First Part Questions 1-751

PSAE Region IV - Agricultural Engineering Board Review Materials I-1
FIRST PART REVIEW QUESTIONS
Agricultural Mechanization and Machinery, Farm Power and Energy, Farm Economics,
Farm Management, Farm Marketing, and Farm Shop
Pre-Board 2004
1. The management process by which management think their actions through in advance and
where the organization’s mission, vision, goals, and objectives are made is called
a. organizing b. planning
c. staffing d. controlling
2. Which of the following is not a classification of farm jobs?

a. field work b. calendar work
c. work for rainy days d. outside work that can be delayed
3. The ratio of input over output is termed as

a. planning b. efficiency
c. effectiveness d. organizing
4. Small gear or any two gears that are meshing together

a. helical gear b. sector
c. pinion d. main drive
5. Which of the following are the classes of risks in agriculture

a. liquidity b. human factor
c. market conditions d. Statements b and c
6. The weight of a fuel used by an engine per unit time divided by the corresponding power
measured
a. specific fuel consumption b. specific energy
c. thermal efficiency d. specific heat
7. The process of allowing into the engine chamber a volume of air larger than what the engine
chamber would normally admit during suction stroke
a. turbo charging b. choking
c. supercharging d. intake
8. Among the following statements, which are considered to be method/s of reducing risks in
agriculture
a. insurance b. future contract
c. diversification d. all of the above
9. The unit draft of a 5 bottom, 26 inches disc plow is 8psi, when plowing at 4kph. Assuming
width of cut is 10” per disc. What is the drawbar HP requirement of the plow?
a. 69.91 HP b. 97.65 HP
c. 45.02 HP d. 57.80 HP
10. How many hectare will a disk plow finish in 10 hours if the effective cut is 12”/ disk at a
speed of 5kph and an average of 30% time loss
a. 6.788 ha b. 2.087 ha
c. 5.334 ha d. 8.910 ha
11. Hackett just made the first quarterly payment of P900 in interest for a loan that carries an
interest rate of 3% per quarter. The original amount of the loan is:
a. P18,750 b. P35,000 c. P30,000 d. P140,000
12. How much money will be accumulated in 3 years if a farm worker made semi-annual deposits
of P5,000.00 starting 6 months from now until the end of the 3 rd year when the account pays
interest of 4% per 6 months?
a. P31,200 b. P33,165 c. P15,200 d. P18,460
13. Anything of value possessed by a farm enterprise is considered ___ (x) ___ while anything
used by the business that belongs to its creditors is ___ (y) ___
a. x = equity; y = stocks c. x = property; y = ownership
b. x = asset; y = liability d. x = investment; y = income
14. ___ (x) ___ is a market situation that exists when there are few suppliers of a product or
service that the action by one will result in ___ (y) ___ action by the others
a. x = Perfect competition; y = indefinite c. x = Monopoly; y = similar
b. x = Oligopoly; y = opposite d. x = Oligopoly; y = similar
15. Costs that are unaffected by changes in activity level of a farm enterprise are referred to as
___ (x) ___, examples of which include ___ (y) ___
a. x = variable costs; y = labor, seeds, fuel
b. x = fixed costs; y = land, farm machinery, irrigation system
c. x = maintenance and operating costs; y = farm labor, fertilizer, fuel
d. x = initial costs; y = land, machines, irrigation
16. The value of the interest factor needed to calculate equal payments to be made every year
for 9 years to repay a loan of P300,000 at an interest rate of 13% per year
a. 3.4069 b. 0.1949 c. 5.1317 d. 0.0649
17. The value of A in the cash flow below, if interest rate is 6% per year, is closest to
P800
A=?
0 1 2 3 4
P1,400
a. A = P306.80 b. A = P255.90 c. A = P284.60 d. A = P362.40
18. White sugar, which sells for P26.50 per kg-pack, can be repacked and sold by a retailer at a
variable cost of P200 per 50kg-sack. If each sack of sugar costs P750 and fixed costs
amount to P30,000 per month, how many sacks of white sugar must the retailer repack and
sell each month to break even?
a. 80 sacks b. 70 sacks c. 60 sacks d. 90 sacks
19. Which of the following is a mistmatch?

a. consumer goods and services – tractor, fertilizer, farm animals
b. assets – farmhouse, land, cash, farm implements
c. liabilities – taxes, wages, prepaid income

d. producer goods – vehicle for transporting products, farm machinery,
insecticide
20. Commodity surplus occurs when the selling price is ___ (x) ___, but equilibrium is attained
when the sellers agree to sell at a price at which ___ (y) ___ are willing to buy
a. x = high; y = consumers c. x = low; y = consumers
b. x = low; y = vendors d. x = high; y = vendors
21. In producing farm tillers, Kasaka Ltd. has determined that its selling price and the quantity it
can sell per month are related by the equation p = P1350 – 0.15D where p is the price and D
is the quantity it can sell or produce. If fixed costs per month amount to P200,000 and the
variable cost per unit is P300, then the number of units that will maximize net profit is
a. 2,400 b. 1,250 c. 3,500 d. 6,000
22. In no. 21, the maximum net profit is

a. P468,000 b. P1.05M c. P637,500 d. P892,400
23. If you invest P25,000 now in a farm business venture that promises to return P39,338, how
soon must you receive P39,338 in order to make at least 12% per year on your investment?
a. 4 years b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 6 years
24. The interest formula for equal payment series applies when the cash flow consists of uniform
amounts with the first occurring at the __ (x) __ of year 1 and the last __ (y) __ the number
of interest periods, n
a. x = beginning; y = coinciding with
b. x = end; y = occurring one period before
c. x = beginning; y = overlapping with
d. x = end; y = coinciding with
25. At what rate of investment, compounded quarterly, will an investment double itself in 5
years?
a. 14.87% b. 3.53% c. 3.72% d. 14.11%
26. A farmer’s cooperative is willing to lend its clients P4000. However, P4020 is repaid at the
end of 1 month. What is the nominal annual interest rate?
a. 12.5% b. 15% c. 6% d. 10%
27. What is the effective annual interest rate in no. 26?

a. 13.24% b. 10.62% c. 15.98% d. 6.17%
28. A small firm manufacturing farm products is considering the purchase of a new machine to
modernize one of its current production lines. A certain machine has a service life of 6 years,
initial cost of P85,000, estimated salvage value of P10,000, annual operating and
maintenance cost of P5,200 and needs engine overhaul every 4 years at a cost of P2,800.
What is the estimated annual worth of the cost of this machine at an interest rate of 12%?
a. P23,047 b. P32,467 c. P25,073 d. P28, 564
29. A water pumping system has the following associated cash flows: Initial cost = P100,000;
annual savings = P10,000; annual maintenance cost = P500; expected life = 20 years;
salvage value = P5,000. A minimum attractive rate of return (MARR) of 6% is desired.
Calculate the conventional B/C ratio for the heating system.
a. 1.10 b. 1.30 c. 1.15 d. 1.20
30. An investment opportunity for a farmer has the following financial information: Investment
cost at n = 0, P100,000; useful life = 10 years; salvage value at the end of 10 years =
P50,000; annual revenues beginning with the third year = P120,000 per year; annual
expenses = P40,000 per year; MARR = 10%. Will you recommend that the farmer invest his
money into the venture?
a. No, because it has a negative NPV of P77,256
b. No, because it has a negative annual worth of P36,245
c. Yes, because it has a future worth of P608,620
d. Yes, because it has a positive NPV of P313,679
31. The greatest heat loss for a 4-stroke cycle, spark ignition engine with a thermal efficiency of
23% is attributed to:
a. cooling system b. exhaust gases
c. friction d. radiation
32. This gas is a mixture of butane and propane and may be used to a considerable extent as
engine fuel.
a. LPG b. biogas
c. producer gas d. natural gas
33. This refers to the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature 1 lb of water 1ºF.
a. specific heat b. thermal conductivity
c. Btu d. heating value
34. This mixture of 90% gasoline and 10% alcohol is used as a fuel for spark ignition engine.
a. methyl ester b. ethyl ester
c. gasohol d. normal heptane
35. It is the partial or complete interruption of the fuel flow in the fuel system as a result of
vaporization of the fuel and the formation of gas bubbles at some point.
a. stalling b. detonation c. vapor lock d.explosion
36. Man as a power unit is very inefficient and ineffective. He is limited to a continuous power
output of :
a. 746 watts b. 3,300 ft-lb/min c. 0.1 kilowatt d. 0.1 hp-hr
37. The energy received from the sun, per unit of time, on a normal surface at the average
distance between the sun and earth outside the earth’s atmosphere is equal to:
a. 1,353 w/m2 b. 690 w/m2 c. 460 w/m2 d. 1,533 w/m2
38. At a wind velocity of 10 m/s, a 3-meter-diamater windmill for pumping water can
approximately generate:
a. 1.73 kilowatts b. 1.54 kilowatts c. 10.65 kilowatts d. 3.57 kilowatts
39. The maximum percentage of energy that can be obtained from the wind through the use of
any mechanical wind energy conversion device is:
a. 50% b. 25.5% c. 59.3 % d. 40.7%
40. It is a vertical axis windmill with a very low tip-speed ratio.

a. Cretan b. Savonius c. Darrieus d. 2-bladed airfoil type
41. This pump uses the energy of a downward-flowing stream of water to lift a portion of the
water to a higher level.
a. centrifugal pump b. waterwheel c. hydraulic ram d. water turbine
42. This fuel is obtained from the fermentation of wet wastes such as animal dung in the
absence of oxygen. This gaseous fuel contains up to 60 percent methane.
a. producer gas b. carbon monoxide c. biogas d.lpg
43. If a carabao pulls an implement with a draft of 1,000 nt at a speed of 4 kph, what is the
approximate power generated?
a. 1 hp b. 1.8 kW c. 1.5 kW d. 1.5 hp
44. In the operation of this ideal engine, the combustion of fuel occurs instantaneously such that
the pressure rises at constant volume.
a. Diesel cycle engine b. Carnot cycle engine
c. compression ignition engine d. Otto cycle engine
45. An engine with a clearance volume of 120 cm 3 and whose bore and stroke are 10 cm and 10
cm, respectively, is most possibly:
a. a compression ignition engine b. a diesel engine
c. a gasoline engine d. a jet engine
46. The ideal air-fuel ratio in terms of weight for methane (CH4) is:
a. 17.3:1 b.16.7:1 c.15.2:1 d. 14.5:1
47. The ideal air-fuel ratio in terms of weight for cetane (C16H34) is:
a. 17:1 b. 16:1 c. 14:1 d. 15:1
48. The cetane rating of alpha-methylnaphthalene is:

a. 50 b. 100 c. 20 d. NOTA
49. The octane rating of a mixture of 3 liters of normal heptane and 27 liters of isooctane is:
a. 50 b. 90 c. 20 d. 100
50. It is a gasoline fuel additive which helps improve the anti-knocking characteristics of fuels but
which has been recently discovered to be dangerous to living beings.
a. tetraethyl lead b. ethanol c. methanol d. gasohol
51. The compression ratio of engines is directly related to its thermal efficiency. Theoretically:
a. Otto-cycle engines have higher thermal efficiency than Diesel cycle engines.
b. Diesel-cycle engines have higher thermal efficiency than Otto-cycle engines.
c. Otto-cycle and Diesel-cycle engines have approximately equal thermal efficiency.
d. None of the above.
52. This kind of gasoline can be obtained by breaking up heavy molecules of oil into lighter ones:
a. natural gasoline b. cracked gasoline c. straight-run gasoline d. blended gasoline
53. This is the most common cause of short life of lead acid battery. It results when a cell or
battery is permitted to remain in a discharged condition for some length of time such that the
lead sulfate hardens and cannot be readily converted to its former state.
a. detonation b. carburetion c. induction d. sulfation
54. This scientific phenomenon is the basic principle of operation of spark ignition systems of
engines. It says that a change in the magnetic flux in a conducting circuit produces current in
the circuit.
a. electromagnetic induction b. ohm’s law
c. Charles’ law d. Boyle’s law
55. In a spark ignition system, it prevents arcing in the breaker point and helps intensify the
spark in the spark plug.
a. distributor b. secondary winding c. ignition coil d. condenser
56. A dynamometer test shows that an engine delivers an average output of 35 hp at a speed of
1650 rpm. What torque is exerted in ft-lb?
a. 0.0034 b. 111.5 c. 95 d. 130.6
57. What is the total piston displacement for a 3” × 4” four-stroke cycle engine with 4 cylinders?
a. 113 in3 b. 21,000 in3 c. 28 in3 d. 150 in3 e. 2,000 in3
58. It is the ratio of the horsepower output of an engine to the fuel horsepower.
a. thermal efficiency b. mechanical efficiency
c. power efficiency d. volumetric efficiency
59. An engine uses about 0.8 lb of fuel/hp-hr. If the heating value of the fuel is 20,000 Btu/lb,
what is the thermal efficiency?
a. 20.5% b. 17.2% c. 15.9% d. 24.6%
60. At a wind velocity of 10 m/s, a 4-meter-diamater windmill for generating electricity can
approximately generate:
61. A 4-stroke cycle, 4 cylinder engine has a cylinder dimension of 25 cm × 50 cm. The speed of
rotation is 154 rpm and the imep is 7.5 kg/cm 2. What is the ihp.
a. 76 hp b. 108 hp c. 145 hp d. 124 hp
62. A drawbar dynamometer shows that the average pull required for a certain machine is 12.5
kilo nt. If the tractor travels 25 m in 3.5 min, what is the power developed?
a. 2 hp b. 2.5 kilowatt c. 6.667 hp d. 0.567 kw
63. In a four-stroke cycle engine, it is the event during which the piston is moving upward and
the two valves are close.
a. compression b. intake c. power d. exhaust
64. During this event, fresh supply of fuel enters the cylinder as the piston moves downward and
the intake valve opens.
a. compression b. exhaust c. intake d. power
65. The engine referred to in question no. 38 above is a:

a. 2-stroke cycle diesel engine b. 4-stroke cycle diesel engine
c. 2-stroke cycle spark ignition engine d. 4-stroke cycle spark ignition engine
66. A 1000 kg carabao traveling at v kph is pulling a moldboard plow whose width of cut is w
centimeter at a depth of d inches. If the unit draft of soil is s nt/cm2, the total horizontal pull
(in nt) exerted by the carabao is:
a. 5.85 swd b. 7.83 swd c. 3.85 swd d. 2.54 swd
67. A four cylinder, four stroke cycle with a 3” x 4” cylinders develops 19 hp at 1650 rpm.
Assuming a mechanical efficiency of 85% compute the ihp.
a. 34.66 b. 39.89 c. 22.35 d. 26.77
68. How long will it take to pump water weighing 23 kg up a 352 m hill if the power required to
do the work is 2.33 kW.
a. 78.09s b. 67.85s c. 34.08 s d. 55.90s
69. A liquid fertilizer distributor is being checked for application rate . A container catches 3.5 kg
of 30% Nitrogen (N) solution in 54s from outlet tubes. What is the rate of N applied (kg/ha)
if the forward speed is 8km/hr and the machine is 6 row with outlet tubes spaced 1m?
a. 87.5 b. 57.8 c. 35.6 d. 34.7
71. Find the drawbar power for a tractor pulling 1330 kg loaded wagon up a 16% slope at a
10km/hr if the coefficient of rolling resistance
a. 11.09 kW b. 15.56 kW c. 13.46 kW d. 19.86 kW
72. Determine the depth of cut of a plow with 3 – 14 bottoms with a given rate of pulling of 4.75
mph and draft of 8psi of furrow section. Assume that the dhp required is 25hp
a. 8.14 in b. 7.56 in c. 9.65 in d. 5.87 in
73. Determine the rated width of each of the twelve – bottom plow operating at 10 km/hr with a
field efficiency of 87%. Assume the effective capacity is 5.714 ha/hr
a. 76.99 cm b. 44.76 cm c. 66.87 cm d. 54.73 cm
74. Determine the average output at the crankshaft of an engine at 3460 rev/ min if the torque
exerted is 243.25 ft – lb.
a. 175 hp b. 190 hp c. 200 hp d. 160 hp
75. Suppose a force of 750 N is exerted at a velocity of 15 m/s. Find the power required.
a. 10500 hp b. 12000 hp c. 11, 250 hp d. 11500 hp
76. What is the wheel base of a tractor weighing 7800 lbs if the static weight on the front wheels
is 1500lbs? Assume that the location of the center of gravity longitudinally with respect to the
rear axle is 32.5 inches.
a. 95 in b. 56 in c. 169 in d. 79 in
77. Find the wheel base measurement of the tractor if it weighs 9250 lbs with a static weight on
the front wheels of 4350 lbs and the location of the center of gravity longitudinally with
respect to the rear axle is 30 in.
a. 64 in b. 59 in c. 70 in d. 78 in
78. Compute for the static weight on the front wheels of a tractor that has a wheel base of 79 in
and weight of 7350 lbs. It is also given that the location of the center of gravity with respect
to the rear axle is 32.725 in.
a. 3044.7 lbs b. 4675.5 lbs c. 5467.8 lbs d. 2675.9 lbs
79. Determine the efficiency of a 64 V starting system if the discharge rate for the battery when
the engine is crank is 190amp and the maximum power required for the cranking of the
engine is 5hp.
a. 29% b. 45% c. 31% d. 51%
80. A drawbar dynamometer shows that the average pull required for a certain machine is 2460
lbs. If the tractor travels 1670 ft. in 55 min., what is the rate of travel in mph?
a. 0.75 b. 1.25 c. 0.35 d. 1.35
81. What would be the operating efficiency of an engine if its size to operate a 120 V direct
current electric generator is 18.91 hp? Assume that it has a maximum output of 65 amps.
a. 37% b. 65% c. 75% d. 55%
82. If a belt produces a tangential force of 132 kN on a pulley having radius of 0.576 m at a
speed of 352 rev/min. What will be the power?
a. 2.8 kW b. 3.73 kW c. 1.15 kW d. 4.20 kW
83. Determine the effective capacity for a twelve – bottom plow with a rated width of 74 cm
each operating at 7.25 km/hr if field efficiency is 87%.
a. 6.5 ha/hr b. 5.6 ha/hr c. 7.3 ha/hr d. 3.5 ha/hr
84. What size of engine would you recommend to operate a 155 V direct current electric
generator having a maximum output of 96 amp. and an operating efficiency of 79%?
a. 45.44 hp b. 34.34 hp c. 25.24 hp d. 12.12 hp
85. It is determined that a 9m width – of – cut combine is travelling 1.5 m/s in one minute’s
time, 75 kg of grain are collected in the grain and 85 kg of material are discharged out of the
rear of the machine. What is the machine’s throughput capacity?
a. 11.4 tons/ha b. 10.7 tons/ha c. 7.86 tons/ha d. 9.6 tons/ ha
86. If a belt produces a tangential force of 300 N on a pulley having radius of 0.375 m at a speed
of 150 rev/min, what will be the power?
a. 0.98 kW b. 3.55 kW c. 2.54 kW d. 1.68 kW
87. What will be the piston displacement of tractor with a 9.35 in. bore and 8.75 in. stroke?
a. 600.78 in3 b. 366.76 in3 c. 567.99 in3 d. 765.98 in3
88. What is the effective interest rate on 10% normal rate compounded semi annually?
a. 10% b. 10.25% c. 10.47% d. 10.38%
89. A four- cylinder, four stroke cycle engine with 2.5” x 4” cylinders develops 12 hp at 1850
rpm. Assuming that the mechanical efficiency is 90%, compute the mep.
a. 91.25 psi b. 85.77 psi c. 72.68 psi d. 64.89 psi
90. What is the operating efficiency of a 145 V direct current electric generators having a
maximum output of 90 amp., if this generator required an engine size of 18 hp?
a. 97% b. 88% c. 90% d. 75%
91. The tractor has a 5.38” bore and 8.21” stroke. Compute the bore-stroke ratio.
a. 0.99 b. 0.75 c. 0.16 d. 0.65
92. What will be the developed hp of a four cylinder, four stroke cycle engine with 3” x4”
cylinders if the mechanical efficiency and ihp are 92% and 25.30 hp?
a. 23.28 hp b. 25.50 hp c. 28.23 hp d. 20.35 hp
93. What is the atomic weight of oxygen?

a. 16.01 b. 32 c. 64 d. 72
94. Suppose a force of 200 N is exerted at a velocity of 20m/s. Find the power required.
a. 5900 b. 3670 c. 6780 d. 4,000
95. The inherent characteristic of the tractors to maintain or produce increased drawbar pull
even if the speed is reduced.
a. Draw hp b. Lugging ability
c. Mechanical eff. d. Coefficient of traction
96. Compute the thermal efficiency of the engine with 3” x 4” cylinders that develops 33 hp at
1766 rpm, if it used 54 lbs of gasoline in a 3 – hr test.
a. 37.69% b. 19.88% c. 43.55% d. 22.76%
97. What will be the total piston displacement per min – per hp of a tractor that has a 4 –
cylinder engine with 4.5 x 5.5 in cylinder and develops 51.8 hp at 1400 rpm?
a. 4728.3 b. 5781.5 c. 3746.9 d. 2831.9
98. Compute the crankshaft rear axle speed ratio required to give travel speed of 15 mph for a
tractor having an engine speed of 2000rpm and rear wheels that are 46 in. in diameter.
a. 18.25% b. 25.21% c. 109.7% d. 23.79%
99. What is the value of the universal gas constant in J/ g mole K?

a. 7.886 b. 8.314 c. 0.082 d. 13.247
100. Compute the crankshaft rear axle speed ratio required to give travel speed of 4.5 mph for a
tractor having an engine speed of 2000rpm and rear wheels that are 60 in. in diameter
a. 79.33 b. 85.76 c. 92.24 d. 66.98
Pre-Board 2006
1. Determine the time in hours to plow a 3-ha field using a I5-cm animal-drawn plow at a speed
of 4 kph and efficiency of75%
a. 56 hrs b.66 hrs e.96 hrs
c. 76 hrs d.86 hrs
2. Using the results of the calibration test of the 8X20 cm drum seeder, determine the seeding
rate (kg/ha) if Qmedium is used. Row spacing is 40 cm. Groundwheel diameter is 50 cm.
Discharge of one row per 10 revolutions of the groundwheel: Qlow = 16 gms, Qmedium = 22
gms, and Qhigh = 38 gms.
a. 25 kglha b. 35 kg/ha e. 70 kg/ha
b. 45 kglha d. 60 kglha
3. Determine the no. of days (8hrs/day) to plow a 10-ha field using a 3-bottom moldboard plow
drawn b 4-wheel tractor at a speed of 5 kph and field efficiency of76%. Width of cut of one
bottom is 33 cm.
a. 2.75 days b. 3.0 days e. 3.9 days
c. 3.3 days d. 3.6 days
4. If the speed ratio of the groundwheel over seedplate of a two-row corn planter is 5.0,
determine the plant population per hectare. Row spacing is 75 cm. Groundwheel diameter is
60 cm. Ave. no. of seeds per hill is 2. No. of cells of seed plate is 25. Ave. emergence of
seeds is 85%.
a. 35,335 pltslha b. 45,445 pltslha e. 65,335 pltslha

c. 55,223 pltslha d. 60,071 pltslha
5. Determine the smallest capacity centrifugal pump to be used for a 1-ha lowland rice. The field
is under rotational irrigation and the rotation cycle is every three days.
Table 1. Area that can be irrigated at various capacities and pumping time for clay loam
soil planted to lowland rice.
Operating Area that can be irrigated, Ha

hours/day 30 GPM 60 GPM 90 GPM
8 0.50 1.00 1.5
12 0.75 1.5 2.25
16 1.0 2.0 3.0
20 1.25 2.5 3.75
24 1.5 3.00 4.5
a. 30 gpm b. 60 gpm e. 150 gpm
c. 90 gpm d. 120 gpm
6. Considering that there are 3M farms, 12M ha of agricultural lands and assuming five farmers
per farm, the human power contribution in the farm is about…:
a. 0.1 hp b. 0.125 hp e. 0.5 hp
c. 1.0 hp d. 1.25 hp
7. The application rate of a certain chemical is recommended at 10 kg/ha. Using the results of
the calibration test of a 15-liter knapsack sprayer, determine the amount of chemical to
dissolve in water per loading of the sprayer. Discharge rate of the sprayer is 0.75 liters per
minute. Effective width of swath is 1.5 meters. Average walking speed is 20 meters per
minute.
a. 0.6 liters/load b. 0.7 liters/load
c. 0.8 liters/load d. 1.0 liters/load
8. A 4-ha field was prepared using a 1.2-m floating power tiller. It took 20 hrs to complete the
operation at a speed of2.5 kph. Determine the field efficiency
a. 67% b. 70% e. 86%
c. 76% d. 80%
9. Determine the size of air-cooled diesel engine to be used for a 1.5-ha lowland rice. The field is
to be irrigated daily for 8 hrs. Source of water is a 3-inch diameter drilled well with the
following data: Static water level = 9 ft, Specific yield of well = 15 gpm/ft, discharge head =
6 ft, and friction and velocity head loss = 2 ft. Pump efficiency = 45%. Transmission
efficiency = 95% and power unit continuous delivery rating = 70%
Table 1. Area that can be irrigated at various capacities and pumping time for clay loam soil
planted to lowland rice.
Operating Area that can be irrigated, Ha
hours/day 30 GPM 60 GPM 90 GPM
8 0.50 1.00 1.5
12 0.75 1.5 2.25
16 1.0 2.0 3.0
20 1.25 2.5 3.75
24 1.5 3.00 4.5
a. 1.5 hp b. 2.0 hp e. 3.5 hp
c. 2.5 hp d. 3.0 hp
10. Determine the tractor power required to work the soil using four 14-inch moldboard plow
bottoms at a depth of 10 inches and 6 kph. Field efficiency = 75%. Soil specific draft = 8
lbs/inch2. Increase in draft due to speed = 138%.
a. 50 hp b. 60 hp e. 90 hp
c. 70 hp d. 80 hp
11. Determine the linear speed (kph) of a 2-wheel tractor if the specifications of the transmission
devices are as given:
1 st reduction 2"0 reduction 3fo reduction Traction wheels
N1 = 3,000 rpm N3 N5 N7
N2 N4 = 250 rpm N 6 = 75 rpm D7 = 50 cm
D1=10cm T3 T5 = 33 t
D2 = 30 cm T4 = lOOt T6
a. 5 kph b. 5 kph c. 7kph
d. 9 kph e. 11 kph
12. Using the results of. the calibration test of the 8X20 cm drum seeder, determine the seeding
rate adjustment to use if it is desired to plant at the rate of 75 kg/ha at row spacing of 40
cm. Groundwheel diameter is 50 cm. Discharge of seeder per 10 revolutions of groundwheel:
Low = 128 gms, Medium = 176 gms and High = 304 gms.
a. low b.medium c. high
d. none of the above e. all of the above
13. Using the results of the calibration test of the 8X20 em drum seeder, determine the seeding
rate adjustment to use if it is desired to plant at the rate of 70 kg/ha. Groundwheel diameter
is 50 em. Discharge of seeder per 10 revolutions of ground wheel: Low = 128 gms, Medium
= 176 gms and High = 304 gms.
a. low b.medium c. high
d. none of the above e. all of the above
14. Determine the number of 13-cm animal drawn plows needed to complete plowing a 3-ha field
in one day (8 hrs/day). Field efficiency is 78% and speed of travel is 3 kph.
a. 5 plows b. 9 plows e. 11 plows
c. 13 plows d. 15 plows
15. If the speed ratio of seedplate over groundwheel of the two-row corn planter is 0.20,
determine the expected plant population/ha. Row spacing is 75 cm. Groundwheel diameter is
60 cm. Average no. of seeds per hill is 2. Number of cells of seedplate is 20. Average
emergence of seeds is 85%.
a. 48,000 plts/ha b. 54,000 plts/ha e. 35,000 pltslha
c. 60,000 pltslha d. 66,000 pltslha
16. Determine the no. of tractors required to complete plowing a 10-ha corn field in one day (8
hrs/day) using a three-bottom moldboard plow at 5 kph. Width of one bottom is 33 em. Field
efficiency is 75%
a. 1 tractor b. 2 tractors e. 5 tractors
c. 3 tractors d. 4 tractors
17. Determine the time (hrs) to plow a 7-ha field using a 13-cm animal-drawn plow at a speed of
3.5 kph and efficiency of 78 percent.
a. 100 b. 150 e. 300
c. 200 d. 250
18. Twelve man-days is equivalent to the output of ...:

a. 3 men X 4 days b. 6 men X 2 days e. none of the above
c. 12 men X 1 day d. all of the above
19. Calculate the drawbar hp required to pull a plow with 3X14-in bottoms at the rate of 3.25
mph if the specific draft is 8 psi and depth of cut is 7 inches.
a. 6.8 hp b. 13.6 hp e. 34.1 hp
c. 20 hp d. 27.2 hp
20. As a rule of thumb, single-phase alternating current electric motor should be used for
applications requiring…:
a. < 4 hp b. <5 hp c. <6 hp
d. <7 hp e. <8 hp
21. A 1.2-m wide floating tiller is used for rotary tilling/puddling a 24-m X 42-m wetland paddy
field. The average speed of travel is 3 kph and turning at the headlands takes 10 seconds.
What is the field efficiency if the field is worked along its length?
a. 71 % b. 74 % e. 89%
c. 79 % d. 84 %
22. A field measuring 45 m X 90 m is to be prepared using a I-m upland power tiller at a speed
of 3 kph. Assume a 10% overlap between passings and 9 seconds turn around time at the
end of each pass. Determine the field efficiency in going the longer field direction.
a. 77% b. 80% e. 94%
c. 83% d. 86%
23. If there are 2.7M animals in the farms, 70 - 74 % of them are used for draft work and 12M
ha of agricultural lands, the contribution of animal power in the farm is...:
a. 0.12 hp/ha b. 0.16 hp/ha e. 0.19 hp/ha

c. 0.21 hp/ha d. 0.23 hp/ha
24. A certain lift pump has a cylinder diameter of 100 mm and pump stroke of 145 mm. Results
of calibration test of this pump gave a water discharge of 17 kg per minute at 17 pump
strokes per minute. Determine its volumetric efficiency. Density of water is 1 gm/cc:
a. 88% b. 90% e. 94%
c. 90% d. 92%
25. The gearbox placed on first gear will develop. .. :

a. high torque - high speed b. low torque -low speed e. none of the above
c. high torque - low speed d. low torque - high speed
26. A 4-cylinder, 100 mm x 100 mm engine turns at 1600 rpm. What is the total engine
displacement?
a. 500π cm3 b. 250π cm3 e. none of the above
c. 1000π cm3 d. 750π cm3
27. It refers to a numerical value which represents the theoretical maximum percentage of the
kinetic energy of air that a windrotor can convert into mechanical energy.
a. Power coefficient b. Torque coefficient e. none of the above
c.Betz coefficient d. Speed coefficient
28. Determine the theoretical power available from a stream using the following data: average
width - 3.5 meter; average depth- 0.6 meter; speed - 15 ft/min; height of drop- 1.2 meter.
a. 2.5 hp b. 1.9 hp c. 4.2 kW d. 1.4 kW e. 3.6 hp
29. The electrolyte solution of the lead-acid battery consists of 2 parts of'sulphuric acid and 5
parts water. The concentrated acid has a specific gravity of:
a. 1.300 b. 1.500 c. 2.000 d. 1.750 e. none of the above
30. A 100 mm x 100 mm engine runs at 2400 rpm. What is the maximum piston speed inside the
cylinder? Clue: Maximum speed occurs when the piston is 90 degrees from either the TDC or
the BDC.
a. 100 m/s b. 50 m/s c. 25 m/s d. 75 m/s e. 10 m/s
31. A diesel engine bums 0.30 liters of fuel/kW-hr. What is the approximate thermal efficiency?
a. 40% b. 35% c. 31 % d. 25% e. none of the above
32. A 4-cylinder 100 mm x 100 mm engine turns at 1,600 rpm. If the individual cylinder's
clearance volume is 130 cm3, what is the engine's compression ratio?
a. 8:1 b. 9:1 c. 10:1 d. 7:1 e. 11:1
33. Among the fuels that belong to the paraffin group, this has the least number of carbons in
the molecular structure. It is a colorless and odorless gas and is the main component of
natural gas.
a. pentane b. ethane c. butane d. propane e. none of the above
34. This vertical axis windmill has a tip speed ratio between 4 and 8 and a power coefficient that
can reach up to a range of 0.2 to 0.4.
a. Savonious b. Cretan c. Darrieus d. Multibladed e. none of the above
35. A 4-stroke cycle engine is running at 2,400 rpm. If the range of operation of the each intake
valve is 220°, for how long is each intake valve open?
a. 1.53 x 10-2 second b. 7.64 x 10-3 second e. 3.06 x 10-2 second
c. 5.84 x 10-2 second d. 6.43 x 10-2 second
36. How much water is produced by an engine each hour if it bums 25 liters of premium gasoline
per hour?
a. 20.45 liters b. 25.93 liters e. 15.75 liters
c. 30.56 liters d. 32.55 liters
37. A prony brake test of an engine shows that the crankshaft rotates at 1000 rpm. The brake
arm length is 60 inches and the net load on the scales is 50 lb. What is the power
developed?
a. 48 kW b. 35 kW c. 42 hp d. 26,180 ft-lb/min e. 26 kW
38. Suppose a farm laborer deposits P500 in a savings account at the end of each year for the
next 12 years. If the bank pays an interest of 8% per year, compounded annually, how much
money will he accumulate by the end of the 12-year period?
a. P8,245 b. P5,657 c. P9,489 d. P6,976 e. P7,201
39. Determine the payback period for the following proposed farm investment:
End of year 0 1 2 3 4 5
Cash flow P50,000 10,000 12,000 15,000 18,000 20,000
a. 1 yr b. 2 yrs c. 3 yrs d. 4 yrs e. 5 yrs
40. A farm implement was purchased for P180,000. The useful life is 5 years, with a salvage
value of P50,000 at the end of its useful life. If depreciated by the straight-line method, what
amount accumulates as depreciation at the end of the 4th year?
a. P26,000 b. 52,000 c. 104,000 d. P44,000 e. P75,000
41. A farmer lends P10,000 for 4 years at 12% simple interest. At the end of the 4 years, he
invests the entire amount, which he then has, for 10 years at 8% per year, compounded
annually. How much money will he have at the end of the 14-year period?
a. P31,952 b. P33,971 c. P26,640 d. P32,567 e. P28,999
42. How many years will be required for an investment of P3,000 to increase to P4,081.47 at an
interest rate of 8% per year, compounded annually?
a. 3 years b. 4 years c. 5 year d. 6 years e. 7 years
43. On the first day of the year, a farmer deposits PI0000 in a bank at 8% per year, compounded
annually. He withdraws P800 at the end of the 1 st year, P900 at the end of the 2nd year,
and the remaining balance at the end of the 3rd year. How much does he withdraw at the
end of the 3rd year?
a. P9,678 b. P10,252 c. P10,692 d. P11,004 e. P11,742
44. What amount of money is equivalent to receiving P5,000 two years from today, if interest is
compounded quarterly, at the rate of 2 ½ % per quarter?
a. P3,568 b. P4,026 c. P3,945 d. P4,104 e. P3,829
45. The cash flows associated with a rice milling machine are as follows:
Year 0 -P50,000
Years 1 to 5 P15,000
At a MARR of 10% per year, calculate the machine's net present value (NPV):
a. P3500 b. P6,861 c. P283 d. - P5,140 e. P2,001
46. GreenPack, Inc. packages three agricultural produce namely - Grn, Blu, and Yew. The
accounting records for the month are shown below:
Product GRN Product Blu Product Yew
Total direct cost of materials P 157,500 178,250 129,000
Total direct cost of labor P 105,000 230,000 180,000
Overhead charge per unit P 18.9 6.51 36.12
Number of units produced 35,000 115,000 15,000
The overhead was charged according to:
a. direct cost of materials c. direct cost of labor e. none of the above
b. pime cost d. total production cost
47. The monthly interest rate equivalent to an effective annual rate of 15% is
a. 1.17% b. 1.33% c. 1.49% d. 14.93% e. 1.72%
48. An irrigation project that will benefit farmers is proposed which will have present worth
benefits of P75 M and present worth costs of P55 M. The project’s estimated disbenefits
amount to P15 M. The project’s benefit-cost ratio is
a. 1.09 b. 0.95 c. 1.20 d. 1.65 e. 1.37
49. Two alternative machines are being considered by a farmer to replace an older, worn-out
one. The cash flows for the two mutually exclusive alternatives are shown in the table below.
MARR is 10%. What is the present-worth difference between the two machines?
End-of-year Machine A Machine B
0 -P20,000 -P28,000
1 4,864.60 8,419.88
2 4,864.60 8,419.88
3 4,864.60 8,419.88
4 4,864.60 8,419.88
5 4,864.60 8,419.88
6 4,864.60 8,419.88
a. P6,420 b. P3,555.28 c. P816.33 d. P4,426 e. P2,307
50. Magma Tierra is engaged in the research, design and manufacturing of farm implements. The
company estimates that the relationship between unit price and demand per month for a
potential product is approximated by p = 112 - 0.01 D. Fixed costs are estimated to be
P72,OOO per month, and the estimated variable costs are P26 per unit. How much is the
maximum profit that the company can realize per month?
a. P 96,000 b. 111 ,800 c. 112,900 d. 296,700 e. 156,300
51. Kasaka Cooperative, Inc. is considering the purchase of a farming equipment that can be
purchased for P250,000, with a useful life of 7 years, and has a salvage value of P30,000 at
the end of its useful life. What is the farm implement's capital recovery cost if the cooperative
desires a MARR of 12% per year?
a. P26,435 b. 51,802 c. 43,768 d. 32,544 e. 64, 008
52. A farm is contemplating to purchase new farming equipment. The purchase price is P60,000
and its annual operating cost is P2,675.40. The machine has a life of7 years, and is expected
to generate P15,000 in revenues in each year of its life. Determine the internal rate of return
of the machine, assuming zero salvage value.
a. 8.5% b. 9.7% c. 10.0% d. 11.6% e. 12.1%
53. A manager's performance can be measured in two concepts:

a. Planning & Organizing c. Efficiency & Effectiveness e. Effectiveness & Economy
b. Leading & Directing d. Economy & Efficiency
54. "Detailing the work" is included in which part of the management process?
a. Planning c. Staffing e. Controlling
b. Organizing d. Directing
55. The ability to get things done correctly is called

a. effectiveness c. liquidity e. solvency
b. economy d. efficiency
56. The projection of cash inflow and outflow of a farm to estimate the incremental net benefit of
the life of the project is known as
a. Farm Budget c. Farm Inventory e. Working Capital
b. Farm Plan d. Future Contract
57. This refers to the cultivation of land with or without the benefit of sound business, technical
knowledge and skills.
a. Fieldwork c. Farm planning e. Budgeting
b. Farming d. Hedging
58. Which is not a use of Farm Records?

a. Provide data for farm planning & budgeting.
b. Provide information for useful in property valuation
c. Aid to credit, insurance, taxes and in preparing reports
d. Scheduling of labor requirements

e. All of the above
59. What term is used when the peso becomes cheaper than the foreign currency?
a. Devaluation c. Diminution e. Denomination
b. Depreciation d. Deviation
60. It includes any goods employed in production other than land, labor, buildings and fences.
a. Budget c. Inventory e. Capital
b. Plan d. Credit
61. In financial analysis, what is the ideal acid-test ratio?

a. 1:1 c. 2:2 e. all of the above
b. 1:2 d. 2:1
PSAE Review Class 2006 Farm Record/Balance Sheet As of Julv 1. 2006
(PhP)
Total Current Assets: 350,000.00
Total Inventories: 90,000.00
Total Fixed Assets: 500,000.00
Total Current Liabilities 275,000.00
Total Long-Term Liabilities: 200,000.00
Total Net Worth: 125,000.00
62. What is the current ratio of the given data?

a. 1.29 c. 1.27 e. 1.25
b. 1.28 d. 1.26
63. From the given data, what is the resulting quick/acid-test ratio?
a. 0.91 c. 0.93 e. 0.95
b. 0.92 d. 0.94
64. What is the net working capital of the given business?

a. P55,000.00 c. P75,000.00 e. P95,000.00
b. P65,000.00 d. P85,000.00
65. What is the depreciation factor per year of a tractor that is bought at P325,000.00, if it has
no more value at the end of the fifth year?
a. P55,000.00 c. P75,000.00 e. P95,000.00
b. P65,000.00 d. P85,000.00
66. From the given data in item #4, what is the tractor's net book value after three years?
a. P260,000.00 c. P265,000.00 e. P165,000.00
b. P130,000.00 d. P165,000.00
Pre-board 2008
1. Tractor A can cover a 1-Ha field in 2 hrs, tractor B in 3 hrs, and tractor C in 6 hrs.
How long will it take to cover a 1-Ha field if the three tractors worked together?
a. 0.5 hr b. 1.0 hr
c. 1.5 hr d. 2.0 hr
2. This fuel is a mixture of two hydrocarbons of the paraffin series. At normal
atmospheric pressure and temperature, they become gases. They are more
or less by-products of petroleum refining process.
a. biogas b. LPG c. producer gas d. natural gas e. none of the above
3. This fuel burns similar to a mixture of 58 liters of iso-octane and 5 liters of
normal heptane by volume. Its octane rating is:.
a. 93 b. 85 c. 70 d. 95 e. none of the above
4. At a wind velocity of 8 m/s, a 3-meter-diamater windmill can theoretically
generate:
e. none of the above
5. It is a vertical axis windmill with a relatively high tip-speed ratio.
a. Cretan b. Savonius c. Darrieus d. 2-bladed airfoil type
6. The speed of operation is 1000 rpm. It is a 4-stroke cycle 10 cm × 10 cm engine
with a clearance volume of 120 cm3. This engine is most possibly a:
a. gasoline engine b. stirling engine c. diesel engine
d. carnot engine e. compression ignition engine
7. Natural gas consists large of:
a. butane b. pentane c. methane d. propane e. none of the above
8. The cetane rating of ordinary diesel fuel is:
9. The fuel system of a compression ignition engine includes:
a. fuel injector b. carburetor c. venturi d. spark plug
10. The usual test of the charge of a lead acid battery involves the determination of:
a. color of the electrolyte solution
b. specific gravity of the electrolyte solution
c. combustion characteristics of the electrolyte solution
d. pH of the electrolyte solution
11. The cetane rating of a mixture of 7 liters of cetane and 6 liters of alpha-
methylnaphthalene is:
a. 43 b. 100 c. 27 d. 93
12. This material component of the plates of batteries has been replaced by either
calcium, cadmium or strontium in what we now call ‘maintenance free’
batteries.
a. lead oxide b. lead c. antimony d. sulfuric acid
13. A drawbar dynamometer shows that the average pull required for a certain
machine is 185 kNt. If the tractor travels 132 m in 9.5 min, what is the power
developed?
a. 2 hp b. 2.5 kilowatt c. 16.667 hp d. 42.84 kw e. none of the above
14. A tractor travels at a speed of 6 kph while pulling a drawbar load of 8.5 kNt.
What is the drawbar power expended by tractor?
a. 25.5 hp b. 14.2 kw c. 10 Ps d. 25.5 kw e. none of the above
15. What is the theoretical power available from a stream with an average width of
4 m, average depth of 1.4 m, and with a flow velocity of 25 ft/min. The height of drop
is 1.5 m.
a. 1.5 kw b. 1.0 kw c. 2.0 kw d. 3.0 kw e. none of the above
16. A 750 mm × 800 mm engine runs at 3,600 rpm. What is the minimum piston
speed inside the cylinder?
a. 100 m/s b. 200 m/s c. 54 m/s d. 24 m/s e. none of the above
17. At a wind velocity of 10 kph, a horizontal windrotor rotates at 100 rpm. If the
windrotor diameter is 3.18 m, what is the tip speed ratio?
18. A 4 cylinder, 80 mm × 80 mm engine turns at 2400 rpm. What is the total
engine displacement?
a. 200π cm3 b. 550π cm3 c. 110π cm3
3
d. 512π cm e. none of the above
19. For complete combustion of propane (C5H12), how much amount of water is
produced in kg per kg of fuel burned?
a. 1.9 kg of water/kg of fuel b. 4.2 kg of water/kg of fuel
c. 3.5 kg of water/kg of fuel d. 1.5 kg of water/kg of fuel
20. If a draft animal pulls an implement with a draft of 870 nt at a speed of 2 mph,
what is the approximate power generated?
a. 1 hp b. 1.8 kW c. 0.78 hp d. 1.5 kW e. 2 hp
21. An engine uses about 0.24 kg of fuel/kW-hr. If the heating value of the fuel is 50
MJ/kg, what is the thermal efficiency?
a. 20.5% b. 15.9% c. 30% d. 24.6% e. none of the above
22. The ideal air-fuel ratio in terms of weight for kerosene (C12 H26) is:
a. 14:1 b. 16:1 c. 15:1 d. 17:1 e. none of the above
23. An engine uses about 0.32 kg of fuel/kW-hr. If the heating value of the fuel is 45
MJ/kg, the engine is probably a:
a. diesel engine b. gasoline engine c. stirling engine d. carnot engine
24. A tractor PTO has been tested for its power output. It was made to run a
dynamometer with a brake arm of 42 inches at a speed of 1540 rpm. If the total net
load is 58 lb, what is the approximate power developed?
a. 25 kW b. 18 PS c. 44 kW d. 52 hp e. none of the above
25. During an engine test, a 25 cm diameter pulley was mounted on the crankshaft.
It drives a 60 cm diameter pulley which rotates with the prony brake dynamometer.
The moment arm of the dynamometer is 1 meter and the net load is 150 newton. If
the rotation of the crankshaft is 2400 rpm, what is the power developed?
a. 21 hp b. 18 kw c. 30 Ps d. 21 kw e. none of the above

26. A 4-stroke cycle engine is running at 3,000 rpm. If the range of operation of
each intake valve is 220°, for how long is each intake valve open?
a. 0.00611 sec b. 0.0153 sec c. 0.00232 sec
d. 0.00654 sec e. none of the above
27. A 750 mm × 800 mm engine runs at 3,600 rpm. What is the maximum piston
speed inside the cylinder?
a. 151 m/s b. 200 m/s c. 254 m/s d. 240 m/s e. none of the above
28. An engine crankshaft provides 40 kW at 2000 rpm. What is the torque exerted?
a. 2,987 nt-m b. 5,982 nt-m c. 11,459 nt-m d. 20,876 ft-lb e.
none of the above
29. The simple interest rate that results when P1,000 accumulates to P1,250 in 3 years is
a. 2.5% c. 8 1/3%
b. 5.0% d. 12%
30. The interest earned if P1,000 is invested for 1 year at 6% compounded quarterly is
a. P58.42 c. P61.36
b. P60.00 d. P62.45
31. Which of the following methods used to compare investment alternatives is a
better measure of the investments’ liquidity?
a. Net present value c. Internal rate of return
b. Payback period d. Benefit-cost ratio
32. Determine the net present value of the following project:
Initial cost P100,000
Project life, years 5
Salvage value 10,000
Annual revenues 60,000
Annual expenditures 22,000
Interest rate 15%
a. P28,516 c. P31,004
b. P30,408 d. P32,354
33. The cost of a brand new office equipment is P12,000. It has a life of 5 years and a
salvage value of P1,000 at the end of its life. If depreciated through the straight line
method, what is its book value at the end of 3 years?
a. P9,800 c. P5,400
b. P7,600 d. P3,200
34. A loan of P10,000 is to be amortized through 5 equal semi-annual payments, with
the first payment to be made after 3 years. What is the semi-annual payment if
interest rate was 20% compounded semi- annually?
a. P4,567.40 c. P4,248.50
b. P5,20460 d. P6,023.50
35. A plant is considering the purchase of a centrifugal pump. Three pumps were
canvassed and the data is summarized below:
Pump M Pump N Pump O
Price P60,000 P96,000 P120,000
Economic life, years 3 5 10
Salvage value 5,000 10,000 8,000
Annual maintenance 10,000 6,000 5,000
cost
If interest rate was 14%, which pump should be purchase?
a. Pump M c. Pump O
b. Pump N d. All pumps have the same cost
36. A proposed farm project is estimated to have year-end revenues and costs as follows:
Year Revenue Costs
0 0 P50,000
1 75,000 60,000
2 90,000 77,500
3 100,000 75,000
4 95,000 80,000
5 60,000 47,500
An additional investment of P20,000 is required at the end of the 2nd year and
the estimated salvage value at the end of 5 years is P25,000. What is the
project’s IRR?
a. 11.6% c. 15.7%
b. 20.7% d. 18.5%
37. Capitalized cost is the sum of the initial cost and the present worth of all costs of
replacements, operation and maintenance of a property that lasts for a long time. If a
structure costs P1,500,000 and requires an annual maintenance of P150,000, what is
its capitalized cost if interest rate is 15%?
a. P2,500,000 c. P1,150,000
b. P2,150,000 d. P1,750,000
38. In buying a machine worth P30,000, the farmer pays P10,000 cash and agrees to
pay in balance, including interest at 5.5% compounded semiannually, by a series of 8
equal semiannual payments, the first due at the end of 4 years. Find the semiannual
payment.
a. P3,564 c. P3,679
b. P3,409 d. P4,002
39. A food company makes a certain product at the following costs:
Material cost per unit P16.5
Labor cost per unit 3.5
Overhead cost per month 70,000
Other monthly fixed charges 180,000
If price is determined by the equation D = 58,000 – 1000p, the number of units
that should be produced to maximize total revenue is
a. 27 c. 29
b. 28 d. 30
40. The first step in developing effective promotion is:

a. identifying the target audience
b. positioning the product
c. determining communication objectives
d. designing the message
e. determining the promotion budget
41. Agricultural products are rarely promoted because of what of the following
reasons:
a. Majority of agricultural products are perishable and have to be disposed
off immediately thus limiting the importance of promotion.
b. Majority of the farmers do not have the capability to do product promotion
because it is very expensive.
c. Agricultural products are not branded so there is no need for promotional
back-up.
d. Production volume of most farms is small so there is no economies of
scale in promotion.
e. All of the above.
42. Which of the following statements about intermediaries (middlemen) is false?
a. Intermediaries not only facilitate distribution of products but also provide
financial assistance in terms of inventory maintenance and payment.
b. Intermediaries are taking risks associated with product handling
c. Intermediaries match producers’ capabilities and consumers’
requirements.
d. Intermediaries are unnecessary evils and have to be taken out of the
marketing system.
e. Intermediaries reduce the number of contacts between manufacturers and
consumers, thereby decreasing contactual costs.
43. Which of the following is an example of product?
a. oven toasters d. PAL In-flight Catering Services
b. Harry Potter movie e. all of the above
c. “Save the Mother Earth” campaign
44. Agricultural products that have undergone the second level of transformation and are
in forms which will be used by industries and other processors are known as:
a. semi-processed agricultural products
b. finished goods/agricultural products
c. fresh agricultural products
d. all of the above
45. All of the following are facilitating activities in marketing except for:
a. Financing
b. Market Research
c. Buying
d. Promotion
e. Market Information Dissemination
46. The first thing that should be done in setting pricing policy is to:
a. determine demand
b. estimate costs
c. determine target market
d. select a pricing method
e. set a pricing objective
47. _____________ helps the agricultural product marketer in determining the lowest
price that he may set for his products.
a. cost
b. demand
c. competition
d. going-rate price e. floor price
Pre-Board 2009
1. When demand exceeds supply, there is

a. a. surplus c. over-production
b. b. shortage d. glut
2. _____ refers to the cost of the best foregone alternative

a. a. sunk cost c. opportunity cost
b. b. investment cost d. depreciation cost
3. 39. The fundamental _____ equation is given as “Assets = Liabilities +

Owner’s Equity.”
a. a. accounting c. present economy
b. b. overhead d. time value
4. The table below shows a specific plan for repaying a loan within a period of 3
years:
Year Interest earned Principal Total end of
for the year payment year payment
1 3,000 12,000 15,000
2 1,560 7,440 9,000
3 672 ? 6,232
The missing value in the table is equal to:
a. P4,560 b. P3,640 c. P5,560 d. P3,085
5. A certain project has the following cash flow:

N 0 1 2 3 4
Initial cost -P40,000
Revenues 40,000 Y 30,000 Y
Expenses 25,000 20,000 15,000 20,000
If the desired MARR is 18%, the value of Y that will make the project acceptable
is closest to
a. P22,568 b. P52,390 c. 28,695 d. 34,716
6. You are interested in buying a farm implement worth P80,000. Your available
cash is only P25,000 to pay for the downpayment. The remaining balance will be
amortized over a period of 18 months at an interest rate of 24% compounded
monthly. Which will give the correct amount of monthly payments?
a. A = P80,000 (A/P, 6.25%, 12)
b. A = P80,000 (A/P, 6.25%, 12)/18
c. A = P55,000 (A/P, 2%, 18)
d. A = P20,000 (A/P, 1.33%, 18)
7. Mang Andoy secured a loan from a bank in the amount of P250,000 at an interest
rate of 15% compounded quarterly. The loan will be paid back in 36 equal
monthly installments. Which is closest to Mang Andoy’s monthly payment?
a. P7,208 b. P6,972 c. P8,644 d. P9,568
8. A workshop tool costs P18,000. It is expected to have a useful life of 10 years and
a salvage value of P3,000. At 15%, what is the capital recovery of the tool?
a. P3,900 b. P3,740 c. P2,990 d. P3,440
9. Which will provide the largest annual effective rate?

a. 14% per year compounded quarterly
b. 15% compounded monthly
c. 14.75% compounded weekly
d. 15.25% compounded semi-annually
10. For an investment, the following information is known:

Benefits: P500,000 per year
Operating & Maintenance Cost: P250,000 per year
Investment cost: P1.5M
Salvage value: 0
What is the benefit/cost ratio for this investment if MARR is 10% and project
duration is 8 years?
a. 1.65 b. 1.23 c. 1.46 d. 0.978
11. Which machine would you recommend given the following information and a
desired MARR of 10%:
New Machine Used Machine
First cost P44,000 P23,000
Annual revenues 18,000 18,000
Annual operating cost 7,000 9,000
Annual repair cost 210 350
Overhaul every 2 years 0 1,900
Overhaul every 5 years 2,500 0
Salvage value 4,000 3,000

Life, years 15 8
a. new machine b. used machine c. used is as good as new
d. do not use either machine
12. If you invest P20,000 now in a business venture that promises to return P39,479
in 6 years, how many years would it take to get a return of at least P30,000?
13. If a person deposits P5,000 now at 8% per year interest and plans to withdraw
P500 per year every year starting 1 year from now, until what year can he make
full P500-withdrawals?
14. The monthly interest rate equivalent to an effective semi-annual rate of 4% is

a. 0.544% b. 0.656% c. 0.812% d. 0.667%
15. The IRR of the cash flow below is closest to:

End of year 0 1 2 3 4 5
Cash flow -P10,000 -P6,000 P5,000 P5,000 P5,000 P10,000
a. 8.6% b. 11.3% c. 14.4% d. 17.4%
16. Which is the oldest form of direct or indirect solar energy?
a. Photovoltaic d. Ocean thermal energy conversion
b. Flat-plate collectors e. Solar trough collectors
c. Hydropower
17. Photovoltaic cells work by

a. storing solar energy as electricity for long periods of time
b. amplifying the energy of the sun
c. using solar energy to release electrons from one layer of the cells to migrate to
another layer, thereby setting up an electric current
d. a and c
e. all of the above
18. When biomass is combined with a microorganisms in anaerobic conditions, the result
is
a. an electric current d. butane
b.propane e. LPG
c. methane and nutrient rich sludge
19. The power grid is

a. the network of fluid-filled tubes in a roof-mounted solar water heater
b.the reaction chamber inside a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell
c. the optimal spatial arrangement of wind turbines at a wind farm
d.also called the power tower, and has been taken out of service due to the costs of
upkeep
e. the network of electrical lines that carry electricity from power plants to the
customers
20. The process of producing both electricity and capturing waste heat is called
a. active heat absorption d. regeneration
b. cogeneration e. waste heat recovery
c. passive heat absorption
21. A 4-cylinder, 120 mm × 120 mm engine turns at 2000 rpm. What is the total engine
displacement?
a. 500π cm3 b. 250π cm3 c. 1000π cm3 d. 750π cm3
22. It refers to ratio of the kinetic energy of air that a windrotor can convert into
mechanical energy over the theoretical maximum available from the wind.
a. Power coefficient d. Speed coefficient
b. Torque coefficient e. none of the above
c. Betz coefficient
23. Determine the theoretical power available from a stream using the following data:
average width = 6 meters;average depth = 16 inches; speed = 10 ft/min; height of
drop = 1.5 meter.
a. 1.82hp b. 1.63 hp c. 1.82 kW d. 2.45 kW e. none of the above
24. This rating is given to diesel fuels for their ability to burn without detonating as
compared with the performance of reference fuels.
a. octane rating b. cetane rating c. heptane rating d. alcohol rating
e. butane rating
25. The electrolyte solution of the lead-acid battery consists of 2 parts of sulphuric acid
and 5 parts water. The concentrated acid has a specific gravity of:
26. In an ideal Diesel engine, the combustion of fuel occurs at :

a. constant pressure d. constant enthalpy
b. constant temperature e. none of the above
c. constant volume
27. In an ideal Otto engine, the combustion of fuel occurs at :

a. constant pressure c. constant volume
b. constant temperature e. none of the above
d. constant enthalpy
28. It is the power developed by the engine of a tractor which is available for pulling,
dragging or similar tractive effort.
a. belt horsepower d. indicated horsepower

b. brake horsepower e. none of the above
c. drawbar horsepower
29. One way of increasing engine power is to force more air into the cylinder so that
more power can be produced from each power stroke. This process which uses a
type of air compression device powered by the engine crankshaft is called:
a. turbocharging b. supercharging c. power charging d. air charging
30. This fuel is made by partial combustion of carbonaceous substances like coal, wood,
charcoal, sawdust and other similar materials in an atmosphere of air and steam. It is
a mixture of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, methane, nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
a. gasohol b. producer gas c. natural gas d. straight-run fuel
e. none of the above.
31. It is a toxic chemical with chemical formula CH3OH. Drinking even small amounts
can cause blindness. It is used on a limited basis to fuel internal combustion engines,
mainly by virtue of the fact that it is not nearly as flammable as gasoline. It is harder
to ignite than gasoline and produces just one-eighth of the heat upon burning. It is
also called wood alcohol.
a. ethanol b. methanol c. isopropyl alcohol d. Gasohol
32. It is the process of combining the proper ratio of oxygen with a gaseous form of a
fossil fuel so it can combust. It usually involves all these stages, from vaporizing a
liquid fuel to letting it mix with air and finally moving the mixture to where it can be
burned.
a. oxygenation b. carburetion c. fuel injection d. fuel induction
33. It is a device used to reduce the toxicity of emissions from an internal combustion
engine. It works by providing an environment for a chemical reaction wherein toxic
combustion by-products are converted to less-toxic substances.
a. muffler b. header c. turbocharger d. catalytic converter
34. Cocomethyl ester, also known as biodiesel, is a non-toxic, eco-friendly fuel having
similar properties as diesel fuel. The process of transesterifying raw vegetable oil
into cocomethyl ester requires the use of :
a. alcohol b. oxygen c. hydrogen d. carbon dioxide e. none of the above
35. It is the ratio of the actual weight of fuel inducted by the engine during the intake
stroke to the theoretical weight of air that should have been inducted by filling the
piston displacement volume with air at atmospheric temperature and pressure.
a. volumetric capacity d. volumetric measure
b. volumetric parameter e. none of the above

c. volumetric efficiency
36. A 85 mm × 85 mm engine runs at 2,000 rpm. What is the maximum piston speed
inside the cylinder?
a. 105 m/s b. 17.8 m/s c. 25 m/s d. 75 m/s
37. A diesel engine was tested for a continuous 3 hours of operation. It consumed at total
of 5 liters and developed a constant power of 7.5 kW. If the fuel contains 45.46
MJ/kg, what is the approximate thermal efficiency?
a. 40% b. 35% c. 33% d. 25%
38. A 4-cylinder 120 mm × 100 mm engine turns at 1,750 rpm. If the individual
cylinder’s clearance volume is 110 cm3, what is the engine’s compression ratio?
a. 8:1 b. 9:1 c. 10:1 d. 11:1
39. Among the fuels that belong to the paraffin group, this has three carbon atoms in its
molecular structure. It is the main component of LPG.
a. pentane b. Ethane c. Butane d. propane
40. This vertical axis windmill has a very low tip speed ratio and power coefficient of
less that 0.2. The rotor is usually constructed using a cylindrical tank cut axially into
two and installed vertically face to face at an offset position.
a. Savonious b. Cretan c. Darrieus d. Multibladed
41. How much water is produced by an engine each hour if it burns 25 liters of premium
gasoline per hour?
a. 20.45 liters b. 25.93 liters c. 30.56 liters d. 32.55 liters
e. 15.75 liters
42. A tractor travels at a speed of 4mph. It pulls a drawbar load of 2,000 lb. What is
the drawbar power expended by the tractor?
a. 42 kW b. 31 hp c. 16 kW d. 28 kW e. 704,000 ft-lb/sec
43. The engine crankshaft provides 30 hp at 1700 rpm. What is the torque exerted?
a. 100 ft-lb b. 93 nt-m c. 126 nt-meter d. 60 nt-meter e. 64 ft-lb
44. A prony brake test of a motor gave the following data: Force = 1.5 lb; Length of arm
= 2 ft; N (rpm) = 1720. What is the power developed?
a. 0.98 hp b. 0.98 kw c. 1.523 kw d. 1.523 hp
45. The ideal air-fuel ratio for using kerosene as an engine fuel is :
a. 10:1 b: 15:1 c. 13:1
d. 12:1 e. none of the above
46. What is the average linear speed of the piston for a 4.5 × 6 in. engine with a
crankshaft speed of 1000 rpm.
a. 8 m/s b. 1,900 in/min c. 160 ft/min d. 4,787 cm/min
47. What is the piston displacement volume in liters of a four stroke cycle 4-cylinder 15 ×
18 cm engine rotating at 2000 rpm.
48. A 4-stroke cycle, 4-cylinder engine having a cylinder dimension of 25 × 50 cm

rotates at 154 rpm. The imep is 7.5 kpa. The ihp is:
a. 31 b. 14.2 c.17.2
d. 97 e. none of the above
49. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?

a. A person must be efficient to be effective.
b. A person may be effective without being efficient.
c. A person must be effective to be efficient.
d. A person may be efficient without being effective.
e. Statements a and c
50. Among the following statements, which demonstrates efficiency in operations?

a. Reducing the number of workers while maintaining the same target yield.
b. Increasing the number of workers while maintaining the same target yield.
c. Increasing the target yield and maintaining the number of workers.
d. Reducing the number of workers and reducing the target yield.
e. Statements a and c.
51. The study of the ways and means of organizing land, labor and capital and the
application of technical knowledge and skill in order that the farm may be made to
yield the maximum net returns is called _______.
a. Management d. Farm Management
b. Economics e. Agricultural Economics
c. Scientific Method
52. A farmer’s success is dependent on several factors, of which are:

a. Proper selection of farm type and size based on the available capital, labor and
other resources.
b. Age, strength, maturity and his ability to communicate well in English.
c. Giving due importance to land and water conservation and record keeping of all
transactions of the farm.
d. Planning the best layout of the farm and providing provisions of buildings,
equipment, irrigation and other farm requirements.
e. Statements a, c, d.
Agricultural Mechanization and Machinery
1. The development of a desirable soil structure for a seedbed does not include:
a. higher water infiltration rate b. increased water surface runoff

c. greater water holding capacity d. promotion of root penetration
2. Soil cut, lifted, inverted and thrown to one side of the blow bottom is termed:
a. furrow b. furrowslice
c. backfurrow d. Deadfurrow
3. Bend sideward of the point of the share to make the plow cut the proper width is:
a. vertical clearance b. horizontal suction
c. disc angle d. tilt angle
4. The angle the disc of a disc plow makes with the direction of travel to make it cut the
proper width and allow it to rotate when moving forward is:
a. 15 – 25 degrees b. 42 – 45 degrees
c. 55 – 60 degrees d. 30 – 36 degrees
SWEff
5. In the equation C = , C is capacity expresses in:
10
a. m2/h b. m2/day
c. ha/h d. ha/day
6. Floating power tillers are used in:
a. 2-wheel tractor for wetland op. b. 2-wheel tractor for dryland op.
c. 4-wheel tractor for wetland op. d. 4-wheel tractor for wetland op
7. The mechanical function of the planter does not include:
a. sort the seeds b. meter the seeds

c. deposit the seeds d. cover the seeds
8. The horizontal seed plate is used for:
a. row-crop drill planter b. hill-drop planter

c. solid drill planter d. broadcaster
9. Method of pest control not considered engineering control is:
a. chemical control b. biological control

c. mechanical control d. a and b
10. Sprayers are used primarily for the application of:
a. herbicides b. insecticides
c. fungicides d. pesticides
11. Which of the following is not a spray nozzle pattern?
a. hollow cone nozzle pattern b. solid cone nozzle pattern

c. hollow fan nozzle pattern d fan nozzle pattern
12. Which of the following belong to the group of variable displacement pump?
a. centrifugal pump b. mixed flow pump

c. air lift pump d. all of the above
QxH
13. In the equation for horsepower, Hp = , Eff is:
3960xEff
a. efficiency of pump b. efficiency of transmission

c. efficiency of prime mover d. efficiency of the system
14. The direct type of power transmission system has:
a. 90% Eff b. 95% Eff

c. 98% Eff d. 100% Eff
15. The traditional system of harvesting and threshing of rice is:
a. manual harvesting and threshing b. manual harvesting and mechanical threshing

c. mechanical harvesting and threshing d. combining
16. Among the factors affecting the choice of harvesting and threshing system, which one is
the major factor?
a. kind of crop b. timeliness of operation

c. topography d. farm size
17. The threshing action most commonly employed by a mechanical thresher for rice is:
a. rubbing action b. impact action

c. stripping action d. all of the above
18. The acronym PAES means:
a. Philippine Agricultural Engineering Society

b. Professional Agricultural Engineering Society
c. Philippine Agricultural Engineering Standards
d. Professional Agricultural Engineering Standards
19. How many standards are now available in PAES?
a. 60 standards b. 82 standards
c. 103 standards d. 119 standards
20. A 4-ha field was plowed using a three-bottom 12-inch tractor-mounted moldboard plow.
It took 11 hours to complete the operation at a tractor speed of 5 kph.
Find the field efficiency.
a. 75% b. 80%
c. 85% d. 90%
21. A 3-ha field was plowed using a 15-cm wide animal-drawn plow at 4 kph and field
efficiency of 75%. The draft required to pull the plow is 60 kg.
Find the distance traveled to plow the field.
a. 66.67 km b. 133.33
c. 200 km d. 266.67 km
22. The calibration of the 9X7 (9 rows X 7 inches row spacing) grain drill is shown below.
Row spacing to be adjusted to 14 inches. Groundwheel diameter is 1.22 m.
Discharge (gm)
Seeding Adjustment
(9 rows for 10 revolutions of groundwheel)
¼ Open 140
½ Open 460
¾ Open 740
Full Open 1,100
What is the seeding rate at ¼ open seeding adjustment?

a. 5 kg/ha b. 11 kg/ha
c. 8 kg/ha d. 20 kg/ha
23. Determine the size of the diesel engine to be used for a 4 inches X 4 inches centrifugal
pump. Pump discharge is 200gpm. Total head is 24 ft. Pump efficiency is 55%. V-belt
efficiency is 95%. And air-cooled diesel engine delivery rating is 70%.
a. 1.6 hp b. 2.4 hp
c. 3.3 hp d. 4.7 hp
24. A 4-m combine traveling at 5 kph can empty its 1.5-ton grain tank in 2 minutes. When
unloading on-the-go, it has an 86% field efficiency. Field yield is 3.5 tons/ha. What
would be the field efficiency if the combine stopped to load?
a. 70% b. 75%
c. 80% d. 85%
25. A 4-wheel tractor with 3X14 inches moldboard plow is to operate on clay loam soil
(specific draft = 0.56 kg/cm2) at a depth of 25.4 cm. The maximum draft and percent
increase in draft due to speed are:
Increase in draft due to speed

Gear Setting Speed (kph) Max. Draft (kg)
(%)
1L 3.2 4,000 14
2L 4.8 3,100 28
3L 6.4 2,200 42
4L 8.0 1,300 56
Determine the tractor horsepower required to perform the operation.

a. 55 hp b. 60 hp
c. 65 hp d. 70 hp
26. A field measuring 45 m X 90 m is to be prepared using a 1-m upland power tiller at a
speed of 3 kph. Assume a 10% overlap between passings and 9 seconds turn around
time at the end of each pass.
Determine the theoretical field capacity.
a. 0.25 ha/hr b. 0.3 ha/hr

c. 0.35 ha/hr d. 0.4 ha/hr
27. The three main sources of power for mechanization include:
a. human, animal & mechanical b. human, electrical & mechanical

c. animal, electrical & mechanical d. human, animal & electrical
28. Before the adoption of mechanized harvest and postharvest operations for rice, field
losses were:
a. 5 – 15% b. 10 – 27%
c. 10 – 37% d. 20 – 30%
29. In optimizing the capacity of a machine, it is recommended to have:
a. one small machine b. one big machine

c. two or more small machines d. all of the above
30. Primary tillage involves cutting the soil to a depth of :
a. up to 3 inches b. 3 to 6 inches
c. 6 to 18 inches d. 6 to 36 inches
31. Primary tillage equipment that cuts the soil to a depth of 6 to 18 inches is called:
a. moldboard plow b. subsoiler

c. chisel plow d. spiral plow
32. The perpendicular distance between the wing and point of the share determines the:
a. longitudinal dimension of plow b. transverse dimension of plow

c. diagonal dimension of plow d. maximum dimension of plow
33. Draft of plows is primarily determined by:
a. type of soil b. speed of plowing

c. sharpness of cutting edge d. overall adjustment of plow
34. Determine the theoretical field capacity when a tractor operating at 6.4 kph is pulling
four-36 cm moldboard plow bottoms at a depth of 20 cm. ^^^^0.9216ha/hr ???
a. 7.2 ha/day b. 0.72 ha/hr

c. 0.18 ha/hr d. 1.8 ha/day
35. Planters designed to plant seeds continuously in rows with row spacing greater than 36
cm is called:

36. The groundwheel of a planter is normally related to the operation of the:
a. furrow opener b. metering device

c. seed tube d. double-disc closer
37. Part of a planter that is always present in all planters regardless of type and cropping
system:
a. furrow opener b. metering device

c. seed tube d. furrow closer
38. Operation with the highest manual labor requirement for lowland rice:
a. plowing with carabao b. hand transplanting

c. weeding with push-type weeder d. manual harvesting
39. Principle used in creating hydraulic energy in a lever-operated knapsack sprayer is:
a. adding air to a container with fixed volume of liquid

b. adding liquid to a container with a fixed volume of air
c. adding liquid to a container with an existing volume of liquid
d. adding air to a container with an existing volume of air
40. Which of the following is not a part of a typical lever-operated knapsack sprayer?
a. tank b. pump
c. pressure gage d. nozzle
41. Which of the following is not a part of a typical lift pump?
a. inlet valve b. piston

c. plunger d. bucket valve
QxH
42. In the equation for horsepower, Hp = , Q is pump output in:
3960xEff
a. gallons b. gpm
c. liters d. lps
43. Which of the following is not a typical example of a small single-cylinder engine?
a. air-cooled gasoline engine b. water-cooled gasoline engine

c. air-cooled diesel engine d. water-cooled diesel engine
44. The conventional system of harvesting and threshing of rice in the Philippines is:
a. manual harvesting and threshing b. Manual harvesting and

mechanical threshing
c. mechanical harvesting and threshing d. combining
45. Average harvesting losses of rice at maturity date is 3.35 %, but two weeks after
maturity date this will increase to:
a. 5.63% b. 8.64%
c. 40.70% d. 60.46%
46. The threshing action where grains are detached from their panicles when the straw is
pulled through a “V” shaped configuration is called:
a. rubbing action b. impact action

c. stripping action d. a and b
47. The development of PAES started in:
a. 1985 b. 1990
c. 1995 d. 2000
48. What is the theoretical field capacity of a 3-m combine traveling at 100 meters in 52
seconds?
a. 0.03 ha/hr b. 0.57 ha/hr

c. 1.45 ha/hr d. 2.08 ha/hr
49. Twelve man-days is equivalent to:
a. one man working for 12 hrs b. three men working for three days
c. six men working for 2 hrs d. four men working for three days
Find the horsepower output of the animal:
a. 0.66 hp b. 0.88 hp
c. 0.77 hp d. 1.0 hp
Row spacing is to be adjusted to 14 inches. Groundwheel diameter is 1.22 m.
Discharge (gm)
Seeding Adjustment
¼ Open 140
½ Open 460
¾ Open 740
Full Open 1,100
What is the seeding rate at ½ adjustment:

c. 38 kg/ha c. 79 kg/ha
52. A 5-m self-propelled combine makes an average stop of 4 min every time its 2-ton grain
tank is to be unloaded. Gross yield of the 20-ha field is 42 tons. The operating speed is
4.8 kph. The time for turning on the headland at the ends of the 500-m field is 15
seconds.
Find the theoretical field capacity of the combine:
a. 1.2 ha/hr b. 2.4 ha/hr
c. 3.6 ha/hr d. 4.8 ha/hr

(%)
1L 3.2 4,000 14
2L 4.8 3,100 28
3L 6.4 2,200 42
4L 8.0 1,300 56
Determine the highest gear setting that can sustain the draft requirement for the
operation:
a. 1L b. 2L
c. 3L d. 4L
54. The application rate of a certain chemical is recommended at 4 kg/ha. The calibration
test of a 16-liter knapsack sprayer is as follows: Nozzle discharge = 1.2 liters/min,
swath = 1.5 m and walking speed = 20 m/min
Determine the number of sprayer loadings per hectare:
a. 15 b. 20
c. 25 d. 30
Determine actual field capacity when tilling is done along the longer field direction:
a. 0.23 ha/hr b. 0.25 ha/hr
c. 0.27 ha/hr d. 0.29 ha/hr
56. Select a farm operation that can only be done with the use of a machine:
a. plowing b. spraying
c. harvesting d. threshing
57. Which of the following agencies does not belong to the Department of Agriculture?
a. BPRE b. BPI
c. AMMDA d. RAEG
58. The use of machinery does not only imply ownership, the following are also considered
viable options:
a. renting b. custom hire service

c. joint ownership d. borrowing
59. Secondary tillage involves pulverizing the soil to a depth of:
a. up to 3 inches b. 3 to 6 inches
c. 6 to 18 inches d. 6 to 36 inches
60. Part of the moldboard plow bottom that receives the furrowslice , lifts, inverts and throws
it to one side is called:
a. share b. moldboard
c. landside d. frog
61. Type of plow developed in an effort to reduce friction in a sliding bottom by using a
rolling bottom is:
a. moldboard plow b. disc plow

c. subsoilers d. rototiller
SWEff
62. In the equation C = , S is speed of plowing in:
10
a. mps b. kph
c. fpm d. mph
63. Disc harrow consisting of four gangs of discs with two gangs in front and two gangs at
the rear is called:
a. single-action disc harrow b. double-action disc harrow

c. off-set disc harrow c. all of the above
64. Planter designed to plant seeds in rows and in hills is called:

65. The adjustable orifice with agitator is used for:

c. broadcaster d. transplanter
66. Parameter not required in the calibration of a planter is:
a. row spacing b. ave. seed emergence

c. forward speed d. groundwheel diameter
67. Soil working part utilized by push-type weeders for dryland operation is:
a. blade type b. tine type

c. rotary type d. all of the above
68. Which of the following statements is incorrect: The higher the pressure, … :
a. the larger the droplet size b.the higher flow rate

c. the wider the spray angle d. all of the above
69. In a water pumping system, the source of water is usually at a:
a. lower elevation than pt. of delivery b. equal elevation than ….

c. higher elevation than …. d. a and c
70. Which of the following is not part of a force pump?
a. inlet valve b. piston

c. plunger d. discharge valve
QxH
71. In the equation for horsepower, Hp = , H is total head in:
3960xEff
a. ft. b. ft/min
c. meters d. meters/min
72. The power unit for driving centrifugal pumps for household use is usually:
a. electric motor b. gasoline engine

c. diesel engine d. kerosene engine
73. The most recently developed system of harvesting and threshing of rice is:
a. mechanical harvesting & threshing b. combining

c. stripping d. all of the above
74. A machine that cuts standing crop, conveys the cut crop to one side, and lays them down
in an orderly manner is called:
a. sickle b. reaper-windrower
c. reaper-binder d. stripper
75. The Japanese combine is characterized as:
a. low power & hold-on feeding b. low power & throw-in feeding
c. high power & hold-on feeding d. high power & throw-in feeding
76. How many volumes of PAES were adopted by the Department of Agriculture?
a. two b. three
c. four d. five
It took 11 hrs. to complete the operation at a tractor speed of 5 kph.
Find the theoretical field capacity:
a. 0.46 ha/hr b. 1.45 ha/hr
c. 1.13 ha/hr d. 1.8 ha/hr
78. How many times greater is the power of a carabao over man?
a. 0.1 b. 1.0
c. 10 d. 100
79. The fertility of a particular field is such that maximum corn yield is obtained with a
population of 54,000 plants per hectare. A checkrow corn planter is used which
discharges 2 seeds/hill. Average emergence is 85%. Row spacing = hill spacing. Find
the spacing:
a. 0.56 m b. 0.75 m
c. 0.65 m d. 1.0 m
Discharge (gm)
Seeding Adjustment
¼ Open 140
½ Open 460
¾ Open 740
Full Open 1,100
What is the seeding rate at ¾ adjustment?

seconds.
Find the actual field capacity:
a. 1.5 ha/hr b. 2.5 ha/hr
c. 2.0 ha/hr c. 3.0 ha/hr

(%)
1L 3.2 4,000 14
2L 4.8 3,100 28
3L 6.4 2,200 42
4L 8.0 1,300 56
Determine the drawbar horsepower to perform the operation.
a. 45 hp b. 50 hp
c. 55 hp d. 60 hp
Determine the amount of chemical to mix with water per loading:
a. 102 gms/load b. 160 gms/load
c. 200 gms/load d. 240 gms/load
Determine the field efficiency in going the longer field direction:
a. 77% b. 80%
c. 83% d. 86%
85. Select two consecutive farm operations which when done mechanically can increase
cropping intensity:
a. planting – spraying b. irrigation – weeding

c. harvesting – plowing d. harvesting – threshing
86. Which of the following agencies is not based in a university?
a. AMTEC b. PhilSCAT
c. AMDP d. PCARRD
87. The following are considered discounted measures of project worth:
a. payback period b. internal rate of return

c. benefit-cost ratio d. net present value
88. General-purpose tillage involves cutting and pulverizing the soil to a depth of:
a. up to 3 inches b. up to 6 inches
c. up to 12 inches d. up to 18 inches
89. Bend downward of the point of the share to make the plow penetrate the soil to the
proper depth is:
a. tilt angle b. disc angle

c. horizontal suction d. vertical clearance
90. Width of cut of the disc plow is influenced by:
a. disc diameter b. depth of cut

c. disc angle d. all of the above
SWEff
91. In the equation C = , W is width of cut expressed in: (code 16)
10
a. ft. b. m
c. km d. mile
92. General-purpose tillage equipment are used in:
a. 2-wheel tractor for wetland op. b. 4-wheel tractor for dryland op.
c. 4-wheel tractor for wetland op. d. all of the above
93. Planter designed to place seedlings in rows and in hills is called:

c. solid drill planter d. transplanter
94. The IRRI drum seeder is an example of:

95. Parameter not required in determining the field capacity of a planter:
a. width of planter b. forward speed of planter

c. No. of seeds per hill d. efficiency of planter
96. Type of soil working parts utilized by push-type weeders for wetland operation:
a. blade type b. tine type

c. rotary type d. all of the above
97. Which of the following is not measured in calibrating a sprayer?
a. nozzle discharge b. effective working width

c. walking speed d. application rate
98. Which of the following does not belong to the group of positive displacement pumps?
a. lift pump b. force pump

c. rotary pump d. propeller pump

99. According to the National Irrigation Administration (NIA), water requirement for rice
production is:
a. 5 mm/day b. 10 mm/day
c. 15 mm/day d. 20 mm/day
100. If the specific yield of a particular well is 3 gpm/ft drawdown and the discharge rate of
the pump is 30gpm, the total drawdown is:
a. 1 ft b. 3 ft
c. 10 ft d. 30 ft
101. Which of the following operation is not done by a stripper?
a. cutting of standing crop b. stripping

c. cleaning of grains d. conveying of grains to the tank
102. The cutting mechanism most commonly employed by reapers and combines is:
a. slicing & tearing b. high velocity, single-element, impact action

c. two-element, scissor-type action d. all of the above
103. The IRRI axial-flow thresher is characterized as:
a. low power & hold-on feeding b. low power & throw-in feeding
c. high power & hold-on feeding d. high power &throw-in feeding
104. What section is not yet included in the PAES?
a. Production/postharvest machinery b. Irrigation and drainage

c. agricultural structures d. engineering materials
It took 11 hrs. to complete the operation at a tractor speed of 5 kph.
Find the actual field capacity:
a. 0.09 ha/hr b. 0.5 ha/hr
c. 0.36 ha/hr d. 1.5 ha/hr
Find the time required to plow the field:

a. 11.11 hrs b. 22.22 hrs
c. 44.44 hrs d. 66.66 hrs
Discharge (gm)
Seeding Adjustment
¼ Open 140
½ Open 460
¾ Open 740
Full Open 1,100
What is the seeding rate at full open adjustment?

seconds.
Find the field efficiency:
a. 78% b. 83%
c. 87% d. 90%
Determine the total volume of water applied per hectare:
a. 200 liters b. 300 liters
c. 400 liters d. 500 liters
Determine actual field capacity when tilling is done along the shorter field direction:
a. 0.23 ha/hr b. 0.25 ha/hr
c. 0.27 ha/hr d. 0.29 ha/hr
Determine the field efficiency in going the shorter field direction:
a. 77% b. 80%
c. 83% d. 86%
112. Which of the following countries follow the mechanization model of low land area to
farmer ratio?
a. Thailand b. Philippines
c. Malaysia d. Indonesia
113. The gasoline engine is characterized as:
a. low first cost – high operating cost b. low first cost – low operating cost
c. high first cost – high operating cost d. high first cost – low operating cost
114. Using the specifications of the transmission system of the metering devise (horizontal
seed plate) of the two-row corn planter, determine the expected hill spacing. Row
spacing = 75 cm, groundwheel diameter = 60 cm, no. of cells of seedplate = 20, T1 =
6t, T2 = 18t, T3 = 10t and T4 = 25t.
a. 0.62 m b. 0.81 m
c. 0.71m d. 0.92 m
115. The three-phase electric motor is characterized as:
a. low first cost – high operating cost b. low first cost – low operating cost
c. high first cost – high operating cost d. high first cost – low operating cost
ANSWER KEY
Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer

1 - b 31 - a 61 - b 91 - b
2 - b 32 - b 62 - b 92 - d
3 - b 33 - a 63 - b 93 - d
4 - b 34 - b 64 - b 94 - c
5 - c 35 - a 65 - a 95 - c
6 - a 36 - b 66 - c 96 - c
7 - a 37 - b 67 - d 97 - d
8 - b 38 - c 68 - a 98 - d
9 - b 39 - a 69 - a 99 - b
10 - d 40 - c 70 - b 100 - c
11 - c 41 - c 71 - a 101 - a
12 - d 42 - b 72 - a 102 - c
13 - d 43 - b 73 - c 103 - d
14 - d 44 - b 74 - b 104 - b
15 - a 45 - b 75 - a 105 - c
16 - b 46 - c 76 - c 106 - d
17 - b 47 - d 77 - a 107 - d
18 - c 48 - d 78 - c 108 - b
19 - c 49 - d 79 - a 109 - c
20 - b 50 - b 80 - a 110 - a
21 - c 51 - b 81 - c 111 - a
22 - b 52 - b 82 - b 112 - b
23 - c 53 - c 83 - b 113 - a
24 - b 54 - c 84 - c 114 - c
25 - c 55 - b 85 - c 115 - b
26 - b 56 - b 86 - d
27 - a 57 - c 87 - a
28 - c 58 - c 88 - b
29 - c 59 - b 89 - d
30 - d 60 - b 90 - d
Agricultural Mechanization and Machinery
Easy Questions
1. A three (3) cylinder engine is more balanced than a straight four (4) cylinder engine.
a. True b. False c. Neither d. All of the above
2. The compression ignition engine is also known as a

a. gasoline engine b. diesel engine c. stirling engine d. marine engine
3. The open trench formed when two adjacent furrow slices are thrown opposite each other.
a. dead furrow b. land c. headland d. tillage
4. This is a strip of untilled land at the end of the fields.

a. hill b. headland c. tilth d. furrow wall
5. The hydraulic implement system that maintains a constant draft on the implement.
a. radiator b. pto c. drawbar d. draft control
6. The swept volume of the engine’s piston multiplied by the number of cylinders
a. horsepower b. cylinder head
c. engine displacement d. crankcase
7. One hundred hectares is equivalent to

a. 1 sq. km b. 10,000 m2 c. 10,000,000 d. 2.1 acre
8. The ratio of the cylinder volume when the piston is at the bottom of its stroke (BDC)
to the cylinder volume when it reaches the top of its stroke (TDC)
a. B/C ratio b. displacement c. engine ratio d. compression ratio
9. A kilowatt (kw) is equivalent to

a. 1.34 hp b. 0.45 hp c. 0.75 hp d. .0.5 hp
10. If a hand tractor is rated at 80 horsepower, its metric equivalent rating is

a. 60 Kw b. 107 Kw c. 75 Kw d. 90 Kw
11. Power is the rate of doing work..

a. m x a b. a/b c. F x s d. Q/t
12. Human is a poor source of power in the farm developing only 0.1 hp.
a. 0 60 Kw b. 1.07 Kw c. 0.075 Kw d. 0.90 Kw
13. This part of a compression ignition engine meters the fuel into the cylinder.
a. spark plug b. air filter c. fuel injector d. carburetor
14. Two-wheel tractors designed solely for pulling draft implements are referred to as
standard type tractors.
a. hand tractor b. multi-trac tractor

c. low-cost tractor d. tractor differential
15. Twelve man-days is equivalent to the output of twelve men working for one day.
a. 96 man-hours b. 107 man-hours c. 75 man-hours d. 90 man-hours
16. If the output of 10 men working continuously can be converted to electricity,
the maximum power that can be generated is about 750 watts.
a. 1 hp b. 10 hp c. 0.5 hp d. 9 hp
17. The four-wheel tractor has two brake pedals; one for the left wheel and the other
for the right wheel.
a. differential lock b. pad lock c. drawbar d. 3-point hitch
18. The clutch is normally in the.

a. idling b. disengaged position c. engaged d. running
19. The gear box placed on the first gear position will develop high torque and high speed.
a. gear lever b. ignition coil c. timing belt d. distributor
Hard Questions
21. If the optimum pulling load of the carabao is about 35 percent of its body weight
and weighs 250 kg.
a. 77 kg b. 107 kg c. 97 kg d. 87 kg
22. A four-stroke-spark-ignition engine needs a magneto to operate.

a. contact point b. fuel pump c. gas tank d. float valve
23. Compact tractors are four-wheel tractors with power rating below 32 hp.
a. 80 Kw b. 24 Kw c. 70 Kw d. 90 Kw
24. The differential facilitates the turning of the tractor.

a. gear lever b. 3-pt hitch c. pto d. steering wheel
25. For high speed engines, the intake valve opens at TDC and closes after BDC.
a. 54 degrees b. 50 degrees c. 44 degrees d. 40 degrees
26. Spark-ignition engines use gasoline as fuel.

a. carburetor b. injection nozzle
c. metering valve d. plunger
27. In a four-stroke cycle engine, compression is the event during which the piston
is moving upward and the two valves are close.
a. power stroke b. intake stroke c. compression stroke d. exhaust stroke
28. In a compression-ignition engine, fresh supply of fuel and air mixture enters
the cylinder as the piston moves downward and the intake valve opens.
a. exhaust stroke b. intake stroke c. compression stroke d. power stroke
29. If it is desired to reverse the four-wheel tractor to the right, the steering wheel must be
turned.
a. backwards b. counterclockwise c. clockwise d. forward
30. The flywheel is the part of the engine which absorbs the power from the crankshaft
during the idle strokes and returns it during the power stroke.
a. True b. False c. Neither d. abc
Difficult Questions
A 1000 kg carabao traveling at v kph is pulling a moldboard plow whose width of cut is w
centimeter at a depth of d inches. If the soil draft.is s kg/sq.cm.
31. What is the total pull (in lb) being exerted by the carabao?
a. 5.85 swd b. 5.95 swd c. 5.59 swd d. none of the above
32. At the given velocity, how long will it take to plow a rectangular field W meters wide and L
meters length.
a. lw/10VW b. Lw/10vW c. lW/10Vw d. LW/10vw
33. If the weight of the carabao is increased to 1,500 kg by how many percent is the
total pull exerted by the carabao increased.
a. 50% b. 33.33% c. 30% d. 53.33%
34. If each succeeding pass overlaps the previous pass by 10 %, by how much longer
will it take to plow the same field in item no. 32.
a. LW / 90 vw b. LW / 9 vw c. Lw / 9 vW d. Lw / 90 vW
35-36. A two-hectare rice field whose length is twice its width is to be harvested by a stripper
combine whose average speed will be 5 kph.. Field sampling of the crop showed 0.60 kg
paddy per sq. meter.
If the combine was able to finish the area in two hours,
35. How wide is the swath of the combine?
a. 2 m b. 79 in c. 6.6 ft d. all of the above
36. Based on the field area sampling what will be the total yield of the 2-hectare field?
a. 12,000 kg b, 423,288 oz c. 12,200x 10 3 g d. 26,840 lbs
37-40. A 6-nozzle boom sprayer is mounted at the back of a four wheel tractor. The nozzles are
arranged 150 cm. apart along the boom length. Each nozzle has a 60 degree spray angle.
Each nozzle delivers k 1/min.
37. At what height must the boom be raised, relative to the ground level, so that the spray from
each nozzle does not overlap upon reaching the top of the rice plant canopy which is 50
cm tall?
a. 108 cm b. 180 cm c. 93.3 cm d. 309.8 cm
38. What is the effective swath of the boom sprayer in number 37.
a. 150 cm b. 750 cm c. 75 cm d. 900 cm
39. If the tractor travels at 5 kph with 95% field efficiency, what will be the spraying capacity (in
ha/hr) under the condition in no. 38.
a. 4.25 b. 4.52 c. 4.28 d. 470
40. If each nozzle delivers one liter per minute, how many liters per hectare will the boom
sprayer deliver under the conditions in no. 39?
a. 84.11 li/ha b. 184.11 li/ha c. 16 li/ha d. 17 li/ha
ANSWER KEY:
EASY: b, b, a, b, d, c, a, d, a, a
d, c, c, a, a, a, a, c, a
HARD: d, a, b, d, c, a, c, b, c, a
DIFFICULT: c, d, a, b, d, a, b, d, c, a
Additional Review Problems
1. A farmer uses a hand tractor with 20 cm moldboard plow. How many kilometers must he
walk to plow one hectare? (Ans. 50 km)
2. If he overlaps each pass by 10%, how many kilometers more will he have to walk to plow
one hectare? (Ans. 5.56 km)
3. If his walking speed is 1.55 miles per hour, how long will it take him to plow in each case (in
#1 & #2)? What will be his plowing capacity (ha/h) in each case? (Ans. Time case1: 20 hrs.,
case2: 22.22 hrs.; plowing capacity case1: 0.05 ha/h, case2: 0.045 ha/h)
4. An engine at 2000 rpm is to drive a pump to run at 1000 rpm. The engine drive pulley is 15
cm in diameter and there is a 10% belt slippage. What should be the diameter of the pulley
on the pump? (Ans. 27 cm)
5. A.) How many hectares can be plowed in one hour by a tractor operating at 5 kph and is
pulling 3 moldboard plows with a total width of cut of 160 cm at a depth of 14 cm? (Ans.
0.80 ha/h)
B.) What is the total draft in kilogram pull if there is a draft of 0.45 kg/cm 2? (Ans. 1008 kg)
C.) How many hectares can be plowed in 3 hours if 8% of the time is spent on headland
turning? (Ans. 2.208 ha)
6. A 2-hectare farm is to be planted by a 4-row rear mounted corn planter traveling 5km/h with
a row spacing of 1 meter. The field is twice as long as its width. If 3 minutes is spent for
each head land turn;
A.) How many turns will the planter make to plant the whole area? (Ans. 24 turns)
B.) How many hours are needed to plant the whole field if the plant rows run along the
longer length? (Ans. 2.2 hours)
C.) How many percent of the total planting time in (B) was spent in headland turning? (Ans.
54.54%)
D.) If the planter delivered an average of 12 seeds per linear meter, how many seeds are
needed for the entire area including the headlands? Planting is along the longer side.
(Ans. 240,000 seeds)
7. A sprayer is operating at 6 kph, covering 30 hectares in 6 hours. 20% of the time was spent
on headland turning and tank filling.
A.) What is the effective swat boom of the sprayer? (Ans. 10.42 meters)
B.) If the area is increased to 40 hectares, what should be the operating speed to finish
spraying in 6 hours with 20% time loss? (Ans. 8.0 kph)
C.) If the boom is 10 meters wide and delivers 25 liters/hour, what is the application rate in
l/ha in (A) & (B)? (Ans. In (A) 250 l/ha, (B) 187.5 l/ha)
8. A farmer will use an 8-row grain drill for planting paddy. Its groundwheel is one meter in
diameter designed for slip operation. Row spacing is adjustable. He will follow a 100-kg/ha
seeding rate recommendation.
A.) If the row spacing is 25 cm, how much paddy (in grams) must the drill deliver for one
revolution? (Ans. 62.8 grams)
B.) If 1000 seeds weighs 25 grams and assuming uniform distribution, how many seeds
must there be per linear meter along the row? (Ans. 100 seeds/m)
C.) If the seed germination rate is 90%, how many rice plants will be established per square
meter? (Ans. 360 seeds will grow)
D.) If the working speed is 5 km/h, how much time is needed to plant a square 2-hectare
field at 20cm row spacing? (Ans. 2.5 hours)
Practice Test
1. Juan will plow a field 120m wide and 426.4 feet long using a carabao and moldboard plow
with a 10-inch width of cut. If his speed of plowing is 2 miles per hour, how long will he
finish plowing if he plows along the length of the field with no headland left unplowed?
a. 18.5 hrs. b. 19.06 hrs. c. 20 hrs. d. 20.5 hrs
2. How long will he finish plowing (# 2) if he plows along the width of the field (with 2m
headlands unplowed)?
a. 18.40 hrs. b. 18.75 hrs. c. 18.95 hrs. d. 19.00 hrs.
3. In problem # 2, what is his plowing capacity (ha/hr)?

a. 0.07 b. 0.075 c. 0.082 d. 0.090
4. In problem # 3, what is his plowing capacity (ha/hr)?

a. 0.082 b. 0.085 c. 0.088 d. 0.090
5. In problem # 2, if his plowing speed is 2 kph, how long will he finish plowing if he plows
along the length of the field with no headlands left unplowed?
6. In accordance with condition in problem # 6, how long will he finish plowing if he plows
along the width of the field with no headlands left unplowed?
7. What is the plowing capacity (ha/hr) in problem # 6?
a. 0.045 b. 0.051 c. 0.055 d. 0.06
8. What is the plowing capacity (ha/hr) in problem # 7?
a. 0.051 b. 0.055 c. 0.06 d. 0.065
9. If the width of cut of his plow is 30 cm, by how much will his plowing capacity (ha/hr)
increase in accordance with the conditions in problem 3?
a. 0.012 b. 0.015 c. 0.018 d. 0.020
Farm Power and Energy
Easy Level Questions
1. How much oxygen does air have?
a. 23.2% by volume b. 23.2% by weight c. 15.3% by weight
d. 15.3% by volume e. none of the above.
2. For complete combustion of gasoline, how much air is needed?
a. 11.1 kg/kg of fuel b. 12.5 kg/kg of fuel c. 15.1 kg/kg of fuel d. 8.2 kg/kg of fuel
3. The bore of an engine is 8 cm and the stroke is 11 cm. Find the piston displacement.
a. 55.23 cm3 b. 155.35 cm3 c. 789.30 cm3 d. 552.92 cm3

4. A prony brake test of a 4-stroke cycle 7.5-cm × 10-cm engine was conducted. The lever arm
was 75 cm at a net force of 60 N and speed of 1000 rpm. Determine the bhp of the engine.
a. 4.7 b. 60 c. 7.6 d. 6.3

5. It is a special shaft that extends to the rear of the tractor and is designed to provide power to
integral mounted or trailing implements such as mowers, balers, and rotavators.
a. PTO b. drawbar c. differential d. hitch e. none of the above
6. It is an instrument used for testing specific gravity of a liquid.
a. hydrometer b. hygrometer c. viscosimeter d. density meter

7. It is a special arrangement of gears so constructed and located in the transmission system of

an automotive machine that it will permit one driving member to rotate slower or faster than
the other and at the same time propel its share of the load.
a. gear box b. automatic transmission c. differential d. PTO

8. It refers to the driving force developed by a wheel or any other traction device.
a. rolling resistance b. traction c. inertia d. pull e. none of the above
9. It is engine part whose primary function is to maintain uniform engine speed by absorbing
some energy during the power strokes and providing power during the idle strokes.
a. governor b. accelerator c. flywheel d. crankshaft e. none of the above
10. It is the theoretical maximum percentage of the kinetic energy of air which a windrotor can
convert into mechanical energy.
a. 82.5% b. 50.5% c. 59.3% d. 10.0% e. none of the above
11. In a spark ignition engine, fresh supply of fuel and air mixture enters the cylinder as the
piston moves downward and the intake valve opens during this event.
a. exhaust b. intake c. power d. compression e. none of the above
12. In order to properly stop the forward motion of the 4-wheel tractor, the operator has to step
on the:
a. brake pedal b. clutch pedal c. brake and clutch pedals d. accelerator

Answers:
1. b 2. c 3. d 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. c 8. b
9. c 10. c 11. b 12. c
Medium And Difficult Level Questions
1. An ordinary gasoline engine uses about 0.4 kg of fuel/kW-hr. What is the approximate
thermal efficiency?
a. 20% b. 19% c. 30% d. 35% e. none of the above
2. A diesel engine burns 0.25 kg of fuel/kW-hr. What is the approximate thermal efficiency?
a. 40% b. 35% c. 32% d. 25% e. none of the above
3. Determine the drawbar power required to pull a plow with a 3-14 in bottom at a rate of 3.5
mph if the unit draft is 8 psi of furrow section and depth of cut is 7 in.
4. What is the piston displacement for a 10 cm × 15 cm engine with 4 cylinders?
a. 2,459 cm3 b. 4,567 cm3 c. 4,712 cm3

d. 1,283 cm3 e. none of the above
5. How much power can a horse deliver if it is continuously pulling 120 lb load for several hours
and walking at a rate of 2.5 mph?
a. 1 hp b. 0.8 hp c. 0.75 hp d. 1.2 hp e. none of the above
6. It is the ratio of the volume of distilled water to the volume of chemically pure, concentrated
sulfuric acid in a lead-acid cell.
a. 3:1 b. 4:1 c. 5:2 d. 1:2

7. Calculate the theoretical power available from a stream using the following data: average
width – 12 ft; average depth- 2 ft; speed – 15 ft/min; height of drop- 4 ft.
a. 2.7 hp b. 1.5 hp c. 4.2 kW d. 5.4 kW e. none of the above
8. What is the compression ratio of a 2-stroke cycle 3” × 4” engine if the clearance volume is 5
in3. The speed of operation is 1000 rpm.
a. 6.1 b. 7.1 c. 6.7 d.9.1 e. none of the above

9. Calculate the location of the center of gravity of 7800 lb-tractor with respect to the rear axle if
the wheelbase is 90 in. The static weight on the front wheels is 2300 lb.
a. 30” b. 26.5” c. 60.5” d. 45.5” e. none of the above
10. A tractor with a 9-in pulley is belted to a prony brake having a 24-in pulley. If the tractor
engine pulley speed is 950 rpm, the brake arm is 54 in, and the net load is 60 lb., what is the
hp developed?
a. 25 b. 18.3 c. 34 d. 52 e. none of the above
Answers:
1. b 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. b
Renewable Energy (Pre-Board 2007)
1. Which of the following is not an indirect manifestation of solar energy?

a. Biogas energy b. biomass energy
c. fossil fuel d. geothermal energy
e. hydropower energy
2. What is the solar declination during equinox?

a. -23.45° b. -14° c. 0° d. 14° e. 23.45°
3. For a given site, wind potential can be predicted theoretically. The power available is
taken as the flux of kinetic energy per vertical square meter. Supposing that the design
power requirement is 1 kW and the average wind speed in the area is 5 m/s, what is
the recommended minimum rotor diameter? Assume air density of 1.25 kg/m3.
a. 0.02 m b. 2 m c. 4 m d. 8 m e. 20 m
4. The ratio of the actual power extracted to the theoretical power of the windmill is called
a. coefficient of performance b. drag coefficient
c. mechanical efficiency d. power coefficient
e. windmill efficiency
5. Proven geothermal power plant designs and components are available for resource
temperature of 150° and higher, and for sizes from 50 kWe to 135 kWe. What is the
best method for disposing geothermal fluids?
a. industrial processes b. injection into the producing reservoir
c. rejection in the nearest water source d. space heating
e. use of cooling towers
6. What is the major disadvantage of wave energy?

a. available only in the ocean b. lacks technology
c. low efficiency d. uneconomical
e. unreliable
7. An OTEC power plant uses the temperature difference between warm surface water
and cold deep water of the ocean to drive a heat engine. Apart from the source, no
qualitative difference exists between an OTEC power cycle and the cycle in a
conventional thermoelectric power plant. However, an OTEC system is fed with a
temperature difference of not more than 20-22°C, while the usual thermoelectric
power plant works with a temperature difference of several hundred degrees. What is
the maximum thermodynamic efficiency of an OTEC power plant?
a. 3% b. 7% c. 10% d. 15% e. 30%
8. What hydro-turbine is mixed-flow, reaction turbine in which the runner converts both
kinetic energy as well as pressure energy into mechanical energy? Water from the
penstock enters a spiral casing and flows through wicket gates.
a. Deriaz turbine b. Francis turbine
c. Kaplan turbine d. Straflo turbine
e. Turgo turbine
9. The rise and fall of water level as a result of tides is periodic in nature. The semidiurnal
tides, which is due to moon’s attraction occur every
a. 12 h b. 12 h 25 min c. 24 h d. 24 h 50 min e. 365 days
10. Biogas is a mixture of methane and carbon dioxide with traces of hydrogen sulphide
and water. This gaseous mixture is formed as part of a naturally occurring process by
which micro-organisms in the absence of oxygen break down organic material. This
process is called
a. aerobic digestion b. anaerobic digestion
c. fermentation d. gasification
e. methanogenesis
11. Which is not a suitable feedstock for ethanol production ?

a. Cassava b. Corn
b. Jatropha d. Molasses
e. Sugarcane
12. The adiabatic frozen-flame temperature of a product is the maximum temperature

that can be achieved for a given reactants, without dissociation. Because any heat
transfer from the reacting substances and any incomplete combustion would tend to
lower the temperature of the products. The adiabatic frozen-flame temperature of
methane, CH4, at ambient temperature is approximately equal to
a. 0 °C b. 300 K c. 1,500 °C d. 1,700 K e. 5,000 K
Farm Economics (Pre-board 2005)

Easy
1. Gloria had P1,500, part of which she invested in an account that earns simple interest of
6.5% per year, and the remainder in an account that earns 4.5% compounded annually.
If at the end of 1 year, Gloria’s money amounted to P1,583.50, how much was her
investment in each of the account?
a. P800 and P700 b. P600 and P900 c. P950 and P550 d. P750 each
Ans. a
2. A lending institution for small-scale enterprises lends P4,000 per client. At the end of one
month, the client had to repay P4,020. What is the nominal annual interest rate?
a) 6% b) 8% c) 10% d) 12%
Ans. a
Moderate
1. A farmer just made the first quarterly payment of P900 in interest for a loan that carries
an interest rate of 12 % per year, compounded quarterly. The original amount of the
loan is:
a. P18,750 b. P35,000 c. P140,000 d. P30,000
Ans. d
2. The table below shows 3 equivalent plans for repaying a loan
Year Interest earned for Principal payment Total end of year
year payment
Plan 1
1 1,600 6,161 7,761
2 1,107 6,654 7,761
3 575 7,185 7,761
Plan 2
1 1,600 8,000 9,600
2 960 7,000 7,960
3 400 5,000 5,400
Plan 3
1 1,600 0 0
2 1,728 0 0
3 1,866 20,000 25,194
The initial amount of the loan is

a. P16,000 b. P20,000 c. P21,000 d. cannot be determined from data
Ans. b
3. The interest on the loan is
a. 8% b. 10% c. 12% d. 14%
Ans. a
4. Compute the net present value at i=15% per year, compounded annually, for the cash
flow below:
End of year 0 1 2 3 4
Cash flow -P40,000 P12,000 P12,000 P12,000 P12,000
a. P1,582 b. P5,741 c. P3,048 d. P2,692
Ans. b
Difficult
5. An obligation of P20,000 is to be repaid at a rate of P4,000 per year plus the interest that
is owed based on the beginning-of-the-year unpaid principal. If the loan has to be repaid
over a 5-year period, at an interest rate of 10%, what is the total amount of interest to
be repaid?
a. P7000 b) P6,000 c) P6,380 d) P8,000
Ans. b
6. An irrigation control dam with a 100-year life has an initial cost of P15M. The gates in the
dam must be replaced every five years, at a cost of P2M. If the interest rate is 8% per
year, compounded annually, what is the capitalized worth of the annual cost of
maintaining the dam?
a. P5.683M b) P7.248M c) P4.261M d) P6.148M
Ans. c
7. A certain project has the following cash flow:

Cash flow for each year
0 1 2 3 4
Initial cost -P30,000
Revenues 40,000 30,000 30,000 25,000
Expenses 20,000 18,000 10,000 12,000
If the desired MARR is 15%, the project’s NPV is
a. P22,568 b. P25,000 c. P24,033 d. P17,048
Ans. d
8. The benefit cost ratio obtained by the traditional (conventional) method for the project in
no.23 is
a. 0.90 b. 1.15 c. 1.23 d. 1.0
Ans. C
9. An agricultural engineer purchased a new machine for P18,000. It is expected to have a
useful life of 10 years and a salvage value of P3,000. At i=15%, how much additional
revenue must the machine generate to at least recover its cost?
a. P3,900 b. P3,557 c. P2,990 d. P3,440
Ans. b
10. An agricultural firm can invest into a 15-year project that will produce an annual revenue
of P200,000 per year. Initial investment required is P165,000, while yearly operating
expenses will be P145,000. What is the IRR for this opportunity?
a) 18.5% b) 26.4% c) 33.1% d) 36.0%
Ans. c
11. A machine purchased for P45,000 had a depreciable life of 4 years. It will have an
expected salvage value of P5,000 at the end of its depreciable life. Using the-sum-of-the-
years digits method, what is the depreciation amount for year 3?
a. P8,000 b. P12,000 c. P10,000 d. P18,000
Ans. a
12. If the double declining balance method of depreciation is used, what is the depreciation
amount for year 3?
b. P10,000 b. P5,625 c. P11,250 d. P17,500
Ans. b
Farm Economics
Easy
1. The power of a good or service to satisfy human wants is

a) value c) utility
b) mutual benefit d) none of the above
2. The group of costs associated with initiation of an activity and which occurs only once for any
given activity is
a) fixed cost c) first cost

b) life-cycle cost d) non-recurring cost
3. Among the following, that which can be classified as variable cost is

a) cost of purchasing machines
b) cost of materials
c) cost of making preliminary design of product or structure
d) depreciation cost
4. In a balance sheet, which of the following items is not entered under assets?
a) accounts receivable
b) inventory of goods and materials
c) preferred or common shares of stocks
d) none of the above
5. An electrical appliance manufacturer has fixed costs of P80M per year, and its output capacity
is 100,000 appliances per year. The variable cost is P1,600 per unit, and the product sells for
P3,600 per unit. The manufacturer’s breakeven point is
a) 40,000 units c) 80,000 units
b) 60,000 units d) none of the above
6. In a given month, a versatile machine called “Alien” is used to make 400 units of product R
60% of the time. For the remaining hours that “Alien” is in use, 400 units of another product
S are made. An overhead charge of P80,000 per month applies, to be allocated using
machine hours. Labor and material cost for R and S are given in the table below:
R S
Material cost/unit P150 P170

Labor cost/unit P80 P90
In a month, the total cost of making R is

a) P136,000 c) P140,000
b) P230,000 d) none of the above
7. What annual rate of simple interest is earned by an investment of P28,000 if it accumulates

P3,552.50 in interest after twenty-one months?
a) 12.69% c) 7.25%
b) 9.82% d) none of the above
8. The value of the interest factor needed to find the equivalent at time 0 of P155,000 occurring
7 years from now when interest rate is 9% per year compounded yearly is
a) 1.8280 c) 0.0129
b) 0.5470 d) none of the above
9. The equal payment series sinking fund factor is used
a) to find F given A c) to find A given F
b) to find A given P d) none of the above
10. Five years ago, P12,000 was deposited into a savings account that provides an interest of
6.5% compounded annually. The money in the account is closest to what value now?
a) P8,759
b) P16,441
c) P14,265 .
d) This cannot be determined because there is no interest factor for finding a present
amount given a past amount
11. A uniform payment series is one that consists of equal payments

a) starting now up to year n
b) starting one year from now up to year n
c) starting one year from now increasing by a uniform amount up to year n
12. In which statement is the interest rate not given as an effective rate?
a) effective 12% per year compounded monthly

b) 10% per year compounded daily
c) 2% per month compounded monthly
13. Which will provide the largest annual effective rate?

a) effective 18% per year compounded yearly
b) 18% per year compounded daily
c) 17.5% per year compounded weekly
d) nominal 18.5% per year compounded semi-annually
14. The actual interest earned on an investment is the interest rate that makes
a) the equivalent amount of receipts equal to the equivalent amount of disbursements
at time 0.
b) the equivalent amount of receipts equal to the equivalent amount of disbursements
at t = n.
c) the equivalent yearly amount of receipts equal to the equivalent yearly amount of
disbursements.
d) all of the above
15. Which of the following is not equivalent to 24% per year compounded monthly?
a) 2% per month
b) effective 26.82% per year
c) 6.12% per quarter
d) 12.24% per semi-annual period
16. A company produces circuit boards that are used to update computer equipment. The fixed
cost is P3.15 M per month and the variable cost is P3975 per circuit board. The selling price
per unit is p = P11,250 – 1.5D. Maximum output of the plant is 6,000 units per month. What
demand will maximize the profit for this product?
a) 3,425 c) 1,875
b) 4,115 d) 2,425
17. Interest is rental for the use of someone else’s money. It is unlawful to charge exceedingly
high interest rate.
a) Both statements are false
b)The first is true but the second statement is false.
c) Both statements are true.
d) The first is false but the second statement is true.
18. Which of the following contribute to the interest rate being charged?
a) unfamiliarity with the identity of the borrower
b) administrative cost of collecting the money
c) opportunity cost of money
d) all of the above
19.How long will it take to double your money if it earns a simple interest of 10% per year?
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10
20. Given the following cash flow for an investment and a MARR of 12%:
End of Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Cash Flow -30,000 -19,000 10,000 10,000 10,000 20,000 20,000
The simple payback period is

a) 3 years b) 4 years c) 5 years d) 6 years
Moderate
1. Five years ago, P12,000 was deposited into a savings account that provides an interest of
6.5% compounded annually. If a uniform amount of P3,000 was withdrawn yearly starting at
the end of the first year after the initial deposit was made, then
a) all the money will be gone by now
b) an amount greater than P3,000 can still be withdrawn now
c) an amount less than P3,000 can still be withdrawn now
2. The value of the interest factor needed to find a series of equal revenues that must be
received every year for 12 years to realize a return of 25% from an initial investment of P25M
is
a) 0.2685 c) 0.0687
b) 0.0185 d) none of the above
3. How many years will be required for a given sum of money to triple, if it is deposited in a
bank account that pays 8% per year compounded quarterly?
a) 14 c) 13
b) 15 d) 16
4. The fixed cost that can be allocated to the production of plywood by Duraboard Plywood
Corporation is P10M per month. The variable cost per thousand board feet is P6,575. The price
charged will be determined by p = P18,000 – 2.5D per thousand board feet. The profit at the
optimal sales volume is closest to
a) P1.286M c) P2.478M
b) P3.053M d) P3.670M
5. A small manufacturer of a car accessory has fixed costs of P5M per year, and its maximum
output capacity is 100,000 units per year. The variable cost is P1,000 per unit and the
product sells for P1,800 per unit. What is the economic breakeven point for the company?
a) 4,750 b) 5,000 c) 6,250 d) 7,050
6. A designer has a choice between gray iron and aluminum for an instrument mounting in a
power plant. Either material would serve equally well under the same conditions of use. The
per-kilogram cost of aluminum and gray iron is P650 and P430, respectively. Each casting
made of aluminum would cost P315 to machine while the corresponding cost for the gray iron
would be P276. The casting made of aluminum would weigh 0.59 kg while that of the iron
would be 1.09 kg. The cost per piece of aluminum casting is closest to
a) P744.70 b) P698.50 c) P564.85 d) P825.30
7. If a borrower just made the first quarterly payment of P700 in interest for a loan that
carries an interest rate of 2% per quarter, the original amount of the loan is:
a) P8,750.00 b) P35,000.00 c) P140,000 d) P165,000
8. A loan can be repaid in 4 years using any of the 3 following plans:
Plan End-of-year Interest for Total owed at end Payment

year of year
Plan 1 1 7,200 97,200 27,173
2 5,602 75,629 27,173
3 3,876 52,332 27,173
4 2,013 27,173 27,173
Plan 2 1 7,200 97,200 0
2 7,776 104,976 0
3 8,398 113,374 0
4 9,070 122,444 122,444
Plan 3 1 7,200 97,200 7,200
2 7,200 97,200 7,200
3 7,200 97,200 7,200
4 7,200 97,200 97,200
The original amount of the loan is:

a) P72,000 b) P90,000.00 c) P108,692 d) P97,200
9. The amount of P65,000 was to be borrowed at an annual interest rate of 12% to be repaid in
5 years. Two different plans, both equally desirable, could be selected to repay the loan. The
first plan requires paying 1/5 of the principal each year + interest due. The second plan
requires paying an equal amount every year. In Plan 1, the amount to be repaid at the end of
year 1 will be closest to
a) P17,680 b) P20,800 c) P18,240 d) P16,120
10. If you invest P1,500,000 now in a house and lot, how much must you rent your property
per month for 20 years if you want an annual return of 20% on your investment?
a) P18,400 b) P21,450 c) P25,670 d) P30,000
11. How much money will be accumulated in 3 years if a person made a monthly deposit of
P2000 every month up to the 3rd year when the account pays interest of 1% per month?
a) P81,406 b) P90,028 c) P115,112 d) P86,154
12. At 10% interest, the cash flow below

0 1 2 3 4
P2000
P2500
P3000 P3500
is equivalent to a uniform yearly cash flow of

a) P 3,500 b) P2,780 c) P2,691 d) P3,025
13. After passing the board exam, you plan to set up a business that requires a P2.5 M initial
investment, of which 25% is working capital. The P2.5 M also includes an amount of
P575,000 for equipment, with no salvage value. The business is good for 7 years and is
projected to provide yearly net cash flows of P600,000. In addition, you will recover 80% of
your working capital at the end of 7 years.At 16% interest per year, the present worth of this
investment is closest to
a) P80,000 b) P100,060 c) P150,040 d) P224,360
14. You are to make a choice between 2 investment alternatives as follows: (MARR is 15% per
year). The salvage value is 20% of the net cash flow at the end of each alternative’s useful
life.
End-of-Year Alternative Prime Alternative Mover

0 -P160,000 -P240,000
1 50,000 45,000
2 50,000 45,000
3 50,000 45,000
4 130,000 45,000
5 45,000
6 45,000
7 45,000
8 100,000
Using repeatability assumption, what would be the closest value to the PW of alternative
prime?
a) P30,286 b) P40,648 c) P44,780 d) P52,280
15. Given the following cash flow for an investment and a MARR of 12%:
End of Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Cash Flow -30,000 -19,000 10,000 10,000 10,000 20,000 20,000
The internal rate of return is closest to

a) 8.6% b) 9.4% c) 10.8% d) 11.3%
16. An optical scanning machine that will be used for reproducing blueprints of engineering
drawings can be purchased for P12M and has an estimated market value of P2.4 M at the end of
10 years. If the machine were to be depreciated using declining balance method that would
result in book value equal to market value at the end of 10 years, by what rate must the machine
be depreciated?
a) 18.62% c) 11.42%
b) 25.31% d) 14.87%
17. Ferdinand Shipping Company bought a tugboat for P750,000. The boat is expected to last
for 5 years, after which it could be sold for P120,000. The following revenues and
and expenses are expected for the first operating year.
Revenue – P2,000,000;
Expenses – P840,000;
Depreciation – P40,000.
If the company is taxed at a rate of 30%, what is the net income at the end of the
first year?
a) P287,000 d) P259,000
b) P784,000 e) none of the above
c) P812,000
18. Among the following depreciation methods, that which will produce the lowest present
worth of taxes paid is
a. straight-line method
b. sinking fund method
c. declining balance method
d. service-output method
19. A contractor imports equipment for P1.2M. Customs, installation and other costs
initially incurred to make the equipment serviceable amounted to P200, 000. At the end of 5
years, the equipment will have a market value of P200, 000. If depreciated by the straight-
line method, cumulative depreciation through the end of the second year will be
a. P240,000 c. P200,000
b. P480,000 d. P400,000
20. A machine which costs P100,000 when new has a lifetime of 15 years and a salvage value
equal to 20% of its original cost. If interest rate is 10% compounded annually, the
capital recovery of the machine is closest to
a. P12,518 c. P15,324
b. P14,645 d. P16,846
Difficult
1. A loan of P10,000 is to be paid in 3 years at an interest of 6% per year. Which of the

payment plans below is not equivalent to the others?
a) Pay interest payment of P600 each year during the first 2 years and P10,600 at the end
of the third year.
b) Pay P4,600 at the end of the first year, P3,600 at the end of the second year, and P3,600
at the end of 3rd year.
c) Pay with a single amount of P11,910 at the end of 3 years.
d) Pay with 3 equal payments of P3,741 every year for 3 years.
2. A P10,000 bond that will mature in 20 years is currently sold for P7,500. It
provides 10% interest payments paid quarterly. The face value of the bond is
a) P7,500 b) P10,000 c) P2,500 d) none of the above
3. Which of the following interest relationships is not true?

a) (P/A,i,n) = [1 + (P/F,i,n)](1/i)
b) (A/P,i,n) = (A/F,i,n) + i
c) (P/F,i,n) = (P/F,i,n1)×(P/F,i,n2) provided n1 + n2 = n
d) (F/A,i,n) = 1 + (F/P,i,1) + (F/P,i,2) + (F/P,i,3) + ….. + (F/P,i,n-1)
e) none of the above
4. A manufacturing enterprise has determined that its revenue for product ZED was highest
when it could produce 2,500 units of ZED per month. Further, profit was also found to be at
a maximum at a production of 2,000 units per month. The company’s monthly fixed cost for
making product ZED was P10,000 and the cost of making 1 unit of ZED was P20 apiece. The
lower range of the company's profitable operation (breakeven point) is at 129 units of
product ZED. What is the higher limit of producing product ZED profitably (the other
breakeven point)?
a) 1,245 b) 2,372 c) 3,871 d) 4,045
5. Three products, S, T and U are manufactured by a company using a single machine but at
different times of the day. Day-to-day charges for overhead amount to P64,000. The daily
costs involved and other information pertinent to making these products are as follows:
S T U
Total Direct Cost of materials P39,200 P22,800 P62,000
Total Direct Cost of labor 38,400 49,400 81,500
Hours on the machine 2 2 4
No. of units produced/ Machine hour 120 90 390
If overhead cost was determined by the number of machine hours, what is the daily
production cost of the company?
a) P485,300 c) P293,300
b) P357,300 d) information is missing to solve the problem
6. Two electric motors are being evaluated for an automated paint booth application. Each
motor must have an output of 10 horsepower (hp). It is estimated that the booth will be
operated an average of 8 hours per day for 250 days per year. MARR is 12% per year before
taxes, and the machine must return the capital in 5 years. Motor A costs P68,000 and has a
guaranteed efficiency of 85% at the indicated operating load. Motor B costs P56,000 and has
a guaranteed efficiency of 80% at the same operating load. Electric energy costs P6.80 per
kilowatt-hour and 1 hp = 0.746 kw. (Recall that efficiency equals ouput/input.)
The annual cost of electric energy in operating motor A is closest to

a) P119,360 b) P126,820 c) P142,320 d) P163,270
7. The newly-established All-Natural Drug Company is deciding between two pill-forming

machines described below:
Round Oval
First Cost P7,200,000 P4,500,000
Salvage Value 1,080,000 900,000
Annual Revenues 1,200,000 1,000,000
less Expenses
Life, years 6 6
Using the straight line method of depreciation, an effective tax rate of 30%, and an
after-tax return of 20%, the amount of taxes to be paid for the first year for the round
machine is closest to
a) P80,000 b) P106,000 c) P212,000 d) P54,000
8. An appliance worth P7,875 is made available for a 1 and ½ year loan, payable in monthly
installments of P500. The effective annual interest rate is closest to
a) 12.6% b) 18.8% c) 13.5% d)
21.6%
9. A series of equal payments of P500 is received semi-annually for 4 years. After the first 4
years, the semi-annual payments are doubled in size, and these larger payments are received
for 10 more years. If interest rate is 12% compounded quarterly, the single present amount
equivalent to the series of payments received over the 14-year period is
a) P10,075 b) P10,114 c) P10,190 d) P 11,400
10. Below is the cash flow for an engineering project
End of year 0 1 2 3 4 5
Cash flow -P45,000 8,000 8,000 8,000 8,000 8,000 8,000 + 5,000 salvage
If interest rate is 20% and the required service life is only 4 years, the imputed salvage
value is closest to
a) P27,200 b) P31,250 c) P23,370 d) none of the above
Farm Management
Easy
1. The person responsible for helping the organization achieve its goal is called_______.
a. Planner d. Leader
b. Organizer e. Developer
c. Manager f. None of the Above
2. The management process by which managers think their through in advance and where the
organization’s mission, vision, goals and objectives are made is called ___________.
a. organizing d. controlling
b. staffing e. directing
c. planning f. leading
3. What is the ratio of output over input?

a. planning d. efficiency
b. effectiveness e. organizing
c. controlling f. none of the above
4. The fund collected by the government to finance its activities.

a. credit d. tax
b. enterprise e. interest
c. dividend f. None of the above
5. What is the term used for the effective and efficient use of scarce resources to achieve
organizational goals?
a. Farm Management d. Management
b. Organizing e. Agriculture
c. Agricultural Economics f. None of the above
6. It is the process of management where managers coordinate the human and material
resources of the organization.
a. Planning d. directing
b. Organizing e. controlling
c. Staffing f. leading
7. A payment for the use of money, generally stated as a percentage of the amount or principal
borrowed is called __________.
a. duty d. capital
b. credit e. liquidity
c. dividend f. none of the above
8. This is also known as the ad valorem tax.

a. tax d. capital
b. value added tax e. duty
c. interest f. none of the above
9. Which of the following is not a managerial role :

a. mediator d. monitor
b. liaison e. none of the above
c. negotiator f. all of the above
10. The ability to choose appropriate means of achieving a given objective is called _______.
a. effectiveness d. economics
b. efficiency e. solvency
c. liquidity f. none of the above
11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a manager:

a. responsible d. mediator
b. politician e. none of the above
c. decision maker f. all of the above
12. The art of applying business and scientific principles to the organization and management of
farm business enterprise for the purpose of securing the greatest continuous profit is
called ________.
a. Management d. Farm Economics
b. Scientific Method e. Farm Management
c. Agricultural Economics f. None of the above
13. The term used for the process of management where it is aimed at getting members of the
organization to move in the direction that will achieve its objectives.
a. Planning d. Directing
b. Organizing e. Controlling
c. Staffing f. Leading
14. It is the income distributed to the shareholders of the enterprise.

a. Dividend d. Tax
b. Interest e. credit
c. Capital f. None of the above
15. The term used for growing more than one crop on the same area in a year.
a. Compact Farming d. Multiple Cropping
b. Extensive Farming e. Cropping Pattern
c. Intensive Farming f. None of the above
16. A special science concerned chiefly with the description and analysis of production,
distribution and consumption:
a. Agriculture d. Management
b. Engineering e. Marketing
c. Economics f. None of the above
17. The readiness by which an asset can be converted into cash is termed as
a. liquidity d. cash flow
b. solvency e. assets
c. quick-acid test f. None of the above
18. The management process of ensuring that actual activities conform to planned activities.
a. Planning d. Directing
b. Organizing e. Controlling
c. Staffing f. Leading
Moderate
1. What is the prevailing ad valorem tax in the Philippines?

a. 5 percent d. 2 percent
b. 10 percent e. 20 percent
c. 20 percent f. none of the above
2. What is the process by which a farm manager looks ahead to the future and contemplates
alternative courses of action for the farm?
a. Budgeting d. Farm Budget
b. Farm Economics e. Farm Planning
c. Efficiency of Production f. None of the above
3. These are the economic resources owned by a business which are expected to benefit future
operations:
a. inventories d. networth
b. assets e. capital
c. liabilities f. none of the above
4. Which of the following is not a good reason for using Farm Plans?
a. For review and analysis of objectives.
b. Serve as a central facilitating aid.
c. Provide a basis for evaluation and improvement.
d. Serve as a yardstick for performance and evaluation
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
5. The following are all processes of proper management, except ________.

a. Planning d. Organizing
b. Leading e. Controlling
c. Procrastinating f. None of the above
6. Which of the following statements is not a good labor management practice.

a. Planning a labor calendar.
b. Providing social life and giving out bonuses and profit sharing, to enhance productivity.
c. Doing everything there is to do in order to save the rainy days for resting.
d. Developing initiative, goodwill, cooperation and respect.
e. Cut chore labor to a minimum. Also, simplify and combine jobs whenever possible.
f. Taking extra care in directing inexperienced labor.
7. Which among the following is/are not functions of farm management

a. Keeping records and accounts.
b. Controlling and directing the various resources.
c. Managing labor, land and capital.
d. Overseeing the entire production process.
e. All of the above.

f. None of the above.
8. The classes of risks in agriculture results from:

a. Human factors d. Statements b, and c
b. Liquidity e. All of the above
c. Natural factors f. None of the above
9. This involves planning the procurement and utilization of funds and controlling the financial
operations to insure effective utilization of funds.
a. Farm Budget d. Farm Planning
b. Marketing Management e. Production Management
c. Financial Management f. None of the above
10. Which of the following is not a function of management?

a. Controlling and directing the various resources
b. Management of labor
c. Methods of reducing risks in agriculture
d. Farm records
e. Management of capital
11. In financial analysis, what is the ideal current ratio?

a. 1:1 d. 2:1
b. 3:1 e. all of the above
c. 2:2 f. none of the above
12. It is the cost outlay of the firm for the wear and tear of machines, buildings and implements.
a. hedging d. revenue
b. credit e. depreciation cost
c. discount rate f. none of the above
13. What is the term used for the amount of funds available for payment at any given time?
a. Current assets d. Accounts receivables
b. Net working capital e. Capital
c. Net worth f. None of the above
14. Which of the following is not a method of valuation of inventory?

a. original cost d. present market value
b. original cost less depreciation e. all of the above
c. normal market value f. none of the above
15. What is the “book value of an asset?”

a. A tax levied on an import.
b. The value of an asset after subtracting depreciation
c. Also called as the ‘net benefit.’
d. The exchange value of goods or services in terms of money.
e. All of the above
Difficult
1. Arrange the following according to the process of management.

a. Selecting the right employees for the right position
b. Formulation of the mission, vision, goals, objectives and activities of the organization
c. Conducting of annual performance evaluation of employees.
d. Coordinating the employees and material resources of the organization.
e. Orientation of personnel for the proper achievement of goals.
a. i, ii, iii, iv, v d. ii, iv, I, iii, v

b. ii, I, v, iv, iii e. all of the above
c. ii, iv, I, v, iii f. none of the above
2. What is the depreciation factor per year of a hand tractor that is bought at P150,000.00,
if it has no more value at the end of the fifth year?
i. 25,000 pesos/year d. 30,000 pesos/year
ii. 60,000 pesos/year e. 17,500 pesos/year
iii. 15,000 pesos/year f. none of the above
3. Given: Total Current Assets = P200,000.00

Total Inventories = P 50,000.00
Total Fixed Assets = P500,000.00
Total Current Liabilities = P125,000.00
Total Long-term Liabilities= P185,000.00
Total Net worth = P 100,000.00
What is the current ratio for the given data?

a. 1.0 d. 1.5
b. 2.0 e. 1.6
c. 1.4 f. none of the above
4. From the given data in #3, what is the result using the quick/acid-test ratio?
d. 1.0 d. 1.3
e. 1.1 e. 1.4
f. 1.2 f. none of the above
5. What is the depreciation factor per year, of a hand tractor that is bought at 60,000 Pesos, if
it has no more value at the end of the fifth year?
a. 5000 pesos/year d. 2,500 pesos/year
b. 10,000 pesos/year e. 12,000 pesos/year
c. 6000 pesos/year f. none of the above
6. What is the hand tractor’s book value after 3 years?

a. 48,000 pesos d. 42,000 pesos
b. 12,000 pesos e. 24,000 pesos
c. 36,000 pesos f. none of the above
ANSWER KEY:
EASY:
1. c 2. c 3. d 4. d 5. d 6. b 7. f 8. b 9. a 10. a
11. e 12. e 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. e
MODERATE:
1. b 2. e 3. b 4. f 5. c 6. c 7. f 8. b 9. c 10. c
11. d 12. e 13. a 14. f 15. b
DIFFICULT:
1. c 2. d 3. e 4. f 5. e 6. e
Farm Management (Pre-Board 2007)
1. The management process by which managers think their through in advance and where
the organization’s mission, vision, goals and objectives are made is called ______.
a. organizing b. staffing c. planning d. controlling e. directing
2. It is the cost outlay of the firm for the wear and tear of machines, buildings and
implements.
a. hedging b. credit c. discount rate d. revenue e. depreciation cost
3. One source of labor provided from outside of the family is called:

a. hired labor b. labor management c. family labor d. fieldwork labor
Answers:
1. C 2. E 3. A
Farm Marketing and Management (Pre-Board 2005)
1. The term “marketing” is best identified in today’s business world with the concept of:
A) making a sale D. satisfying customer needs
B) creating customer needs E. maximizing competition
C) communication through advertising
Answer: D
2. A want supported by buying power is best described as a:
A) demand D. exchange
B) desire E. manifestation of greed
C) need
Answer: A
3. Which of the following is true:
A) Want is more important to marketers than demand
B) The major objective of marketing is customer satisfaction at a profit.
C) Need is more important to modern-day marketers than wants.
D) Customer satisfaction even without profit is most important to marketers.
E) None of the above.
Answer: B
4. Which of the following is not one of the four Cs of marketing?
A) communication
B) customer cost
C) convenience
D) customer solution/satisfaction
E) commitment
Answer: E
5. Which of the following statement about a product is not true?
A) Ideas and services are examples of products
B) There are five levels of a product namely: core, generic, expected, augmented and
potential product
C) Product is the core of the marketing mix.
D) A product is anything offered to a market for attention, acquisition and consumption.
E) A good product is enough to warrant high sales in the market.
Answer: E
6. What three most important factors input into the determination of prices?
A) Cost, demand, competition
B) Target market, promotional expenses, distribution channels
C) Market share, competitive moves, substitutes
D) Demographics, purchasing habits, shelf position
E) Customer value, nature of the product, production efficiency
Answer: A
7. The first step in pricing is:
A) computing the unit cost
B) determining the prices of competitors
C) setting pricing objectives
D) determining market’s sensitivity
E) evaluating different pricing methods
Answer: C
8. What factors would lead a marketer to adopt a going-rate pricing strategy?
A) There are no product differentiation and competitor moves are uncertain.
B) The pricing policy is 20% recovery on production cost.
C) There is an unusually high demand for the product.
D) The product is inferior.
E) There are few substitutes for the product.
Answer: A
9. Which of the following Cs in marketing is directly linked with the place or distribution
decision?
A) customer satisfaction D) cost recovery
B) convenience E) competitiveness
C) communication
Answer: B
10. Which of the following are characteristics of a good channel of distribution?
A) It has a good track record.
B) It has the capability to handle a wide variety of products.
C) It has growth potential
D) It has a high product market commitment
E) All of the above.
Answer: E
11. Promotion corresponds to what C of marketing?
A) Communication D) Convenience
B) Cost E) Customer orientation
C) Customer satisfaction
Answer: A
12. ___________ is any paid form of non-personal presentation and promotion of products.
A) Advertising D) Personal selling
B) Sales promotion E) Direct marketing
C) Public relations
Answer: A
Farm Marketing
Easy
1. To sustain all marketing activities, it is best to think that this person sits on top of the
organization.
a. The President c. The Marketing Department
b. The customer d. The Sales Department
2. These are concepts, images or philosophies that have value to the consumer and, therefore,
can be exchanged in the marketplace.
a. Goods c. Ideas
b. Services d. Prices
3. This type of market is characterized by the abundance of supply, where by the end-consumer
typically gets a better deal.
a. Buyer's Market c. Seller's Market
b. Inelastic Market d. Elastic Market
4. The function of marketing that looks into the movement of goods and services from the point
of production to the point of consumption.
a. Pricing c. Distribution
b. Promotion d. Consumption
5. Is a form of promotion that utilizes non-personal presentations paid for by an identified

sponsor.
a. Personal Selling c. Public Relations
b. Sales Promotion d. Advertising
6. The gap between the actual and desired states is known as

a. A need c. A question
b. A want d. An answer
7. Convincing the customer that he/ she is getting the best value for money is a concept known
as
a. The wise buyer c. The frequent buyer
b. value for money d. The lowest deal
8. The concept of distribution is associated with the term

a. Preference c. Channels
b. Selection d. Fortunes
9. Intangible products that offer recreational benefits are examples of

a. Processes c. Services
b. Exchanges d. Tangibles
10. This is the value created when raw materials are transformed into products
a. Place c. Form
b. Time d. Possession
Moderate
1. If a product can satisfy customer needs, then it can be said that it has
a. A price c. A utility
b. A promotion d. A facility
2. Hard-sell techniques as during the 1930-50s period characterized the

a. Barter Era c. Industrial Revolution
b. Production Era d. Sales Era
3. Represents the encoded idea which can now be sent to the receiver
a. Source c. Noise
b. Message d. Feedback
4.When a small number of marketers control the pricing element of the market, there is
a. An Oligopoly c. Pure Competition
b. A Monopoly d. Unfair Pricing
5. Looking at the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats are parts of

a. Evaluation c. Post Selection
b. Environmental Scanning d. Implementation
6. Pricing several products for the price of one is

a. Lining c. Valuing
b. Slimming d. Bundling
7. Awareness of the local culture and the business environment is an advantage of

a. Economies of Scale c. Encoders
b. Decoders d. Distributors
8. The three C's in promotion, in reference to message designing are

a. clear, consistent, confusing
b. consistent, convincing, costly
c. convincing, clear, compelling
d. compelling, contrasting, clear
9. A characteristic of 21st Century management is

a. Information sharing c. Rigidity
b. Size and Scale d. Reactivity
10. Prices changes do not lead to changes in demand

a. Perfectly inelastic demand c. Perfectly elastic demand
b. Sensitivity d. Demand curve
Difficult
1. These type of distributor are much like merchants but they do not take physical possession of
products sold
a. Dealers c. Functional Intermediaries
b. Agents d. Resellers
2. When there is high awareness of product substitutability, the WPM

a. Increases c. Remains the same

b. Decreases d. Doubles
3. Advantages of using distributors do not include

a. Contact efficiency c. Overcoming discrepancies
b. Labor specialization d. Price fixing
4. Reductions in prices when using allowances are done

a. Proportionately c. Directly
b. Disproportionately d. Indirectly
5. An independent variable in the marketing system is the

a. Price c. Intent-to-buy
b. Product d. Climate
6. Offering the same product to a selected clientele using attractive discounts is known as
a. Discrimination c. Dumping
b. Fixing d. Deception
7. Product factor considerations in selecting the best marketing channel include.

a. craft and breath of product line c. Intensity & selectivity
b. cost of intermediary money d. market size and nature
8. If awareness, knowledge and attitude are parts of the AKAP model, what is P?
a. Popularity c. Patronage
b. Prestige d. Promotions
9. As a customer of the PSAE-Region IV Review, the best way to promote this service is through
a. Personal Selling c. Direct Marketing
b. Advertisements d. Sales Promotion
No answer, it depends
10. BONUS: Who is Spiderman?
a. "I am Spiderman." c. "You are Spiderman"
b. Peter Parker d. Pedro Penduco
Answer Key
Easy
1. b 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. c 9. c 10. c
Moderate
1. c 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. a
Difficult
1. c 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. no 10. b
ans., it
depends
Farm Shop
Easy
1. Which is not an English or English derived unit?

a. foot d. Pascal
b. ft-lb/sec e. all of the above
c. pounds f. none of the above
2. Which is not an SI unit?

a. psi d. Pascal
b. Newton e. all of the above
c. Ampere f. none of the above
3. What hand tool could be used to make internal threads?

a. Lathe machine d. die and die stock
b. Milling machine e. all of the above
c.Tap and tap wrench f. none of the above
4. A piece of wood that is one square foot and one inch thick.
a. stock d. power routers
b. lumber e. all of the above
c. board foot f. none of the above
5. Fasteners that are externally threaded to allow the part being assembled to be easily
dismantled.
a. Nails d. rivets
b. Bolts e. all of the above
c.hinges f. none of the above
6. A list of all the different pieces of materials needed for a job. It is also called a “finish-stock
list”.
a. bill of materials d. a and c
b. working drawing e. all of the above
c. project plan f. none of the above
7. It refers to freshly-cut trees, raw logs and large sizes of sawn logs that are usually 4 inches
thick.
a. Sanded d. plywood
b. Timber e. trees
c. Lumber f. oxogens
8. Mango, Langka, Narra, Mancono are all ________.

a. Monocots d. softwoods
b. Dicots e. b and d
c. Hardwoods f. none of the above
9. Refers to tools that are driven by electric motor, hydraulics, air, gas engine, or forces other
than, or in addition to human power. They are generally stationary and are usually fixed in
the shop.
a. portable power tools d. power machines
b. hand tools e. all of the above

c. power tools f. none of the above
10. Machines with rotating knives that dress the edges of boards to a uniform thickness.
a. Planers d. grinders
b. Jointers e. all of th above
c. band saw f. none of the above
11. Coco lumber,buho, tinikan, sawali are all construction materials. They are all __________.
a. Hardwoods d. monocots
b. Softwoods e. all of the above
c. Dicots f. none of the above
12. A piece of lumber that is 2 x 3 x 6 is how many board feet?

a. 1 d. 4
b. 2 e. 1.5
c. 3 f. 2.5
MODERATE
1. The following tools could be used for lay out work, except__________.
a. vernier caliper d. chalkline
b. micrometer e. all of the above
c. marking gauge f. none of the above
2. Special nails like concrete nails are usually sold by ______.

a. Weight d. tens
b. Piece e. a and b
c. Bags f. b and d
3. In construction sites, shops and other work places, which should come first?
a. Profit d. cost cutting
b. Safety e. all of the above
c. Breaks f. none of the above
4. A power circular saw which rolls on a horizontal arm and has a blade that could be raised or
lowered and the arm could be rotated up to 45 deg in both direction.
a. radial arm saw d. table saw
b. cut off saw e. power hacksaw
c. tilting carbon table saw f. portable power saw
5. Materials that are usually very corrosion resistant and are used mostly for food handling
equipments.
a. copper d. mild steel
b. tin e. alloy steel
c. lead f. stainless steel
6. To ensure safety in the shop, which should be considered first?

a. recognize hazards d. conduct safety seminars
b. conduct workplace inspections e. a, b, c, and d
c. conduct incident investigations f. d, c, b, and a
7. Clamps, pliers are all examples of _______.

a. layout tools d. turning tools
b. cutting tools e. holding tools
c. boring tools f. none of the above
8. Its design and structure permit it to drive large drill bits and apply heavy pressures on
the bits.
a. power shears d. portable power drill
b. hand drill e. drill press
c. breast drill f. ratchet brace
9. It is guide in making a project and contains the necessary information to accomplish the
project.
a. working drawing d. a and b
b. bill of materials e. b and c
c. project plan f. none of the above
10. It has a motor-driven circular blade that may be adjusted for angled cuts and is fed down
to the material being cut.
a. radial arm saw d. reciprocating power saw
b. cut off saw e. jig saw
c. table circular saw f. band saw
11. Which operation could be done with a welding machine?

a. Cut d. hard surface
b. join metals e. b and d
c. thread f. a, b, and d
12. ___________ are examples of permanent fasteners.

a. Nails d. hinges
b. Screws e. all of the above
c. bolts f. none of the above
Difficult
1. ___________ often called mild steel bars in rectangular, angular and square shapes are useful
in bench metal work. The bars can be pounded, twisted and bent into many shapes. Mild steel
is often used as replacement for wrought iron, because it is less expensive.
a. round bars d. rectangular bars
b. cast iron bars e. angular bars
c. pig iron bars f. hot rolled iron bars
2. Engr. Masinaring and Engr. Sumallo were asked by Dean Avher to design 5 pcs. of work
benches for the AE REVIEW 2010. The engineers found out that they needed 10 pcs. of
2”x3”x12’ and 6 pcs. of 2”x2”x12’ for each work bench. How many board feet of lumber
would they need for a bench?
a. 324 board feet d. 420 board feet
b. 84 board feet e. 100 board feet
c. 3888 board feet f. none of the above
3. The Engineers are going to buy the wood materials from the J and P Masangkay Contractors
and Hardware Supplies, How much money do they need to purchase the materials, if a board
foot of lumber costs 24 pesos?
a. 2,016 pesos d. 10,080 pesos
b. 7,600 pesos e. 1,125 pesos
c. 2,400 pesos f. none of the above
4. When the owner of the J and P hardware recognized the two engineers purchasing the
materials, he gave them a 10 % discount on the purchase. How much did the two engineers
paid the hardware?
a. approx. 2, 000 pesos d. approx. 7,000 pesos
b. approx. 9,000 pesos e. approx. 5,000 pesos
c. approx. 6,000 pesos f. none of the above
5. A more meaningful classification for tools would be based on ________.

a. material that they work on d. use or function
b. trade e. size
c. user f. cost
6. Wrought iron, steel, cast iron, pig iron are all _________.
a. Alloys d. a and b
b. ferrous metals e. all of the above
c. non-ferrous metals f. none of the above
7. Which fastener has a cross mark slot on its head?

a. flat head d.Phillips head
b. square head e. all of the above
c. round head f. none of the above
8. What year was the metric system first used in the Philippines?
a. 1980 d. 1983
b. 1981 e. never
c. 1982 f. soon
9. The thickness of a metal sheet is designed by a series of numbers called __________.

a. Schedule d. gauge number
b. SAE number e. all of the above
c. ply rating f. none of the above
Answer Key
Easy
1. d 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. f 6. a 7. b 8. f 9. d 10. a
11. d 12. c
Moderate
1. f 2. e 3. b 4. a 5. f 6. a 7. e 8. e 9. c 10. b
11. f 12. f
Difficult
1. f 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. d 7. d 8. d 9. d

First Part Questions 1-751

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PSAE Region IV - Agricultural Engineering Board Review Materials I-1

FIRST PART REVIEW QUESTIONS

2. Which of the following is not a classification of farm jobs?

3. The ratio of input over output is termed as

4. Small gear or any two gears that are meshing together

5. Which of the following are the classes of risks in agriculture

a. A = P306.80 b. A = P255.90 c. A = P284.60 d. A = P362.40

19. Which of the following is a mistmatch?

c. liabilities – taxes, wages, prepaid income

22. In no. 21, the maximum net profit is

27. What is the effective annual interest rate in no. 26?

a. 50% b. 25.5% c. 59.3 % d. 40.7%

40. It is a vertical axis windmill with a very low tip-speed ratio.

48. The cetane rating of alpha-methylnaphthalene is:

65. The engine referred to in question no. 38 above is a:

a. 5.85 swd b. 7.83 swd c. 3.85 swd d. 2.54 swd

93. What is the atomic weight of oxygen?

99. What is the value of the universal gas constant in J/ g mole K?

a. 35,335 pltslha b. 45,445 pltslha e. 65,335 pltslha

Operating Area that can be irrigated, Ha

18. Twelve man-days is equivalent to the output of ...:

a. 0.12 hp/ha b. 0.16 hp/ha e. 0.19 hp/ha

25. The gearbox placed on first gear will develop. .. :

a. pentane b. ethane c. butane d. propane e. none of the above

a. P6,420 b. P3,555.28 c. P816.33 d. P4,426 e. P2,307

53. A manager's performance can be measured in two concepts:

55. The ability to get things done correctly is called

58. Which is not a use of Farm Records?

d. Scheduling of labor requirements

61. In financial analysis, what is the ideal acid-test ratio?

62. What is the current ratio of the given data?

64. What is the net working capital of the given business?

a. 21 hp b. 18 kw c. 30 Ps d. 21 kw e. none of the above

40. The first step in developing effective promotion is:

1. When demand exceeds supply, there is

2. _____ refers to the cost of the best foregone alternative

3. 39. The fundamental _____ equation is given as “Assets = Liabilities +

5. A certain project has the following cash flow:

9. Which will provide the largest annual effective rate?

10. For an investment, the following information is known:

Salvage value 4,000 3,000

14. The monthly interest rate equivalent to an effective semi-annual rate of 4% is

15. The IRR of the cash flow below is closest to:

17. Photovoltaic cells work by

19. The power grid is

26. In an ideal Diesel engine, the combustion of fuel occurs at :

27. In an ideal Otto engine, the combustion of fuel occurs at :

a. belt horsepower d. indicated horsepower

b. volumetric parameter e. none of the above

48. A 4-stroke cycle, 4-cylinder engine having a cylinder dimension of 25 × 50 cm

49. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?

50. Among the following statements, which demonstrates efficiency in operations?

52. A farmer’s success is dependent on several factors, of which are:

Agricultural Mechanization and Machinery

a. higher water infiltration rate b. increased water surface runoff

a. sort the seeds b. meter the seeds

a. row-crop drill planter b. hill-drop planter

9. Method of pest control not considered engineering control is:

a. chemical control b. biological control

a. hollow cone nozzle pattern b. solid cone nozzle pattern

a. centrifugal pump b. mixed flow pump

a. efficiency of pump b. efficiency of transmission

a. 90% Eff b. 95% Eff