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Which property refers to the tendency of microorganisms to induce the production of antibodies?

Select one:
a. Infectivity
b. Pathogenicity
c. Virulence

d. Immunogenicity
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Immunogenicity refers to the ability of pathogens, or disease-causing microbes to induce an immune
response, typically that of antibody production. Infectivity pertains to the ability of pathogens to invade
and multiply within human hosts. Pathogenicity refers to the ability of these microbes to cause harm or
disease, which when severe, i.e. death or disability-causing refers to their virulence
The correct answer is: Immunogenicity
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In what position is the patient when the x-ray table is inclined with the patient’s head slightly lower that
the body?
Select one:
a. Fowler’s
b. Sim’s
c. Supine

d. Trendelenburg
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Trendelenburg- used for Diagnostic Imaging and for promotion of venous return in patients with
inadequate peripheral perfusion.
The correct answer is: Trendelenburg
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Which class of infectious agents causes amoebiasis?


Select one:
a. Bacteria
b. Viruses
c. Fungi

d. Protozoa
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Amoebiasis is caused by Entamoeba histolytica, a simple unicellular organism belonging to the class
protista or protozoa.
The correct answer is: Protozoa
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A temperature of 99.8° F taken in the axilla is equivalent to which temperature value taken orally?
Select one:

a. 100.8° F
b. 99.8° F
c. 98.8° F
d. 97.8° F
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A. Normal temperature readings from the axilla are about 1° F below the normal oral temperature.
B. Normal temperature readings from the axilla are about 1° F below the normal oral temperature.
C. Normal temperature readings from the axilla are about 1° F below the normal oral temperature.
D. Normal temperature readings from the axilla are about 1° F below the normal oral temperature.
The correct answer is: 100.8° F
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A medical devices that is the least time consuming and the preferred method of sterilization for heat
and moisture stable medical devices.
Select one:

a. Auto claves
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Gas sterilization
d. Steam sterilization
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Steam Sterilization are moist heat in the form of saturated steam under pressure is the sterilant used in
the steam sterilizer (autoclave)
The correct answer is: Steam sterilization
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Through the client's health history, you gather that Mr. Dizon smokes and drinks coffee. When taking
the blood pressure of a client who recently smoked or drank coffee, how long should be the RT wait
before taking the client's blood pressure for accurate reading?
Select one:

a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 5 minutes
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Make sure that the client has not smoked or ingested caffeine within 30 minutes prior to
measurement.
OPTIONS A,C and D are incorrect
The correct answer is: 30 minutes
Question 7
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The most important measure for health care workers used to prevent the spread of infection is:
Select one:

a. Handwashing
b. Surgical Asepsis
c. Wearing a mask
d. Wearing a gown
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Handwashing is being done by health care workers to avoid/ prevent diseases especially having
contact with patient’s skin, having contact with bodily fluids or excretions, non- intact skins wound
dressings and contaminated items and having contact with inanimate objects near a patient.
The correct answer is: Handwashing
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Clostridium tetani, the causative organism for tetanus, resides in which natural habitat?
Select one:
a. Animals

b. Soil
c. Food
d. Water
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The reservoir or natural habitat for the bacterium Clostridium tetani is the soil.
The correct answer is: Soil
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Refers to the consent being given by another person in an emergency situation because the patient is
unable to make a decision.
Select one:
a. Consent
b. Informed consent
c. Blank Consent

d. Implied Constructive Consent


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Implied Constructive Consent- is a consent being given to anotherperson in an emergency situation
when the patient is unable to make a decision regarding the procedures or examinations
The correct answer is: Implied Constructive Consent
Question 10
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The statements below are true regarding correct upright posture except?
1. Keep knees slightly bent.
2. Hold chest up and slightly forward with the waist extended.
3. Hold head erect with the chin held in.
4. Keep the buttocks in and the abdomen up and in.
5. Stand with both feet parallel and at right angles to lower the legs
6. Keep both feet close together

Select one:
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 4 and 5

d. 6 only
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The correct answer is: 6 only
Question 11
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It refers to any process that effectively kills or eliminates transmissible agents such as fungi, bacteria,
viruses, prions and spores.
Select one:
a. Disinfection
b. Hand washing
c. Medically aseptic

d. Sterilization
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Sterilization – it can destroy microorganisms in or on, usually by bringing to a high temperature with
steam, dry heat or boiling liquid.
The correct answer is: Sterilization
Question 12
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All of the following statements are true, except:


Select one:
a. Emergency medication as initial form of treatment od first aid treatment must be totally or fully
coordinated with the physician in-charge or to the nurse.
b. Prescribing, advising or assisting patients with medication with no physician’s order is not

malpractice.
c. Medications are of concern to the radiographer because patient’s mobility and mental state may be
affected.
d. Radiographer should know what drugs the patient has been given and how they may affect the
examination.
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Prescribing, advising or assisting patients with medication with no physician’s order is malpractice.
The correct answer is: Prescribing, advising or assisting patients with medication with no physician’s
order is not malpractice.
Question 13
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Most common injury of hospital workers?


Select one:
a. Bladder injury
b. Head injury

c. Musculoskeletal injury
d. Spinal cord injury
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Injuries involving musculoskeletal system is the most common injury amongst hospital worker due to
improper lifting and improper use of body mechanics
The correct answer is: Musculoskeletal injury
Question 14
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The taking of John’s vital signs includes:


Select one:

a. temperature, blood pressure, respirations. and pulse


b. blood pressure, respirations, pulse and range of motion
c. temperature, intake and output, respirations, pulse and blood pressure
d. all of the above
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The four components of the vital signs assessment are temperature, blood pressure, pulse, and
respirations.
The correct answer is: temperature, blood pressure, respirations. and pulse
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The radiologic technologist suspects an irregularity in the rhythm of the patient’s radial pulse. What is
the most appropriate action for this radiologic technologist to take at this time?
Select one:
a. Document this rhythm as normal for the patient.
b. Use a Doppler to check the brachial pulse.

c. Count the patient’s apical pulse for a full minute.


d. Count the radial pulse again for 15 seconds and multiply by 4.
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A. An irregular rhythm is not a normal finding. The pulsation between each beat should be the same or
regular.
B. A Doppler is not indicated in this case; it is used when the pulse cannot be palpated.
C. When an irregular pulse is palpated, the radiologic technologist counts the number of pulsations for
a full minute.
D. Counting the radial pulse again for 15 seconds and multiplying by 4 may reconfirm the initial
findings, but does not provide additional data for the radiologic technologist on this patient.
The correct answer is: Count the patient’s apical pulse for a full minute.
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This refers to transfer of heat from one object to another with direct contact:
Select one:

a. conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation
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evaporation-transfer of heat when a liquid is changed to a gas
radiation -transfer of heat from one surface to another without contact
convection -transfer of heat away by air movements
conduction-transfer of heat from one object to another with direct contact
The correct answer is: conduction
Question 17
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Which property refers to the tendency of microorganisms to produce harm or disease in their hosts?
Select one:
a. Infectivity

b. Virulence
c. Pathogenicity
d. Immunogenicity
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Pathogenicity refers to the tendency of microorganisms to cause disease in their hosts. which when
severe, i.e. causing death or disability refers to their virulence.Immunogenicity refers to the ability of
pathogens, or disease-causing microbes to induce an immune response, typically that of antibody
production. Infectivity pertains to the ability of pathogens to invade and multiply within human hosts.
The correct answer is: Pathogenicity
Question 18
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A radiologic technologist obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The
radiologic technologist document this findings as:
Select one:
a. Tachypnea
b. Tachypnea
c. Arrhythmia

d. Tachycardia
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Tachycardia means rapid heart rate. Tachypnea (Option A) refers to rapid respiratory rate.
Hyperpyrexia (Option B) means increase in temperature. Arrhythmia (Option C) means irregular heart
rate.
The correct answer is: Tachycardia
Question 19
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Which pulse should the RT palpate during rapid assessment of an unconscious male adult?
Select one:
a. Radial
b. Brachial
c. Femoral

d. Carotid
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During a rapid assessment, the radiologic technologist’s first priority is to check the patient’s vital
functions by assessing his airway, breathing, and circulation. To check a patient’s circulation, the
radiologic technologist must assess his heart and vascular network function. This is done by checking
his skin color, temperature, mental status and, most importantly, his pulse. The radiologic technologist
should use the carotid artery to check a patient’s circulation. In a patient with a circulatory problems or
a history of compromised circulation, the radial pulse may not be palpable. The brachial pulse is
palpated during rapid assessment of an infant.
The correct answer is: Carotid
Question 20
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Common cold is passed on from one person to another through which agent/s?
Select one:
a. Contaminated water

b. Fomites
c. Contaminated food
d. Mechanical vectors
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The common cold is caused by viruses that are spread through contaminated non-living objects such
as doorknobs or utensils termed as fomites.
The correct answer is: Fomites
Question 21
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Which class of infectious agents causes mad cow disease?


Select one:
a. Bacteria
b. Viruses

c. Prions
d. Protozoa
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Mad cow disease or bovine spongiform encephalopathy is an infection transmitted by misfolded
infectious proteins called prions.
The correct answer is: Prions
Question 22
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Your next client is a child of 2 months is considered manifesting fast breathing if respiratory rate is:
Select one:
a. 50 breaths/minute
b. below 50 breaths/minute

c. 50 breaths/minute or more
d. 40 breaths/minute or more
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If the child is 2 months up to 12 months old, fast breathing is 50 breaths/minute or more
OPTION D: 12 months up, 40 breaths/minute or more
All other options are incorrect
The correct answer is: 50 breaths/minute or more
Question 23
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Pulmonary tuberculosis is a disease spread predominantly through which mode?


Select one:
a. Vector transmission

b. Droplet transmission
c. Airborne transmission
d. Fomites
Fomites
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Mycobacterium tuberculosis is spread through droplet nuclei capable of travelling long distances and is
considered an airborne disease. Droplets, due to their size and weight, are only able to travel short
distances. Vector borne diseases are those that involve animals particularly arthropods and insects
(e.g. mosquitoes). Fomites are non-living objects such as doorknobs or utensils that have been
contaminated with fluids coming from a person with the given infection.
The correct answer is: Airborne transmission
Question 24
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The patient with a respiratory rate that is within normal limits is the _____ whose respiratory rate is
_____ breaths/minute.
Select one:
a. 16-month-old; 36

b. 6-year-old; 20
c. 14-year-old;26
d. 40-year-old; 10
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A. A toddler’s respiratory rate ranges from 24 to 32.
B. A school-age child’s respiratory rate ranges from 18 to 26.
C. An adolescent’s respiratory rate ranges from 12 to 16.
D. An adult’s respiratory rate ranges from 12 to 20.
The correct answer is: 6-year-old; 20
Question 25
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A radiologic technologist is taking vital signs of an adult patient whose oxygen saturation is 96%. The
patient’s temperature is 102° F, blood pressure is 130/86, pulse is 100 beats/min, and respiratory rate
is 26 breaths/min. Which factor may be contributing to the elevated respiratory rate?
Select one:

a. The patient’s temperature


b. The patient’s oxygen saturation
c. The patient’s pulse rate
d. The patient’s blood pressure
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A. Fever is a factor that may increase respiratory rate, and this patient’s temperature is 102° F.
B. The patient’s oxygen saturation is a measure of the oxygen carried by hemoglobin and it is within
expected limits—above 90%.
C. The patient’s pulse rate may be due to the high temperature, but a pulse of 100 does not contribute
to an elevated respiratory rate in this case.
D. The patient’s blood pressure is higher than normal, but does not contribute to an elevated
respiratory rate in this case.
The correct answer is: The patient’s temperature
Question 26
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Vibrio cholera, the causative organism for cholera, is transported by which vehicle?
Select one:
a. Animals
b. Food
c. Soil

d. Water
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Vibrio cholera is a bacterium transmitted by ingestion of contaminated water, which serves as its
vehicle.
The correct answer is: Water
Question 27
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Upon taking the Chest X-ray of Myrna, you noticed that she has difficulty breathing when on her back
and must sit upright in bed to breath, effectively and comfortably. The radiologic technologist
recognizes this condition as:
Select one:
a. Apnea

b. Orthopnea
c. Dyspnea
d. Tachypnea
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Orthopnea: The inability to breathe easily unless one is sitting up straight or standing erect.
OPTION A: Apnea is the temporary cessation of breathing
OPTION C: Dyspnea: Difficult or labored breathing; shortness of breath.
OPTION D: Abnormally fast breathing. A respiratory rate that is too rapid.
The correct answer is: Orthopnea
Question 28
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Situations in Which Informed Consent May Not Be Necessary?


Select one:
a. Situations not involving medical procedures or treatment.

b. During Emergency Situations


c. Both A and B are correct
d. Both A and B are incorrect
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Informed consent are necessary for more invasive tests or for those tests or treatments with significant
risks or alternatives, you will be asked to give explicit (written) consent and uring emergency situations
in which medical care is needed immediately to prevent serious or irreversible harm.
The correct answer is: During Emergency Situations
Question 29
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Among the route of medication administration, it is the safe, most convenient and least expensive.
Select one:

a. oral route
b. parenteral route
c. topical route
d. inhalant route
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Oral route of medication administration is the safe, most convenient and least expensive.
The correct answer is: oral route
Question 30
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When measuring pulse rate, it is important to pay attention to:


Select one:
a. the rhythm of the pulse
b. the force of the pulse
c. the number of beats per minute

d. all of these
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all of the choices are thing to be considered to get the pulse rate.
The correct answer is: all of these
Question 31
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If the patient had a cast applied to the lower leg, what pulse would be assessed to evaluate circulation
in the leg?
Select one:
a. radial

b. dorsalis pedis
c. popliteal
d. femoral
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this is the farther pulse that needs to be assessed when a cast is applied to lower leg to check for
circulation
The correct answer is: dorsalis pedis
Question 32
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Which of the following is proper element of a wheelchair to x-ray table transfer of a patient who can
stand but cannot walk?
1. The radiographer stands beside the patient with one arm around the patient’s waist, the other
grasping the patient’s opposite forearm.
2. The radiographer stands facing the patient and places both hand on the patient’s scapulae.
3. The radiographer helps the patient into a standing position then stands behind the wheelchair to
prevent it from moving while the patient sits sideway in it.

Select one:

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 & 3
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The correct answer is: 1, 2 & 3
Question 33
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Which of the following are considered early signs of Decubitus ulcers?


1. Skin redness
2. Warm areas
3. Spongy or hard skin
4. Erosion of the top layers of skin or a sore?

Select one:
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1,2 and 4

d. 1,2,3, and 4
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All of the following are considered as early signs of decubitus ulcer and should be reported
immediately to the attending physician
The correct answer is: 1,2,3, and 4
Question 34
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Steps in dressing of patient are as follows, except:


Select one:
a. Ask the patient to begin dressing with the strongest side first.
b. You need to keep a watch on your client minutely in order to prevent him from fall.
c. Support him when he asks for your assistance or when you feel the requirement.

d. Start dressing the patient on his weakest side.


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In dressing the patient, start from the affected side.
The correct answer is: Ask the patient to begin dressing with the strongest side first.
Question 35
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Linens used for drapes or blankets for patients should be handled in such away that they do not
increase _______________.
Select one:

a. Agents
b. Infection
c. Dirt
d. Dust
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Dust comes from several sources and it is difficult to eliminate completely. Increased dust could be a
sign that it is time to change a dirty linen. Activities that produce dust can also be a source an
increase. Dust can also be introduced through leaks inducts or air filtration through leaky doors and
windows.
The correct answer is: Dust
Question 36
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The radiologic technologist should always tell the patient that they are now ready to assess
respirations.
Select one:
a. The statement is correct
b. The statement is false
c. I don’t know the answer
d. The statement is vague
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the patient must not be aware that you are counting his respiration so as not to get a false result
The correct answer is: The statement is false
Question 37
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Any dressing removed in the imaging department must be considered:


Select one:

a. Contaminated
b. Medically Aseptic
c. Sterile
d. Surgically Aseptic
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Contaminated to make impure or unsuitable by contact or mixture with something unclean, bad etc.
The correct answer is: Contaminated
Question 38
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A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The radiologic technologist assessing the
client finds the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best method to take the
client’s body temperature?
Select one:
a. Oral
b. Axillary
c. Arterial line

d. Rectal
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Taking the temperature via the oral route is incorrect since the client had oral surgery. Choice C and D
are unnecessary. Taking the temperature via the axilla is the most appropriate route.
The correct answer is: Axillary
Question 39
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Request indicating patient information the name, name of exam, affected part and initial findings to be
ruled out
Select one:
a. X-ray request form
b. Radiology request form

c. Both A and B correct


d. Both A and B are incorrect
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Radiology Request Form or otherwise known as X-ray Request form is a form indicating patient
information the name, name of exam, affected part and initial findings to be ruled out for radiologic
exams.
The correct answer is: Both A and B correct
Question 40
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Patient position utilized for hypotensive patient?


Select one:
a. Fowlers
b. Prone
c. Supine

d. Trendelenburg
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Trendelenburg- used for Diagnostic Imaging and for promotion of venous return in patients with
inadequate peripheral perfusion.
The correct answer is: Trendelenburg
Question 41
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All of the following are purposes of taking vital signs except:


Select one:

a. Identify problems
b. Monitor the condition of a patient
c. Evaluate patients’ response/s to intervention/s
d. All of the above
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All pertains to the purposes of taking vital signs on a patient
The correct answer is: All of the above
Question 42
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An upper respiratory tract infection characterized by an inspiratory whooping sound followed by bouts
of coughing characterizes which vaccine-preventable disease?
Select one:
a. Tetanus
b. Diphtheria

c. Pertussis
d. Rubeola
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All four diseases are regarded as vaccine preventable infections. Pertussis, or whooping cough is a
bacterial infection, characterized by paroxysmal or episodic coughing that may persist after infection.
Tetanus is a bacterial infection transmitted through the soil that primarily causes paralysis. Diphtheria is
a bacterial infection that produces pseudomembranes in the air passages that may make breathing
difficult while rubeola or measles is a viral infection with a characteristic rash.
The correct answer is: Pertussis
Question 43
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Which class of infectious agents causes varicella?


Select one:
a. Bacteria

b. Viruses
c. Prions
d. Protozoa
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Varicella or chickenpox is a viral infection with a characteristic exanthem or rash caused by varicella
zoster virus, a member of the herpesviruses.
The correct answer is: Viruses
Question 44
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This refers to transfer of heat when a liquid is changed to a gas:


Select one:
a. conduction
b. convection
c. radiation

d. evaporation
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
evaporation-transfer of heat when a liquid is changed to a gas
radiation -transfer of heat from one surface to another without contact
convection -transfer of heat away by air movements
conduction-transfer of heat from one object to another with direct contact
The correct answer is: evaporation
Question 45
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When assisting a Patient with Intravenous line to put on a hospital gown what should be done first?
Select one:
a. Start with the unaffected side first

b. Start with the affected side first


c. Start with either side
d. None of these
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In redressing the patient with intravenous line, start from the affected side.
The correct answer is: Start with the affected side first
Question 46
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Regulate the flow of water so that it does not splash from the ______________.
Select one:
a. Bowl
b. Faucet

c. Sink
d. Towel
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Sink so that it will go down below the surface of water or to fall or move to a lower level.
The correct answer is: Sink
Question 47
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Handwashing should be done for a minimum of?


Select one:
a. 3 seconds
b. 5 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 1 minute
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It should be done for a minimum of 1 minute needed to eliminate 100% germs/ bacteria.
The correct answer is: 1 minute
Question 48
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Which of the following guidelines will effectively protect the radiographer from physical harm while
moving a large patient?
Select one:
a. Push a weight instead of pulling it
b. Keep the feet as close together as possible
c. Avoid using the patient’s moving abilities

d. Lift with legs instead of the back


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When lifting an object do not bent your waist always bend with your hips or your knees.To avoid strain
on your back muscles, pull the object instead of pushing it because the muscles in pulling is stronger
than the muscle you use in pushing.
The correct answer is: Lift with legs instead of the back
Question 49
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Which refers to the protective covering enclosing DNA or RNA of viruses?


Select one:
a. Yeast
b. Nucleoid
c. Prion

d. Capsid
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Viruses contain genetic material in the form of DNA or RNA, encapsulated by a covering known as the
capsid. They lack organelles, including the central nucleoid region found in bacteria. Prions are
proteinaceous infections agents while yeasts are single celled microscopic forms of fungi.
The correct answer is: Capsid
Question 50
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A wheeled container of equipment and drugs typically required in emergency situations.
Select one:
a. Emergency cart
b. crash cart

c. Both A & B
d. none of the choices
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Most radiology department have at least one emergency cart (often referred to as a crash cart) needed
to handle typical life-threatening emergencies.
The correct answer is: Both A & B
Question 51
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Koplik’s spots, ulcerations on the inside surface of the cheeks, are viral enanthema associated with
which condition?
Select one:

a. Measles
b. Mumps
c. Rubella
d. Varicella
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Your answer is correct.


Eruptions or rashes found inside the body are termed as enanthema; as compared to exanthema,
which are seen on the skin. Ulcerations on the inner surface of the cheeks called Koplik’s spots are
highly characteristic of the viral infection rubeola or measles.
The correct answer is: Measles
Question 52
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Healthcare associated infections properly refer to diseases contracted by in-patients AT LEAST how
many hours after being admitted to the hospital?
Select one:
a. 12 hours

b. 48 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 72 hours
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Healthcare associated infections, formerly known as nosocomial infections, are infections contracted
by in-patients after being admitted for at least 48 hours in the hospital.
The correct answer is: 48 hours
Question 53
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What position places the patient flat on his or her back?


Select one:
a. Fowler’s
b. Sim’s

c. Supine
d. Trendelenburg
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Supine - Used to the exams of breasts/abdominal organs. Lying flat on the table, with legs together,
hands at sides of body.
The correct answer is: Supine
Question 54
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Patient with cardiogenic shock should be placed in what position for comfort?
Select one:
a. Supine
b. Trendelenburg

c. Semi-Fowler’s
d. Fowler’s
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Patient with cardiogenic shock should be placed in semi-Fowler’sposition that will facilitate respiration.
The correct answer is: Semi-Fowler’s
Question 55
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Which of the following can raise body temperature?


Select one:
a. perspiration

b. exercise
c. respiration
d. sleep
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all the other options decreases body temperature
The correct answer is: exercise
Question 56
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You are to measure the client's initial blood pressure reading by doing all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:

a. Take the blood pressure reading on both arms for comparison


b. Listen to and identify the phases of Korotkoff's sounds
c. Pump the cuff up to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated
d. Observe procedures for infection control
Feedback

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All are correct guidelines in measuring the blood pressure except Option C. The cuff is pumped until
the sphygmomanometer reads 30mmHg above the point where the brachial pulse disappeared.
The correct answer is: Pump the cuff up to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is
obliterated
Question 57
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The use of negative air pressure in private rooms falls under which type of precautions?
Select one:
a. Standard precautions
b. Contact precautions
c. Droplet precautions

d. Airborne precautions
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Due to the high propensity of droplet nuclei to travel long distances, the room of patients suffering from
these infections are equipped with negative air pressure, so as to contain any infected air particles
within these spaces.
The correct answer is: Droplet precautions
Question 58
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Where is the center of gravity for a standing patient?


Select one:
a. At the center of the diaphragm
b. At the midline level with the iliac crest
c. In the cervico-thoracic region

d. In the pelvis near the symphysis Pubis


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In the human body, when standing in the anatomical position it is located anterior to the second sacral
vertebra. (In the pelvis near the symphysis Pubis)
The correct answer is: In the pelvis near the symphysis Pubis
Question 59
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Droplet transmission involves the propulsion of oral or respiratory secretions at which MAXIMUM
distance?
Select one:
a. 1 foot
b. 2 feet

c. 3 feet
d. 4 feet
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Droplets are heavy and large particles suspended in air and may only travel approximately a distance
of 3 feet or 1 meter from their source.
The correct answer is: 3 feet
Question 60
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Which term describes infections acquired by patients or healthcare workers in the setting of the
hospital or clinic?
Select one:
a. Nosocomial infections

b. Healthcare associated infections


c. Occupational infections
d. Opportunistic infections
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Healthcare associated infections, formerly known as nosocomial infections, are infections contracted
by both patients and healthcare workers within the hospital or clinical setting. Nosocomial infections
are infections of the same nature that are typically limited to patients alone. Opportunistic infections
are those which appear in patients who are immunocompromised.
The correct answer is: Healthcare associated infections
Question 61
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Considered as the most common hospital accident in the Radiology Department ?
Select one:

a. Patient Fall
b. Incorrect introduction of drugs
c. Wrong x-ray procedure
d. Incorrect patient identity
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Patient fall are most commonly reported accident in the Radiology Department
The correct answer is: Patient Fall
Question 62
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Giardiasis is an example of an infection caused by which class of single-celled pathogens that have
distinct nuclei?
Select one:
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses

d. Protozoa
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Protozoa are single-celled microorganisms, such as Giardia lamblia, the causative agent for giardiasis,
that possess distinct nuclei, in contrast to bacteria, which have a central nucleoid region. Viruses are
acellular while fungi may be unicellular (such as yeasts) or multicellular (such as molds).
The correct answer is: Protozoa
Question 63
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An instrument used for auscultation is:


Select one:
a. Percussion-hammer
b. Audiometer

c. Stethoscope
d. Sphygmomanometer
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An instrument used for auscultation is a stethoscope
The correct answer is: Stethoscope
Question 64
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Term denoting that the patient has no knowledge of the procedures that will be performed and that
verbal consent should be obtained.
Select one:
a. Simple Consent

b. Inadequate Consent
c. Informed consent
d. Blank Consent
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Simple consent is the consent to be used when patient has no knowledge of the procedures that will
be performed and that verbal consent should be obtained/explained by the radiologic technologist on
duty.
The correct answer is: Simple Consent
Question 65
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Notifying the patient of specific procedures and the options involved in his care.
Select one:

a. Informed consent
b. Blank Consent
c. Ignorant Consent
d. None of the Above
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The patient is notified about the specific procedures or examinations and the options involved in
his/her care.
The correct answer is: Informed consent
Question 66
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There are many factors that affect vital signs. Which one of the following factors is the most common?
Select one:
a. Nutrition

b. Age
c. Pain
d. Environment
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Pain can increase vital signs like the pulse rate and the blood pressure. Among the four choices pain
has a direct link on the vital signs.
The correct answer is: Pain
Question 67
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The following can be done to prevent decubitus ulcer except?


Select one:
a. Practice turning the patient every 2 hours
b. Use of egg crate mattress
c. Use of hand and body lotion

d. Practice turning the patient when the patient is awake


Feedback

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Decubitus Ulcer can be prevent through practice of turning the patient admitted in Hospital ICU every
two hours or when the patient is awake. Egg crate mattress are also used in hospital beds to allow air
to pass through and prevent ulcers
The correct answer is: Use of hand and body lotion
Question 68
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Which pulse is measured on the left side of the chest directly over the heart?
Select one:
a. brachial
b. carotid

c. apical
d. radial
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it is the site of the apical pulse. Brachial pulse is located at the antecubital fossa of the arm, radial
pulse can be palpated at the thumb-side of the arm, and carotid pulse can be palpated on the side of
the neck.
The correct answer is: apical
Question 69
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The person who receives care in long-term care facility.


Select one:
a. Client
b. Invalid
c. Patient
d. Resident
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Patient is a person who is under medical care and treatment.
The correct answer is: Patient
Question 70
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Which of the following are necessary when returning a patient to their room following x-ray
examination?
1. Lower the bed to the lowest position.
2. Report the return of the patient to the appropriate
nursing station.
3. Take the patient’s medical chart to the
radiology department to add the report from the
x- ray examination.

Select one:

a. 1 & 2 only
b. 1 & 3 only
c. 2 & 3 only
d. 1, 2 & 3
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As an RT we are not allowed to write on the patient chart
The correct answer is: 1 & 2 only
Question 71
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Which blood-borne pathogen carries the highest risk of infection after needlestick injury?
Select one:
a. Hepatitis A virus

b. Hepatitis B virus
c. Hepatitis C virus
d. Human immunodeficiency virus
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Needlestick injuries present an opportunity for the transmission of bloodborne viral infections, among
which are hepatitis B, hepatitis C and HIV, which are associated with 6-30%, 1.8% and 0.3% infection
risks, respectively.
The correct answer is: Hepatitis B virus
Question 72
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Rapport
Select one:
a. Two forms of simple consent
b. Component of informed consent
c. Components of Blank Consent

d. Harmonious relationship with patient


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Rapport is a close and harmonious relationship in which the people or groups concerned understand
each other's feelings or ideas and communicate well.
The correct answer is: Harmonious relationship with patient
Question 73
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After a few hours in the Emergency Room, Mr. Dizon is admitted to the ward with an order of hourly
monitoring of blood pressure. The RT finds that the cuff is too narrow while the intern is taking the
patient’s blood pressure and and you know that this will cause the blood pressure reading to be:
Select one:
a. Inconsistent
b. low systolic and high diastolic pressure

c. higher than what the reading should be


d. lower than what the reading should be
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When the cuff is too narrow it will give the radiologic technologist an erroneously high reading.
OPTION A is a result of failure to use the same arm consistently
OPTION B is a result of deflating the cuff too quickly
OPTION D is a result of using too wide cuff
The correct answer is: higher than what the reading should be
Question 74
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Causes of pressure ulcers are as follows, except:
Select one:
a. Pressure exerted by the weight of the body
b. Frictional rubbing of the skin

c. Regular position changes


d. Shearing forces or sliding of the skin between underlying bony structures and external surfaces
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Regular position changes can help prevent decubitus ulcer.
The correct answer is: Regular position changes
Question 75
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The procedure used to prevent contamination of microbes before surgery.


Select one:
a. Disinfection
b. Hand washing
c. Sterilization

d. Surgical Asepsis
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Surgical Asepsis can destroy microorganisms both pathogens & non- pathogenic including spores or
the complete removal of microorganisms and their spores
The correct answer is: Surgical Asepsis
Question 76
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Which of the following are not symptoms of hypoglycemia?


1. Shaking, nervousness and irritability
2. Dizziness and hunger, may complain of headache
3. Profuse and hunger
4. Cold clammy skin
5. Diminishing motor consciousness

Select one:
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4

c. 4 and 5
d. none of the above
Feedback
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Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia are Shaking, nervousness and irritability dizziness and hunger,
may complain of headache, profuse and hunger, cold clammy skin and diminishing motor
consciousness.
The correct answer is: none of the above
Question 77
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The temperature of a patient is measured every 6 hours at 6 AM, 12 PM, 6 PM, and 12 AM. Which
temperature reading is expected to be low due to a normal variation?
Select one:

a. The measurement at 6 AM
b. The measurement at 12 PM
c. The measurement at 6 PM
d. The measurement at 12 AM
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A. Early in the morning is the time of the lowest temperature of the day due to circadian rhythms.
B. A low temperature due to circadian rhythms is not expected at this time.
C. The highest temperature occurs in the late afternoon and early evening due to circadian rhythms.
D. A low temperature due to circadian rhythms is not expected at this time.
The correct answer is: The measurement at 6 AM
Question 78
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This pertains to the reflection of the balance between the heat produced and the heat lost from the
body:
Select one:

a. Temperature
b. Pulse
c. Respiration
d.
Blood pressure
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Temperature reflects the balance between the heat produced and the heat lost from the body
The correct answer is: Temperature
Question 79
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Which of the following are elements of a pull sheet transfer of a patient from an x-ray table to
a stretcher cart?
1. Roll the sheet as close to the patient’s body as possible.
2. When 2 persons are transferring the patient, one should be positioned on each side of
the patient.
3. When 3 persons are transferring the patient, all should be on the same side of the patient.

Select one:

a. 1 & 2 only
b. 1 & 3 only
c. 2& 3only
d. 1, 2 & 3
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For three person transfer- one stays and supports the head while the other two are on each side of the
bed
The correct answer is: 1, 2 & 3
Question 80
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A form of pharyngitis complicated by the formation of pseudomembranes that may block the airway
characterizes which vaccine-preventable disease?
Select one:
a. Tetanus

b. Diphtheria
c. Pertussis
d. Rubeola
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All four diseases are regarded as vaccine preventable infections. Diphtheria is an infection caused by
the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae that produces pseudomembranes in the air passages that
may make breathing difficult. Pertussis, or whooping cough is likewise a bacterial infection,
characterized by paroxysmal or episodic coughing that may persist after infection. Tetanus is a
bacterial infection transmitted through the soil that primarily causes paralysis, while rubeola or measles
is a viral infection with a characteristic rash.
The correct answer is: Diphtheria
Question 81
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The use of N95 respirator masks is recommended for known or suspected cases of which
communicable disease?
Select one:
a. Pneumonia

b. Pulmonary tuberculosis
c. Gonorrhea
d. HIV Infection
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Use of N95 respiratory masks is advised as a precautionary measure against airborne infections such
as varicella, measles and pulmonary tuberculosis. The respiratory disease pneumonia and the sexually
transmitted infections, gonorrhea and HIV are spread through contact with contaminated surfaces and
require contact precautions.
The correct answer is: Pulmonary tuberculosis
Question 82
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When untreated, which infection could lead to cancer in a select subset of patients?
Select one:
a. Viral hepatitis
b. Varicella

c. Pulmonary tuberculosis
d. Syphilis
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Hepatitis B and C, which causes acute viral hepatitis, predispose to the development of hepatocellular
carcinoma. Other oncogenic viruses include certain strains of human papillomavirus (HPV), which are
considered causative in cervical cancer.
The correct answer is: Viral hepatitis
Question 83
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The sexually transmitted disease, gonorrhea is a disease that is spread predominantly through which
mode?
Select one:
a. Vector transmission

b. Contact transmission
c. Airborne transmission
d. Fomites
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Gonorrhea, a venereal disease caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrheae, is spread through direct
contact, typically in the setting of unprotected sexual intercourse, with infected individuals.
The correct answer is: Contact transmission
Question 84
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These are caused by occlusion of the blood supply to the brain, rupture of the blood supply to the
brain, or rupture of a cerebral artery, resulting in hemorrhage directly into the brain tissues or into the
spaces surrounding the brain.
Select one:
a. Shock
b. Diabetes Mellitus
c. Seizure

d. Cerebral Vascular Accident (CVA)


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Cerebral Vascular Accident (CVA) are caused by occlusion or rupture of the cerebral arteries directly
into the brain tissue or into the sub-arachnoid area.
The correct answer is: Cerebral Vascular Accident (CVA)
Question 85
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Before doing the ultrasound, the radiologic technologist is preparing to take vital signs in an alert client
admitted to the hospital with dehydration secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method
used to assess the client’s temperature?
Select one:
a. Oral

b. Axillary
c. Radial
d. Heat sensitive tape
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Axilla is the most accessible body part in this situation.
The correct answer is: Axillary
Question 86
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If the radiologic technologist is taking a rectal temperature on an infant, how far should the
thermometer be inserted into the rectum?
Select one:
a. ½ inch
b. 1 inch

c. 1 ½ inches
d. Just the tip of the rectal thermometer will do
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it is the recommended depth of insertion for rectal thermometer taking.
The correct answer is: ½ inch
Question 87
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Why is anaphylactic shock the most frequent seen type of shock in the diagnostic imaging
department?
Select one:
a. Patients who come for diagnostic imaging procedures are weak and debilitated.

b. Iodinated contrast agents are frequently used.


c. Patients here have more allergies.
d. X-ray causes this problem
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Anaphylactic shock is caused by an allergic reaction and is the type that is most often seen in the
radiography department because iodinated contrast agents that are used for some radiographic
imaging procedures and examinations may produce this reaction.
The correct answer is: Iodinated contrast agents are frequently used.
Question 88
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This refers to transfer of heat from one surface to another without contact:
Select one:
a. conduction
b. convection

c. radiation
d. evaporation
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evaporation-transfer of heat when a liquid is changed to a gas
radiation -transfer of heat from one surface to another without contact
convection -transfer of heat away by air movements
conduction-transfer of heat from one object to another with direct contact
The correct answer is: radiation
Question 89
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When we obtain the vital signs of our patients, it is important for us to analyze the significance of vital
signs measurement. Do not interpret vital signs without knowing your patient’s other physical signs or
symptoms and health status.
Select one:

a. The statement is correct


b. The statement is wrong
c. The statement is vague
d. The statement is ambiguous
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The statement is correctly stated.
The correct answer is: The statement is correct
Question 90
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The legal aspect of obtaining consent deals with the imaging staff.
Select one:
a. Informed consent
b. Blank Consent
c. Ignorant Consent

d. “ duty to warn “ and the ethics “ no do harm”


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The legal aspect of obtaining consent deals with the imaging staff “ duty to warn “ and
the ethics “ no do harm”
The correct answer is: “ duty to warn “ and the ethics “ no do harm”
Question 91
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Which statement is correct regarding taking or interpreting axillary temperatures?


Select one:
a. Axillary temperatures should not be used in patients less than 2 years of age.
b. The thermometer is placed in the axilla with the shoulder abducted.

c. Readings may be less accurate.


d. The thermometer is left in place for no more than 3 minutes.
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A. The axilla is a common site for temperature measurement on infants and children.
B. Multiple studies have shown temperature measurements at the axillary site are less accurate
compared with alternative sites.
C. The thermometer is left in place until the audible signal occurs and the temperature appears on the
screen.
D. Place the probe in the middle of the axilla, with the arm held against the body (adducted).
The correct answer is: Readings may be less accurate.
Question 92
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In the word asepsis A is termed as:


Select one:

a. Absence
b. Condition
c. Infection
d. Sterilization
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Absence a state or condition in which something is absent or the state of being away.
The correct answer is: Absence
Question 93
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In most cases, the radiologic technologist’s first action that should be taken in a life-threatening
emergency is _________.
Select one:

a. To call the hospital emergency team


b. Call the physician conducting the procedure
c. Call a co-worker for assistance
d. All of the answer are correct
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The priority in life threatening situations is to stabilize the patient.
The correct answer is: To call the hospital emergency team
Question 94
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What is the most common cause of convulsive seizure?


Select one:

a. epilepsy
b. fainting
c. hypoglycemia
d. convulsion
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
Epilepsy is the most common cause of convulsive seizures.
The correct answer is: epilepsy
Question 95
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The RT uses a stethoscope to auscultate a male patient’s chest. Which statement about a stethoscope
with a bell and diaphragm is true?
Select one:
a. The bell detects high-pitched sounds best

b. The diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds best


c. The bell detects thrills best
d. The diaphragm detects low-pitched sounds best
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The diaphragm of a stethoscope detects high-pitched sound best; the bell detects low pitched sounds
best. Palpation detects thrills best.
The correct answer is: The diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds best
Question 96
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Involved when a patient wants a procedure to be performed although they may not have given or
written approval.
Select one:
a. Implied Constructive Consent

b. Expressed Consent
c. Inadequate Consent
d. Blank Consent.
Feedback

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Expressed consent is permission for something that is given specifically, either verbally or in
writing.The patient is aware of the situation/plan of action and allows you to give him or her care.
Expressed consent can be verbal or nonverbal.
The correct answer is: Expressed Consent
Question 97
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Congenital infection of which disease may lead to deafness, eye lesions, heart malformations or mental
retardation in the newborn?
Select one:
a. Measles
b. Mumps

c. Rubella
d. Varicella
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Congenital rubella infection is associated with inborn sensory, cardiac and brain defects.
The correct answer is: Mumps
Question 98
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Which of the following methods is ideal in eliminating microorganisms in plastic instruments?


Select one:
a. Dry heat sterilization
b. Chemical sterilization
c. Moist heat sterilization

d. None of the above


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For heat-sensitive equipment, such as plastic instruments, chemical sterilization using ethylene oxide
(or low temperature sterilization) is ideal to protect the structural integrity of these materials.
The correct answer is: Chemical sterilization
Question 99
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Radiologic technologists understand that a patient’s diastolic pressure represents which physiologic
function?
Select one:
a. The pressure needed to open the aortic and pulmonic valves
b. The pressure in blood vessels when the ventricles contract
c. The pressure of the blood returning to the heart from the venous system

d. The pressure in blood vessels when the ventricles are relaxed


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The pressure needed to open the aortic and pulmonic valves is called the afterload.
B. The pressure in blood vessels when the ventricles contract is the definition of the systolic
pressure.
C. The pressure of the blood returning to the heart from the venous system is incorrect.
D. The pressure in blood vessels when the ventricles are relaxed is the definition of the diastolic
pressure.
The correct answer is: The pressure in blood vessels when the ventricles are relaxed
Question 100
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When counting the pulse rate, you may use the pulse at what points?
Select one:
a. The carotid artery
b. The radial artery
c. The apical area of the heart via the chest using a stethoscope

d. All of the above


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The pulse can accurately be counted using any of these areas, although for most initial assessments
the radial pulse is used.
The correct answer is: All of the above

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