Chapter 1: The Strategic Role of Human Resource Management

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The primary function of managing is:

 maximizing profits.
 managing budgets.
 getting results through people.
 leading employees.

2. The management process includes:

 planning, staffing, and leading.
 organizing, controlling, and budgeting.
 staffing, leading, and motivating.
 planning, leading, and motivating.

3. Setting quality and production standards is a function of:

 leading.
 controlling.
 managing.
 evaluating.

4. Attending to employees' health and safety concerns is a part of the ___________ function.
 Supervisory
 Human Resource Management
 Occupational Safety and Health
 Counseling

5. Motivating, appraising and developing employees contributes to:

 a successful manager.
 good personnel policies.
 avoiding hiring mistakes.
 high profit levels.

6. Recruiting, interviewing and selecting employees are the responsibility of:

 human resources managers.
 staff personnel.
 the line and staff managers.
 the human resources department.

7. _________ are in charge of accomplishing the organization's basic goals.

 Company executives
 Line managers
 Staff and line managers
 Production employees

8. Making decisions, directing others and giving orders are the rights bestowed by:
 management.
 authority.
 the HR department.
 all managers.
9. A Human Resources Manager exerts:
 staff authority and line authority.
 implied authority.
 hiring authority.
 Line authority and functional authority.

10. Access to top management gives human resources _____ authority.

 Line
 Staff
 Management
 Implied

11. Human resources managers perform staff functions by:

 hiring, promoting, firing employees.
 assisting and advising line managers.
 advising top management.
 implementing policies and procedures.

12. Establishing qualifications needed by employees in specific positions are the responsibility of:
 human resources managers.
 top management.
 line managers.
 staff manager.

13. Maintaining a competitive advantage is a goal of the company's:

 profit level.
 strategic plan.
 internal strengths.
 corporate level strategy.

14. Building and strengthening a company's long-term competitive position is a function of its:
 corporate strategy.
 functional strategy.
 business-level strategy.
 competitive advantage.

15. A company separates itself from its competitors by its:

 quality of employees.
 strategic plan.
 business-level competitive strategy.
 competitive advantage.

16. The strategic trend of globalization has included:

 markets, employment, and competition.
 manufacturing, legalization, and capitalization.
 deregulation, production, and advertising.
 production, markets, and ownership.

17. The nature of work is changing as the result of:

 increased competition.
 technology.
 deregulation.
  globalization.
18. New human resources management methods, and knowledge workers are required by the shift of:
 manufacturing jobs to service jobs.
 manufacturing jobs overseas.
 manufacturing jobs to clerical jobs.
 goods-producing industries to military management models.

19. A strategy of diversification is difficult to achieve because of:

 the aging labor force.
 traditional human resource systems.
 increased competition.
 women in the workplace.

20. Downsizing workforces and merging with other firms are efforts to:
 expand operations.
 improve competitiveness.
 achieve diversity.
 expand globally.

21. Organizational changes driven by global expansion and improved competitiveness are:
 increasing managers' power bases.
 increasing the use of power.
 altering the bases of power.
 diluting the effects of power.

22. Globalized firms achieve competitive advantage by improving their:

 financial capital.
 human capital.
 power bases
 strategic plans.

23. Developing organizational cultures that foster innovation and flexibility is a function of:
 diversity.
 globalization.
 employee commitment.
 strategic human resources management.

24. Strategic human resources management links human resources management with strategic goals
and objectives to:
 improve employee commitment.
 achieve diversity goals.
 improve business performance.
 achieve competitive advantage.

25. A firm's competitive strategies should be supported by its:

 functional strategies.
 diversity strategies.
 corporate-level strategies.
 business strategies.

26. At the heart of HR's strategic role is the __________ of the firm's strategies.
 Commitment
 Execution
  Planning
 Documenting

27. Identifying the primary activities that create value for customers and related support activities is the
purpose of its:
 strategic plan.
 HR management plan.
 value chain analysis.
 HR strategy.

28. Identifying and analyzing a firm's external opportunities and threats is a part of:
 value chain analysis.
 strategic plan.
 operational strategy.
 environmental scanning.

29. Human resources assists in strategy formulation by supplying information about:

 employee workforce.
 technological advances.
 internal strengths and weaknesses.
 the best HR system.

30. The primary technological trend in human resources is the development of:
 HRIS systems.
 on-line records keeping.
 Intranets.
 HR portals.

TRUE AND FALSE

1. Human resources managers exert line authority by directing staff functions throughout the company.
TRUE
FALSE

2. Human resources managers may possess implied authority by virtue of their rank within the
organization.
TRUE
FALSE

3. Human resources managers perform only personnel staffing functions while line managers perform
controlling functions.
TRUE
FALSE

4. Human resources managers exert authority throughout the organization by virtue of their
professional knowledge.
TRUE
FALSE

5. Human resources managers control a firm's functions by ensuring that line managers are
implementing human resources policies and procedures.
TRUE
FALSE
6. Assisting and advising line managers is a human resources manager's primary duty.
TRUE
FALSE

7. Human resources managers may be obligated to oppose the firm's personnel actions.
TRUE
FALSE

8. Human resources managers provide guidance to line managers on what employees to hire.
TRUE
FALSE

9. A company's plan for how it will balance its internal strengths and weaknesses with external
opportunities and threats comprise its strategy.
TRUE
FALSE

10. Determining how to maintain a firm's competitive advantage is outside the realm of the human
resources function.
TRUE
FALSE

11. Determining the products and services a firm will provide is a function of its competitive strategy.
TRUE
FALSE

12. Managers strengthen their firm's long-term competitive position in the marketplace by means of the
business level competitive strategy.
TRUE
FALSE

13. A business attains its competitive goals by identifying its corporate-level strategies.
TRUE
FALSE

14. Local firms do not consider globalization among their opportunities and threats.
TRUE
FALSE

15. Changes in human capital have forced managers to develop new management skills and processes.
TRUE
FALSE

16. Traditional human resources systems often contradict a firm's commitment to achieve diversity.
TRUE
FALSE

17. Global expansion is perhaps the most obvious response to crafting of strategies that balance
opportunities and threats with strengths and weaknesses.
TRUE
FALSE

18. Improved competitiveness can reduce a firm's weaknesses.

TRUE
 FALSE
19. Improved competitiveness is a direct result of selected organizational changes.
TRUE
FALSE

20. A firm's competitive advantage is result of human resources efforts to develop the firm's human capital.
TRUE
FALSE

21. Global competitiveness is shifting human resources role to that of a strategic partner with management.
TRUE
FALSE

22. The notion of employees as competitive advantage has led to the study of strategic Human
Resources Management.
TRUE
FALSE

23. Organizational innovation and flexibility develops committed employees who in turn develop
strategic goals and objectives.
TRUE
FALSE

24. Delegating authority to subordinates and coordinating the work of subordinates is a function of
organizing.
TRUE
FALSE

25. Management's strategic downsizing of its workforce conflicts with human resources' strategy of
developing a committed workforce.
TRUE
FALSE

26. Identifying and reducing strategic costs is a function of a firm's value chain analysis.
TRUE
FALSE

27. Strategy formulation utilizes human resources information regarding the company's internal
strengths and weaknesses.
TRUE
FALSE

28. Human resources managers may focus more on strategic issues as the result of the intranets
evolving into human resources portals.
TRUE
FALSE

29. Employee commitment generates company profits despite adherence to strict human resources
policies.
TRUE
FALSE

30. A company's proven human resources practices should be emulated by its competitors to maintain
equally high performance levels.
TRUE
FALSE
Chapter 3: Job Analysis
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Determining the duties of positions and the characteristics of people to hire is performed by:
 job analysis.
 job specifications.
 job description.
 performance standards.

2. Physical demands of a job constitute part of the job's:

 work activities.
 job specifications.
 human behaviors.
 human requirements.

3. Human requirements of a job include the required:

 work activities.
 job demands.
 job context.
 personal attributes.

4. How a job relates to other jobs is shown by the:

 process chart.
 organization chart.
 job description.
 job analysis.

5. The flow of a job's inputs and outputs is shown by a:

 organization chart.
 process chart.
 data collection.
 job analysis.

6. Two products resulting from a job analysis are:

 process chart and job description.
 organization chart and process chart.
 job description and job specification.
 numerical rating and process chart.

7. Subject matter experts provide job analysis data through:

 the worker's supervisor.
 questionnaires.
 observation.
 job specifications.

8. A subject matter expert is the:

 worker's supervisor.
 job incumbent.
 human resources specialist.
 a job analyst.
9. Job analysis data may be collected with interviews of all the following except:
 employee groups.
 supervisors.
 individual employees.
 job analyst.

10. The most widely used method for determining a job's duties and responsibilities is/are:
 questionnaires.
 an interview.
 observation.
 diary/logs.

11. The main problem with employee interviews for job data collection is:
 simplicity.
 speed.
 distortion of information.
 different pressures and restraints.

12. A quick and efficient way to collect data from a group of employees is:
 an open-ended interview.
 observation.
 a supervisor interview.
 a questionnaire.

13. Direct observation is especially useful for:

 an accounting clerk.
 a nurse.
 an engineer.
 a lawyer.

14. A worker changing what he normally does because you are watching is:
 rapport.
 observation.
 reactivity.
 time consuming.

15. The U.S. Civil Service Commission job analysis technique provides a standardized procedure for:
 setting pay rates.
 comparing different jobs.
 knowledge, skills and abilities.
 quantitative job analysis.

16. Quantitative job analysis techniques does not include:

 U.S. Civil Service Commission procedure.
 U.S. Department of Labor technique.
 position analysis questionnaire.
 functional job analysis technique.

17. The position analysis questionnaire is especially useful for:

 very structured.
 human requirements.
  rating jobs.
 classifying jobs.
18. A data, people and things rating for each job is a feature of the:
 position analysis questionnaire.
 U.S. Department of Labor procedure.
 worker functions.
 U.S. Civil Service procedure.

19. A summary of the job and worker function ratings is the:

 job description.
 human requirements.
 industrial classification code.
 functional job analysis.

20. Performance standards and training requirements are identified by the __________ job analysis
technique.
 Department of Labor procedure
 Industrial classification code
 Functional
 Position analysis questionnaire

21. Avoiding inaccuracies in job analysis data collection may be avoided by:
 questionnaires.
 multiple sources.
 group interviews.
 observation.

22. A written statement of what the worker actually does and the job's working conditions is:
 job specification.
 job summary.
 job description.
 job analysis.

23. The knowledge, abilities and skills required to perform the job are listed in the:
 job specification.
 job summary.
 job identification.
 standards of performance.

24. The general nature of the job is described in the job description's:
 job functions.
 job summary.
 job title.
 job specification.

25. The limits of the jobholder's authority is defined in a job description's:

 relationships.
 job summary.
 responsibilities and duties.
 FLSA status.

26. What kind of person to recruit is shown by a job description's:

 standards of performance.
  relationships.
 responsibilities and duties.
 job specification.

27. The advantage of statistical analysis to determine job specifications is that it is:
 easy.
 predictable.
 convenient.
 defensible.

28. Increasing the number of activities workers perform is:

 re-engineering.
 job enlargement.
 job rotation.
 de-jobbing.

29. Broadening responsibilities of the company's jobs is:

 re-engineering.
 job enlargement.
 job rotation.
 de-jobbing.

30. Improving performance measures by redesigning business processes is know as:

 re-engineering.
 boundaryless organizations.
 flattening organizations.
 de-jobbing.

TRUE AND FALSE

1. Determining the duties of positions is through the process of job analysis.

TRUE
FALSE

2. Job descriptions describe what kind of people to hire for the job.
TRUE
FALSE

3. Why a worker performs a job's activity is determined by a job analysis.

TRUE
FALSE

4. Job demands are included in the human behaviors required to perform a particular job.
TRUE
FALSE

5. Human requirements in a job analysis are used to appraise employees.

TRUE
FALSE

6. Recruitment and compensation is aided by preparation of a job analysis.

TRUE
FALSE
7. Job analysis aids in determining the salary and bonus to pay for a particular job.
TRUE
FALSE

8. Unassigned duties are those that are not included in a job description.
TRUE
FALSE

9. Interviewing employees to determine what the job entails provides numerical ratings for each job.
TRUE
FALSE

10. An organization chart shows how a job relates to other jobs.

TRUE
FALSE

11. A process chart provides a starting point for building a job description.
TRUE
FALSE

12. The supervisor is the best authority for the accuracy of a job description.
TRUE
FALSE

13. A job analysis yields two products: the job description and job specifications.
TRUE
FALSE

14. Subject matter experts are the human resources specialist, the worker and the worker's supervisor.
TRUE
FALSE

15. Employees with the same job title are included in the same job description.
TRUE
FALSE

16. The job description is the most widely used method for determining a job's duties and responsibilities.
TRUE
FALSE

17. The main problem with the job analysis interview is distortion of information.
TRUE
FALSE

18. A questionnaire is an efficient method of obtaining information from a large number of employees.
TRUE
FALSE

19. A worker being observed may engage in reactivity.

TRUE
FALSE

20. A structured position analysis questionnaire is especially useful for assigning pay levels to jobs.
 TRUE
FALSE
21. Worker functions are the main feature of the U.S. Department of Labor standard industrial classification
code.
TRUE
FALSE

22. The standard industrial classification code may be likened to a modified job description.
TRUE
FALSE

23. Performance standards and training requirements are included in a functional job analysis.
TRUE
FALSE

24. Standards the employee is expected to achieve under each duty is reserved for the performance
appraisal.
TRUE
FALSE

25. Human traits and experience are defined by a job specification.

TRUE
FALSE

26. Job specifications usually are based on guesses.

TRUE
FALSE

27. Basing job specifications on statistical analysis is easier than using educated guesses.
TRUE
FALSE

28. A set of closely related activities carried out for pay comprise a job.
TRUE
FALSE

29. Adding to a worker's feelings of responsibility, achievement and recognition is called job enlargement.
TRUE
FALSE

30. Globalization is increasing the trend for employees to work outside their job descriptions.
TRUE
FALSE

=============
Chapter 4: Personnel Planning and Recruiting

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Employment planning does not:

 cover all future positions.
 include succession planning.
 relate to strategic planning.
 require outside recruiting.

2. The first step in forecasting personnel needs is:

 determine demand for product.
 prepare staffing plans.
 forecast revenues.
 conduct trend analysis.

3. The purpose of trend analysis is to:

 identify trends that might continue.
 identify project turnover.
 identify technological improvements.
 forecast future revenues.

4. Ratio analysis assumes that:

 economic conditions will improve.
 productivity remains the same.
 employment levels will not change.
 demand for service levels off.

5. Qualifications inventories are utilized to:

 determine most suitable applicant for hire.
 have computerized records for easy access.
 assess suitability of outside applicants.
 list qualifications for promotability.

6. A record of the employee that probably will move into each current managerial position is:
 computerized information systems.
 skills inventory.
 personnel replacement charts.
 qualifications inventories.

7. Personnel data must be carefully controlled because of all the following except:
 Data is easily accessible.
 Collecting data is time-consuming.
 Employees have legal rights regarding information.
 Data banks contain much information.

8. When unemployment rates are low, ________.

recruiting personnel is more difficult.
qualifications inventories are important.
position replacement cards are created.
more emphasis is placed on technology and human capital.

9. Current emphasis on technology and human capital demands:

high recruiting budgets.
more selective hiring.
rehiring former employees.
calculating turnover rates.

10. Calculating the numbers of applicants required to hire a specific no. of new employees is shown by:
the recruiting yield pyramid.
job posting.
skill banks.
transfers and promotions.

11. Rehiring former employees may be effective because:

their attitudes are better.
it will increase morale.
recruiting them is easier.
they are known quantities.

12. Ensuring a suitable supply of successors for key jobs is a function of:
succession planning.
aggressive recruiting.
job posting.
recruiting yield ratios.

13. The best media for advertising job openings is:

newspapers.
professional journals.
dependent on the position.
employment agencies.

14. Public employment agencies are supported by:

state legislatures.
employment fees.
national Job Bank.
U.S. Department of Labor.

15. Whether employer or applicant pays a private employment agency fee is determined by:
state laws.
market conditions.
qualified applicants.
The U.S. Department of Labor.

16. A disadvantage of employment agencies may include:

trends toward fee-paid jobs.
market and conditions setting fees.
supervisors possibly interviewing unqualified applicants.
some are privately owned.

17. Workers who don't have permanent jobs are:

contingent workers.
alternative workers.
grant-funded workers.
non-traditional workers.

18. The use of nontraditional recruitment sources includes:

professional employees.
executive recruiters.
temporary employees.
unqualified applicants.

19. Advantages of using an executive recruiter include:

Technology and specialization.
Recruiters are salespeople.
Employer always pays fee.
Screening of applicants.

20. Problems encountered with college recruiting includes:

It is expensive and time consuming.
Having to choose schools carefully.
It attracts good candidates.
It is a source of management trainees.

21. Employee referral programs are good recruiting methods because:

cash awards are common incentives.
employees provide accurate information about applicants.
employee morale is high.
EEO concerns are low.

22. A major source of recruiting hourly workers is:

newspaper ads.
walk-ins.
employee referrals.
job posting.

23. Jobs most commonly filled by Internet postings are:

Hourly workers.
Executive jobs.
Computer-related positions.
Specialized employees.

24. Recruiting single mothers is difficult because they feel they are:
sick more often.
more stressed.
treated differently than men.
challenged by work.

25. Work habits exhibited by older workers include all of the following except:
High absenteeism due to health.
General company loyalty.
Decreased cognitive performance.
Can be trained and retrained effectively.

26. The application form enables the employer to collect:

arrest records.
historical data.
children's ages.
membership in organizations.

27. Employers can attract and keep single mothers as workers by:
making the workplace user friendly.
reducing their responsibilities.
emphasizing their single parent status.
offer flexible schedules.

28. An applicant's future job success may be predicted by pre-employment tests and by:
statistical studies.
alternative dispute resolution policies.
organization memberships.
application forms.

29. Globalization is forcing many employers to:

recruit foreign workers.
send workers overseas.
learn foreign languages.
increase technology.

30. Applicant data collection and reporting are two benefits of utilizing:
requisition Management.
applicant tracking systems.
digitized resumes.
automatic scanning.

TRUE AND FALSE

1. Personnel planning is usually limited to management recruiting.

TRUE
FALSE

2. Forecasting generates basic assumptions about future personnel needs.

TRUE
FALSE

3. The first step in forecasting employment requirements is to determine funds available for salaries and
benefits.
TRUE
FALSE

4. Predicting future employment needs by studying past employment levels utilizes ratio analysis.
TRUE
FALSE

5. A scatter plot and a ratio analysis determine how variables affect future personnel needs.
TRUE
FALSE

6. Computerized personnel forecasts negate the errors of managerial judgment.

TRUE
FALSE

7. After forecasting staffing needs, managers usually utilize qualifications inventories.

TRUE
FALSE

8. Employees' performance records and educational backgrounds help comprise qualifications inventories.
TRUE
FALSE

9. Promotion potential for top executives' replacements is determined by a work experience code.
TRUE
FALSE

10. Computerized skills inventories are easy to use due to general accessibility by anyone.
TRUE
FALSE

11. A high unemployment rate ensures easier recruitment of all occupations.

TRUE
FALSE

12. After developing an applicant pool, managers must comply with EEO anti-discrimination laws in the
hiring process.
TRUE
FALSE

13. The most qualified applicants are placed at the top of the recruiting yield pyramid.
TRUE
FALSE

14. The most effective recruiting is the result of newspapers combined with electronic media.
TRUE
FALSE

15. Promoting current employees is the safest way to fill positions.

TRUE
FALSE

16. Job posting ensures selection of the most qualified candidate for a vacant position.
TRUE
FALSE

17. Skill banks contain personnel records of qualified inside candidates.

TRUE
FALSE

18. Succession planning forecasts the availability of inside or outside candidates.

TRUE
FALSE

19. Employment agencies are the most reliable sources for recruiting white-collar applicants.
TRUE
FALSE
20. Contingent workers increase a firm's overall productivity.
TRUE
FALSE

21. Because they are more productive, contingent workers are less expensive than staff employees.
TRUE
FALSE

22. Alternative staffing is preferable to the use of contingent workers.

TRUE
FALSE

23. Executive recruiters are specialized so they always provide the best-qualified applicants.
TRUE
FALSE

24. Recruiting on college campuses is the simplest method of recruiting applicants with degrees.
TRUE
FALSE

25. Slowing economic conditions increase college enrollments, thereby increasing college-recruiting efforts.
TRUE
FALSE

26. Employee referral programs may be discriminatory in nature.

TRUE
FALSE

27. Managerial positions are the jobs most commonly filled through Internet postings.
TRUE
FALSE

28. Employers recruit women, minorities, and older workers to fulfill their societal and legal obligations.
TRUE
FALSE

29. The application form's function is to collect verifiable historical data from the applicant.
TRUE
FALSE

30. Application forms should not include questions about race, sex and religion because they are illegal
under Title VII.
TRUE
FALSE
Chapter 5: Employee Testing and Selection

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Selecting the right employees is important for all but the following:
 Your performance depends on your subordinates.
 It's costly to recruit and hire employees.
 The legal implications of incompetent hiring.
 Applicants have privacy rights.

2. Hiring applicants without conducting background investigations may constitute:

 negligent hiring.
 discriminatory procedures.
 privacy rights.
 internal consistency.

3. Sampling a person's behavior is performed by:

 reliability.
 predictors.
 content validity.
 a test.

4. Determining that a test measures what it is supposed to measure is called:

 criterion validity.
 content validity.
 reliability.
 test validity.

5. Demonstrating that a person who does well on a test will perform well on the job is:
 content validity.
 criterion validity.
 test validity.
 test consistency.

6. A measurement related to job performance is called:

 criterion validity.
 job sample.
 predictor.
 consistency of scores.

7. Identifying job tasks and behaviors critical to performance is:

 a predictor.
 content validity.
 criterion validity.
  internal comparison estimate.

8. Obtaining similar scores when testing the same person at different times is:
 consistency.
 a predictor. A predictor is the measurement you are trying to related to a criterion like performance
on the job.
 criterion. Demonstrates that those who do well on the test also do well on the job.
 validity.

9. The validation process is usually performed by:

 the human resources manager.
 the line manager.
 the industrial psychologist.
 current employees.

10. The first step in test validation is to:

 determine what test to give.
 review employees' job performance.
 administer a test battery.
 conduct a job analysis.

11. Standards of success for which predictors are identified is/are:

 criteria.
 consistency.
 internal comparisons.
 predictive validation.

12. Comparing current employees' test scores with their current performance is:
 criterion validation.
 concurrent validation.
 predictive validation.
 content validation.

13. The correlation between a test and job performance is graphically shown by:
 statistical relationships.
 an expectancy chart.
 job specifications.
 a test battery.

14. Few employers validate their tests because compliance is:

 not affected by EEO.
 not related to success on the job.
 expensive.
 the employer's choice.

15. When a selection rate is less than four-fifths that for the group with the highest selection rate, the
employer may not:
 choose another selection procedure.
 show the test is valid.
 monitor the test for disparate impact.
 disclose the scores to others.
16. Defamation of character is disclosure of information that is:
 public disclosure of private facts.
 false and causes serious injury.
 protected by the Constitution.
 unlawful retaliation.

17. Truth is not a defense in suits alleging:

 malice.
 defamation.
 retaliation.
 invasion of privacy.

18. Intelligence tests measure all but the following:

 Memory.
 Vocabulary.
 Numerical ability.
 Reaction time.

19. Physical abilities tests may measure:

 finger dexterity.
 stamina.
 reaction time.
 hand speed.

20. The most difficult tests to evaluate and use are:

 personality tests.
 physical abilities tests.
 cognitive tests.
 aptitude tests.

21. Comparing a person's interests with those of people in various occupations are:
 personality tests.
 interest inventories.
 achievement tests.
 aptitude tests.

22. How a candidate actually performs a job's basic tasks is measured by:
 job performance.
 work sampling.
 achievement tests.
 interest inventory.

23. An advantage of work sampling is:

 Applicants can fake answers.
 It is unfair to minorities.
 It measures personality traits.
 It uses actual work samples.

24. Factual information about an applicant may be verified by:

 Fair Credit Reporting Act.
 a background investigation.
 reference letters.
 a polygraph.
25. The Employee Polygraph Protection Act prohibits:
 applicant polygraph examination.
 polygraphing government employment applicants.
 chemical testing for drugs.
 paper-and-pencil honesty tests.

26. The Federal Fair Credit Reporting Act does not require:
 obtaining a pre-employment credit report.
 advising the applicant that rejection was based on report.
 providing the applicant with the name of reporting agency.
 obtaining a credit report honestly.

27. Paper-and-pencil honesty tests are classified as:

 not valid.
 psychological tests.
 in decline of use.
 ineffective.

28. A physical examination should be given to applicants:

 who apparently are disabled.
 who may have a communicable disease.
 who have been offered the job.
 prior to selection.

29. Substance abuse screening is not:

 foolproof.
 permitted by ADA.
 legal.
 ethical.

30. The Immigration Reform and Control Act requires employers to:
 employ only U.S. citizens.
 refuse to employ aliens.
 verify employment eligibility.
 replace the I-9 Form with others.

TRUE AND FALSE

1. Poor selection of employees can result in adverse legal issues.

TRUE
FALSE

2. EEO concerns are secondary to negligent hiring concerns.

TRUE
FALSE

3. Avoiding negligent hiring is dependent upon test validity and reliability.

TRUE
FALSE

4. A person's behavior is sampled by means of job performance.

TRUE
FALSE

5. A test's reliability means it is a predictor of job performance.

TRUE
FALSE

6. Demonstrating that those who do well on a test also perform well on the job is criterion validity.
TRUE
FALSE

7. A content valid test utilizes job tasks and behaviors that are critical to performance.
TRUE
FALSE

8. Testing under conditions resembling the work situation shows the test is reliable.
TRUE
FALSE

9. Administering a test at two different times establishes the test's internal consistency.
TRUE
FALSE

10. Test validity may be established by relating test scores to performance on the job.
TRUE
FALSE

11. To validate a job, first administer a test to current employees.

TRUE
FALSE

12. In job analysis, criteria are the standards of success.

TRUE
FALSE

13. Measuring several possible predictors requires more than one test.
TRUE
FALSE

14. Concurrent validation accurately predicts performance by job applicants.

TRUE
FALSE

15. Predictive validation is less dependable than concurrent validation.

TRUE
FALSE

16. A correlation between predictors and criterion may be shown on an expectancy chart.
TRUE
FALSE

17. EEO requirements for test validation often are ignored because of costs.
TRUE
FALSE

18. A selection device that has an adverse impact on minorities may be used if it is validated.
TRUE
FALSE

19. All citizens have a right to privacy under the U.S. Bill of Rights.
TRUE
FALSE
20. An employer who provides negative information from a former employee's personnel file commits
defamation of character.
TRUE
FALSE

21. Truth is a valid defense to claims of defamation and privacy invasion.

TRUE
FALSE

22. Intelligence and memory tests are examples of cognitive tests.

TRUE
FALSE

23. IQ tests are limited in utility because they measure a specific trait.
TRUE
FALSE

24. Aptitude tests measure specific mental abilities.

TRUE
FALSE

25. Projective tests measure motivation and interpersonal skills.

TRUE
FALSE

26. Comparing a person's interests with those of people in various occupations can help predict success on
the job.
TRUE
FALSE

27. A test that is likely to be fair to minorities and non-minorities alike is the work sampling technique.
TRUE
FALSE

28. Catching an applicant lying is a primary purpose for conducting reference checks.
TRUE
FALSE

29. The most reliable background investigation is obtained by reference checks.

TRUE
FALSE

30. The Drug free Workplace Act and other laws prohibit employing former drug users in safety-sensitive
jobs.
TRUE
FALSE
 ==============

Chapter 6: Interviewing Candidates

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The most widely used personnel selection procedure is the:

 assessment center.
 reference checks.
 appraisal interview.
 interview.

2. A selection procedure designed to predict future job performance on the basis of applicants' oral
responses to oral inquiries is:
 a non-directive interview.
 a selection interview.
 an appraisal interview.
 a structured interview.

3. Eliciting information concerning the firm's shortcomings is performed in a(n):

 appraisal interview.
 exit interview.
 non-directive interview.
 selection interview.

4. An advantage of unstructured interviews is:

 interviewers can pursue points of interest.
 interviewer asks prepared questions.
 legally defensible.
 all applicants are asked the same questions.

5. Specific questions and specified answers are features of:

 appraisal interviews.
 directive interviews.
 exit interviews.
 unstructured interviews.

6. Structured interviews generally do not provide for:

 specific questions.
 legal defense.
 interviewer comfort.
 pursuing points of interest.

7. Asking an applicant what he or she would do in a given situation is an example of a(n):

  structured interview.
 situational interview.
 behavioral interview.
 job-related interview.

8. Asking an applicant to describe how he or she handled a past situation is an example of a(n):
 structured interview.
 behavioral interview.
 stress interview.
 situational interview.
9. Utilizing answers to questions about past behaviors to predict job performance is a feature of:
 behavioral interview.
 situational interview.
 job-related interview.
 structured interview.

10. An interview that is ethically questionable is the:

 non-directive interview.
 behavioral interview.
 sequential interview.
 stress interview.

11. Stress interviews should be conducted only by:

 panel interviewers.
 skilled interviewers.
 sequential interviewers.
 telephone interviewers.

12. An applicant is interviewed by several persons in turn in the:

 panel interview.
 mass interview.
 sequential interview.
 stress interview.

13. Applicants may be more relaxed and give more spontaneous answers in the:
 mass interview.
 structured interview.
 telephone interview.
 sequential interview.

14. Time limits for answering questions may be imposed by the:

 stress interview.
 computer-aided interview.
 telephone interview.
 structured interview.

15. Often only the ______ interview can be effective at predicting future job performance.
 Job-related
 Psychological
 Structured
 Situational

16. Interviewers usually make decisions about applicants:

  after careful deliberation.
 when information is negative.
 during the first few minutes.
 before the interview begins.

17. Interviewers consider more heavily:

 negative information.
 positive information.
 job behaviors.
 non-verbal behavior.
18. Interviewers who don't completely understand the job being interviewed for may make a decision based
on:
 first impression.
 contrast error.
 negative bias.
 incorrect stereotypes.

19. Contrast errors can be accentuated by:

 the pressure to hire.
 first impressions.
 misunderstanding the job.
 non-verbal behavior.

20. Rating an applicant higher in relation to other applicants interviewed can be the result of:
 average applicants.
 contrast error.
 first impressions.
 negative bias.

21. Higher interview ratings are usually given to:

 attractive men.
 qualified women.
 minorities.
 qualified men.

22. Minority applicants score closer to white applicants in __________ interviews.

 Structured
 Job-related
 Behavior
 Stress

23. Taking notes during an interview is dependent upon:

 applicant's permission.
 interview's flow.
 interviewer's preference.
 valid ratings.

24. How an applicant organizes thoughts and communicates is a measure of the:

 personality factor.
 motivation factor.
 intellectual factor.
 behaviors.
25. Probing the _ in the interview may reveal an applicant's motivation.
 Energy level
 Complexity of tasks
 Interpersonal relationships
 Communication

26. An interviewers may ____________ the desired answer to a question asked of an applicant.
 Expect
 Telegraph
 Benchmark
 Structure

27. Structured situational interviews should not contain:

 job-knowledge questions.
 situational questions.
 willingness questions.
 psychological questions.

28. Basing interview questions on actual job duties can reduce:

 objectivity.
 bias.
 standardization.
 multiple interviewers.

29. An interviewer should be careful to focus on:

 required skills and experience.
 negative information.
 first impression.
 past behavior.

30. Benchmark answers are a feature of the:

 job-related interview.
 unstructured interview.
 panel interview.
 structured situational interview.

TRUE AND FALSE

1. The interview is the most widely used personnel selection procedure.

TRUE
FALSE

2. An interview is designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries.
TRUE
FALSE

3. Interviews are utilized only for employee selection.

TRUE
FALSE
4. Supervisors discuss an employee's rating and possible remedial action in exit interviews.
TRUE
FALSE

5. Insight into the firm's problems may be obtained with an exit interview.
TRUE
FALSE

6. Unstructured interviews allow interviewers to ask questions in several categories.

TRUE
FALSE

7. Various applicants may be asked different questions in a non-directive interview.

TRUE
FALSE

8. A non-directive interview is less reliable than a structured interview.

TRUE
FALSE

9. Asking what a candidate did in a given situation is a situational interview.

TRUE
FALSE

10. Job-related interviews reveal probable job performance based on past behaviors.
TRUE
FALSE

11. Several interviewers are utilized to conduct a sequential interview.

TRUE
FALSE

12. Sequential interviews are always utilized in an unstructured form.

TRUE
FALSE

13. Several candidates are interviewed simultaneously in a panel interview.

TRUE
FALSE

14. On-on-one interviews may be more productive than a panel interview.

TRUE
FALSE

15. With more candidates present, a mass interview usually is less stressful than other interviews.
TRUE
FALSE

16. Telephone interviews often are more accurate than face-to-face interviews.
TRUE
FALSE
17. A personal interview usually is performed as a follow-up to a computer selection interview.
TRUE
FALSE

18. An advantage of computerized interviews is reduction of time in interviewing unacceptable candidates.

TRUE
FALSE

19. A disadvantage of computer-aided interviewing is its impersonal nature.

TRUE
FALSE

20. Psychological interviews are more valid than job-related interviews.

TRUE
FALSE

21. Interviewers' final decisions to accept an applicant often are determined by the applicant's references
rather than by the interview.
TRUE
FALSE

22. Interviewers are more prone to pass than to reject applicants.

TRUE
FALSE

23. Interviewers often attempt to discover more negative information than positive information.
TRUE
FALSE

24. lengthy interviews probably are unproductive because of interviewer biases.

TRUE
FALSE

25. Interviewers are heavily influenced by an applicant's body language or lack of it.
TRUE
FALSE

26. Unstructured interviews are more fair to minorities than are structured interviews.
TRUE
FALSE

27. The outcome of an applicant's interview can be unduly influenced by the interviewer.
TRUE
FALSE

28. A candidate's motivation to meet the job's requirements is assessed by situational questions.
TRUE
FALSE

29. Structured situational interviews usually are conducted in a panel format.

TRUE
FALSE

30. Subjectivity can be reduced in the interview process by asking behaviorally oriented questions.
TRUE
FALSE

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