers; a broad tail
2. c 11. c replaces their hind limbs.
3. a 12. g 28. All produce milk to feed their young.
4. c 13. f Monotremes lay eggs, while marsupials
5. d 14. d and placental mammals give birth to
6. c 15. a live young. Marsupial females have a
7. c 16. e pouch in which their young continue
8. b 17. b early development after birth.
9. b 18. c Placental mammals nourish their
19. Homo erectus young internally through a placenta.
20. Africa 29. endothermy, hair, a completely divided
21. four-chambered heart, milk production by mammary
22. therapsids, endotherms glands, a single jawbone, and special-
23. synapsid ized teeth
24. dinosaurs 30. (a) a. Carnivora; b. Insectivora;
25. artiodactyl, perissodactyl c. Cetacea (b) The long canines of
carnivores aid in tearing flesh and
Mammals grasping prey. The baleen serves to
Chapter Test B (Advanced) filter invertebrates from the water.
(c) Skull b; the nose is long and
1. g 13. k pointed and enables probing in soil
2. j 14. b for insects, worms, and other inverte-
3. h 15. d brates. The teeth are sharp, an adapta-
4. d 16. a tion that is useful for catching and
5. b 17. c grasping insects. (d) Baleen; it is used
6. e 18. b to filter and trap invertebrates in the
7. l 19. b water. (e) the cerebrum
8. a 20. d
9. i 21. c
10. c 22. d
11. m 23. c
12. f
Animal Behavior 26. The killing of cubs benefits the indi-

vidual male lion that carries out the
Chapter Test A (General) killing because it increases the likeli-
1. c 11. c hood that he will father more cubs.
2. a 12. b Natural selection favors traits that
3. d 13. e contribute to the survival and repro-
4. d 14. g duction of individuals.
5. b 15. b 27. The rat accidentally pressed a lever
6. c 16. f that released food. Then it learned to
7. d 17. a press the lever to obtain food. The
8. b 18. d chimpanzee stacked boxes to obtain a
9. a 19. c banana hanging overhead without
10. a using any experimentation or trial-and-
20. natural selection error strategies. The chimpanzee ana-
21. operant conditioning lyzed the situation and reasoned the
22. migratory behavior best way to obtain the banana.
23. associate, classical conditioning 28. Courtship rituals help in species identi-
24. A young bird’s ability to imprint, or to fication and help to identify individuals
follow the first moving object it sees receptive to mating. Examples include:
after hatching, is genetically pro- flash patterns of fireflies (species iden-
grammed. The object the young bird tification); pheromones produced by
follows, or imprints on, is learned female silk moths (identification of
immediately after it hatches. individuals receptive to mating); and
25. Animals can use sight, sound, chemicals, songs and sounds produced by birds,
touch, and sometimes language. insects, and amphibians.
29. Benefits include protection from pred-
Animal Behavior ators and increased success in forag-
Chapter Test B (Advanced) ing. Costs include increased
competition for food, mates, and other
1. c 13. j resources. There is also the increased
2. m 14. c risk of spreading diseases.
3. l 15. a 30. (a) a. annual; b. lunar; c. circadian (b)
4. g 16. d Sample examples: a. ground squirrels
5. b 17. b hibernating during the winter; b. fiddler
6. e 18. d crabs emerging from their burrows at
7. i 19. a low tide; c. mice and owls being active
8. d 20. c at night and quiet during the day
9. k 21. a (c) Cyclical behavior is influenced by
10. f 22. c changes in the environment, including
11. a 23. b temperature changes, variations in
12. h availability of food, and likelihood
24. Sample answer: Innate behaviors are of predation.
genetically determined, such as the
orb spider’s web building. Learned Skeletal, Muscular, and
behaviors are created or modified
through experience, such as Pavlov’s
Integumentary Systems
dogs or the rats in the Skinner boxes Chapter Test A (General)
that associated response actions to 1. c 8. b
stimuli with food rewards. 2. b 9. d
25. It ensures that individuals will mate 3. d 10. d
only with members of their own 4. c 11. a
species. 5. d 12. a
6. a 13. d
7. b 14. b
15. osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis the inner layer of skin, consists of

16. thoracic cavity, abdominal cavity blood vessels, sensory neurons, hair
17. axial skeleton follicles, glands, and other structures
18. flexors that enable the body to respond to
19. oxygen debt, muscle soreness external stimuli.
20. hair follicles 28. Red bone marrow produces red blood
21. a cells and some white blood cells.
22. c Yellow bone marrow consists prima-
23. b rily of fat cells and serves as an energy
24. c store.
25. a 29. a. ball-and-socket joint; b. hinge joint;
c. gliding joint
Skeletal, Muscular, and 30. (a) biceps; flexor (b) triceps; extensor
(c) An insertion is the point where a
Integumentary Systems muscle attaches to a moving bone.
Chapter Test B (Advanced) The insertion of a is the radius, and
1. f 13. a the insertion of c is the ulna. (d) An
2. h 14. d origin is the point where a muscle
3. e 15. d attaches to a stationary bone. The
4. g 16. d origin of both a and c is the scapula.
5. a 17. d (e) elbow; hinge joint
6. c 18. b
7. d 19. a Circulatory and
8. b 20. d Respiratory Systems
9. b 21. c
10. d 22. b
11. c 23. d 1. d 10. a
12. b 2. a 11. a
24. Myosin filaments attach to actin fila- 3. c 12. b
ments. The myosin filaments bend 4. d 13. c
inward, causing the actin filaments to 5. c 14. a
overlap. This shortens the length of 6. d 15. b
sarcomeres and causes the muscle to 7. b 16. e
contract. 8. d 17. d
25. The skin provides protection from and 9. c
interaction with the external environ- 18. venae cavae, right atrium
ment, retains body fluids, eliminates 19. air pressure
waste, and helps regulate body 20. alveoli
temperature. 21. systemic circulation
26. Tissue is a collection of cells that are 22. acidic
similar in structure and that work 23. atria
together to perform a particular 24. platelets
function. An organ consists of 25. diaphagm, contracts
various tissues that enable the
organ to perform a specific function.
27. The epidermis, the tough outer layer
of skin, consists primarily of dead,
keratin-filled cells and serves as the
body’s protective barrier. The dermis,

Circulatory and to diffuse back into the blood from the

alveoli. (d) Red blood cells transport
Respiratory Systems oxygen and, to a lesser extent, carbon
Chapter Test B (Advanced) dioxide. (e) In the lungs, bicarbonate
1. b 13. d ions combine with a proton to form
2. f 14. d carbonic acid, which in turn forms
3. i 15. c carbon dioxide and water.
4. h 16. c
5. g 17. a The Body’s Defense Systems
6. j 18. b Chapter Test A (General)
7. a 19. c
1. b 13. a
8. d 20. b
2. a 14. h
9. k 21. c
3. c 15. f
10. c 22. b
4. b 16. e
11. e 23. c
5. d 17. b
12. b
6. c 18. a
24. No; the problem associated with
7. d 19. d
the transfusion of whole blood is the
8. b 20. c
agglutination of the donor blood cells
9. b 21. g
caused by the antibodies of the recipi-
10. c 22. histamine
ent. There are no donor blood cells if
11. a 23. antigen
only plasma is being used; thus, there
12. c
is no need to know the blood type of
24. skin, mucous membranes
the donor.
25. The most rapid division of B cells
25. Valves in the veins prevent the back-
occurs during the time period labeled
flow of blood.
C because this is the interval during
26. Systemic circulation is the circulation
which antibody production increases
of blood between the heart and all
at the fastest rate.
other body tissues except the lungs.
27. Mucus decreases friction created by
the movement of the lungs during The Body’s Defense Systems
breathing. Chapter Test B (Advanced)
28. When a deep breath is taken, the chest
1. k 13. b
expands as rib muscles contract. The
2. j 14. c
rib cage expands and the diaphragm
3. g 15. b
contracts and moves downward. The
4. d 16. d
reduced air pressure in the thoracic
5. f 17. b
cavity causes air from the atmosphere
6. b 18. b
to move into the lungs.
7. e 19. b
29. a. aorta; b. superior vena cava; c. right
8. i 20. d
atrium; d. right ventricle; e. inferior
9. c 21. b
vena cava; f. pulmonary artery; g. left
10. a 22. a
atrium; h. pulmonary veins; i. left
11. h 23. d
ventricle
12. b
30. (a) concentration gradients (b) Carbon
24. A primary difference is that the specific
dioxide is more concentrated in the
recognition of an antigen is required to
blood. (c) The concentration of oxygen
activate the immune system’s specific
in alveoli decreases as the remaining
defenses. Specific recognition is not
oxygen diffuses from alveoli into the
required for nonspecific defenses.
blood. In addition, the concentration
25. When an injury such as a cut occurs,
of carbon dioxide in alveoli increases,
damaged cells release histamine, which
causing the concentration gradient to
increases blood flow to the wounded
shift. This shift causes carbon dioxide

area. Phagocytes and neutrophils then 12. capillaries, lymphatic vessels
engulf and destroy most of the 13. pancreas
pathogens. 14. collecting duct
26. In an autoimmune disease, the immune 15. nephron
system responds to the body’s own 16. renal cortex, renal medulla
cells, attacking them as if they were 17. rickets
pathogens. 18. iodine
27. HIV mutates rapidly and suppresses 19. mechanical digestion, chemical
the immune system. These two charac- digestion
teristics make the development of an 20. 4
effective HIV vaccine difficult. 21. 1
28. No; it is possible to be infected with 22. 3
HIV without showing the symptoms 23. 5
associated with AIDS. Following 24. 2
exposure to HIV, the immune system 25. 6
is able to respond to and control the
virus for a limited time. Digestive and
29. The first antibodies are produced during
the time period labeled b, or the cell-
Excretory Systems
mediated immune response. The most Chapter Test B (Advanced)
rapid division of B cells occurs during 1. m 13. j
the time period labeled c, or the 2. h 14. c
humoral immune response. 3. f 15. c
30. (a) Presentation of antigen A by 4. g 16. c
macrophages is required for the 5. i 17. b
secretion of interleukin 2 (IL-2) by 6. e 18. a
helper T cells. (b) The unknown 7. c 19. d
substance prevents helper T cells from 8. a 20. c
secreting IL-2 even in the presence of 9. l 21. b
antigen A, which is presented by the 10. d 22. b
macrophages. (c) Answers will vary 11. b 23. d
but may include the following: The 12. k
unknown substance could bind to or 24. Nutrients are chemical substances that
interfere with receptors on the surface are necessary for organisms to func-
of helper T cells that recognize antigen tion and grow properly.
A. It could bind to antigen A as it is 25. Carbohydrates are broken down by a
presented by macrophages, preventing series of enzymes within the digestive
the helper T cells from binding to the system. The final product of carbohy-
antigen. It could inhibit production of drate digestion, glucose, is absorbed
IL-2 by helper T cells. It could also through the wall of the small intestine
destroy interleukin-1 before it reaches and transported to blood capillaries.
the T cells. 26. The lining of the stomach is composed
of cells that secrete mucus. The mucus
Digestive and lines the stomach and prevents the
Excretory Systems gastric fluid from contacting the
stomach cells.
Chapter Test A (General) 27. The circulatory system is responsible
1. b 7. d for removing metabolic wastes from
2. b 8. b cells throughout the body. Blood
3. c 9. a transports these wastes to the urinary
4. d 10. c system, which subsequently excretes
5. a 11. a them from the body. The intersection
6. c of the two systems occurs at the

glomerulus–Bowman’s capsule tic cleft. The neurotransmitters move
complex. across the synapse and bind to recep-
28. No; bile is secreted by the liver and tors on the postsynaptic cell. This
stored in the gallbladder until released either excites or inhibits the postsy-
into the small intestine. naptic cell.
29. Osmotic pressure in the kidney is 24. Addiction is a physiological response
necessary for the reabsorption of caused by the use of a drug that alters
water from the filtrate into the the normal functioning of neurons and
bloodstream. synapses. Once a neuron or synapse
30. (a) a. esophagus; b. liver; c. large has been altered by a drug, it cannot
intestine, or colon; d. stomach; function normally unless the drug is
e. small intestine; f. rectum (b) Liver; present.
the liver stores glycogen and breaks 25. Cocaine blocks the reuptake of
down toxic substances, such as alcohol. dopamine by the presynaptic neuron.
The liver also secretes bile, which is The excess dopamine overstimulates
vital in the digestion of fats. (c) In the postsynaptic cell, which thereby
mechanical digestion, the body physi- decreases the number of dopamine
cally breaks down chunks of food into receptors. This causes the postsynaptic
small particles that can be digested cell to become less sensitive, requiring
easily. In chemical digestion, digestive more cocaine for adequate stimulation.
enzymes and fluids change the chemical
nature of nutrients so that the nutrients Nervous System and
can be absorbed and used by the body. Sense Organs
(d) Nutrients are absorbed into the
circulatory system through blood and Chapter Test B (Advanced)
lymph vessels in the lining of the small 1. l 13. f
intestine. Nutrients are absorbed by 2. m 14. b
microvilli through diffusion and active 3. e 15. d
transport. (e) When the pH value in 4. c 16. d
the stomach is low, pepsin splits 5. i 17. d
complex proteins into peptides. 6. k 18. d
7. a 19. d
Nervous System and 8. g 20. b
Sense Organs 9. h 21. a
10. j 22. c
Chapter Test A (General) 11. d 23. c
1. a 10. a 12. b
2. a 11. c 24. An afferent neuron carries information
3. d 12. c toward the central nervous system. An
4. c 13. b efferent neuron carries information
5. b 14. a away from the central nervous system.
6. b 15. b 25. During an action potential, the inside
7. c 16. b of a neuron momentarily becomes
8. a 17. d positively charged as sodium ions
9. b 18. b rapidly flow into the cell. Potassium
19. Taste buds ions then flow out of the cell to
20. mechanoreceptors reestablish the resting potential.
21. olfactory 26. When the tendon below the patella is
22. temporal stretched, a sensory neuron detects
23. Signals are transmitted at a synapse stretching of the quadriceps. In the
by neurotransmitters. When a nerve spinal cord, the sensory neuron stimu-
impulse reaches the end of an axon, lates motor neurons that excite the
neurotransmitters are released from quadriceps. It also stimulates interneu-
the presynaptic neuron into the synap- rons that inhibit motor neurons that
stimulate the hamstrings. Thus, the 21. target cells
quadriceps contract, the hamstrings 22. amino acid–based
relax, and the leg rapidly extends. 23. hypothalamus
27. Saliva causes food to release chemicals 24. steroid, thyroid
that can be detected by chemoreceptors 25. melatonin
in taste buds (the sensory receptors
for taste). In response to the chemicals, Endocine System
the taste buds transmit action potentials
to the thalamus and then to the cerebral
cortex, where taste is interpreted. 1. e 13. j
28. A neurotransmitter is a chemical 2. k 14. c
released by one neuron that has a 3. i 15. b
specific effect on another neuron. 4. c 16. b
Neurotransmitters diffuse across 5. m 17. a
synaptic clefts between neurons and 6. a 18. c
either increase or decrease the activity 7. g 19. d
of the postsynaptic neuron. 8. l 20. c
29. a. axon terminals; b. nodes of Ranvier; 9. b 21. c
c. Schwann cells; d. axon; e. cell body; 10. d 22. b
f. nucleus; g. dendrites 11. f 23. b
30. a. The graph illustrates the changes in 12. h
membrane potential that occur in a 24. Releasing hormones are chemicals
neuron during an action potential. produced by neurosecretory cells that
b. The permeability of the membrane regulate secretion of the anterior-pitu-
changes when a dendrite or cell body itary hormones. Examples include
is stimulated by a neurotransmitter. PRL-releasing hormone, TSH-releasing
c. During period A sodium ions rapidly hormone, LH-releasing hormone, FSH-
flow into the cell, causing the inside releasing hormone, GH-releasing hor-
of the neuron to momentarily become mone, and ACTH-releasing hormone.
more positive than the outside. 25. In a positive feedback mechanism, an
d. During period B potassium ions increase in the regulated hormone or
flow out of the cell, restoring the substance increases the secretion of
resting potential of the cell membrane the regulating, or initial, hormone. In a
(about –70 millivolts). e. The resting negative feedback mechanism, an
potential must be restored before increase in the regulated hormone or
another action potential can occur. substance decreases the secretion of
The period after an action potential the regulating hormone.
during which neurons cannot fire is 26. The requirement of a hormone binding
called the refractory period. to a receptor: Without this event, the
correct target cell would not be recog-
Endocine System nized and the hormone would have no
effect.
Chapter Test A (General) 27. Answers will vary but may include
1. a 11. c that the transplanted islet cells secrete
2. d 12. b insulin the way normal islet cells do.
3. b 13. b 28. “Hypoglandular” refers to a condition
4. a 14. b of abnormally low gland activity, such
5. c 15. d as hypothyroidism, type I diabetes
6. d 16. a mellitus, and pituitary dwarfism.
7. b 17. c 29. Steroid hormones are lipid-soluble and
8. c 18. d thus can diffuse through the lipid
9. d 19. c bilayer of a target cell.
10. d 20. a

30. (a) The immediate cause for not expe- Reproductive System
riencing puberty is a low level of
testosterone. (b) the hypothalamus
and the anterior pituitary (c) The ante- 1. k 13. j
rior pituitary; because the injection of 2. e 14. c
LH-releasing hormone failed to 3. m 15. d
increase LH secretion, receptors on 4. l 16. b
LH-secreting cells of the anterior pitu- 5. a 17. b
itary could be defective. Alternatively, 6. g 18. c
LH secretion from these cells could be 7. c 19. d
deficient. (d) In the negative feedback 8. i 20. d
mechanism, testosterone secretion 9. d 21. b
inhibits LH secretion from the anterior 10. b 22. a
pituitary. (e) Testosterone-secreting 11. f 23. c
cells in the testes could be unresponsive 12. h
to LH. 24. The corpus luteum forms from the
follicle that ruptures during ovulation.
Reproductive System The corpus luteum secretes proges-
Chapter Test A (General) terone and estrogen, which cause the
uterine lining to thicken.
1. d 12. c 25. No; menopause occurs when menstru-
2. c 13. b ation ceases after a woman’s follicles
3. c 14. a have either ruptured or degenerated.
4. a 15. d 26. The epididymis conducts sperm from
5. d 16. a the testis to the vas deferens, stores
6. d 17. c sperm between ejaculations, and is
7. c 18. f the site of the final steps of sperm
8. a 19. g maturation.
9. b 20. h 27. No; ovulation normally occurs in one
10. a 21. e ovary during each menstrual cycle.
11. d 22. b Gennerally only one mature egg is
23. A sperm cell consists of a head, a ovulated per cycle.
midpiece, and a long tail. Enzymes in 28. The cervix connects the vagina with
the head help a sperm cell penetrate the uterus.
an egg. The head also contains the 29. a. outer jellylike layer; b. cell membrane
nucleus, which can fuse with the of ovum; c. sperm head; d. sperm tail;
nucleus of an egg cell. In the midpiece, e. sperm midpiece; f. nucleus of ovum.
mitochondria produce ATP and supply The diagram illustrates the fusion of a
the energy that the sperm cell needs to sperm’s head region with an ovum’s
use its tail to propel itself through the cell membrane—one of the steps
reproductive system. required for fertilization.
24. During the second and third 30. (a) a. egg cell; b. corpus luteum;
trimesters, the fetus grows rapidly and c. ovary; d. follicle. The diagram illus-
its organs become functional. trates egg maturation and ovulation.
25. Prior to ovulation, increasing levels of (b) FSH, LH, and estrogen (c) The
estrogen cause the lining of the uterus corpus luteum secretes estrogen and
to thicken. After ovulation, high levels progesterone, which cause the uterine
of both estrogen and progesterone lining to thicken. (d) menstruation
maintain the uterine lining and cause (e) After ovulation, the egg is swept
it to thicken more. If pregnancy does into a fallopian tube and travels toward
not occur, the levels of estrogen and the uterus. If the egg is not fertilized, it
progesterone decrease, causing the dies within 48 hours of ovulation and
lining of the uterus to shed. This leaves the body during menstruation.
marks the end of the menstrual cycle.

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Modern Biology ®

______ 1. metabolism a. structure made of tissues

______ 4. reproduction d. production of offspring

9. A scientist collects data to test a(n) .

10. Growth in living things occurs by cell and cell

11. A disadvantage of a(n) microscope is that living

12. is the increase in an object’s apparent size, whereas

is the ability to show details clearly in an image.

13. are those that are

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

The Science of Life, Chapter Test B continued

______15. Reproduction involves the transfer of genetic information from

______16. The stable internal environment maintained by living things is called

______ 17. The most important driving force in evolution is

______19. Data that are quantitative are always

______20. A hypothesis is a statement that

______21. A broad and comprehensive statement of what is believed to be true

______22. The safety symbol for eye safety is a picture of

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

The Science of Life, Chapter Test B continued

25. List seven major characteristics of life.

Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

The Science of Life, Chapter Test B continued

Follow the directions given below.

b. Which medium produced the most rapid growth initially?

c. Which medium produced the most growth overall?

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

______ 1. covalent bond a. involves transferred electrons

______ 2. atom b. loss of an electron

______ 5. molecule e. a substance composed of two or

Write the letter of the most correct answer in the blank.

______ 9. Elements tend to undergo chemical reactions that

______10. Sodium chloride (table salt) is an example of a compound formed by

______11. When pure water dissociates, it forms equal numbers of

______13. Charged particles that move around an atom’s nucleus are

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test B continued

______16. In an ionic bond,

______19. A redox reaction

______20. The amount of energy needed to start a chemical reaction is the

______21. A substance that neutralizes small amounts of acids or bases added

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test B continued

______22. A chemical reaction that can proceed forward or backward is

______23. All compounds contain at least

Answer the questions in the space provided.

27. List two characteristics of acids and two characteristics of bases.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test B continued

Follow the directions given below.

d. Consider the data on pH and enzyme activity shown in the graph. Do

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

______10. The presence of four electrons in the outermost energy level of a

______11. The breakdown of polymers into monomers occurs through a process

______12. Organic molecules that catalyze reactions in living systems are

______13. Lipids are good energy-storage molecules because

Biochemistry, Chapter Test B continued

______15. Enzymes lower activation energy by

______16. A compound that is stored as glycogen in animals and as starch in

______ 17. The three molecules shown below are

______18. In a triple bond, pair(s) of electrons are shared

______19. Amino acids become linked together by peptide bonds during

22. ATP contains __ phosphate groups.