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MACHINE SHOP THEORY AND PRACTICE

Set A
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the
letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No. 1 only
1. A place in which metal parts are cut to the size required and put together to form mechanical units of machines, the machine so made to be used
directly or indirectly in the production of the necessities and luxuries of civilization.
a. Welding shop b. Junk shop c. Machine shop c) Flower shop
2. A metal-turning machine tool in which the work, while revolving on a horizontal axis, is acted upon by a cutting tool which is made to move slowly (feed)
in a direction more or less parallel to the axis of the work (longitudinal feed), or in a direction of right angles to the axis of work (cross feed).
a. Grinding machine b. B. Milling machine c. Lathe machine d. Drilling machine
3. A machine tool used mainly for producing holes in metal.

a. Reaming machine b. Drill press c. Welding machine d. Boring machine
4. A machine which is ordinarily used for finishing flat or partly curved surfaces of metal pieces few in number and not usually over a foot or too long.
a. Shaper machine b. Planer machine c. Milling machine d. Grinding machine
5. A machine tool in which an abrasive wheel is used as a cutting tool to obtain a very high degree of accuracy and a smooth finish on metal parts,
including soft and hardened steel.
a. Drilling machine b. Milling machine c. Grinding machine d. Welding machine
6. A file which is thick, rectangular-shaped file with parallel edges.

a. Hand file b. Pillar file c. Mill file d. Half-moon file
7. A file which is tapered in thickness and of uniform width. This is used for filing slots and keyways.
a. Pillar file b. Hand file c. Mill file d. Half-moon file
8. 29. Which of the following is not belong to standard shapes of file?

a. flat b. half-round c. three-square d. none of these
9. One of the three basic ways of using a file which is done by pushing the file lengthwise, straight with or slightly diagonal to the workpiece.
a. Lathe filing b. Draw filing c. Straight filing d. Back filing
10. One of the three basic ways of using a file which consists of stroking the file against the revolving workpiece held in the lathe.
a. Lathe filing b. Straight filing c. Draw filing d. Mill filing
11. One of the three basic ways of using a file which is performed by grasping the file at end and pushing and drawing across the workpiece.
a. Draw filing b. Lathe filing c. Straight filing d. None of the above
12. A hand tool which is commonly used for cutting or twisting wire and chipping small parts and not to be used for tightening or loosening bolts and nuts.
a. Screwdriver b. Wrench c. Pliers d. None of the above
13. A type of pliers which is used for cutting wires and holding flat round stock.
a. Long-nose pliers b. Side-cutting pliers c. Slip joint combination pliers or mechanical pliers d. Square pliers
14. A type of pliers which is used in electrical works for cutting heavy or light wires or for cutting small nails.
a. Side-cutting pliers b. Long-nose pliers c. Mechanical pliers d. None of the above
15. A type of pliers which is used for cutting and holding fine wire. This is also useful in reaching tight places.
a. Long-nose pliers b. Slide-cutting pliers c. Diagonal pliers d. None of the above
16. Which of the following is a primary forming process?
a) Casting b) Turning c) Fitting d) Buffing
17. Which of the following is not a machining process?

a) Turning b) Milling c) Casting d) Grinding
18. The joints produced by this method are as strong as the parent metal.
a) Soldering b) Brazing c) Riveting d) Welding
19. Which one of the following is a finishing process?

a) Rolling b) Forging c) Sintering d) Engraving
20. Which of the following process affects the changes in properties of materials?
a) Shaping b) Hardening c) Sintering d) Anodizing
21. The system used for mass production of identical parts within specified limits of sizes for selection of components at random is known as:
a) Simplification b) Standardization c) Interchangeable system d) Automation
22. Alloys are extensively used in industry because they are:
a) Sufficiently soft b) Have good strength c) Malleable d) Ductile
23. Which of the following is the most abundantly used material in industry?
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a) Cast iron b) Mild steel c) Medium carbon steel d) High carbon steel
24. Wrought iron contains a maximum of which of the following?

a) 0.01 % carbon b) 0.3 % carbon c) 0.6 % carbon d) 2.0 % carbon
25. Pig iron is produced by reduction of iron ore in a:

a) Cupola b) Bessemer converter c) Open hearth furnace d) Blast furnace
26. Which of the following are the main alloying elements present in stainless steel?
a) Nickel and manganese b) Nickel and tungsten c) Nickel and chromium d) Nickel and cobalt
27. Along with chromium and vanadium the main constituent of high speed steel is which of the following?
a) Manganese b) Nickel c) Tungsten d) Vanadium
28. Grey cast iron gives grey fracture due to the presence of which of the following?
a) Ferrite b) Pearlite c) Graphite d) Cementite
29. Copper is the parent metal of brass. Which of the following is the other metal present in brass?
a) Lead b) Tin c) Aluminum d) Zinc
30. Gun metal contains 5 to 10 percent of which of the following materials?

a) Zinc b) Lead c) Tin d) Aluminum
31. Y-alloy is an alloy of aluminum and which of the following metals?

a) Manganese b) Iron c) Tin d) Copper
32. Inconel contains 80 % nickel and 14 % chromium. The other metal present in inconel is:
a) Iron b) Vanadium c) Silver d) Tin
33. Monel contains mainly with traces of iron and manganese. The main alloying element of monel is:
a) Aluminum b) Copper c) Zinc d) Lead
34. Bearing materials should posses which of the following?

a) High tensile strength b) High hardness c) Hard core d) High compressive strength
35. Which of the following is the trade name of polypropylene?

a) Alkane b) Polyprex c) Styrene d) Durite
36. The following instrument can be used for subscribing lines parallel to the edges of a part:
a) Vernier caliper b) Ordinary scale c) Hermaphordite caliper d) Combination set
37. Which of the following is the use of surface gauge?

a) Laying out the work accuracy b) Check flatness of surface c) Checking surface finish d) Leveling the machine tools
38. The thickness of a thin sheet can be accurately checked with the help of:
a) Ordinary scale b) Micrometer c) Combination set d) Caliper
39. V-block is used in mechanical engineering workshop to check which of the following?
a) Straightness of the job b) Taper on a job c) Height of a job d) Cylindrical jobs
40. A sine bar is specified by:

a) Its total length b) Diameter of the rollers c) Its weight d) Center to center distance between the rollers
41. A ratchet screw is provided on a micrometer screw gauge to:

a) Lock the measured reading b) maintain constant measuring pressure for all readings
c) Prevent wearing of screw threads d) Allow zero adjustments
42. Adjusting nut is provided on a micrometer screw gauge to:

a) Allow zero adjustment b) Compensate for wear and tear between screw and nut
c) Eliminate backlash d) Maintain constant measuring pressure for all readings
43. External taper of a job can be measured accurately with help of:
a) Sine bar and slip gauges b) Sine bar and dial indicator
c) Dial indicator and slip gauges d) Slip gauges and vernier caliper
44. Internal dovetail taper can be measured by which of the following?

a) Sine bar and slip gauges b) Balls of standard size and dial indicator
c) Balls of standard size and sine bar d) Balls of standard size and slip gauges
45. Combination set is used to:

a) Measure long distances b) Measure cylindrical sizes of a length c) Measure angles d) Measure corner radius
46. The measuring accuracy of the following instruments is least.

a) Vernier micrometer b) Micrometer screw gauge c) Steel scale d) Optical projector
47. For filing brass or bronze pieces, the following type of file is preferred.
a) Coarse cut or rough cut file b) Single cut file c) Double cut file d) Second cut file
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48. The cleaning of a file is done by which of the following?

a) Rubbing on wood b) Using a file card c) Dipping in dilute-alcohol d) Dipping in dilute alkali
49. Thin metal pieces can be cut with saw by:

a) Using saw blade with very fine teeth b) Projecting the piece on one side of a vice and then cutting
c) Placing several pieces together d) Placing the piece between two wooden pieces and cutting through the metal and wood
50. During the filing operation, the following precaution must be observed.
a) Do not rub fingers over the work b) Do not rub fingers over the file
c) Apply equal pressure during forward and backward stroke d) Clean the file frequently
51. A hacksaw is specified by the following parameter of its blade.

a) Material b) Thickness c) Width d) Distance between two holes at its ends
52. The length of hacksaw blade is measured:

a) From one extreme to another b) Between centers of two holes at its extremes
c) By the length of cut d) Between the toothed length
53. Taps are used for which of the following?

a) Cutting accurate square holes b) Finishing the round holes c) Cutting internal threads on jobs d) Cutting external threads in jobs
54. Scrapers are used for which of the following?

a) Enlarging already drilled holes b) Increasing roundness of holes
c) Removing burrs from corners d) Removing convex spots from machined surfaces
55. Forging possesses the following disadvantage:
a) Steel components can easily be forged b) Copper and brass is forgeable
c) Cast iron components can be forged d) Components can be produced to close sizes
56. Anvil is used for which of the following?

a) Supporting the work pieces b) Holding the work piece c) Taking out the job from the forge d) Giving finish to workpiece
57. Fullers are used for which of the following?

a) Supporting the work pieces b) Holding the work piece
c) Decreasing the length of the work piece d) Forming necks or grooves on cross section of a job
58. During the upsetting operation:

a) Cross section of a piece decreases and length increases b) Cross section of a piece increases and length decreases
c) Extra metals removed from the work piece d) Components of hexagonal shapes are produced
59. Forging of mild steel is done at about:

o o o o
a) 1200 C b) 1050 C c) 800 C d) 600 C
60. The process of making bolt heads by forging is known as:

a) Upsetting b) Drifting c) Swaging d) Fullering
61. During forging operation, type of hammer held by the forgsmith’s helper is called as:
a) Claw hammer b) Mallet c) Sledge hammer d) Ball pen hammer
62. A type of pliers which is used for cutting medium or fine wires and bending small pieces of soft metals.
a. Long-nose pliers b. Side-cutting pliers c. Diagonal pliers d. Mechanical pliers
63. A hand tool which is classified as a driving tool. It is either adjustable or non-adjustable and is used for turning units, bolts, pipes, etc.
a. Hammer b. Wrench c. File d. Adjustable wrench
64. A type of wrench where there is an opening at the end to fit the standard size of bolts and nuts.
a. Open-end wrench b. Adjustable wrench c. Box wrench d. Pipe wrench
65. A type of wrench which has two types of jaw. One jaw is fixed and an integral part of the wrench body; the other may be adjusted.
a. Box wrench b. Adjustable wrench c. Open-end wrench d. Monkey wrench
66. 41. A type of wrench which has 12 notches around a circle that fit over the bolt head or not. He has a closed end and commonly used where it is difficult
to use other types of wrenches.
a. Socket wrench b. Adjustable wrench c. Box Wrench d. Pipe wrench
67. A wrench which is used for heavy-duty works. It assures firm contact on all sides of the bolt head and nut, thereby, lessening the chance of having the
sides get round off.
a. Socket wrench b. Ratchet wrench c. Box wrench d. Open wrench
68. A hand tool which is used for ring nuts with square slots cut on the outside diameter or drilled holes on the outer face.
a. Open end wrench b. Box wrench c. Spanner wrench d. Pipe wrench
69. A hand tool used to cut small stocks to size. This tool consists two essential parts: the frame and the blade.
a. Pliers b. Hacksaw c. wrench d. Hammer
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70. The standard number of teeth of a hacksaw for cutting very thin tubing and sheet metal.
a. 32 teeth per inch b. 24 teeth per inch c. 18 teeth per inch d. 12 teeth per inch
71. A hand tool used to cut internal threads.

a. hacksaw b. die c. tap d. Wrench
72. The standard number of teeth of a hacksaw for cutting angle iron, brass, copper and pipe.
73. Which of the following is not a principal part of a lathe machine?

a. headstock b. tailstock c. tailstock spindle d. bed
74. One of the parts of tailstock of a lathe machine.

a. Carriage handwheel b. rack gear c. upper casting d. dead center
75. The drill that is used to make the hole before tapping.
a. toolbit b. drill bit c. tap drill d. bit drill
76. The process of cutting internal threads.

a. reaming b. drilling c. boring d. tapping
77. A type of wrench which especially designed for allen-head screws only.
a. box wrench b. open-end wrench c. allen wrench d. Monkey wrench
78. The various marking tools used in sheet metal works are:
a) Try square, wing compass, divider and vernier caliper b) V-block, slip gauges, wing compass and sine bar
c) Sine bar dial indicator and combination set d) Height gauge, combination set and optical comparator
79. A half-moon stake is used for:

a) Bending, holding and supporting the components b) Making conical components
c) Working edges on discs d) Forming pipes and hollow cylindrical surfaces
80. A tunnel stake is used for:

81. Plain butt welding process is used for welding plates approximately up to:
a) 10-mm thickness b) 25-mm thickness c) 50-mm thickness d) 100-mm thickness
82. The following process is preferred for welding non-ferrous metals:

a) AC high frequency b) AC normal frequency c) DC method d) AC low frequency
83. The commonly used gases in tungsten arc welding are:

a) Hydrogen and oxygen b) Hydrogen and argon c) Hydrogen and helium d) Helium and argon
84. In an arc welding process, metal is deposited on the work piece from the electrode:
a) By force across the arc b) By gravity c) Due to attraction of the work piece d) Due to electromagnetic action
85. Which of the following is the tool used for making holes in red hot jobs?
a) Drill b) Punch c) Hardie d) Chisel
86. It is a process of welding by local fusion with or without the use of a filler. It is the further developed way of welding and was used in building ships in
the world war I.
a) Fusion welding b) Oxyacetylene welding c) Resistance welding d) Shielded metal arc welding
87. In welding GMAW stands for which of the following?

a) Oxyacetylene welding b) Gas tungsten arc welding c) Gas metal arc welding d) Shielded metal arc welding
88. The other term for GMAW

a) SMAW b) GMAW c) MIG d) TIG
89. A type of welding which is an arc welding process which produces a uniting of metals by heating them with an arc between a tungsten (non-
consumable) electrode and the work piece. Shielding of the weld area is obtained from a gas, usually argon or helium
90. How do you call the measure of coldness and hotness of a body?
a) Pressure b) Volume c) Heat d) Thermometer

92. One of the classifications of a lathe machine that has a tailstock which can be moved longitudinally along the bed and is either bench-type or floor-type.
a. precision lathe b. engine lathe c. turret lathe d. all of the above
93. A type of lathe machine used for delicate operation or when too much precision is needed in the work.
a. automatic screw machine b. turret lathe c. precision lathe d. none of the above
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94. Part of lathe machine where an attachment such as chuck, faceplate, and others are meshed or locked-in to add the workpiece for turning.
a. back gear b. headstock spindle c. tailstock spindle d. all of the above
a. Welding shop b. Junk shop c. Machine shop d. all of the above
96. The one who has had some general machine shop experience and has made a specialty of some one machine or some one class of work, such as
lathe work and planer work. He has a broader background of experience and move versality than the machine hand.
a. Machine Operator b. Specialized Machinist c. Assembler d. None of the above
97. A hand tool which is classified as a very simple striking tool or driving tool. It has two most common types, the hard and the soft.
a. Screw driver b. Hammer c. Pliers d. All of the above
98. A working device of a milling machine usually fastened to the indexing head spindle to hold round workpieces that are required to be machined.
a) Dividing head b) Universal chuck c) Cam lock vise d) Rotary attachment
99. A work holding device of a milling machine that is used for circular milling of recesses, T-slots, and semi-circular pockets of sections.
100. It is a cutting device of a milling machine designed to hold and drive the cutter.
a) Spindle b) Arbor c) Draw-in bar d) Adapter
101. A cutting holding device of a milling machine that may either have a pilot which fits into a bearing or have no pilot but supported by a bearing sleeve
which fits over it. It is used to hold the milling cutters.
102. A milling machine operation which is machining a vertical surface on the side of the workpiece using a side milling center.
a) Plain or slab milling b) Face milling c) Side milling d) End milling
103. A milling machine operation which is the removing of excess material by using an end milling center. This kind of cutter has teeth sometimes in the end
face or in the periphery of the cutter which are either solid or two-lipped.
104. A milling machine operation which is machining two opposite sides of the material at the same time.
a) Straddle milling b) Face milling c) Side milling d) End milling
105. A machine that is used primarily for producing flat surfaces that may b horizontal, vertical, and even angular planes.
a) Planer machine b) Shaper machine c) Milling machine d) Drilling machine
106. A type of shaper machine also known as column shaper. The vertical column of this machine supports the ram, worktable, and drilling mechanism.
a) Vertical shaper b) Hydraulic shaper c) Horizontal shaper d) Crank shaper
107. Type of shaper machine which is almost similar to crank shaper. In this machine the ram is moved by a flow of oil from a high pressure pump which
acts against the piston.
108. A tailstock part of lathe machine that holds the upper mechanism of the tailstock.
a. upper casting b. lower casting c. tailstock spindle d. Live center
109. Which of the following is not a part of the lathe machine bed.
a. tool post b. bedway c. chip pond d. legs
110. A part of carriage of the lathe machine that moves the entire carriage system longitudinally along the bed either manually or automatically.
a. tool post b. cross feed assembly c. carriage handwheel d. Dog post
111. The carriage part of a lathe machine which is the lower part that holds the gearing mechanism to move the carriage either manually or automatically.
a. apron b. tool post c. thread chaser d. back gear
112. A kind of centers of lathe machine attached and meshed to the tailstock spindle which remains static while the work is rotating.
a. center-to-center b. dead center c. live center d. dog post
113. The process of producing a hole in the workpiece.

a. boring b. drilling c. reaming d) Milling
114. A shaper machine also known as slotter shaper.

115. This process is performed on metal to remove internal stresses and strains and to improve its machinability.
a) Carburizing b) Normalizing c) Tempering d) Quenching
SET B
116. _______ is the process of shaving off small amounts of metal using hand-held tools. This process is most often done to obtain precision alignment of
machine parts; it is also done to provide shallow pockets that will hold lubricants on flat surfaces, such as machine ways.
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a) Drilling b) Scraping c) Reaming d) Milling
117. ________ means putting the parts of something together.

a) Laying out b) Assembling c) Installing d) Fabricating
118. _________ are tools used to turn, or drive, screws; made in may sizes and several shapes; the size is measured by the length of the blade, which is
made of tool steel that is hardened and tempered. The screwdriver point for driving slotted screws should be correctly shaped; it must be fit the slot in
the screw.
a) Wrenches b) Hammers c) Screw drivers d) Scrapers
a. Welding shop b. Junk shop c. Machine shop c) Flower shop
a. Grinding machine b. B. Milling machine c. Lathe machine d. Drilling machine
121. This screw driver has a bent handle; it is used where a straight screwdriver will not reach.
a) Offset screw driver b) Phillips screw driver c) Mechanical screw driver d) Mill screw driver

a. Reaming machine b. Drill press c. Welding machine d. Boring machine
123. __________ are tools used for cutting small wire and for holding, twisting, turning, pulling, and pushing.
a) Screw drivers b) Wrenches c) Pliers d) Hammers
a. Shaper machine b. Planer machine c. Milling machine d. Grinding machine
a. Drilling machine b. Milling machine c. Grinding machine d. Welding machine
126. A file which is thick, rectangular-shaped file with parallel edges.

a. Hand file b. Pillar file c. Mill file d. Half-moon file
127. A file which is tapered in thickness and of uniform width. This is used for filing slots and keyways.
a. Pillar file b. Hand file c. Mill file d. Half-moon file
128. ________ also known as combination pliers, are used for gripping; can also cut small-size wire; the slip-joint makes it possible to grip large parts.
a) Slip-joint pliers b) Side cutting pliers c) Round nose pliers d) Long nose pliers
129. Which of the following is not belong to standard shapes of file?

a. flat b. half-round c. three-square d. none of these
130. One of the three basic ways of using a file which is done by pushing the file lengthwise, straight with or slightly diagonal to the workpiece.
a. Lathe filing b. Draw filing c. Straight filing d. Back filing
a. Lathe filing b. Straight filing c. Draw filing d. Mill filing
134. A type of pliers which is used for cutting wires and holding flat round stock.
a. Long-nose pliers b. Side-cutting pliers c. Slip joint combination pliers or mechanical pliers d. Square pliers

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161. ________ is a strong tool used for general work in the shop. Its jaws are pointed at such an angle that it can be used in close corners and unhandy
places.
a) Adjustable-end wrench b) Adjustable S-wrench c) Monkey wrench d) Vise-grip wrench

163. _____________ is a handy tool. It works in close places and the strong steel jaws lock to the work and will not slip; it acts like a vise, clamp, plier, pipe
wrench, open-end wrench, or locking tool.
a) Adjustable-end wrench b) Adjustable S-wrench c) Monkey wrench d) Vise-grip wrench

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165. ____________ is a machine for pressing parts of machinery together or forcing them apart, such as pressing a shaft in or out of a pulley or gear
a) Arbor press b) Drill press c) Milling machine d) Forging machine



170. ____________ are made in many sizes and types are widely used in special work holding fixtures.
a) Toggle clamps b) C-clamps c) Spring clamps d) Spring clamps

173. __________ are elements used to hold together metal parts in a form of bolts, screws, pins, and rivets
a) Bolts b) Screws c) Fasteners d) Nuts

175. This fastener has a smooth, round head; a back, round finish; and a coarse thread. It is usually used to fasten a wooden part to metal. The square part
under the head sinks into the wood and keeps the bolt from turning while the nut is being tightened.
a) Carriage bolt b) Tap bolt c) Cap screw d) Set screw


179. These fasteners are made with heads of several different shapes and are made with either coarse or fine threads; made of steel, stainless steel, or
brass. The smaller diameters are described by gage numbers, 0 – 12. These sizes range from 0.060” to 0.216”. the gage numbers are the same for
both machine screws and wood screws. Larger diameters are usually designated by their sizes: ¼”, 5/8”, and 3/8”.
a) Carriage bolts b) Machine screws c) Cap screws d) Set screws


182. _________ are often used to fasten metal parts to wood; made with flat, round, or oval heads. The heads are slotted or recessed so they can be turned
with screwdrivers. These screws are made of steel, brass, and aluminum. Steel wood screw come either bright or blued finish, or they are plated with
cadmium, nickel, or chromium to prevent rust or corrosion. The diameter of these screws and machine screws is measured on on the body under the
head with the American Standard Screw gage
a) Wood screws b) Lag screws c) Set screw d) Cap screws
183. These screws are made with heads of several different shapes; usually finished all over and are made with either coarse or fine threads; used when it is
not convenient to get at both sides of the work with wrenches. The head of this screw presses against the top piece and holds the part together.
a) Wood screws b) Lag screws c) Set screw d) Cap screws

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185. ________ is sometimes called a lock nut or check nut; thinner than an ordinary nut and is used as a lock to keep another nut from loosening by
vibration. Although the jam nut is usually put on last, the thicker nut may be put on last to make use of the greater strength
a) Jam nut b) Castle nut c) Wing nut d) Self-locking nut

187. __________ is part of machinist’s combination set. This protactor can be moved along the rule and locked in any position. The protractor has a flat
base, permitting it to rest squarely on the workpiece.
a) Plate protractor b) Bevel protractor c) Dial indicating sinometer angle gage d) Universal bevel vernier protractor




o o o o
a) 1200 C b) 1050 C c) 800 C d) 600 C
192. A _________ is a raised impression on the surface of the workpiece produced by two hardened rolls and is usually one of two patterns: diamond or
straight.
a) Groove b) Part c) Knurl d) Thread

a. Long-nose pliers b. Side-cutting pliers c. Diagonal pliers d. Mechanical pliers
196. _________ is a term applied to supeabrassive grinding wheels that refers to the amount of abrasive contained in a unit volume of usable grinding
wheels.
a) Abrasion b) Concentration c) Grinding index d) Grindeability
a. Socket wrench b. Ratchet wrench c. Box wrench d. Open wrench
a. Open end wrench b. Box wrench c. Spanner wrench d. Pipe wrench
199. A hand tool used to cut small stocks to size. This tool consists two essential parts: the frame and the blade.
a. Pliers b. Hacksaw c. wrench d. Hammer

a. hacksaw b. die c. tap d. Wrench


a. Carriage handwheel b. rack gear c. upper casting d. dead center
205. _____________ is somewhat harder abrasive that aluminum oxide but has a sharper, more friable, and quite brittle crystalline structure. It works well
on cast iron and non ferrous materials such as aluminum and copper –based alloys.
a) Fused aluminum oxide b) Ceramic Aluminum oxide c) Silicon Carbide d) Cubic boron nitride
a. toolbit b. drill bit c. tap drill d. bit drill
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207. The process of cutting internal threads.
a. box wrench b. open-end wrench c. allen wrench d. Monkey wrench


212. __________ are used to lock a nut or screw in place, thus preventing movement or loosening due to vibration. The helical spring type lock washer
looks like a coil from spring.; they are hardened and tempered, and are used under a screw or nut.
a) Lock washers b) Plain washers c) Tooth-type lock washer d) Square washers
214. ___________ are straight-fluted, with two, three, or four flutes depending on the size of the tap. Cutting edges are ground at an angle to the centerline
of the tap; the angular cutting edges cause the chips to shoot ahead of the tap. Plug-type gun taps are designated for tapping open, or through, holes.
Bottoming-type gun taps are designed for tapping blind holes (holes that go only part-way into work piece), producing fine chips that can readily
escape.
a) Gun taps b) Serial taps c) Thread forming taps d) Hand taps


the world war I.


set c
INDUSTRIAL PROCESSES


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ENGINEERING MATERIALS






MEASURING INSTRUMENTS
243. Accuracy of a measuring instrument is:
a) Its capability to indicate the same reading again and again of a job b) The smallest value that can be measured with its use
c) The closest reading to its true size d) The closeness of reading that can be taken with it
244. Which of the following is the most important characteristic of a measuring instrument?
a) Speed b) Precision c) Accuracy d) Repeatability



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256. The working of a caliper depends on which of the following?

a) Accuracy fitted micrometer scale b) High power microscope
c) Comparison of set standards by using slip gauges d) Elimination of backlash of instrument
257. The accuracy of the following instrument is maximum:

a) Steel scale b) Vernier caliper c) Vernier dial gauge d) Optical projector
258. The process of joining two slip gauges for precision measurement is known as:
a) Wringing b) Sliding c) Slipping d) Cohesion
259. The depth of a blind hole can be measured by:
a) Steel scale b) Vernier caliper c) Micrometer d) Slip gauges
260. A bore of 14.46 mm diameter on a job can be measured by:
a) Steel scale b) Vernier caliper c) Micrometer screw gauge d) plug gauges
261. The following device is used for producing constant measuring pressure in micrometer screw gauges.
a) Spanner b) Spindle c) Ratchet d) Thimble
BENCH WORKING AND FITTING

262. Hammers are usually made of which of the following?
a) Mild steel b) Medium carbon steel c) High carbon steel d) High speed steel
263. a mallet is generally used:

a) In a fitting shop b) In a welding shop c) In sheet metal work d) In a machine shop
264. A sledge hammer is used:
a) For straightening thin sheet metal jobs b) For straightening fitting jobs
c) Mainly in blacksmithy shop for heavy blows d) For general fitting work






273. Surface plate is usually made of grey cast iron because:

a) It is self-lubricating due to presence of graphite flakes b) It is hard due to presence of cementite
c) It can be cast easily d) It possesses good wear resistance
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SMITHY AND FORGING
274. During a forging operation, plastic flow of metal takes place:
a) Due to high temperature b) Due to compressive forces c) Due to tensile forces d) Due to shearing force
275. Forging possesses the following advantage:

a) Components of intricate shape can be produced b) Strength and toughness of forged components is high
c) Cast iron can be forged d) Oxidation of surface does not occur





o o o o
a) 1200 C b) 1050 C c) 800 C d) 600 C

SHEET METAL WORK

284. In a sheet metal drawing, the draughtsman, in the drawing provides which of the following?
a) The dimensions of the finished component b) Pattern of the drawing only
c) The dimensions of the finished component as well as the drawing of patterns d) The drawing and layout of the items
285. Stainless steel sheets are used for making:

a) Overhead water tanks b) Furnace bodies c) Boiling pans d) Dairy and food processing plants
286. Hand shears can be used for cutting sheets up to:

a) 0.2 mm b) 0.4 mm c) 0.8 mm d) 1.6 mm


290. A hollow punch is used for producing:

a) Hole above 150-mm diameter b) Small holes up to 25-mm diameter c) Groves and slits d) Half round surfaces
291. In a sheet-metal work, folding bars are used for making:

o o o o
a) All folds from 0 to 180 b) Folds up to 45 c) Right-angle folds only d) Folds above 90
292. Planishing is done with a:

a) Mallet b) Round pen Hammer c) Panel hammer d) Claw hammer
293. The best method of measuring the thickness of a sheet is by using the following instrument.
a) Sheet scale b) Ordinary caliper c) Vernier caliper d) Micrometer
WOOD WORKING OR CARPETRY

294. Timber of a live tree is called:
a) Stationary timber b) Round timber c) Converted timber d) Fine timber
295. Timber is extensively used because:
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a) It can withstand the effects of weather b) It possesses high tensile strength
c) It is easily available d) It can be used again and again
296. Timber possesses the following disadvantages:

a) It can be joined easily b) Cost of workmanship is low
c) It is a nonconductor of heat and electricity d) It deforms easily by impact
297. Which one of the following does not fall in the category of plywood?
a) Multiple boards b) Composite boards c) Block boards d) Single boards
298. Which of the following is not a measuring tool?

a) Carpenter’s folding rule b) Try square c) Saw d) Meter square
299. Which of the following is not a cutting tool?

a) Axe b) Carpenter’s vise c) Planer d) Saw
300. Which of the following is not a hand cutting tool?

a) Band saw b) Rip saw c) Tenon saw d) Dovetail saw
301. Which of the following is not a boring tool?

a) Bradawl b) C-clamp c) Auger d) Gimlet
302. The common job holding device used in wood working is:
a) Adze b) Try square c) Carpentry bench d) Wheel brace
303. In a carpentry shop, dowels are used to:
a) Hold the two pieces at proper position b) Hold the pieces at right angles
c) Make strong joints d) Make all types of joints
304. The commonly used machine in carpentry for parting the pieces is:
a) Circular saw b) Wood turning lathe c) Spindle moulding machine d) Thicknesser
305. Which of the following is not a parting tool?

a) Band saw b) Adze c) Chisel d) Planer
306. Mortising is an operation of producing:

o
a) 45 angles for corner joints b) Square or rectangular holes in wooden pieces
c) Round holes in wooden pieces d) Dowel holes in wooden pieces
307. Groove and tongue joint is commonly used for making:

a) Windows b) Door panels c) Student’s benches d) Drawing boards
308. In a carpentry shop, rebating is the process of making:

a) Convex surfaces b) Circular holes c) A recess on the edges of work piece d) A recess in the middle of work piece
SOLDERING AND BRAZING

309. Soldering is an alloy of which of the following?
a) Tin and silver b) Tin and zinc c) Tin and aluminum d) Tin and lead
310. Flux is used in soldering to:

a) Prevent formation of oxides b) Increase fluidity of solder metal
c) Fill up the gaps between the joints d) Remove the impurities present in solder
311. A soldering iron bit is made of:

a) Aluminum b) Silver c) Copper d) Stainless steel
312. Soldering iron is made wedge shaped in order to:

a) Retain heat b) Retain solder c) Apply pressure on the parts to be soldered d) Decrease the thickness of soldering joint
313. The working temperature range for soldering process is:

o o o o o o o o
a) 60 C to 120 C b) 180 C to 250 C c) 220 C to 300 C d) 350 C to 480 C
314. Zinc chloride is used as flux in the following process.

a) Soft soldering b) Brazing c) Welding d) Trepanning
315. Before starting the brazing process, cleaning of parts is necessary to avoid which of the following?
a) Scale formation b) Oxidation c) Corrosion d) Slag formation
316. Spelter is another name for which of the following?

a) Lead b) Tin c) Silver d) Zinc
317. Which of the following is another name for brazing?

a) Soft soldering b) Hard soldering c) Low temperature forging d) Joining
318. Brazing process is mainly used for joining parts made of:
a) Copper b) Aluminum c) Silver d) Zinc
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319. Borax is applied to parts to be brazed in order to:

a) Avoid the use of flux b) Prevent the spelter to melt quickly
c) Dissolve oxides and form strong joint when work is heated d) Increase fluidity of material used for brazing
320. Brazing process is carried out in the temperature range of:

o o o o o o o
a) 40 C to 150 C b) 200 C to 400 C c) 500 C to 680 C d) 700 C to 900 C
WELDING
321. During a resistance welding process, the pressure is released:
a) As soon as the flow of current starts b) Immediately after the current supply
c) During heating process d) After the weld cools
322. Seam welding is used:

a) To form mesh b) For continuous welding operation c) For welding thick components d) For multisport welding purpose
323. Forge welding is mainly used for welding which of the following?
a) Cast iron b) Wrought iron c) High carbon steel d) Stainless steel
324. In arc welding, the temperature of the arc is:

o o o o o o o
a) 1100 C to 1500 C b) 1800 C to 2400 C c) 2500 C to 3000 C d) Above 3500 C
325. Flux is used in a welding process to prevent:

a) Distortion of parts b) Dirt c) Oxidation d) Carburization
326. For any arc welding operation, the value of current depends on:
a) The thickness of weld b) Length of portion to be welded c) Supply voltage d) Size of the electrode
327. In welding, weld spelter means:

a) Electrode coating b) Electrode thickness c) Electrode length d) Electrode current
328. Projection welding belongs to this category of welding processes:

a) Gas welding b) Resistance welding c) Arc welding d) Forge welding
329. The strength of a properly welded joint as compared to the base metal is:
a) Less b) Same c) More d) It depends on the material
330. Preheating is essential for welding which of the following?

a) Medium carbon steel b) High carbon steel c) Brass d) Stainless steel
331. The commonly used gases in gas welding are oxygen and:
a) Hydrogen b) CNG c) LPG d) Acetylene
332. In arc welding, protection of eyes is needed against:

a) Arc glare b) Infrared rays c) Infrared and ultraviolet rays d) ultraviolet rays
SET D


337. Arc blow occurs:

a) When straight polarity is used b) In MIG process c) In TIG process d) While welding high speed steel
338. In arc welding process, intense heat is developed between the electrode and work piece due to:
a) High current b) High voltage c) Time of current flow d) Contact resistance
339. TIG welding is most suitable for welding which of the following?
a) Plain steels b) Copper c) Aluminum d) Alloy steels
340. Consumable electrode is used in the following process:

a) TIG welding b) Gas welding c) Arc welding d) Resistance welding
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341. In an arc process, arc length should be equal to which of the following?
a) The electrode diameter b) Haft the electrode diameter
c) Twice the electrode diameter d) Twice the thickness of the work-piece
WELDING FLUXES AND ELECTRODS

342. Fluxes are used in welding to protect the welding surfaces and weldment from which of the following?
a) Oxidation b) Carburization c) Warping and distortion d) Overheating
343. In an arc welding process using coated electrode,

a) The coating melts first and then the metal b) The metal melts first and then the coating
c) Both metal and coating melt simultaneously d) Melting of metal and coating do not play any role
344. Which of the following statements is false?

a) The flux prevents the metal from oxidation b) The flux helps in carburization of metal
c) It must not cause corrosive action on metal d) The molten flux must spread easily on the welding spot
345. Which of the following is the commonly used flux for ferrous materials?
a) Potash b) Zinc chloride c) Borax d) Alum
346. Which of the following is the commonly used flux for aluminum and its alloys?
a) Borax and potassium chloride b) Sodium chloride and lithium chloride
c) Potassium chloride and zinc chloride d) Sodium chloride, potassium chloride and lithium chloride
347. Ferrosilicate present in welding electrodes:

a) Removes oxides and refines the grains b) Provides plasticity to fluxes
c) Helps in forming a shield of reducing gas over weld d) Helps in freezing the slag quickly
348. Carbonates are used as flux for coating electrodes:

a) To prevent carburization b) To provide reducing atmosphere to the slag
c) To provide reducing atmosphere to the slag d) To remove sulfur and phosphorous from metal
349. A thick coating of flux is used on electrodes to:

a) Increase speed of welding b) Provide extra layer of weld
c) Provide reducing atmosphere at the welding portion d) Carburize the metal
350. As per BIS standard IS: 815-1974, the first digit of coding system indicates:
a) Performance characteristics b) Type of covering c) Range of tensile strength d) Percentage elongation
351. As per BIS standard IS: 815-1974, the third digit of coding system indicates:
a) Welding current condition b) Position of electrode c) Tensile strength d) Voltage characteristic
PIPES AND PIPE FITTINGS

352. Which of the following is not used in pipe work?
a) Pipe vise b) Monkey plier c) Pipe wrench d) Double ended spanner
353. Which of the following types of vise is not used in plumbing?

a) Universal vise b) Yoke vise c) Chain vise d) Combination vise
354. Backflow means the flow of water:

a) To main source b) From main source
c) From any source other than the regular source d) From top floor to ground floor
355. What do you mean by a conductor in a piping system?

a) Pipe fittings used for carrying water from top floor to the ground floor b) Pipe fitting used for carrying water from main supply to roof top
c) Sewage disposal pipes d) Vertical pipe fitting inside buildings to convey rain water
356. Die is a tool used for which of the following?

a) Cutting internal threads b) Cutting external threads c) Holding the pipes d) Plugging the pipes
357. A pair of flanges fitting on the ends of pipes by bolts to hold the pipes together is known as:
a) Nipple b) Socket c) Union d) Ferrule
358. A short piece of pipe threaded at both ends to join pipe fittings in threaded joint is known as:
a) Nipple b) Socket c) Union d) Nozzle
359. Flow of water through pipes to houses takes place under:

a) Gravity b) Pressure c) Both gravity and pressure d) Any of these
360. Which of the following is the standard length of galvanized iron pipes in meters?
a) 3 meters b) 4 meters c) 5.5 meters d) 8 meters
361. In galvanized pipes, galvanizing is done on which of the following materials?

a) Mild steel b) Cast iron c) Wrought iron d) Copper
362. A trap is used in drainage pipe to prevent the passage of:
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a) Water b) Air c) Sewage d) Rain
MECHANICAL WORKING OF METALS

363. Mechanical properties of the metal are improved in hot working due to which of the following?
a) Plastic flow b) Recovery of grains c) Recrystallization d) Refining of grains
364. The following type of deformation of metals takes place due to cold working and hot working:
a) Elastic deformation b) Plastic deformation c) Isotropic deformation d) Twinning
365. The following result is wrong about hot working of metals:

a) Poor surface finish b) Close tolerances on components
c) Elimination of porosity d) Improvement in mechanical properties
366. Metals like lead and tin are hot worked at temperature around:
o o o
a) Room temperature b) 200 C c) 350 C d) 450 C
367. The following statement is wrong about effect of cold working:

a) Good surface finish b) Increase in hardness c) Increase in yield strength d) Increase in ductility
368. The increase in hardness of metal due to cold working is known as:
a) Recrystallization b) Hot hardening c) Work hardening d) induction hardening
369. A material that is to be extruded must process the following property:

a) Malleability b) Ductility c) Elasticity d) Plasticity
370. A cylindrical section having no joints is known as:

a) Perfect joint b) Seamless joint c) Ideal joint d) Fine joint
371. The following process is used for making seamless tubes:

a) Extrusion b) Drawing c) Piercing d) Hot rolling
372. The process of making angles, channels, I-section, etc of steel is known as:
a) Casting b) Extrusion c) Rolling mill d) Forging
PLASTIC MATERIALS AND PROCESSES

373. The term plastics refer to a group of synthetic materials that can be molded by:
a) Temperature only b) Pressure only c) Temperature and pressure d) Temperature, pressure and plasticizers
374. Plastics are organic polymers of high molecular weight. The main constituents of polymers are:
a) Carbon and oxygen b) Carbon and hydrogen c) Hydrogen, carbon and chlorine d) Carbon, oxygen, and chlorine
375. Thermoplastics can be:

a) Melted repeatedly by heating b) Melted by heat and pressure
o
c) Melted only once d) Melted at high temperature, say above 400 C only
376. Thermosetting polymers:

a) Have high temperature-sensitive mechanical properties b) Are produce by the process of polymerization
c) Are produced from coal and wood only d) Are produced by condensation-polymerization process
377. Injection molding is the most suitable method of processing:

a) Plastics b) Thermoplastics c) Thermosetting plastics d) Steel
378. Plasticizers are added to plastics to:

a) Increase the melting point b) Enhance cross linking c) Increase flexibility of materials d) Increase ductility of materials
379. The process of heating plastic material and then shaping it to sheet form by mechanical means is known as:
a) Thermoforming b) Calendering c) Moulding d) Extrusion
380. Fillers are added to plastics to:

a) Decrease the cost of production b) Increase impact strength c) Improve moisture absorption d) All of the above
381. The most widely used plastic in the world is:

a) Polyethylene b) Polyvinyl chloride c) Polypropylene d) Bakelite
382. The process of producing components by compacting and melting of plastic material and continuously forcing it through an orifice is known as:
a) Calendering b) Moulding c) Injection moulding d) Extrusion
383. Compression moulding is most suitable for processing of:

a) Plastics b) Thermoplastics c) Thermosetting d) Steel
384. The process of pouring molten plastic into a mould cavity and allowing it to cool to desired shape is known as:
a) Calendering b) Extrusion c) Casting d) Injection moulding
SAFETY IN WORKSHOPS
385. An accident causes loss to:
a) Man only b) Equipment only c) Property only d) Man, equipment, and property
17
386. The following is an unnatural cause of accident:

a) Unsafe act of workman b) Cyclones c) Rainfall d) Floods
387. The following is a natural cause of accident:

a) Poor lighting b) Suffocation due to chemicals c) Landslides d) Unguarded machinery
388. As per the provisions of the Factories Act, every accident is to be reported to the Inspector within:
a) 12 hours b) 24 hours c) 48 hours d) Seven days
389. It is a piece of hardened steel rod having a needle like point on one or both ends. It works like a pencil to scribe line on metals. How do you call this?
a) Scraper b) Chisl c) File d) Scriber
390. This type of chisel is used for cutting oil grooves and channels in bearing. It is also used for cleaning small round corners and drawing the eccentric
hold back to exact center.
a) Cross-cut chisel b) Round-nose chisel c) flat chisel d) Diamond point chisel
391. The operation of removing metals by means of a chisel. In this process, the angle of cutting must be the same throughout the operation.
a) Scraping b) Chipping c) Chipping d) Boring
392. A machine used for drilling holes.

a) Milling machine b) Boring machine c) Drilling machine d) Lathe machine
393. .A drilling machine which is light and has an ope-high speed, and commonly used for drilling small pieces of work.
a) Sensitive drill press b) Upright drill press c) Radial drill press d) Turret drill preess
394. A drill press which heavy and equipped with a speed indicator, and commonly used for drilling heavier pieces of work.
a) Sensitive drill press b) Upright drill press c) Radial drill press d) Turret drill press
395. A drilling machine which is developed to handle large workpieces. The head is mounted on a radial arm that may be swung about the column or raised
or lowered.
396. The length of radial drill press varies from _____________.

a) 3 to 12 ft or more b) 3 to 5 ft c) 12 to 24 ft or more d) 5 to 10 ft
397. One of the principal parts of a drill for a drilling machine which is the entire cone-shaped end that forms the cutting dg of the drill. It has a normal angle
of 118 degrees.
a) Body b) Point c) Shank d) Chuck
398. The common tool used in a drilling machine. It may have straight or tapered shank.
a) Twist drill b) Turret drill c) removable blade d) Drill bit
399. A hand tool used for cutting an external thread.

a) Tap b) Die c) Hand drill d) Reamer
400. A type of chuck that has six or seven jaws that can be used to act as universal or independent chuck. Precise centering is needed.
a) Combination chuck b) Independent chuck c) Universal chuck d) Chuck Norris
401. A type of chuck that has a bar of magnet inside that tends to hold the material in proper place. This is used for thin works needed to be machined to
avoid damaging the edges.
a) Combination chuck b) Independent chuck c) Universal chuck d) Magnetic chuck
402. A type of chuck that is used to hold thin work pieces without damaging the outside diameter of the work. This kind has slotted part up to the shank to
hold the material securely. It also has no many a variety of sizes and the form needed in holding different work pieces
a) Combination chuck b) Step chuck and closer c) Universal chuck d) Magnetic chuck
403. The process of coalescence of metals with the use of heat and/or force with or without the use of additional welding metal (filler).
a) Welding b) Soldering c) Brazing d) Cutting
404. A lathe machine operation of removing excess material with the remaining tolerable allowance for finish turning.
a) Rough turning b) Parting c) Counter sinking d) Chamfering
405. A lathe operation of removing the edge of the work piece to allow easy entrance of the tool bit.
406. A lathe machine operation of removing excess material and forming a shoulder in the work piece by using a round nose cutting tool.
a) Rough turning b) Shouldering c) Counter sinking d) Chamfering
407. A drill that has two flutes, a straight shank design, and a relatively short length-to-diameter ratio that helps maintain rigidity. This drill is used for drilling
in steel, cast iron, and non-ferrous metals.
a) Twist drill b) Jobber’s drill c) Center drill d) Spot drill
408. What is a center drill?

a) A tool used to make a conical enlargement of the end of a hole
18
b) A tool used to chamfer holes and to provide tapered holes for flat head fasteners
c) A tool used to make a 60-degree countersink hole in work pieces for lathe and grinders.
d) A tool used to make a cylindrical recess concentric with a smaller hole
409. Hand tools that are commonly used for cutting or twisting wires and cripping small parts. These, however, should not be used for tightening or
loosening bolts and nuts because the teeth of the jaws shall round off the corners of the bolt head or nut, causing a wrench to slip.
a) Hammers b) Screw drivers c) Hacksaws d) Pliers
the world war I.


414. A welding process carried out by stored electrostatic, electromagnetic or electrochemical energy.
a) Spot welding b) Stored energy welding c) Shielded carbon arc welding d) Projection welding
415. A resistance welding process where coalescence is produced at projected portions between different members.
a) Seam welding b) Projection welding c) Spot welding d) Stored energy welding
416. A resistance welding process wherein coalescence is produc3d over the entir area of abutting surfaces by the heat obtained by the arc from stored
electrical energy.
a) Seam welding b) Percussion welding c) Spot welding d) Stored energy welding
417. A resistance welding operation carried out over the entire area of abutting surfaces, by heat obtained by the resistance to the flow of currents between
the two surfaces by application of pressure.
a) Seam welding b) Projection welding c) Flash welding d) Stored energy welding
418. Which of the following is the measure of distance from one point to another?
a) Length b) Area c) Volume d) Pressure
419. Which of the following is the standard unit of volume in the metric system?
a) Cubic feet b) Gallon c) Liter d) Cubic Centimeter

a. precision lathe b. engine lathe c. turret lathe d. all of the above
a. automatic screw machine b. turret lathe c. precision lathe d. none of the above
a. back gear b. headstock spindle c. tailstock spindle d. all of the above
a. Welding shop b. Junk shop c. Machine shop d. all of the above
a. Machine Operator b. Specialized Machinist c. Assembler d. None of the above
428. A machine tool in which metal is removed by means of a revolving cutters with many teeth, each teeth having a cutting edge which removes its share of
the stocks.
a. Lathe Machine b. Milling Machine c. Shaper Machine d. None of the above
429. A machine shop work which is termed in reference to the operations incident to the processes of laying out, fitting, assembling, etc., when the work is
placed on the bench or in a bench vise.
a. Floor work b. Shop work c. Bench work d. All of the above
19
431. A common hand tool which is used to loosen and tighten screws.
a. Wrench b. Screw driver c. Pliers d. All of the above
432. A hard driving tool with a ball shaped head on one end and a cylindrical-shaped head and face which is slightly rounded on the other end.
a. Straight peen hammer b. Cross peen hammer c. Ball peen hammer d. All of the above
433. A single cut file used for draw filing, lathe filing, and general bench working.
a. Flat file b. Mill File c. Round file d. None of the above
434. Tools that are commonly used in the performance of bench work and various lay-out operations.
a. Machine tools b. Hand tools c. Measuring tools d. All of these
a. Grinding machine b. B. Milling machine c. Lathe machine d. None of the above
a. Reaming machine b. Drill press c. Welding machine d. All of the above
a. Shaper machine b. Planer machine c. Milling machine d. All of the above
a. Drilling machine Milling machine c) Grinding machine d) d. All of the above
SET E
439. It is the process of machining flat, curved, or irregular surfaces by feeding the workpiece against a rotating horizontal cutter containing a number of
cutting edges.
a) Drilling b) Milling c) Shaping d) Grinding
440. A type of milling machine that has the cutting tool mounted on an arbor or in th spindle, and table cannot be adjusted to all positions.
a) Plain horizontal milling machine b) Universal horizontal milling machine
c) Vertical milling machine d) Manufacturing milling machine
441. A type of milling machine that has a table that can swivel any required angle horizontally. Spirals, helices, and cans are usually performed in this
machine.
442. A type of milling machine designed with a spindle in a vertical position where it can be raised or lowered to perform many operations. Boring and
profiling operations are performed in this machine.
443. A type of milling machine that used for mass production work. It has fixed table height and vertically adjustable spindle.
444. A milling machine type built for heavy work such as slab and face milling operations. It has a vertical spindle supported on a cross head on two upright
columns.
a) Planer type milling machine b) Universal horizontal milling machine
445. It is a work holding device of a milling machine which known as indexing head and is used to hold material diving the surface into equally distributed
section.
446. It is a work holding device of a milling machine that has a variety of clamping ranges designed to hold pieces for machining duplicate parts.
20
451. A milling machine cutting holding device used to draw the arbor in place and hold it in position by tightening the nut.
452. It is milling machine cutting holding device that permits the use of a larger variety of tools and tool holder devices.
453. A type of milling cutter which is a toothed cylinder used to produce a flat surface parallel to its axis.
a) Plain milling cutter b) Side milling cutter c) Angular milling cutter d) End mill
454. A type of milling cutter that is narrow and has teeth on both sides as well as on the periphery. This cutter over 8 inches in diameter is usually made
within inserted teeth.
455. A milling cutter in which teeth are neither parallel nor perpendicular to the cutting axis but at an oblique angle.
456. It is a milling cutter that has teeth on the cutting end, face and periphery.
457. Which of the following is the recommended cutting speed for cutting mild steel in a milling machine using a high-sped cutter?
a) 95 fpm b) 50 fpm c) 90 fpm d) 180 fpm
458. Which of the following is the recommended cutting speed for cutting cast iron in a milling machine using a carbon steel cutter?
459. The recommended cutting speed for cutting aluminum in a milling machine using a high-speed cutter.
460. The simplest operation that can be performed in a milling machine by having a cutter which length is greater than the diameter.
461. A milling machine operation which is machining large surfaces at right angle and parallel to the axis of the cutter.
465. A machine that is used primarily for producing flat surfaces that may b horizontal, vertical, and even angular planes.
a) Planer machine b) Shaper machine c) Milling machine d) Drilling machine
466. A type of shaper machine also known as column shaper. The vertical column of this machine supports the ram, worktable, and drilling mechanism.
467. Type of shaper machine which is almost similar to crank shaper. In this machine the ram is moved by a flow of oil from a high pressure pump which
acts against the piston.
468. A shaper machine also known as slotter shaper.

469. Main part of a shaper machine that serves as the foundation of the machine. It is made of casting materials.
a) Base b) Column c) Cross bail d) Saddle
470. A shaper machine main part also known as the frame. This part is a hollow rectangular casting where the driving mechanism for the ram is attachd.
471. A shaper machine main part which is a casting located across the front of the column that permits the table to move vertically and horizontally.v This
part is controlled by the elevating screw.
472. A shaper machine main part which is also known as an apron.

473. A shaper machine operation which is shaping the given stock and having the excess material remain with a tolerable allowance for finishing.
a) Roughing b) Finishing c) Angular cutting d) Key way or slot cutting
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474. A shaper machine operation which is shaping the given material into the required dimension given in the plan by using a finishing cutting tool.
475. A shaper machine operation that may be accomplished by setting the workpiece at an angl, or by setting the cutting edge of the tool at an angle
corresponding to the angle to be produced on the workpiece.
476. It is a shaper machine operation which is cutting a groove to serve as locking place for the shaft and gear as in keyway.
477. The main part of a shaper machine which is cast and looks like a box; acts as the foundation.
a) Bed b) Table c) Cross rail d) Saddle
478. The main part of a shaper machine which is cast, usually large, primarily placed vertically that straddles th table and bed. This part is to hold the work.
a) Bed b) Table c) Cross rail d) Saddle
479. A process whereby low-carbon steel, when heated with some carbonaceous material, absorbs carbon into its outer surface.
480. The process of heating a hardened carbon or alloy steel below its lower critical temperature and cooling it by quenching in a liquid or in air.
481. This process is performed on metal to remove internal stresses and strains and to improve its machinability.
482. CNC stand for:

a) Computer number control b) Computer Numerical control c) Communication numerical control c) None of these
483. A method of accurately controlling the operation of a machine tool by a series of coded instructions, consisting of numbers, letters of the alphabet, and
symbols that the machine control unit can understand.
a) Numerical control b) Computer control c) Precision control d) Machine control
484. Maybe defined as a helical ridge of uniform section formed on the inside or outside of a cylinder or cone.
a) Screw b) Thread c) Slot d) Hole
a. Lathe filing b. Straight filing c. Draw filing d. All of the above
488. 34. A type of pliers which is used for cutting wires and holding flat round stock.
a. Long-nose pliers b. Side-cutting pliers c. Slip joint combination pliers or mechanical pliers d. All of the above
a. Flat file b. Mill File c. Round file d. None of the above
492. A file used for filing fillets, concave radii and enlarging holes.
a. Square file b. Round file c. Half-round file d. All of the above
493. A file used for enlarging squared-end holes and filing slots and keyways.
a. Round file b. Square file c. Three-square or corner file d. All of the above
o
494. 25. A file which has three sides angled 60 to each other. This file tapers to a blunt point and is used for filing internal angles and for cleaning square
corners.
a. Square file b. Flat file c. Three-square or corner file d. All of the above
a. Long-nose pliers b. Side-cutting pliers c. Diagonal pliers d. All of the above
a. Hammer b. Wrench c. File d. All of the above
a. Open-end wrench b. Adjustable wrench c. Box wrench d. All of the above
22
a. Box wrench b. Adjustable wrench c Open-end wrench d. None of the above
499. A type of wrench which has 12 notches around a circle that fit over the bolt head or not. He has a closed end and commonly used where it is difficult to
use other types of wrenches.
a. Socket wrench b. Adjustable wrench c. Box Wrench d. None of the above
a. Socket wrench b. Ratchet wrench c. Box wrench d. None of the above
a. Open end wrench b. Box wrench c. Spanner wrench d. None of the above
a. 32 teeth per inch b. 24 teeth per inch c. 18 teeth per inch d. all of the above

a. hacksaw b. die c. tap d. all of the above

a. Carriage handwheel b. rack gear c. upper casting d. none of the above
a. toolbit b. drill bit c. tap drill d. all of the above
508. The process of cutting an internal threads.

a. box wrench b. open-end wrench c. allen wrench d. none of the above
510. Tools that used to cutting or chipping metals and are made of good grade tool still with a hardened cutting edge and beveled head at the opposite end.
a. files b. cold chisels c. scrapers d. none of the above
511. A type of cold chisel that is made square at the point, then ground on an angle across diagonal corners, which makes the cutting face diamond shaped.
a. Flat cold chisel b. Round-nose chisel c. Diamond-point chisel d. None of the above
512. The operation of pushing off, rather than peeling off, a small chip with a very hard tool having no rake.
a. filing b. chipping c. scraping d. none of the above
513. A tool used to remove the high spots on the surface of a machine part or workpiece.
a. file b. chisel c. scraper d. all of the above
514. A shop term used to include the marking or scribing of center points, circles, arcs, or straight line upon metal surfaces, either curved or flat, for the
guidance of the worker.
a. centering b. laying-out c. bench work d. none of the above
515. Systems of measurement used in the Philippines in the machine shop operations.
a. English system b. Metric system c. System International (SI) d. all of the above
516. A basic measuring instrument commonly used in the educational system and on which we have been oriented.
a. Rule b. Vernier Caliper c. Micrometer caliper d. All of the above
517. A basic measuring instrument used to measure the depth of holes and slots.
a. Combination depth and angle gauge b. Hook rule c. Caliper rule d. None of the above
518. One of the parts of a drill press or drilling machine which drives all the mechanism of the machine.
a. base b. head adjusting shaft c. driving motor d. all of the above
SET F
519. Which is of the following is a type motor for forging machine: Adjustable speed, shunt-wound, direct current motor, wherever a number of speeds are
essentials
a) Type A b) Type B c) Type C d) Type D
520. The following is a type of motor for forging machine with the following specification: Constant speed, shunt-wound, direct current motor, the require
speeds are obtainable by a gear-box or other adjustable speed transmission or when only one speed is required.
23
521. A type of motor for a forging machine as specified by Westinghouse Electric Corporation with the corresponding specification: Squirrel-cage, induction
motor, when direct current is not available a gear-box or other adjustable speed transmission must be used to obtain different speeds.
522. A type of motor for forging machine as specified by Westinghouse Electric Corporation with the corresponding specification: Constant speed,
compound-wound, when speeds are obtainable by a gear-box or other adjustable speed transmission or when only one speed is required.
523. A type of motor for forging machine as specified by Westinghouse Electric Corporation with the corresponding specification: Wound secondary or
squirrel-cage induction motors with approximately 10 percent slip, when direct is not available
a) Type A b) Type E c) Type C d) Type D
524. A type of motor for forging machine as specified by Westinghouse Electric Corporation with the corresponding specification: Adjustable speed,
compound-wound, direct current motor.
a) Type F b) Type E c) Type C d) Type D
525. ___________ is used primarily to produce tin walled hollow containers from thermoplastic resin. A cylinder of plastic materials, known as parison, is
extruded as rapidly as possible and positioned between the jaws of a split mold. As the mold is closed is completed by air pressure forcing the materials
against the mold surface.
a) Cold drawing b) Blow molding c) Explosive forming d) Electroplating
526. During a resistance welding process, the pressure is released:

a) As soon as the flow of current starts b) Immediately after the current supply
c) During heating process d) After the weld cools
527. Seam welding is used:
a) To form mesh b) For continuous welding operation c) For welding thick components d) For multisport welding purpose
528. Forge welding is mainly used for welding which of the following?
a) Cast iron b) Wrought iron c) High carbon steel d) Stainless steel
529. In arc welding, the temperature of the arc is:
o o o o o o o
a) 1100 C to 1500 C b) 1800 C to 2400 C c) 2500 C to 3000 C d) Above 3500 C
530. Flux is used in a welding process to prevent:

a) Distortion of parts b) Dirt c) Oxidation d) Carburization
531. For any arc welding operation, the value of current depends on:
a) The thickness of weld b) Length of portion to be welded c) Supply voltage d) Size of the electrode
532. In welding, weld spelter means:

a) Electrode coating b) Electrode thickness c) Electrode length d) Electrode current



538. As per BIS standard IS: 815-1974, the first digit of coding system indicates:
a) Performance characteristics b) Type of covering c) Range of tensile strength d) Percentage elongation
539. As per BIS standard IS: 815-1974, the third digit of coding system indicates:
a) Welding current condition b) Position of electrode c) Tensile strength d) Voltage characteristic
540. Projection welding belongs to this category of welding processes:

a) Gas welding b) Resistance welding c) Arc welding d) Forge welding
541. The strength of a properly welded joint as compared to the base metal is:
a) Less b) Same c) More d) It depends on the material
542. Preheating is essential for welding which of the following?
a) Medium carbon steel b) High carbon steel c) Brass d) Stainless steel
543. The commonly used gases in gas welding are oxygen and:
a) Hydrogen b) CNG c) LPG d) Acetylene
544. In arc welding, protection of eyes is needed against:
24
a) Arc glare b) Infrared rays c) Infrared and ultraviolet rays d) ultraviolet rays

549. Arc blow occurs:

a) When straight polarity is used b) In MIG process c) In TIG process d) While welding high speed steel
550. In arc welding process, intense heat is developed between the electrode and work piece due to:
a) High current b) High voltage c) Time of current flow d) Contact resistance
551. Which of the following is not used in pipe work?

a) Pipe vise b) Monkey plier c) Pipe wrench d) Double ended spanner
552. Which of the following types of vise is not used in plumbing?

a) Universal vise b) Yoke vise c) Chain vise d) Combination vise
553. Backflow means the flow of water:

a) To main source b) From main source
c) From any source other than the regular source d) From top floor to ground floor
554. What do you mean by a conductor in a piping system?
a) Pipe fittings used for carrying water from top floor to the ground floor b) Pipe fitting used for carrying water from main supply to roof top
c) Sewage disposal pipes d) Vertical pipe fitting inside buildings to convey rain water
555. Die is a tool used for which of the following?

a) Cutting internal threads b) Cutting external threads c) Holding the pipes d) Plugging the pipes
556. A pair of flanges fitting on the ends of pipes by bolts to hold the pipes together is known as:
a) Nipple b) Socket c) Union d) Ferrule
557. A short piece of pipe threaded at both ends to join pipe fittings in threaded joint is known as:
a) Nipple b) Socket c) Union d) Nozzle
558. Flow of water through pipes to houses takes place under:

a) Gravity b) Pressure c) Both gravity and pressure d) Any of these
559. Which of the following is the standard length of galvanized iron pipes in meters?
a) 3 meters b) 4 meters c) 5.5 meters d) 8 meters
560. In galvanized pipes, galvanizing is done on which of the following materials?

a) Mild steel b) Cast iron c) Wrought iron d) Copper
561. A trap is used in drainage pipe to prevent the passage of:

a) Water b) Air c) Sewage d) Rain
562. TIG welding is most suitable for welding which of the following?
a) Plain steels b) Copper c) Aluminum d) Alloy steels
563. Consumable electrode is used in the following process:

a) TIG welding b) Gas welding c) Arc welding d) Resistance welding
564. In an arc process, arc length should be equal to which of the following?
a) The electrode diameter b) Haft the electrode diameter
c) Twice the electrode diameter d) Twice the thickness of the work-piece
565. Fluxes are used in welding to protect the welding surfaces and weldment from which of the following?
a) Oxidation b) Carburization c) Warping and distortion d) Overheating
566. In an arc welding process using coated electrode,

a) The coating melts first and then the metal b) The metal melts first and then the coating
c) Both metal and coating melt simultaneously d) Melting of metal and coating do not play any role
567. Which of the following statements is false?

a) The flux prevents the metal from oxidation b) The flux helps in carburization of metal
c) It must not cause corrosive action on metal d) The molten flux must spread easily on the welding spot
25

571. Thermosetting polymers:

a) Have high temperature-sensitive mechanical properties b) Are produce by the process of polymerization
c) Are produced from coal and wood only d) Are produced by condensation-polymerization process
572. Injection molding is the most suitable method of processing:

a) Plastics b) Thermoplastics c) Thermosetting plastics d) Steel
573. Plasticizers are added to plastics to:

a) Increase the melting point b) Enhance cross linking c) Increase flexibility of materials d) Increase ductility of materials
574. The process of heating plastic material and then shaping it to sheet form by mechanical means is known as:
a) Thermoforming b) Calendering c) Moulding d) Extrusion
575. Fillers are added to plastics to:

a) Decrease the cost of production b) Increase impact strength c) Improve moisture absorption d) All of the above
576. The most widely used plastic in the world is:

a) Polyethylene b) Polyvinyl chloride c) Polypropylene d) Bakelite
577. The process of producing components by compacting and melting of plastic material and continuously forcing it through an orifice is known as:
a) Calendering b) Moulding c) Injection moulding d) Extrusion
578. Compression moulding is most suitable for processing of:

a) Plastics b) Thermoplastics c) Thermosetting d) Steel
579. The process of pouring molten plastic into a mould cavity and allowing it to cool to desired shape is known as:
a) Calendering b) Extrusion c) Casting d) Injection moulding


582. An accident causes loss to:
a) Man only b) Equipment only c) Property only d) Man, equipment, and property
583. The following is an unnatural cause of accident:

a) Unsafe act of workman b) Cyclones c) Rainfall d) Floods
584. The following is a natural cause of accident:

a) Poor lighting b) Suffocation due to chemicals c) Landslides d) Unguarded machinery
585. As per the provisions of the Factories Act, every accident is to be reported to the Inspector within:
a) 12 hours b) 24 hours c) 48 hours d) Seven days
586. It is a piece of hardened steel rod having a needle like point on one or both ends. It works like a pencil to scribe line on metals. How do you call this?
a) Scraper b) Chisl c) File d) Scriber
587. This type of chisel is used for cutting oil grooves and channels in bearing. It is also used for cleaning small round corners and drawing the eccentric
hold back to exact center.
a) Cross-cut chisel b) Round-nose chisel c) flat chisel d) Diamond point chisel
588. The operation of removing metals by means of a chisel. In this process, the angle of cutting must be the same throughout the operation.
a) Scraping b) Chipping c) Chipping d) Boring
590. A welding process carried out by stored electrostatic, electromagnetic or electrochemical energy.
a) Spot welding b) Stored energy welding c) Shielded carbon arc welding d) Projection welding
591. A resistance welding process where coalescence is produced at projected portions between different members.
a) Seam welding b) Projection welding c) Spot welding d) Stored energy welding
26
592. A resistance welding process wherein coalescence is produc3d over the entir area of abutting surfaces by the heat obtained by the arc from stored
electrical energy.
a) Seam welding b) Percussion welding c) Spot welding d) Stored energy welding
593. A resistance welding operation carried out over the entire area of abutting surfaces, by heat obtained by the resistance to the flow of currents between
the two surfaces by application of pressure.
a) Seam welding b) Projection welding c) Flash welding d) Stored energy welding
594. Which of the following is the measure of distance from one point to another?
a) Length b) Area c) Volume d) Pressure
595. Which of the following is the standard unit of volume in the metric system?
a) Cubic feet b) Gallon c) Liter d) Cubic Centimeter

a. precision lathe b. engine lathe c. turret lathe d. Standard lathe
a. automatic screw machine b. turret lathe c. precision lathe d. Standard lathe
a. back gear b. headstock spindle c. tailstock spindle d. Backspindle
a. Welding shop b. Junk shop c. Machine shop d. Flower shop
a. Machine Operator b. Specialized Machinist c. Assembler d. Recorder
a. Screw driver b. Hammer c. Pliers d. Vernier caliper
604. A machine tool in which metal is removed by means of a revolving cutters with many teeth, each teeth having a cutting edge which removes its share of
the stocks.
a. Lathe Machine b. Milling Machine c. Shaper Machine d. shaper machine
605. A machine shop work which is termed in reference to the operations incident to the processes of laying out, fitting, assembling, etc., when the work is
placed on the bench or in a bench vise.
a. Floor work b. Shop work c. Bench work d. Junk work
a. Screw driver b. Hammer c. Pliers d. Wrench
607. A common hand tool which is used to loosen and tighten screws.
a. Wrench b. Screw driver c. Pliers d. Spanner
608. A hard driving tool with a ball shaped head on one end and a cylindrical-shaped head and face which is slightly rounded on the other end.
a. Straight peen hammer b. Cross peen hammer c. Ball peen hammer d. Sledge hammer
a. Flat file b. Mill File c. Round file d. Nail file
610. Tools that are commonly used in the performance of bench work and various lay-out operations.
a. Machine tools b. Hand tools c. Measuring tools d. Standard tools
cutting edges.
machine.
27
614. A type of milling machine designed with a spindle in a vertical position where it can be raised or lowered to perform many operations. Boring and
profiling operations are performed in this machine.
615. A type of milling machine that used for mass production work. It has fixed table height and vertically adjustable spindle.
616. A milling machine type built for heavy work such as slab and face milling operations. It has a vertical spindle supported on a cross head on two upright
columns.
a) Planer type milling machine b) Universal horizontal milling machine
617. It is a work holding device of a milling machine which known as indexing head and is used to hold material diving the surface into equally distributed
section.
618. It is a work holding device of a milling machine that has a variety of clamping ranges designed to hold pieces for machining duplicate parts.
623. A milling machine cutting holding device used to draw the arbor in place and hold it in position by tightening the nut.
624. It is milling machine cutting holding device that permits the use of a larger variety of tools and tool holder devices.
625. A type of milling cutter which is a toothed cylinder used to produce a flat surface parallel to its axis.
a. Grinding machine b. B. Milling machine c. Lathe machine d. None of the above

a. Reaming machine b. Drill press c. Welding machine d. All of the above
a. Shaper machine b. Planer machine c. Milling machine d. All of the above
a. Drilling machine Milling machine c) Grinding machine d) d. All of the above
630. A machine used for drilling holes.

a) Milling machine b) Boring machine c) Drilling machine d) Lathe machine
631. .A drilling machine which is light and has an ope-high speed, and commonly used for drilling small pieces of work.
a) Sensitive drill press b) Upright drill press c) Radial drill press d) Turret drill preess
632. A drill press which heavy and equipped with a speed indicator, and commonly used for drilling heavier pieces of work.
633. A drilling machine which is developed to handle large workpieces. The head is mounted on a radial arm that may be swung about the column or raised
or lowered.
634. The length of radial drill press varies from _____________.

a) 3 to 12 ft or more b) 3 to 5 ft c) 12 to 24 ft or more d) 5 to 10 ft
28
635. One of the principal parts of a drill for a drilling machine which is the entire cone-shaped end that forms the cutting dg of the drill. It has a normal angle
of 118 degrees.
a) Body b) Point c) Shank d) Chuck
636. The common tool used in a drilling machine. It may have straight or tapered shank.
a) Twist drill b) Turret drill c) removable blade d) Drill bit
637. A hand tool used for cutting an external thread.

a) Tap b) Die c) Hand drill d) Reamer
638. A type of chuck that has six or seven jaws that can be used to act as universal or independent chuck. Precise centering is needed.
a) Combination chuck b) Independent chuck c) Universal chuck d) Chuck Norris
639. A type of chuck that has a bar of magnet inside that tends to hold the material in proper place. This is used for thin works needed to be machined to
avoid damaging the edges.
a) Combination chuck b) Independent chuck c) Universal chuck d) Magnetic chuck
640. A type of chuck that is used to hold thin work pieces without damaging the outside diameter of the work. This kind has slotted part up to the shank to
hold the material securely. It also has no many a variety of sizes and the form needed in holding different work pieces
a) Combination chuck b) Step chuck and closer c) Universal chuck d) Magnetic chuck
641. The process of coalescence of metals with the use of heat and/or force with or without the use of additional welding metal (filler).
a) Welding b) Soldering c) Brazing d) Cutting
642. A lathe machine operation of removing excess material with the remaining tolerable allowance for finish turning.
643. A lathe operation of removing the edge of the work piece to allow easy entrance of the tool bit.
644. A lathe machine operation of removing excess material and forming a shoulder in the work piece by using a round nose cutting tool.
a) Rough turning b) Shouldering c) Counter sinking d) Chamfering
645. A drill that has two flutes, a straight shank design, and a relatively short length-to-diameter ratio that helps maintain rigidity. This drill is used for drilling
in steel, cast iron, and non-ferrous metals.
a) Twist drill b) Jobber’s drill c) Center drill d) Spot drill
646. What is a center drill?

a) A tool used to make a conical enlargement of the end of a hole
b) A tool used to chamfer holes and to provide tapered holes for flat head fasteners
c) A tool used to make a 60-degree countersink hole in work pieces for lathe and grinders.
d) A tool used to make a cylindrical recess concentric with a smaller hole
647. Hand tools that are commonly used for cutting or twisting wires and cripping small parts. These, however, should not be used for tightening or
loosening bolts and nuts because the teeth of the jaws shall round off the corners of the bolt head or nut, causing a wrench to slip.
a) Hammers b) Screw drivers c) Hacksaws d) Pliers
the world war I.


29
INDUSTRIAL PLANT ELEMENTS
SET A
1. Flying debris can cause an eye injury before a person can react. It is a good practice to wear which of the following personal protective equipment
(PPE)?
a) Dust mask b) Safety eye goggles c) Gas mask d) Safety gloves
2. As a safety precaution, move the refrigerant cylinder only while a ________________ is on it, if it is designed for it.
a) Pressure gauge b) Chain c) Approved cart d) Protective cap
3. As a safety precaution, refrigerant cylinders should be stored and transported in the __________ position to keep the pressure relief valve in contact
with the vapor space, not the liquid inside the cylinder.
a) Horizontal b) Upright c) Upside down d) Any
4. If a leaks develops and refrigerant is escaping, what action are you going to do?
a) Try to stop it with your hand b) Let the refrigerant escapes to the atmosphere
c) Stand back and look for a valve with which to shut it d) Ignore it and do nothing
o
5. You will be taking pressure readings of refrigeration and air conditioning systems. Liquid R-22 boils at – 41 F when it is released to the atmosphere..If
you are careless and get this refrigerant on your skin or in your eyes, it will quickly cause ____________.
a) skin burn b) Skin wound c) Red skin d) Frostbite
6. When lifting a heavy object, which of the following you must perform?
a) Use your legs not your back b) Use your back not your legs
c) Use your both legs and back d) It’s up to you how you do it
7. Temperature is defined as:

a) How hot it is b) the level of heat c) How cold it is d) Why it is hot
o
8. Under standard conditions, water freezes at ________ C.
a) Zero b) 100 c) 32 d) 212
9. In which direction does heat flow?

a) From a cold substance to a cold substance b) Up c) Down d) From warm substance to a cold substance
10. A rise in sensible heat causes __________________.

a) A rise in thermometer b) A fall in thermometer c) No change in thermometer d) Ice to melt
11. Latent heat causes _______________.

a) A rise in thermometer b) Temperature to rise c) A change of state d) Temperature to fall
12. A process of removing heat from a place where it is not wanted and transferring that heat to a place where it makes little or no difference.
a) Conduction b) Convection c) Refrigeration d) Air conditioning
13. It is a substance that can be changed readily to a vapor by boiling it and then changed to a liquid by condensing it.
a) Water b) Brine water c) Refrigerant d) Ammonia
14. Which of the following is the color code for the cylinder of R-11?
a) White b) Orange c) Green d) Silver
15. What is the color code for the cylinder of ammonia?

16. What is the color code for the cylinder of R-12?

17. What is the color code for the cylinder of R-22?

18. What is the color code for the cylinder of R-134a?

a) Light blue b) Orange c) Green d) Silver
19. The metering device _____________.

a) Cycles the compressor b) Controls subcooling c) Stores refrigerant d) Meters refrigerant
20. Trying to stop escaping liquid refrigerant with your hands will result in ___________.
a) Skin burn b) Eye irritation c) Frostbite d) Suffocation
21. Electrical shock to the body affects the __________.

a) Blood flow b) Skin c) Brain d) Heart
1

22. The third (green) wire on an electric drill is the ___________ wire.
a) Live b) Ground c) Power d) Neutral
23. The standard weight of copper tubing used most frequently in the heating and air conditioning industry is:
a) K b) L c) WWV d) M
Note: Standard weight of copper tubing:

K-type copper – heavy duty with a thick tubing wall
L-type copper – considered medium weight and is the type used most frequently
M-type copper – the light weight copper and is not commonly used in industry
DWV-type copper – a light weight copper not typically used in the HVACR industry as far as refrigerant carrying application is concerned
DWV – stands for Drain, Waste, and Vent
24. The size of ½ inch would refer to the ______________ with regard ACR copper tubing.
a) Inside diameter (ID) b) Outside diameter (OD) c) Length d) Fitting length
25. The size of ½ inch would refer to the ____________ with regard to copper tubing used in plumbing and heating.
a) Inside diameter (ID) b) Outside diameter (OD) c) Length d) Fitting length
26. Tubing used for air conditioning installations is usually insulated at:
a) the low-pressure side b) the discharge line
c) the high-pressure side from the condenser to the metering device d) Any of the above
27. Brazing is done at __________________ for soldering.

a) the same temperature as that used b) lower temperature than those used
c) higher temperature than those used d) temperature that can be higher or lower than those used
28. A common filter material used for brazing is composed of:

a) 50/50 tin-lead b) 95/5 tin-antimony c) 15 % to 60 % silver d) Cast steel
29. When soldering, a flux is used to:

a) minimize oxidation while the joints is being heated b) allow the fitting to fit easily onto the tubing
c) keep the filler metal from dropping on the floor d) help the tubing and fitting to heat faster
30. As a safety precaution, wear _____________ when working with refrigerants, and don’t work with refrigerant in poorly ventilated areas. Also, be aware
that some refrigerants became toxic when exposed to an open flame.
a) Goggles and gloves b) Gas mask c) Safety shoes d) Dust mask
31. The device that moves the air across the heat exchanger in a forced-air system. In a split system, it normally contains the blower fan, cooling coil,
metering device, air filter, and related housing.
a) Air duct b) Air handler c) Cooling and dehumidifying apparatus d) Air fan system
32. An electrical current that changes direction on a cylical basis.

a) Direct current b) Alternating current c) Ampere d) Voltage
33. The unit of measurement for current flow. The magnitude is determined by the number of electrons passing a point at a given time.
a) Ampere b) Voltage c) Wattage d) Ohm
34. A meter that uses a needle to indicate a value on a scale.

a) Digital meter b) Analog meter c) Electronic meter d) Automatic meter
35. An L-shaped metal supporting member used to support vertical risers. Also called angle iron.
a) Angle bracket b) L-bracket c) U-bracket d) Angle bar
36. Copper tubing made especially for refrigeration and HVAC work. It is especially clean and is usually charged with dry nitrogen. The ends are sealed to
prevent contamination.
a) Annealed Copper Refrigeration (ACR) Tubing b) Plastic pipe
b) ABS (Acrylonitrilebutadiene) pipe d) PE (Polyethylene) pipe
37. A process in which a material is heated, then cooled to strengthen it

a) Annealing b) Brazing c) Normalizing d) Nitriding
38. The process by which a liquid is converted into a fine spray.

a) Refining b) Atomizing c) Spraying d) Liquid Jet
39. Carbon steel pipe that gets its black coloring from the carbon in the steel
a) Black iron pipe b) Copper pipe c) Bronze pipe d) Aluminum pipe
o
40. A method of joining metals with a non-ferrous filler metal using heat above 800 F but below the melting point of the base metals being joined. Also
known as hard soldering
a) Soldering b) Brazing c) Welding d) Chipping
41. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit
a) Calorie b) Latent heat c) Btu d) Sensible heat
2

42. A female pipe fitting that is closed at one end. It is used to close off the end of a piece of pipe.
a) Coupling b) Nipple c) Cap d) Union
43. This plastic pipe is rigid and has good impact strength at low temperatures. It is used for water, vents, and drains. In an unpressurized system, it can
o
withstand heat up to 180 F
a) Acrylonitrilebutadiene Styrene (ABS) pipe b) Polyetheleene (PE) pipe
c) Polyvinyl Chroride (PVC) pipe d) Chlorinated Polyvinyl Chloride (CPVC)
44. This pipe is used in cold-water systems susch as water sourc heat pumps. It is flexible and, like ABS, has good impact strength at low temperatures. It
is joined with clamps.
45. It is a rigid pipe with high impact strength. It can be used in high-pressure systems at low temperatures. This pipe is usually joined with cement. It can
also be threaded and joined to steel pipe with a transition fitting.
o
46. The applications and joining methods for this pip are very similar to those for PVC. However, this pipe can be used for hot water (up to 180 F) in a
pressurized system (up to 100 psi).
47. Which of the following is the principal purpose of pipe hangers and brackets?
a) To provide horizontal and vertical support of the pipes
b) To keep the piping in alignment and to prevent it from bending and distorting
c) To be used as vibration isolators
d) Any of the above
48. The movement of a liquid along the surface of a solid in a kind of spreading action.
a) Capillary Action b) Turbulent action c) Laminar action d) Critical action
49. A device used to clamp pipe and other round metal objects. It has one stationary metal jaw and a chain that fits over the pipe and is clamped to secure
the pipe
a) Duct clamp b) Chain vise c) C-clamp d) Bench vise
50. These controls are used to start or stop the refrigeration cycle either directly or indirectly as a result of sensing temperature, humidity, or pressure, or by
measuring time.
a) Secondary controls b) Main controls c) Primary controls d) Automatic controls
51. How do you call this control that is used to sense and responds to the temperature in a conditioned space? It switches the system on or off at a preset
temperature called the setpoint by opening a set of contacts in the system control circuit>
a) Pressurestat b) Thermostat c) Humisdistat d) Time clock
52. The _______________ is used in th systems with water-cooled condensers. It regulates the head pressure at a constant level or at a preset minimum
level. It is usually a self-contained pressure-actuated bellows valve.
a) Check valve b) Evaporator Pressure regulator c) Pressure relief valve d) Condenser water valve
53. The ________________ maintains a constant pressure and, therefore, a constant saturation temperature in the evaporator. It is typically a self-
contained, pressure-actuated bellows valve. Its operating pressure is adjusted using a spring-tension screw.
a) Check valve b) Evaporator Pressure regulator c) Pressure relief valve d) Condenser water valve
54. A(n) _____________ is a pressure-actuated, electrical safety control used to protect the compr4ssor against damage caused by a loss of oil pressure.
a) Flow switch b) Oil safety switch c) Pressure relief device d) Check valve
55. __________ are used to shut down the system when either air or water flow to the evaporator or condenser is inadequate flow.
a) Flow switches b) Oil safety switches c) Pressure relief device d) Check valve
56. An adjustable tool for holding and turning large pipe up to 4” in diameter. A flexible chain replaces the usual wrench jaws.
a) Chain wrench b) Box wrench c) Open wrench d) Adjustable wrench
57. A U-shaped piece of structural steel used as supporting device

a) Channel b) C-Clamp c) Hanger d) Riser clamp
58. A high-volume cooling unit. This acts as an evaporator.

a) Chiller b) Air service unit c) Air handler d) Evaporator
59. A class of refrigerants that contains chlorine, fluorine, and carbon. CFC refrigerants have a very adverse effect on the environment.
a) Chlorofluorocarbon refrigerant b) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon refrigerant
c) Inorganic refrigerant d) Ammonia
60. A current meter in which jaws placed around a conductor sense the magnitude of the current flow through the conductor
3

a) Voltmeter b) Multi-tester c) Clamp-on Ammeter d) Wattmeter
61. A relative term for temperature. It means having less heat energy than another object against which it is being compared
a) Heat b) Hot c) Cold d) Calorie
62. A method of connection in which tightening of a threaded nut compresses a compression ring to seal the joint
a) Combination joint b) Welded joint c) Threaded joint d) No joint
63. In a refrigeration system, the mechanical device that converts low-pressure, low temperature refrigerant gas into high-temperature, high-pressure
refrigerant gas
a) Evaporator b) Pump c) Compressor d) Blower
64. A heat exchanger that transfer heat from the refrigerant flowing inside it to the air or water flowing over it.
a) Evaporator b) Condenser c) Recuperator d) Chiller
65. A furnace that contains a secondary heat exchanger that extracts latent heat by condensing exhaust (flue) gas.
a) Condensing furnace b) Hearth furnace c) Cyclone furnace d) Tower furnace
66. A material that readily conducts electricity; also, the wire that connects components in an electrical circuit
a) Resistor b) Insulator c) Conductor d) Inductor
67. A control device consisting of a coil and one or more sets of contacts used as a switching device in high-voltage circuits
a) Contactor b) Switch c) Relay d) Plug
68. A continuous current path. Absence of this indicates an open circuit

a) Resistivity b) Connectivity c) Continuity d) Conductivity
69. The transfer of heat by the flow of liquid or gas caused by a temperature differential
a) Conduction b) Radiation c) Evaporation d) Convection
70. A pipe fitting containing female threads on both ends. Couplings are used to join two pipes in a straight run or to join a pipe and fixture
a) Coupling b) Union c) Nipple d) Joint
71. A pipe fitting with four female openings at right angles to one another
a) Cross b) Tee c) Bushing d) Shoulder
72. The rate at which electrons flow in a circuit, measured in amperes

a) Voltage b) Current c) Wattage d) Potential difference
73. The temperature at which water vapor in the air becomes saturated and starts to condense into water droplets.
a) Wet bulb temperature b) Dry bulb temperature c) Dew point temperature d) Boiling point
74. A tool insert used to cut external threads by hand or machine

a) Die b) Tap c) Mill tap d) Lathe die
75. A meter that provides a direct numerical reading; of the value measured
a) Analog meter b) Digital meter c) Automatic meter d) Electronic meter
76. The temperature measured using a standard thermometer; It represents a measure of the sensible heat of the air or surface being tested
a) Wet bulb temperature b) Dry bulb temperature c) Dew point temperature d) Boiling point
77. An angled pipe fitting having two openings. It is used to change the direction of a run of pipe.
a) Elbow b) Tee c) Cross d) Bushing
78. An electrical terminal that will conduct a current.

a) Electrode b) Conductor c) Electrical wire d) Any of these
79. A coil of wire wrapped around a soft iron core. When a current flows through the coil, the magnetism is created.
a) Magnetic wire b) Electromagnet c) Magnet d) Natural magnet
80. The total hat content (sensible and latent) of a refrigerant or other substance
a) Calorie b) Internal energy c) Enthalpy d) Latent heat
81. A heat exchanger that transfer heat from the air flowing over it to the cooler refrigerant flowing through it.
a) Evaporator b) Condenser c) Dryer d) Economizer
82. Also known as the liquid metering device or metering device. Provides a pressure drop that converts the high-temperature, high-pressure liquid
refrigerant from the condenser into the low-temperature.
a) Expansion device b) Liquid valve c) Control valve d) Control device
83. The process by which a flame produces sensible electrical current

a) Burning flame b) Flame rectification c) Flame expansion d) Fuel flame
84. A flat plate attached to be a pipe or fitting and used as a means of attaching pipe, fittings, or valves to the piping system
4

a) Coupling b) Flange c) Union d) Shoulder
85. A fitting in which one end of each tube to be joined is flare outward using a special tool. The flared tube ends mate with the threaded flare fitting and are
secured to the fitting with flare nuts.
a) Flare fitting b) Cross c) Socket d) Branch
86. After cutting a piece of pipe, a burr (rough edge) will be left on the inside of the pipe. A _________ is used to remove the burr.
a) Drill bit b) Bit drill c) Cutting tool d) Reamer
87. A valve that prevents the flame from travelling back from the tip and into the hoses.
a) Flame control valve b) Flashback arrestor c) Flame controller d) Hose valve
88. Refrigerant returning to the compressor in the liquid state.

a) Flooding b) Flooded refrigerant c) Flood back d) Back fire
89. Halocarbons in which at least one or more of the hydrogen atoms has been replaced with fluorine
a) Fluorocarbons b) Chlorofluorocarbons c) Hydroclorofluorocarbons d) Halocarbons
90. A chemical substance that prevents oxides from forming on the surface or of metals as they are heated for soldering, brazing, or welding.
a) Flux b) Slug c) Sediments d) Zinc
91. The condition that exists when there are no effective restrictions to airflow (no static pressure) at the inlet of an air moving device
a) Free Air Delivery b) Supply air delivery c) Outdoor air delivery d) Outside air delivery
92. Carbon steel pipe that has been coasted with zinc to prevent rust.
a) Iron pipe b) Cast iron pipe c) Galvanized Pipe d) Steel pipe
93. A piping method for connecting piping systems. The use of this piping eliminates the need for threading, flanging or welding when making connections.
Connections are made with gaskets and couplings installed using a wrench and lubricant
a) Grooved pipe b) Soldered pipe c) Brazed pipe d) Flanged pipe
94. Short for halogenated hydrocarbons, a class of refrigerants that includes most of the refrigerants used in residential and small commercial air
conditioning systems
a) Inorganic refrigerants b) Halocarbon refrigerants c) CFC refrigerants d) Hydrocarbon refrigerants
95. Substances containing chlorine, fluorine, bromine, astatine or iodine
a) Halocarbons b) Halogens c) Fumes d) Hydrogen
96. A form of energy. It causes molecule to be in motion and raises the temperature of a substance. Other forms of energy like electricity, light and
magnetism deteriorate into this form of energy.
a) Internal energy b) Thermal energy c) Heat energy d) Molecular energy
97. The amount of heat energy contained in a substance. Measured in Btus.

a) Heat content b) Energy content c) Calorie content d) Specific heat content
98. A device, usually metal, that is used to transfer heat from a warm surface or substance to a cooler surface or substance.
a) Condenser b) Evaporator c) Heat exchanger d) Boiler
99. The transfer of heat from a warmer substance to a cooler substance

a) Heat flow b) Heat transfer d) Convection d) Conduction
100. Compounds containing only hydrogen and carbon atom in various combinations
a) Halocarbons b) Hydrocarbons c) Methane d) Butane
101. A furnace which a motor-driven fan draws air from the surrounding area or from outdoors to support combustion.
a) Induced-draft Furnace b) Forced draft furnace c) Positive pressure furnace d) Negative pressure furnace
102. To generate a current in a conductor by placing it in a magnetic field and moving the conductor or magnetic field.
a) Conduction b) Induction c) Vibration d) Insulation
103. Air that enters a building through doors, windows, and cracks in the construction
a) Infiltration b) Fenestration c) Convection d) Conduction
104. A current-reading meter that is connected in series with the circuit under test
a) In-line ammeter b) In-line voltmeter c) In-line wattmeter d) Voltmeter
105. The distance between the inner walls of a pipe. Used as the standard measure for tubing used in heating and plumbing applications
a) Inside diameter b) Outside diameter c) Mean diameter d) Nominal diameter

SET B
106. This valve positions the valve spool to admit the refrigerant as required by evaporator load.
a) Thermostatic Expansion Valve b) Electric Expansion Valve c) Capillary tube d) Short Tube Restrictor
5

107. This is not a valve, but effectively replaces the expansion valve in many applications. It is a long thin tube placed between the condenser and the
evaporator. The small diameter and long length of the tube produce a large pressure drop.
108. This is widely used in place of capillary tube in residential systems. It has high reliability, low cost, and easily inspected and replaced.
109. It is used to maintain a relatively constant minimum pressure in the evaporator.

a) Evaporator Pressure Regulator b) Suction Pressure Regulator c) Short Tube Restrictor d) Short tube restrictor
110. The main application of evaporator pressure regulator:

a) To set a minimum evaporator temperature to permit the use of different evaporators at different pressures on the same compressor.
b) Used for limiting the maximum pressure at compressor suction
c) It reduces the compressor load during the start-up period
d) All of these
111. The main advantage of the capillary tube:

a) It has high reliability, low cost, and easily inspected and replaced b) Its simplicity and low cost; and it is not subject to wear
c) It is a load-limiting device d) All of these
112. A (n) ______________ wrench should b used on a valve stem.

a) Allen wrench b) Miniature pipe c) Service valve d) Torx key
113. When should you push and pull on a wrench?
a) Push to loosen, pull to tighten b) Pull to loosen, push to tighten c) Always push d) Always pull
114. What tool should not be used on a slotted hexagon head bolt?
a) Straight screw driver b) Nut pliers c) Hex key wrench d) Twelve-point wrench
115. Which of the following would not describe a box wrench?
a) Straight b) Offset c) Double offset d) Open ended
116. It is a branch of science that deals with the process of reducing and maintaining the temperature of a space or material below the temperature of the
surroundings.
a) Air conditioning b) Refrigeration c) Heat pumping d) All of these
117. The high-pressure vapor heat exchanger in the refrigeration system.
a) Evaporator b) Condenser c) Boiler d) Heater
118. A refrigeration method of lowering and maintaining the temperature of a material or space by the use of a literal ice (water or other substance, say, dry
ice)
a) Ice Refrigeration b) Mechanical Refrigeration c) Vacuum Refrigeration d) Air cycle Refrigeration
119. A method of refrigeration using air as refrigerant, and basically used for the air conditioning of aircraft.
120. It is a compressor that has a single or multi-stage high-speed impeller to set up enough centrifugal force within a circular casing to raise the pressure of
the refrigerant gas to condensing level.
a) Reciprocating compressor b) Rotary compressor c) Centrifugal compressor d) Sliding vane compressor
121. It is a positive displacement compressor that traps a given volume of gas, compresses it, and ejects from the machine. It usually has a rotor revolving
off-center in a cylinder with sliding vanes forced against the cylinder wall. Refrigerant gas is compressed by the sliding vanes around the cylinder from
suction port to the discharge port.
a) Reciprocating compressor b) Rotary compressor c) Centrifugal compressor d) Rotary sliding vane compressor
122. This compressor is another positive displacement compressor, and was first used for refrigeration in the late 1950s. The compressor basically consists
of two mating helically grooved rotors, a male (lobes) and female (grooves), in a stationary housing with suction and discharge ports.
a) Reciprocating compressor b) Rotary screw compressor c) Centrifugal compressor d) Rotary sliding vane compressor
123. It is a compressor with crankshaft extended through the compressor housing in which the motor is externally coupled to the shaft. Ammonia
compressors are manufactured only in this type.
a) Open-type Compressor b) Hermetic Compressor
c) Semi-hermetic compressor d) Welded-shell (sealed) Hermetic Compressor
124. In air conditioning, it indicates either a volume or a site without a partition or a partitioned room or group of rooms. How do you call this?
a) Zone b) Room c) Space d) Plenum
125. It is an enclosed or partitioned space that is usually treated as a single load. If conditioned, it often has an individual control system. What is this?

126. Which of the following parameters has the greatest limiting effect on the thermal performance of an open, evaporative cooling tower?
a) Wet‐Bulb temperature b) Dry‐Bulb temperature c) Range c) Approach
127. A method of refrigeration system using water as refrigerant; lowering and maintaining of system temperature is attained by creation of vacuum condition
through the action of steam jet. It is basically used in the air condition system of a steam power plant.
128. These cooling towers have the fans are located at the top and draw the air upward through the tower. How do you call this cooling tower?
a) Natural Draft Cooling Tower b) Mechanical Draft Cooling Tower
c) Forced Draft-fan Cooling Tower d) Induced Draft-fan Cooling Tower
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129. It is the term referring to any glazed aperture in a building envelope; the components of which include the following: glazing material, either glass or
plastic; framing, mullions, muntins, and dividers; external shading devices; and integral-shading systems (between glass). What is this?
a) Infiltration b) Radiation c) Fenestration d) Transmission
130. The most common instrument used to determine the mean radiant temperature; it consists of a hollow sphere 6 inches in diameter, flat black paint
coating, and a thermocouple or thermometer bulb at its center.
a) Psychrometer b) Thermocouple c) Kelvin thermometer d) Vernon’s globe thermometer
131. This is a refrigeration system having two or more refrigerant circuits, each with a condenser, evaporator, and a pressure-imposing element, where the
evaporator of one circuit cools the condenser of the other circuit. How do you call this refrigeration system?
a) Absorption Refrigeration b) Split-type Refrigeration c) Vacuum Refrigeration d) Cascade Refrigeration
132. What kind of a heat exchanger where water is heated to a point that dissolved gases is liberated?
a) Evaporator b) Condenser c) Intercooler d) Deaerator
133. This is a circular, square, or rectangular air distribution outlet, generally located in the ceiling and comprised of deflecting members discharging supply
air in various directions and planes, and arranged to promote mixing of primary air with secondary room air. What is this component?
a) Air nozzle b) Air diffuser c) Air conduit d) Air duct
134. It is a space, or several rooms, or units of space having some sort of coincident loads or similar operating characteristics. It may or may not be an
enclosed space, or it may consist of many partitioned rooms. How do you call this?
135. The capacity of an evaporative condenser will:

a) increase as the entering air wet-bulb temperature decreases b) increase as the entering air wet-bulb temperature increases
c) not change with changes in the line/entering air wet-bulb temperature d) decrease as the entering air wet-bulb temperature decreases
136. Gas condenses in the anal or inner tube of a(n):
a) atmospheric condenser b) double-pipe condenser c) shell-and-tube condenser d) evaporative condenser
137. Natural-draft condensers are most frequently in:

a) residential cooling b) room air conditioners c) household refrigerators d) large industrial plants
138. The capacity of an evaporative condenser is greatest on a:
a) warm day b) low-humidity day c) cool day d) rainy day
139. The capacity of an evaporative condenser depends on:

a) fan horsepower b) entering-air wet-bulb temperature
c) the temperature of the entering air d) the amount of heat leaving air is capable of absorbing
140. The following does not increase the capacity of a water-cooled condenser:
a) increasing the water flow b) reducing the water temperature
c) decreasing the ambient temperature d) none of the above
141. Open shell-and-tube condensers are mainly used with:

a) a cooling tower of spray pond b) a dirty water c) chemically treated water d) hard water
142. If a shell-and-tube condenser were removed and an evaporative condenser were installed, city water consumption would:
a) decrease 40 to 50% b) increase 40 to 50% c) increase 85 to 90% d) decrease 85 to 90%
143. A cooling tower:

a) is always used if water is scarce b) is an accessory to a condenser
c) helps the operator maintain pressures d) must be in a location where the prevailing wind blows
144. Of the many ways to control condensing pressure, one method not an evaporative condenser is:
a) cycling spray pump motor b) coil flooding c) air-bypass duct and damper d) air-throttling damped inlet
145. If a system operated with suction stop valve closed and the discharge stop valve open, what would happen?
a) the head would blow off b) high head pressure would occur
c) non-condensible gases would enter d) all of the above
146. At a given temperature, the relation of the actual pressure of a vapor in the atmosphere to the saturation pressure is called:
a) relative humidity b) partial pressure c) humidifying effect d) refrigeration effect
147. The capacity of a water-cooled condenser is least affected by:

a) the amount of water circulated b) the temperature of the water
c) the amount of gas circulated d) the ambient temperature
148. What effect would a refrigeration overcharge have on the system?
a) head pressure would increase b) head pressure would be decrease
c) suction pressure would decrease d) discharge pressure would decrease
149. The leaving water temperature of an induced-draft cooling tower that is operating efficiently is:
o
a) 10 F higher than entering water temperature b) some temperature between dry and wet-bulb temperature
c) at the dew-point temperature d) at the dry-bulb temperature
o
150. The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 212 F. if the pressure on the open container is decreased, such as going up to the top of
a mountain, the boiling point will be:
a) increased b) decreased c) the same d) none of the above
151. Another name for the liquid valve is the:

a) master valve b) king valve c)Freon valve d) shutoff valve
152. If the temperature in the icebox is too high, the trouble could be:
a) a clogged scale trap b) air in the system
c) automatic controls not functioning properly c) insufficient cooling water to the condenser
7

153. Oil is added to Freon compressor by:
a) pouring through oil hole in base b) pumping in with a hand pump
c) pumping in with an electric-driven pump d) shutting down the machine and pouring in through the crankcase inspection plate opening
154. If no gaskets are used in the piping joints of a Freon system, the joints must be:
a) finished joints b) welded joints c) ground joints d) soldered joints
155. When adding oil to a Freon system one must be sure that:
a) all air is removed from the pump and fitting b) there is too high a suction pressure
c) the discharge pressure is too high d) the condenser is shut down
156. If the head pressure is too high:

a) the relief valve should open before the high-pressured cutout b) the relief valve should open and let excess refrigerant to receiver
c) the high-pressure cutout switch should operate before relief valve opens d) close in on thee suction valve
157. If the compressor-discharge temperature is higher than the receiver temperature:
a) increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser b) decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser
c) add more refrigerant to the system d) remover some of the refrigeration from the system
158. The dehydrator is used:

a) to remove moisture from the system b) to remove moisture from the system
c) when adding refrigerant to the system d) A and C
159. If the discharge side of the thermal expansion valve is warmer than the inlet side, the:
a) expansion valve is working normally b) expansion valve is not working normally
c) solenoid is not working normally d) scale trap is dirty
160. The oil level in the compressor should be checked:

a) while the compressor is in operation b) just before starting the compressor
c) after a long period of operation d) B and C
161. The relief valve is located on the:
a) discharge side of condenser b) discharge side of compressor
c) outlet of the evaporator coils d) receiver tank
162. The expansion valve on a Freon system controls the:

a) superheat of the gas leaving the compressor b) back pressure in the evaporator
c) temperature of the icebox d) superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator
163. The scale trap is located between the:
a) king valve and the expansion valve b) solenoid and expansion valve
c) evaporator valve and receiver d) compressor and evaporator
164. If the high-pressure switch on the compressor opens and stops the compressor, a possible cause should be:
a) too much cooling water going through the condenser b) not enough refrigerant in the system
c) a leak in the evaporating cells d) not enough cooling water going through the condenser
165. The capacity of a refrigerant unit can be regulated by:
a) changing the speed of the compressor b) changing the amount of cooling water to the condenser
c) changing the amount of refrigerant in the system d) any of the above
166. Which of the following would not cause high suction pressure?
a) insufficient refrigeration b) leaky suction valves
c) expansion valve stuck open d) suction valve not adjusted properly
167. In a high-side float, frost on the suction line indicated:
a) recharging the refrigerant is necessary b) an excessive amount of refrigerant is in the system
c) non-condensibles are in the system d) there is a leak in the system
168. On a refrigeration system with a high-side float metering device, what happens if the float fills with liquid refrigerant ad sinks?
a) the evaporator starves b) the evaporator flood c) the compressor stalls d) the condenser starves
169. In a flooded evaporator using an accumulator and float valve, flash gas:
a) passes directly into the evaporator b) passes directly into the suction line
c) does not occur d) stays in the receiver
170. A flooded system with a low-side float uses a thermostat, which controls the liquid line solenoid valve. The thermometer is satisfied and the room
continues to cool down due to:
a) a drop in head pressure b) the pumping out of low side c) all of the above d) none of the above
171. One advantage of a low-side float system is that it:

a) requires a large amount of refrigerant b) can be used with a water cooled condenser
c) eliminates flash gas in the evaporator d) can be used with a low starting torque motor
172. One disadvantage of a low-side float valve is that it:
a) is nonadjustable b) requires a large amount of refrigerant
c) is very expensive d) cannot be used on multiple system
173. In a flooded system, a low-side float is used as a metering devices. If the float fills with liquid refrigerant and sinks, this:
a) starves the evaporator b) floods the evaporator
c) stalls the compressor d) raises the evaporator temperature
174. Flash gas forms in the:
a) compressor b) condenser c) evaporator d) heat exchanger
8

175. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of:
a) 288,000 BTU pr 24 hrs b) 28,000 BTU per 24 hrs c) 28,800 BTU per 24 hrs d) 280,000 BTU per 24 hrs
176. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is to:
a) maintain liquid refrigeration at the suction of the compressor b) maintain a present suction pressure to the compressor
c) cut out the compressor at a set pressure d) cut compressor in and out a present pressure
177. The most likely cause of high superheat would be:
a) too much refrigerant b) expansion valve open too wide
c) expansion valve closed too much d) back pressure valve set too high
178. The purpose of the evaporator is to:

a) absorb latent heat of vaporization b) absorb latent heat of fusion
c) transfer latent heart of vaporization d) transfer latent heat of fusion
179. Air is removed from the system by:
a) increasing the amount of cooling water b) opening the purge value
c) running the refrigeration through an aerator d) running the refrigerant through a daerator
180. The suction pressure switch is operated by:

a) electric current b) thermocouple c) pressure on bellows d) a relay cutout
181. A hot suction line might be caused by:
a) insufficient refrigerant b) insufficient lubrication
c) expansion valve closed too much d) too much refrigeration
182. The device used for low-pressure control and high-pressure cutout on a compressor is called a:
a) cutout b) pressure controller c) controller switch d) cutout switch
183. Thermal expansion valves are usually of the:

a) bellow type b) magnetic type c) diaphragm type d) A or C
184. Liquid reaching the compressor through the suction line is called:
a) flooding back b) superheating c) overflowing d) recycling
185. Pressure controllers are usually of the:
a) diaphragm-type construction b) bellows-type construction
c) magnetic-type construction d) pilot-valve type construction
186. If the cooling water to the condenser should suddenly fail:

a) the solenoid valve will close b) the expansion valve will close
c) the compressor will shut down d) an alarm will ring to notify the engineer
187. If the solenoid valve closed by accident, the compressor would be stopped by:
a) low-pressure cutout switch b) high-pressure cutout switch
c) low-water cutout switch d) automatic trip
188. The solenoid valve controls the:
a) amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator coils b) amount of refrigerant going to the expansion valve
c) amount of refrigerant going to the compressor d) pressure of the refrigerants goint to the evaporator coils
189. As Freon passes through the expansion valve:
a) the volume decreases and the pressure increases b) the volume increases and the pressure increases
c) the pressure decreases and the volume increases d) the volume decreases and the pressure decreases
190. In a refrigerant system the temperature is at its highest between the:
a) condenser and receiver b) compressor and condenser
c) receiver and evaporator d) evaporator and compressor
191. A Freon unit will tend to short cycle when operating under:
a) heavy loads b) normal conditions c) light loads d) all of the above
192. Short-cycling means that the machine:
a) grounds out frequently b) stops and starts frequently c) runs too fast d) runs too slow
193. Freon is:

a) non-corrosive b) flammable c) nontoxic d) A and C
194. A refrigerant should have a:

a) high latent heat b) high sensible heat c) low latent heat d) low sensible heat
195. A method of reducing capacity without reducing compressor speed is called:
a) low-pressure by passing b) high-pressure by passing
c) hot-gas by passing d) short-cycling
196. The thermal expansion valve responds to the:

a) the amount of superheat in the vapor leaving the coil b) amount of superheat in the liquid
c) temperature in the evaporator coils d) pressure in the evaporator coils
197. The bulbs for the thermal expansion valve is located:
a) in the middle of evaporator coils b) near the evaporator coil outlet
c) near the evaporator coil inlet d) on the bottom row of evaporator coils
198. A thermostat is a:
a) temperature-operated switch b) pressure-oriented switch
9

c) super-heat operated switch d) back-pressure-operated switch
199. The elements of thermostat switch are usually of the:
a) diaphragm type b) bimetal type c) valve type d) pilot-valve type
200. When heavy electrical currents are involved, the thermostat will be operated by a:
a) small circuit breaker b) pressure pipe c) fusetron d) relay
201. If the compressor runs continually, the cause might be the:
a) high-pressure cutout switch is jammed open b) low-pressure switch is jammed about
c) thermal bulb is not operating properly d) scale trap is clogged
202. The solenoid valve can be types as a:

a) thermal valve b) magnetic stop valve c) bellow valve d) bimetallic valve
203. If the compressor had been running satisfactory, for a long period of time but the coil level was rising slowly, the thing to do would be to:
a) drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to the proper running level
b) shut down the compressor and check the oil level with the machine stopped
c) check the dehydrator cartridge
d) check to see if there is too much refrigerant in the system
204. If the compressor had been running satisfactory for a long period of time but suddenly the compartment temperature started to rise, the trouble might
be:
a) solenoid valve is jammed shut b) the expansion valve may have water frozen in it
c) a refrigerant leak has developed d) any of the above
205. When charging a Freon system, all the valves should be in their normal position except the:
a) expansion valve b) purge valve c) king valve(liquid) d) solenoid valve
206. Abnormal discharge temperatures would be caused by:

a) leaky suction valves b) leaky discharge valves c) fault piston ring d) any of the above
207. A device for holding open the suction valve and drawing gas from the suction manifold and returning it top the suction line without compressing it is
called:
a) discharge line bypass b) cylinder unloader c) suction line bypass d) relief valve
208. As heat is removed open the suction valve and drawing gas from the suction manifold and returning it to the suction manifold and returning it to the
suction line without compressing it is called:
a) perfect zero b) double zero c) absolute zero d) cold zero
209. The oil separator(trap) is located between the:

a) compressor discharge valve and the condenser b) condenser and the receiver
c) receiver and the king valve d) receiver and the expansion valve
210. The purpose of the oil trap is:

a) to remover oil from the charging tank b) to add oil to the compressor
c) to remover oil from the refrigerant gas d) none of the above
211. The boiling point of ammonia at atmospheric pressure is:

o o o o
a) -28 C b) +28 C c) +28 C d) -28 F
212. The boiling point of CO2 at atmospheric pressure is:
o o o o
a) +10 F b) -110 C c) +110 C d) -110 F
213. The boiling point of Freon at atmospheric pressure is:

o o o o
a) - 22 F b) +22 F c) +22 C d) -22 C
214. The dehydrator is located between the:

a) receiver and the king valve b) receiver and the expansion valve
c) condenser and the king valve d) condenser and the receiver
215. The purpose of the dehydrator is to:

a) remove oil from the refrigerant b) add more refrigerant to the system
c) remove moisture from the refrigerant d) remove moisture from the crankcase oil

set c
216. It is a form of thermal convection when the motion of the fluid is due entirely to buoyancy forces, usually confined to a layer near the heated or cooled
surface. How do you call this thermal convection mode of heat transfer?
a) Free Convection b) Force Convection c) Transient Convection d) Normal Convection
218. What are the refrigerants that are chlorofluorocarbons but cause little ozone destruction?
10

a) CFC Refrigerants b) HCFC Refrigerants c) HFC Refrigerants d) Inorganic Refrigerants
219. What is the refrigerant commonly used in ice-plant refrigeration?

a) R –12 b) R – 22 c) Ammonia d) R – 40
220. What do you call a refrigeration system in which the refrigerant gas evolved in the evaporator is taken up in an absorber and released in a generator
upon the application of heat?
a) Absorption refrigeration system b) Cascade refrigeration system
c) Flooded refrigeration system d) Steam jet refrigeration system
221. Which of the following is true for white ice?

a) A fast-cooled water b) A sub-cooled water
c) Due to dissolved air, gases and impurities d) Formed by blowing air during freezing
222. In the detection of refrigerant leak, sulphur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will release of which of the following colors of smoke?
a) Dense White b) Dense Yellow c) Dense Orange d) Dense Red
223. It is the ozone-destroying power of a substance measured relative to refrigerant 11 (R-11 or CFC-11).
a) Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP) b) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)
c) Hydrofluorocarbon (HFC) d) Global Warming Potential (GWP)
224. How do you classify a solenoid valve?
a) A thermal valve b) A magnetic stop valve c) A bellows valve d) A bi‐metallic valve
225. What is a thermostat?

a) A temperature-operated switch b) A pressure-operated switch
c) A superheat-operated switch d) A back pressure-operated switch
226. Which of the following ranges of humidity ratio is used for comfort air conditioning?
a) 50 to 55 % b) 55 to 60 % c) 60 to 65 % d) 45 to 50 %
227. What is a body insulation that is usually described as a single equivalent uniform layer over the whole body?
a) Skin b) Blood c) Clothing d) Water
228. The amount of heat required or needed to raise the temperature of one pound of the substance one degree Fahrenheit.
a) Specific heat b) Internal energy c) Latent heat d) All the above
229. The amount of heat added to or removed from a substance that can be measured by a change in temperature of the substance.
a) Specific heat b) Sensible heat c) Latent heat d) Internal energy
230. The amount of heat added to or removed from a substance to cause a change of state without a change in temperature.
231. a) Specific heat b) Sensible heat c) Latent heat d) Internal energy
232. The amount of heat needed to change a substance from solid to the liquid state.
a) Specific heat b) Latent heat of fusion c) Latent heat of vaporization d) Heat of conduction
233. The amount of heat required to change a substance from the liquid to the vapor state.
234. The value of latent heat of vaporization for one lb water at standard atmospheric pressure.
a) 970 Btu b) 2257 Btu c) 144 Btu d) 335 Btu
235. The amount of latent heat of fusion for one lb water at standard atmospheric pressure.
a) 970 Btu b) 2257 Btu c) 144 Btu/ d) 335 Btu/lb
236. The unit of heat in the English system of units.

a) Btu b) ft-lb c) Hp d) ft-lb/mn
237. What is the unit of work in the English system?

a) Btu b) Ft-lb c) Ft-lb/min d) Btu/min.
238. As a general rule, the cooling water side of the condenser should be scheduled for inspection every which of the following number of months?
a) Month b) 3 Months c) 6 Months d) Year
239. When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration system, it shall be charge into which of the following parts of the system?
a) High pressure side b) Low pressure side c) Low and high pressure side d) Compressor discharge line
240. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant?

a) Low thermal conductivity b) Low freezing point c) Low condensing pressure d) Low viscosity
241. It is the process of treating air so as to control simultaneously its temperature, humidity, cleanliness and distribution to meet the comfort requirements of the
occupants of the conditioned room or space. What is this?
11

a) Comfort Air Conditioning b) Summer Air Conditioning c) Industrial Air Conditioning d) Commercial Air Conditioning

a) R –12 b) R – 22 c) Ammonia d) R – 40



a) 50 to 55 % b) 55 to 60 % c) 60 to 65 % d) 45 to 50 %
b) 970 Btu b) 2257 Btu c) 144 Btu/ d) 335 Btu/lb

12

266. An instrument used to measure the DB-temperature and the wet-Bulb temperature of moist air.
a) Phsycrometer b) Thermometer c) Hydrometer d) Hygrometer
267. How do you call the pressure, in psi, above a complete vacuum?
a) Gage pressure b) Absolute pressure c) Vacuum pressure d) Atmospheric pressure
268. A temperature in which moisture content of moist air starts to condense.

a) Wet-bulb temperature b) Dry-bulb temperature c) Dew point temperature d) Saturation temperature
269. For each gas there exists a temperature above which it cannot be liquefied, regardless of pressure. This temperature is called as ____________.
a) Wet-bulb temperature b) Dry-bulb temperature c) Critical temperature d) Saturation temperature
270. Thee co called ______________ at substances used in laboratory methods of producing a drop in temperature.
a) Brine mixture b) Water-ammonia mixture c) Frigorific mixture d) Ice and salt mixture
o
271. Adding 10 percent salt (NaCl), by weight, to water lowers its freezing point from 32 F to ___________.
o o o o
a) 18.7 F b) 0 F c) 15.7 F d) 32 F
272. It is the basis of all refrigeration calculations, whether for old storage, air conditioning, ice cram manufacturing.
a) Refrigerating effect b) Ton of refrigeration c) Coefficient of performance d) Compressor Hp
273. Which of the following is the component of vapor-compression refrigeration not belonging to high pressure side?
a) Condenser b) Compressor c) Expansion valve d) Liquid line
274. Another term for suction pressure.

a) Discharge pressure b) Heat pressure c) Back pressure d) Condenser pressure
275. The amount of heat absorbed in the evaporator, which is the same as the amount of heat removed from the space to be cooled.
a) Tons of refrigeration b) Refrigerating effect c) Coefficient of performance d) Compressor Hp
276. Too much oil in th compressor would ____________.

a) Absorb too much refrigerant from the system b) Damage the expansion valve
c) Cause leakage through the shaft seals d) Deposit oil on the condenser tube
277. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point or temperature?
a) NH3 b) CO2 c) F-22 d) F-21
278. Which of the following would cause a high suction pressure?

a) Expansion valve not open wide enough b) Expansion valve open too wide
c) King valve not open wide enough c) Dirty dehydrator
279. Which of the following would cause high head pressure or condenser pressure?
a) Dirty condenser b) Insufficient cooling water
c) Pressure of air in the cooling water d) All of these
280. Which of the following would cause low head pressure?

a) Insufficient cooling water b) Too much cooling water
c) Insufficient refrigerant gas d) Too much cooling water and or insufficient refrigerant gas
281. The dehydrator is located __________________.

a) Between the receiver and king valve b) Between the receiver and expansion valve
c) Between the condenser and king valve d) Between the condenser and accumulator
282. Which of the following is the purpose or function of the dehydrator?

a) To remove oil from the refrigerant b) To add more refrigerant to the system
c) To remove moisture from the refrigerant d) To remove moisture from the crank case oil
283. Which of the following would you apply if you got Freon in your yes?
a) Soapy water b) Sterile mineral oil c) Clean water d) Sodium bicarbonate
284. What is the heart of th refrigeration system?

a) Condenser b) Evaporator c) Compressor d) Expansion valve

13

o
o o o o
a) 18.7 F b) 0 F c) 15.7 F d) 32 F


a) NH3 b) CO2 c) F-22 d) F-21


300. Water in the refrigerant is liable to _______________.

a) Clog the oil trap b) Freeze in the king valve
c) Emulsify the oil in the compressor d) To freeze on the expansion seat and cut the flow of liquid refrigerant




306. The purpose of the scale trap is _______________.

a) To control the amount of scale going to the compressor b) To remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant
c) To remove dirt, scale and metal chips from the refrigerant d) To dissolve scale and dirt in the system
307. What is the function of expansion valve?

a) To regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the expansion coils b) To change the high-pressure liquid to low-pressure liquid
c) To change the gas refrigerant to liquid d) To shut off the flow of refrigerant to the condenser
308. The oil separator or oil trap is located between _____________.

a) Receiver and the king valve b) Condenser and the receiver
c) Compressor discharge valve and the condenser d) Receiver and the king valve
14

309. The purpose of the oil trap or oil separator is _________________
a) To remove oil from the refrigerant gas b) To remove oil from the charging tank
c) To add oil to the compressor d) To remove oil from the evaporator
310. Which of the following is the boiling point of ammonia at standard atmospheric pressure?
o o o o
a) – 28 C b) – 28 F c) 0 F d) 32 F





318. A double-pipe condenser has:

a) two piping system side by side, one with cooling water and one with refrigerant
b) a small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling water passing through the small pipe and the refrigerant through the large pipe
c) two pips for cooling water and one for the refrigerant
d) none of the above
319. Air can be prevented from getting into the system by:
a) keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the high-pressure side tight b) keeping the dehydrator clean at all times
c) keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the low-pressure side tight d) running the refrigerant through the aerator
o o o o
a) – 28 C b) – 28 F c) 0 F d) 32 F

SET D
321. A (n) ______________ wrench should b used on a valve stem.

a) Allen wrench b) Miniature pipe c) Service valve d) Torx key

324. Which of the following would not describe a box wrench?

a) Straight b) Offset c) Double offset d) Open ended
325. It is a branch of science that deals with the process of reducing and maintaining the temperature of a space or material below the temperature of the
surroundings.
a) Air conditioning b) Refrigeration c) Heat pumping d) All of these
326. The high-pressure vapor heat exchanger in the refrigeration system.

a) Evaporator b) Condenser c) Boiler d) Heater
327. A refrigeration method of lowering and maintaining the temperature of a material or space by the use of a literal ice (water or other substance, say, dry
ice)
15

328. A method of refrigeration using air as refrigerant, and basically used for the air conditioning of aircraft.
329. A method of refrigeration system using water as refrigerant; lowering and maintaining of system temperature is attained by creation of vacuum condition
through the action of steam jet. It is basically used in the air condition system of a steam power plant.
330. A method of refrigeration using mechanical components composing a system known as vapor-compression refrigeration system
331. Standard vapor-compression refrigeration system has ______ evaporator temperature and ______ condenser temperature.
o o o o o o o o
a) 5 F, 86 F b) 0 F, 80 F c) 5 F, 80 F d) 32 F, 86 F
332. A component used to compress refrigerant vapor that causes the refrigerant to flow in the system.
a) Evaporator b) Compressor c) Condenser d) Expansion valve
333. A component that reduces the pressure of the refrigerant in order to attain low temperature condition in the evaporator.
334. It is a component that condenses refrigerant vapor while rejecting heat to a cooling medium (either air or water).
335. What is a component used to evaporate liquid refrigerant while absorbing heat from the surrounding?
336. These compressors increase the pressure of the refrigerant vapor by reducing the volume. Reciprocating compressors are an example of these.
a) Dynamic compressors b) Centrifugal compressors c) Positive displacement compressors d) Rotary compressors
337. These compressors increase the pressure of refrigerant vapor by a continuous transfer of angular momentum to the vapor from the rotating member
followed by a conversion of this momentum into a pressure rise. Centrifugal compressors are of this type.
a) Dynamic compressors b) Centrifugal compressors c) Positive displacement compressors d) Rotary compressors
338. It is a compressor that consists of one or more piston and cylinder combinations. The piston moves in reciprocating motion to draw the suction gas into
cylinder on one stroke and to compress and discharge it to the condenser on the return stroke.
339. It is a compressor that has a single or multi-stage high-speed impeller to set up enough centrifugal force within a circular casing to raise the pressure of
the refrigerant gas to condensing level.
340. It is a positive displacement compressor that traps a given volume of gas, compresses it, and ejects from the machine. It usually has a rotor revolving
off-center in a cylinder with sliding vanes forced against the cylinder wall. Refrigerant gas is compressed by the sliding vanes around the cylinder from
suction port to the discharge port.
a) Reciprocating compressor b) Rotary compressor c) Centrifugal compressor d) Rotary sliding vane compressor
341. This compressor is another positive displacement compressor, and was first used for refrigeration in the late 1950s. The compressor basically consists
of two mating helically grooved rotors, a male (lobes) and female (grooves), in a stationary housing with suction and discharge ports.
a) Reciprocating compressor b) Rotary screw compressor c) Centrifugal compressor d) Rotary sliding vane compressor
342. It is a compressor with crankshaft extended through the compressor housing in which the motor is externally coupled to the shaft. Ammonia
compressors are manufactured only in this type.
a) Open-type Compressor b) Hermetic Compressor
c) Semi-hermetic compressor d) Welded-shell (sealed) Hermetic Compressor
343. This compressor is a single- or two-cylinder reciprocating compressor usually directly connected to a steam engine or slow-speed synchronous motor.
The compressor is a very ragged type one.
a) Horizontal Double-Acting Compressor b) Vertical Single-Acting Compressor
c) V or VW Compressors d) Angle Compressor
344. This compressor is a reciprocating machine, most commonly built in two-, three-, or four-cylinder combinations with medium rotative speeds, from 600
rpm in the smaller sizes to 300 rpm in the larger sizes.
345. These compressors are types of single-acting reciprocating compressors with cylinders and pistons arranged in V, W, or VV patterns; and may have as
many as 16 cylinders for single compressors. These are high-speed compressors, often direct-connected to the shaft of the driving motor. Common
speed of the compressor is 1750 rpm.
346. This compressor is using one or more cylinder, usually driven by an internal combustion engine whose pistons and connecting rods are connected to
the same crankshaft. One set of cylinders operates in a horizontal plane and the other in a vertical plane.
16

347. It is a rotary-motion, positive-displacement compressor that uses two inter-fitting, spiral-shaped scroll members to compress the refrigerant vapor.
a) Scroll compressor b) Trochoidal Compressor c) Single-Screw Compressors d) Angle compressor
348. This machine is small, rotary, orbital, positive-displacement device that can run at speeds up to 9000 rpm. These compressors are manufactured in a
variety of configurations, including the Wankel design.
a) Scroll compressor b) Trochoidal Compressor c) Single-Screw Compressors d) Angle compressor
349. These compressors are characterized by a continuous exchange of angular momentum between a rotating mechanical element and a steadily flowing
fluid.
a) Centrifugal compressors b) Rotary compressors c) Reciprocating compressors d) Hermetic compressors
350. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a) Expansion Valve b) Evaporator c) Suction line d) Compressor
351. This valve positions the valve spool to admit the refrigerant as required by evaporator load.
352. This is not a valve, but effectively replaces the expansion valve in many applications. It is a long thin tube placed between the condenser and the
evaporator. The small diameter and long length of the tube produce a large pressure drop.
353. This is widely used in place of capillary tube in residential systems. It has high reliability, low cost, and easily inspected and replaced.
354. It is used to maintain a relatively constant minimum pressure in the evaporator.

a) Evaporator Pressure Regulator b) Suction Pressure Regulator c) Short Tube Restrictor d) Short tube restrictor
355. The main application of evaporator pressure regulator:

a) To set a minimum evaporator temperature to permit the use of different evaporators at different pressures on the same compressor.
b) Used for limiting the maximum pressure at compressor suction
c) It reduces the compressor load during the start-up period
d) All of these
356. The main advantage of the capillary tube:

357. The main advantage of short Tube Restrictor:

358. This is the component in the refrigeration circuit where heat is removed from the substance being cooled, air or water in the case of air conditioning.
a) Compressor b) Condenser c) Evaporator d) Expansion valve
359. This evaporator is used mostly for water chilling. It has liquid covering the whole of its heat transfer surfaces. This evaporator is cheaper and is in
common use for larger duties and for centrifugal machines.
a) Flooded shell-and-tube evaporator b) Dry shell-and-tube evaporator
c) Submerged evaporator d) Baudelot Cooler
360. This evaporator is used for both water chilling and for air conditioning. In this type, water flows in the shell outside the tubes, turbulence and consequent
good heat transfer being assisted by baffles, the refrigerant evaporating within the tubes. It is preferred, because of its lower cost, for duties below 140
kW
361. In this evaporator, the water circuit is open and the water storage vessel constitutes its own feed and expansion tank. Heat transfer from this coil is
promoted by employing water agitator.
o
362. This evaporator type is used for water chilling up to the temperature of 2 C or lower.
363. These are the transport fluids that convey the heat energy from the low-temperature level to the high-temperature level where it can in terms of heat
transfer give up its heat.
a) Refrigerants b) Working substances c) Ammonia d) Methane
364. It is the designation for other refrigerants that are chlofluorocarbons but cause little or no ozone destruction.
a) HCFC or HFC b) CFC c) ODP d) HFC
17

365. HCFC stands for ____________________.
a) Chlorofluorocarbon b) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon c) Chlorofluorocarbon d) None of these
366. HFC stands for _____________________.

a) Chlorofluorocarbon b) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon c) Chlorofluorocarbon d) Hydrochlorocarbon
367. It is an international agreement, that took effect in 1989, and the New Clean Air Act that was signed in 1990, that limit the production and regulate the
use and disposal of chlofluorocarbon (CFC) refrigerants.
a) International Agreement b) Montreal protocol c) Tariff standard d) Refrigerant Code
a) Ozone Depletion Potential b) Global Warming Potential c) Montreal Protocol d) All of these
369. It is a relative measure of the ability of a substance to cause an increase in the temperature of the atmosphere by absorbing solar and earth radiation
that is relative to the effect of refrigerant 11.
a) Ozone Depletion Potential b) Global Warming Potential c) Montreal Protocol d) All of these
370. This is a mode of heat transfer by electromagnetic waves, an entirely different phenomenon from conduction and convection; it can occur in a perfect
vacuum and is usually impeded by an intervening medium. What is this mode of heat transfer?
a) Thermal Radiation b) Thermal transmission c) Thermal Conductivity d) Thermal Convection

a) R –12 b) R – 22 c) Ammonia d) R – 40



a) 50 to 55 % b) 55 to 60 % c) 60 to 65 % d) 45 to 50 %
18

c) 970 Btu b) 2257 Btu c) 144 Btu/ d) 335 Btu/lb



o
o o o o
a) 18.7 F b) 0 F c) 15.7 F d) 32 F


a) NH3 b) CO2 c) F-22 d) F-21


19








o o o o
a) – 28 C b) – 28 F c) 0 F d) 32 F
SET E

1. A refrigerating unit of one ton capacity can remove:
a) 500 BTU per min b) 288 BTU per min c) 200 BTU per min d) 100 BTU per min
2. To much oil in the compressor would:
a) absorb too much refrigerant from the system b) damage the expansion valve
c) cause leakage through the shaft seals d) deposit oil on the condenser tubes
3. The refrigerant with the lowest boiling point is:

a) NH3 b) CO2 c) F-12 d) F-22

a) expansion valve not open wide enough b) expansion valve open too wide
c) king valve not open wide enough d) dirty dehydrator
6. Which of the following would cause high head pressure?
a) dirty condenser b) insufficient cooling water c) air in the cooling water d) all of the above

a) too much cooling water b) insufficient refrigeration gas c) insufficient cooling water d) A and B
8. The principle of the mechanical refrigeration is:

a) the absorption of temperature under heat, pressure, compression and expansion
b) the compression of a liquid under temperature and expansion
c) the absorption of heat under temperature, compression, pressure and expansion
d) the conversion of a liquid to a gas
9. The function of the expansion valve is to:
a) change the high-pressure liquid to low-pressure liquid b) regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the expansion valve
c) change the gas refrigerants to a liquid d) shut off the flow of refrigeration to the condenser
10. The oil separator(trap) is located between the:

a) compressor discharge valve and the condenser b) condenser and the receiver
c) receiver and the king valve d) receiver and the expansion valve
20

11. The purpose of the oil trap is:
a) to remover oil from the charging tank b) to add oil to the compressor
c) to remover oil from the refrigerant gas d) none of the above
12. The boiling point of ammonia at atmospheric pressure is:

o o o o
a) -28 C b) +28 C c) +28 C d) -28 F
13. The boiling point of CO2 at atmospheric pressure is:
o o o o
a) +10 F b) -110 C c) +110 C d) -110 F
14. The boiling point of Freon at atmospheric pressure is:

o o o o
a) - 22 F b) +22 F c) +22 C d) -22 C
15. The dehydrator is located between the:

a) receiver and the king valve b) receiver and the expansion valve
c) condenser and the king valve d) condenser and the receiver
16. The purpose of the dehydrator is to:

a) remove oil from the refrigerant b) add more refrigerant to the system
c) remove moisture from the refrigerant d) remove moisture from the crankcase oil
17. Which of the following would you apply if a person got Freon on his eyes?
a) soapy water b) sterile mineral oil c) clean water d) sodium bicarbonate
18. The heart of refrigeration system is:

a) condenser b) compressor c) evaporator d) expansion valve
19. The thermal expansion valve:
a) controls the amount of gas coming from the dehydrator b) maintains a constant superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator coil
c) controls the amount of gas going to the receiver d) remove trap oil from the refrigerant
20. Water in the refrigerant is liable to:

a) freeze on the expansion seat and cut the flow of liquid refrigerant b) emulsify the oil in the compressor
c) freeze in the king valve d) clog the oil trap
21. The purpose of the scale trap is to:
a) control the amount of scale going to the compressor b) remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant
c) remover dirt, scale and metal chips from the refrigerant d) dissolve scale and dirt on the system
22. A double-seated valve allow the valve to be:

a) packed only in the closed position b) packed in wide open or closed position
c) operated as a suction or discharge valve d) removed for replacement without shutting down
23. Sensible heat:
a) can be measured with a thermometer b) cannot be measured with a thermometer
c) changes in the receiver tank d) increases with the cold
24. The latent heat of fusion is the amount of heat required to convert:
o o o o
a) two lbs of ice at 32 F to one lb of ice at 32 F b) one lb of ice at 32 F to one lb of water 32 F
o o o o
c) one lb of ice at 32 F to one lb of steam 32 F d) two lbs of ice at 32 F to one lb of water at 32 F
25. The latent heat of vaporization of water is:

a) 144 BTU b) 940 BTU c) 970 BTU d) 28 BTU
26. The latent heat of vaporization is the amount of heat required to convert:
o o o o
a) one lb of water at 212 F to one lb of steam at 212 F b) one lb of water at 180 F to one lb of steam at 180 F
o o o o
c) two lbs of water at 212 F to one lb of steam at 212 F d) one lb of ice at 32 F to one lb of steam at 212 F
27. Too high suction pressure could be cause by:

a) expansion valve open too wide b) leaky suction valves
c) expansion valve bulb not working properly d) any of the above
28. How is an ammonia system purged so that the operator will not be overcome by the fumes?
a) into that atmospheric line b) into a bucket of water c) into a bucket of lube oil d) back into the compressor
29. How is a CO2 system purged?
a) when CO2 comes out frost will form on a piece of metal held near the outlet b) through the king valve
c) the CO2 will come out in liquid form d) pumped out with a suction pump
30. How is Freon system purged?

a) the same as the ammonia system b) the same as the CO2 system
c) back to the extra supply bottle d) with a reefer pump
31. Latent heat:

a) can be measured with a thermometer b) can be measured with a pyrometer
c) cannot be measured with a thermometer d) changes as the refrigerant cools
32. Absolute zero is:

o o
a) 970 below zero on the Fahrenheit scale b) 460 below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
o
c) 144 below zero on the Fahrenheit scale d) the same as zero on the Centigrade scale
21

33. When the evaporator coils are located in the ice box, the system is known as a:
a) direct system b) low-pressure system c) indirect system d) high-pressure system
34. The amount of CO2 or Freon in a cylinder is measured by:

a) pressure b) volume c) weight d) psi
35. If the compressor power increases while refrigeration load is constant, its COP will:
a) increase b) decrease c) constant d) none of the above
36. The solenoid valve is controlled by:

a) the amount of liquid in the system b) the amount of gas in the system
c) the temperature in the condenser d) the thermal switch is operated by the icebox temp.
37. The purged valve is located:
a) in the lowest part of the system b) in the highest part of the system
c) on the receiver discharge d) on the evaporator coils
38. The system should be purged:

a) while the system is operating b) while starting up the system
c) after the system has been shutdown for a few hours d) once a week
39. The function of the compressor is to:

a) pull the refrigeration gas through the system b) increase the pressure of the refrigeration
c) discharge the refrigerant to the condenser d) all of the above
40. The expansion valve is located between the:
a) receiver and evaporator b) evaporator and compressor c) compressor and condenser d) condenser and receiver
41. If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be:

a) expansion valve not open wide enough b) charging valve left opn
c) expansion valve open too wide d) dehydrator not working properly
42. Which of the following would cause a high head pressure?

a) icebox door left open b) insufficient cooling water
c) too much cooling water d) suction valve not open enough
43. The high pressure side of the system is sometimes referred to as the:
a) suction side b) cold side c) hot side d) filling side
44. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the cooling effect of:

a) 2000 lbs of ice melting in 24 hrs b) 2000 lbs of ice melting in 12 hrs
c) 2000 lbs of water being converted to ice d) 2240 lbs of ice melting in 24 hrs
45. The scale trap (liquid strainer) is located between the:

a) compressor and oil separator b) king (liquid) valve and expansion valve
c) expansion valve and evaporator coils d) evaporator coils and compressor
46. When there is Freon leak, the halide torch will burn:
a) orange b) blue c) white d) green
47. Which of the following could be used to check a leak in an ammonia system?
a) litmus paper b) halide torch c) sulphur stick d) A and C
48. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of:

a) iron b) brass c) copper d) bronze
49. In an ammonia system, the oil gage must be kept:

a) closed except when checking oil level b) open at all times
c) closed when machine is shutdown d) open when the machine is shut down
50. Freon is:

a) colorless b) odorless c) nonpoisonous d) all of the above
51. Which of the following gasket materials should be used on a Freon system?
a) metallic b) asbestos c) rubber d) A and B
52. A double-pipe condenser has:

a) two piping system side by side, one with cooling water and one with refrigerant
b) a small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling water passing through the small pipe and the refrigerant through the large pipe
c) two pips for cooling water and one for the refrigerant
53. Air can be prevented from getting into the system by:
a) keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the high-pressure side tight b) keeping the dehydrator clean at all times
c) keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the low-pressure side tight d) running the refrigerant through the aerator
22

54. The agent used in an indirect refer system is:
a) sodium chloride b) potassium chloride c) calcium chloride d) A and C
55. An ammonia leak will turn litmus paper:

a) blue b) red c) green d) yellow
56. A sulphur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will give off a:
a) dense yellow smoke b) dense white smoke c) dense red smoke d) dense green smoke
57. If the compressor were to run continuously without lowering the temperature, the trouble would probably be:
a) insufficient refrigerant in the system b) leaks c) leaky discharge valves d) any of the above
58. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by:

a) smelling the discharge water
b) applying litmus paper to circulating water discharge
c) adding water to peppermint to the system and tracing the smell
d) applying a soapy mixture to the condenser heads and looking for bubbles
59. When purging an ammonia condenser into a bucket of water, one can tell when the air is out and ammonia starts to come through by the:
a) smell of ammonia being liberated from the water b) color of the water turning greed
c) color of the water turning bluish d) change of the bubbling sound of air to the crackling sound of ammonia
60. Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be detected with a halide torch because it changes color with slight test amount of Freon present. A large
leak can be detected easier by applying:
a) sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch for color change
b) a soupsuds solution, mixed with a little glycerin to hold the solution together, and watch for bubbles
c) a thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and watch for bubbles
d) a lightened candle at the joints and watching for leaky spots blowing candle flame
61. When the evaporator coils are located in a brine solution and the brine is pumped through the icebox, the system is known as:
a) a direct system b) an indirect system c) a low-pressure system d) a double-evaporator system
62. Obstruction of the expansion valve is usually caused by:

a) congealed oil in the system b) scale c) water in the system d) all of the above
63. Too low suction pressure could be caused by:

a) dirty scale traps b) shortage of refrigerant gas c) too much oil in the system d) any of the above
64. If an electrically operated compressor failed to start, the cause might be:
a) an open switch b) a blown fuse c) burned-out holding coils in solenoid valve d) any of the above
65. The oil separator is located between the:

a) evaporator and compressor b) compressor and condenser
c) condenser and dehydrator d) solenoid valve and the thermal expansion valve
66. To help person who have been exposed to ammonia gas, one would:
a) apply artificial respiration b) wrap in warm blankets c) apply cold compresses d) douse with cold water
67. If the compressor short cycles on the low-pressure cut-out, the trouble might be:
a) lack of refrigerant b) dirty trap and strainers c) too much frost on coils d) any of the above
68. Ammonia will corrode:

a) copper b) bronze c) brass d) any of the above
69. The dehydrating agent in the Freon system is usually:

a) slaked time b) sodium chloride c) activated alumina d) calcium chloride
70. If any of the electrically controlled devices in a Freon system malfunction, which of the following valves will also automatically shut off?
a) king valve b) expansion valve
c) solenoid valve d) condenser cooling-water inlet valve
71. Many pressure gages on a Freon system gave two dials or graduations on one gage. The two dials represent:
a) pressure and temperature b) liquid pressure and gas pressure
c) suction and discharge pressure d) cooling-water inlet and outlet temperatures
72. A leaky discharge valve can usually be detected by:

a) a fluctuating high-pressure gage b) a drop in icebox temperatures
c) a discharge pressure lower then normal d) any of the above
73. The suction if a Freon system should be:

o
a) the pressure which corresponds with a temperature about 20 F below the temperature of the icebox
b) the pressure which corresponds with a temperature equal to the temperature of the icebox
o
c) the pressure which corresponds with a temperature about 20 above the temperature of the icebox
23

74. The disadvantage of a CO2 system over an ammonia system is the fact that:
a) the CO2 system requires a larger prime mover
b) the CO2 system operated at a much higher pressure
c) the piper and fittings of a CO2 system must be of the high pressure type
d) all of the above
75. One disadvantage of a CO2 system is the fact that:

a) it is different to condense the refrigerant if the circulating water temperature is too high
b) it is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the circulating water temperature is low
c) due to high pressure it is difficult to keep oil from mixing with refrigerant
d) it takes more refrigerant to keep the iceboxes cold
76. The crossover connection in an ammonia system can be used to:

a) reduce the pressure on the discharge side of the condenser b) hot-gas defrost
c) pump air out of the system d) add refrigerant to the system
77. Another name for the discharge pressure is:

a) suction pressure b) absolute pressure c) head pressure d) condenser pressure
78. Oil used in the refrigerating system is:

a) lube oil SAE 20 b) straight mineral oil c) lube oil SAE10 d) vegetable oil
79. The discharge pressure on the compressor should be:

o o
a) the pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5 to 15 F below that of the condenser discharge
o o
b) the pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5 to 15 F higher than the condenser discharge
c) the pressure which corresponds to a temperature equal of the condenser discharge
80. A leaky suction valve can usually be detected by:

a) a fluctuating suction-pressure gas b) a higher suction pressure
c) closing in on the suction valve having no effect on the suction pressure d) any of the above
81. The purpose of relief valves on refrigerating machines is to:

a) prevent overloading in the iceboxes b) bypass the compressor when dehydrating
c) prevent excessive pressure in case of stopping on the discharge side of the system d) A and B
82. The relief valve on an ammonia machine is located:

a) on the discharge pipe from the condenser b) on the discharge pipe from the compressor
c) in the compressor head d) A or B
83. The relief valve on a CO2 machine is located:
a) on the discharge pipe from the condenser b) next to the king valve
c) on the discharge pipe between the compressor and the discharge valve d) in the compressor head
84. Excess frost on the evaporator coils:

a) keeps the icebox cooler b) reduces the efficiency of the plant
c) takes the load off the compressor d) does not affect the system
85. Air circulation in the icebox is accomplished by the used of:
a) louver doors b) hollow sidewalls c) diffuser fans d) air vents to deck
86. Before the securing a compressor to the maintenance on it, be sure to:
a) pump down system b) have spare parts ready c) purge the system d) A and B
87. Some causes of noisy compressor are:

a) worn bearings, pins, etc. b) too much oil in crankcase
c) slugging due to flooding back of refrigerant d) any of the above
88. Slugging is usually cause by:

a) too much oil in the system b) too much refrigerant in the system
c) expansion valve not operating properly d) too much cooling water to condenser
89. Zinc rods are found in the:

a) evaporator coils b) salt-water side of condenser
c) compressor crankcase d) refrigerant side of crankcase
90. A double-trunk piston is used to:
a) prevent gas from getting to crankcase b) absorb some of the side trust
c) prevent oil from mixing with the refrigerantsd) all of the above
91. The purpose of the receiver is to:

a) cool the refrigerant gas b) separate the oil from the refrigerant
c) store the refrigerant ) condense the refrigerant
92. When a pressure gage reads zero, the absolute pressure is:
a) 30 psi b) 14.7 psi c) 0 psi d) 17.4 psi
24

93. The heat used to change a solid to a liquid is called:
a) latent heat of fusion b) sensible heat fusion c) latent heat of liquid d) specific heat of fusion
94. The heat used to change a gas to a vapor is called:

a) latent heat of fusion b) latent heat of vaporization c) specific heat of vaporization d) latent heat of the gas
95. Sweating of the crankcase is caused by:

a) too much superheat b) insufficient superheat c) expansion valve hang up d) too much oil in the system
96. If an automatic Freon system will not start up, check the:
a) high-pressure cutout b) low-pressure cutout c) reset mechanism d) all of the above
97. The cooling-water side of the condenser should be opened for inspection every:
a) six months b) year c) two years d) three months
98. If the thermal expansion valve becomes imperative the iceboxes will have to b3e controlled by the:
a) solenoid valve b) manual expansion valve c) king valve d) manual solenoid valve

SET F
421. A device that inhibits the flow of current (opposite of conductor); also, material that resists heat transfer by conduction.
a) Insulator b) Conductor c) Transducer d) Switch
423. The heat energy absorbed or rejected when a substance is changing state (solid to liquid, liquid to gas, or vice versa) but maintaining its measured
temperature
a) Latent heat b) Sensible heat c) Heat of fusion d) Total heat
425. The heat gained or lost in changing to or from a solid (ice to water or water to ice).
a) Latent heat of fusion b) Latent heat of vaporization c) Sensible heat of ice d) sensible heat of liquid
427. The distance from one point to another; typically refers to a measurement of the long side of an object or surface.
a) Length b) Displacement c) Volume d) Area

a) R –12 b) R – 22 c) Ammonia d) R – 40
429. An instrument that measures air or gas pressure by the displacement of a column of liquid.
a) Pitot tube b) Manometer c) Bourdon gage d) Water column
431. The use of machinery to provide cooling.

a) Ice refrigeration b) Mechanical refrigeration c) Absorption Refrigeration d) Air cycle refrigeration

433. A test instrument capable of reading voltage, current, and resistance.

a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter c) Wattmeter d) Multi-meter
25

435. The amount of force required to accelerate one kilogram at a rate of one meter per second.
a) Newton b) Dyne c) Kg force d) lb force
437. A short length of pipe that is used to join fittings. It is usually less than 12” long and has male threads on both ends.
a) Nipple b) Coupling c) Tee d) Bushing
439. A group of metals and metal alloys that contain no iron.

a) Nonferrous b) Plastic c) Ferrous d) Aluminum

441. The unit of measurement for electrical resistance.

a) Ohm b) Mho c) Siemens d) Coulomb
a) 50 to 55 % b) 55 to 60 % c) 60 to 65 % d) 45 to 50 %
443. The main component of an oil-fired furnace. It combines oil and air and sprays the combination into the combustion chamber.
a) Oil nozzle b) Oil burner c) Oil sprayer d) Oil atomizer
445. A precisely drilled hole that controls the flow of gas to the burners.
a) Orifice b) Nozzle d) Atomizer d) Burner
447. The distance between the outer walls of a pipe. Used as the standard measure for ACR tubing.
a) Inside diameter b) Nominal diameter c) Outside diameter d) Mean diameter
449. The process by which the oxygen in the air combines with metal to produce tarnish and rust.
a) Rusting b) Oxidation c) Burning d) Combustion
451. A putty-like pipe joint material used for sealing threaded pipe joints.
a) Black pipe b) Pipe dope c) Cast iron pipe d) Galvanized iron pipe
453. A generic term used to designate thick wall pipe that can be threaded and joined with threaded fittings.
a) Piping b) Tubing c) PVC tubing d) PS tubing
455. A sealed chamber at the inlet or outlet of an air handler. The duct attaches to this chamber.
a) Plenum b) Ducting c) Register d) Diffuser
457. A pipe fitting with external threads and head that is used for closing the opening in another fitting.
a) Plug b) Nipple c) Cup d) Bushing
26

d) 970 Btu b) 2257 Btu c) 144 Btu/ d) 335 Btu/lb
459. A pressure-sensitive switch used to protect compressors.

a) Pressurestat b) Thermostat c) Humidistat d) Auto switch

461. A device assigned to stop a descending car or counterweight beyond its normal limit of travwel by absorbing the momentum of descent of the car or
counter weight.
a) Buffer b) Bumper c) Controller d) Car frame
462. A device other than a buffer, designed to stop a descending or falling or counterweight beyond its allowable lower limit of travel by absorbing the energy
or impact of descent.
a) Buffer b) Bumper c) Controller d) Car frame
463. A hoisting and lowering mechanism other than a dumbwaiter or freight elevator which is designed to carry passenger or authorized personnel, in a
protected enclosure (elevator car) which moves along fixed guides and serves two or more fixed landings on a hoist way.
a) Dumbwaiter b) Elevator b) Freight elevator d) Inclined elevator
464. A hoisting and lowering mechanism designed to materials and other loads such as food laundry, etc., equipped with a car, which moves in fixed guides
and serves two or more fixed landings through a hoistway. This equipment shall be designed to carry small materials in a car, or partitioned or shelved
enclosure measuring no more than 1.2 meters and a maximum rated capacity to greater than 22 kg.
a) Dumbwaiter b) Elevator b) Freight elevator d) Inclined elevator

467. It is an elevator which travels at an angle of inclination of 70 degrees or less from the horizontal.
a) Dumbwaiter b) Hydraulic Elevator c) Freight elevator d) Inclined elevator
468. An elevator having two or more compartment located one immediately above the other.
a) Multi-deck elevator b) Hydraulic Elevator c) Freight elevator d) Inclined elevator
469. A power elevator where the energy is applied, by means of a liquid under pressure, in a cylinder equipped with a plunger or piston.
a) Multi-deck elevator b) Hydraulic Elevator c) Freight elevator d) Inclined elevator
470. An elevator designed to permit exterior viewing by passengers while the car is travelling.
a) Scenic elevator b) Passenger elevator c) Pit elevator d) Private Residence elevator
471. An elevator used primarily to carry other than the operator and persons necessary for loading and unloading.
472. That portion of a hoistway extending from the threshold level of lowest landing door to the floor at the bottom of the hoistway.
473. A power passenger elevator which is limited in size, capacity, rise, and speed, and is installed in a private residence or in a multiple dwelling as a
means of access to a private residence.


a) R –12 b) R – 22 c) Ammonia d) R – 40
27


486. What is the piping color code for water?

a) Green b) Silver gray c) Brown d) Black
487. What is the pipe color coding for steam line?

488. What is the pipe color coding for oil-mineral vegetables or animal, flammable or combustible line?
489. What is the color coding for the piping line of gases either gaseous or liquefied form, vapor and pneumatically conveyed fumes and materials?
a) Green b) Silver gray c) Brown d) Yellow ochre
490. What is the color coding for the pipe line of acid and alkalis?
a) Violet b) Silver gray c) Brown d) Yellow ochre
491. What is the color code for the piping line of air?
a) Violet b) Silver gray c) Light blue d) Yellow ochre
492. What is piping color code for other fluids, including drainage pipes unless the drain is to a particular service?
a) Violet b) Black c) Light blue d) Yellow ochre
493. What is the pipe color coding for fire fighting materials, including detection and suppression system?
a) Violet b) Black c) Safety red d) Yellow ochre
494. What is the pipe color coding for hazardous devices (generally with other identification of contents)?
a) Violet b) Safety yellow c) Light blue d) Yellow ochre
495. What is the pipe color coding for electricity?

a) Violet b) Light orange c) Light blue d) Yellow ochre
496. What is the pipe color coding for communication line?

a) Violet b) White c) Light blue d) Yellow ochre
499. A valve employing a gate, often wedge-shaped, allowing fluid to flow when the gate is lifted from the seat. Such valves have less resistance to flow than
globe valves.
a) Gate valve b) Globe valve c) Check valve d) Safety valve
500. One with a somewhat globe shaped body with a manually raised or lowered disc which when closed rests on a seat so as to prevent passage of a fluid.
501. A valve designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one direction only. A common type has a plate so suspended that the reverse flow aids gravity in
forcing the plate against a seat, shutting off reverse flow.

28

503. A valve designed to open automatically to relieve excess pressure.
a) Relief valve b) Globe valve c) Check valve d) Safety valve
a) 50 to 55 % b) 55 to 60 % c) 60 to 65 % d) 45 to 50 %
e) 970 Btu b) 2257 Btu c) 144 Btu/ d) 335 Btu/lb

o
o o o o
a) 18.7 F b) 0 F c) 15.7 F d) 32 F
517. Releasing compressed gas to the atmosphere through some part or parts, such as a nose or pipeline, for the purpose of removing contaminants
a) Purging b) Exhausting c) Throttling d) Flowing
519. The manufacturing of used refrigerant it to bring it up to the standards required of new refrigerant.
a) Reclamation b) Recovery c) Recycle d) Reprocess

522. Too much oil in the compressor would ____________.

a) NH3 b) CO2 c) F-22 d) F-21



29


SET G
1. The low pressure cutout switch is operated by:

a) a magnet b) a bellows c) spring tension d) water pressure
2. A good refrigeration should be:
a) nonpoisonous b) non-explosive c) noninflammable d) all of the above
3. If a refrigeration system extracted 48,800 Btu per hour, the tonnage of the machine would be:
a) 5 tons b) ½ tons c) 2 tons d) 4 tons
4. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is to:

a) maintain liquid refrigeration at the suction of the compressor b) maintain a present suction pressure to the compressor
c) cut out the compressor at a set pressure d) cut compressor in and out a present pressure
5. The most likely cause of high superheat would be:
a) too much refrigerant b) expansion valve open too wide
c) expansion valve closed too much d) back pressure valve set too high
6. The purpose of the evaporator is to:

a) absorb latent heat of vaporization b) absorb latent heat of fusion
c) transfer latent heart of vaporization d) transfer latent heat of fusion
7. Air is removed from the system by:

a) increasing the amount of cooling water b) opening the purge value
c) running the refrigeration through an aerator d) running the refrigerant through a daerator
8. The suction pressure switch is operated by:

a) electric current b) thermocouple c) pressure on bellows d) a relay cutout
9. A hot suction line might be caused by:
a) insufficient refrigerant b) insufficient lubrication
c) expansion valve closed too much d) too much refrigeration
10. The device used for low-pressure control and high-pressure cutout on a compressor is called a:
a) cutout b) pressure controller c) controller switch d) cutout switch
11. Thermal expansion valves are usually of the:

a) bellow type b) magnetic type c) diaphragm type d) A or C
12. Liquid reaching the compressor through the suction line is called:
a) flooding back b) superheating c) overflowing d) recycling
13. Pressure controllers are usually of the:
a) diaphragm-type construction b) bellows-type construction
c) magnetic-type construction d) pilot-valve type construction
14. If the cooling water to the condenser should suddenly fail:

a) the solenoid valve will close b) the expansion valve will close
c) the compressor will shut down d) an alarm will ring to notify the engineer
15. If the solenoid valve closed by accident, the compressor would be stopped by:
a) low-pressure cutout switch b) high-pressure cutout switch
c) low-water cutout switch d) automatic trip
16. The solenoid valve controls the:
a) amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator coils b) amount of refrigerant going to the expansion valve
c) amount of refrigerant going to the compressor d) pressure of the refrigerants goint to the evaporator coils
17. As Freon passes through the expansion valve:

a) the volume decreases and the pressure increases b) the volume increases and the pressure increases
c) the pressure decreases and the volume increases d) the volume decreases and the pressure decreases
18. When checking zinc plates in a condenser, one should:

a) paint the plates with red lead b) install all new plates
c) clean the plats and renew worn-out ones d) ground each plate to the shell
30

19. If the compressor short cycles on high pressure cutout, which of the following would you check?
a) be user system is getting cooling water
b) if plenty of cooling water is running through but it is not picking up heat, the condense tubes need cleaning
c) check for too much refrigerant in the system
d) all of the above
20. In a refrigerant system the temperature is at its highest between the:
a) condenser and receiver b) compressor and condenser
c) receiver and evaporator d) evaporator and compressor
21. A Freon unit will tend to short cycle when operating under:
a) heavy loads b) normal conditions c) light loads d) all of the above
22. Short-cycling means that the machine:
a) grounds out frequently b) stops and starts frequently c) runs too fast d) runs too slow
23. Freon is:

a) non-corrosive b) flammable c) nontoxic d) A and C
24. A refrigerant should have a:

a) high latent heat b) high sensible heat c) low latent heat d) low sensible heat
25. A method of reducing capacity without reducing compressor speed is called:
a) low-pressure by passing b) high-pressure by passing
c) hot-gas by passing d) short-cycling
26. The thermal expansion valve responds to the:

a) the amount of superheat in the vapor leaving the coil b) amount of superheat in the liquid
c) temperature in the evaporator coils d) pressure in the evaporator coils
27. The bulbs for the thermal expansion valve is located:
a) in the middle of evaporator coils b) near the evaporator coil outlet
c) near the evaporator coil inlet d) on the bottom row of evaporator coils
28. A thermostat is a:
a) temperature-operated switch b) pressure-oriented switch
c) super-heat operated switch d) back-pressure-operated switch
29. The elements of thermostat switch are usually of the:
a) diaphragm type b) bimetal type c) valve type d) pilot-valve type
30. When heavy electrical currents are involved, the thermostat will be operated by a:
a) small circuit breaker b) pressure pipe c) fusetron d) relay
31. If the compressor runs continually, the cause might be the:
a) high-pressure cutout switch is jammed open b) low-pressure switch is jammed about
c) thermal bulb is not operating properly d) scale trap is clogged
32. The solenoid valve can be types as a:

a) thermal valve b) magnetic stop valve c) bellow valve d) bimetallic valve
33. If the compressor had been running satisfactory, for a long period of time but the coil level was rising slowly, the thing to do would be to:
a) drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to the proper running level
b) shut down the compressor and check the oil level with the machine stopped
c) check the dehydrator cartridge
d) check to see if there is too much refrigerant in the system
34. If the compressor had been running satisfactory for a long period of time but suddenly the compartment temperature started to rise, the trouble might
be:
a) solenoid valve is jammed shut b) the expansion valve may have water frozen in it
c) a refrigerant leak has developed d) any of the above
35. When charging a Freon system, all the valves should be in their normal position except the:
a) expansion valve b) purge valve c) king valve(liquid) d) solenoid valve
36. Abnormal discharge temperatures would be caused by:

a) leaky suction valves b) leaky discharge valves c) fault piston ring d) any of the above
37. A device for holding open the suction valve and drawing gas from the suction manifold and returning it top the suction line without compressing it is
called:
a) discharge line bypass b) cylinder unloader c) suction line bypass d) relief valve
38. As heat is removed open the suction valve and drawing gas from the suction manifold and returning it to the suction manifold and returning it to the
suction line without compressing it is called:
a) perfect zero b) double zero c) absolute zero d) cold zero
o
39. The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 212 F. if the pressure on the open container is decreased, such as going up to the top of
a mountain, the boiling point will be:
a) increased b) decreased c) the same d) none of the above
40. Another name for the liquid valve is the:

a) master valve b) king valve c)Freon valve d) shutoff valve
31

41. If the temperature in the icebox is too high, the trouble could be:
a) a clogged scale trap b) air in the system
c) automatic controls not functioning properly c) insufficient cooling water to the condenser
42. Oil is added to Freon compressor by:

a) pouring through oil hole in base b) pumping in with a hand pump
c) pumping in with an electric-driven pump d) shutting down the machine and pouring in through the crankcase inspection plate opening
43. If no gaskets are used in the piping joints of a Freon system, the joints must be:
a) finished joints b) welded joints c) ground joints d) soldered joints
44. When adding oil to a Freon system one must be sure that:
a) all air is removed from the pump and fitting b) there is too high a suction pressure
c) the discharge pressure is too high d) the condenser is shut down
45. If the head pressure is too high:

a) the relief valve should open before the high-pressured cutout
b) the relief valve should open and let excess refrigerant to receiver
c) the high-pressure cutout switch should operate before relief valve opens
d) close in on thee suction valve
46. If the compressor-discharge temperature is higher than the receiver temperature:

a) increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser b) decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser
c) add more refrigerant to the system d) remover some of the refrigeration from the system
47. The dehydrator is used:
a) to remove moisture from the system b) to remove moisture from the system
c) when adding refrigerant to the system d) A and C
48. If the discharge side of the thermal expansion valve is warmer than the inlet side, the:
a) expansion valve is working normally b) expansion valve is not working normally
c) solenoid is not working normally d) scale trap is dirty
49. The oil level in the compressor should be checked:

a) while the compressor is in operation b) just before starting the compressor
c) after a long period of operation d) B and C
50. The relief valve is located on the:
a) discharge side of condenser b) discharge side of compressor
c) outlet of the evaporator coils d) receiver tank
51. The expansion valve on a Freon system controls the:

a) superheat of the gas leaving the compressor b) back pressure in the evaporator
c) temperature of the icebox d) superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator
52. The scale trap is located between the:

a) king valve and the expansion valve b) solenoid and expansion valve
c) evaporator valve and receiver d) compressor and evaporator
53. If the high-pressure switch on the compressor opens and stops the compressor, a possible cause should be:
a) too much cooling water going through the condenser b) not enough refrigerant in the system
c) a leak in the evaporating cells d) not enough cooling water going through the condenser
54. The capacity of a refrigerant unit can be regulated by:

a) changing the speed of the compressor b) changing the amount of cooling water to the condenser
c) changing the amount of refrigerant in the system d) any of the above
55. Which of the following would not cause high suction pressure?
a) insufficient refrigeration b) leaky suction valves
c) expansion valve stuck open d) suction valve not adjusted properly
56. All of the following are alloys of nickel except:

a) K-monel b) inconel-K c) chromium, molybdenum steel d) nichrome
57. If the compressor runs continuously the cause might be a :

a) defective thermal bulb b) clogged scale trap
c) stuck high pressure switch d) stuck low-pressure-switch
58. Dairy products should be kept at temperature of:

o o o o o o o o
a) 10 to 20 b) 20 to 30 c) 35 to 45 d) 15 to 25
59. The purpose of the expansion valve bypass is to:

a) increase the efficiency of the plant b) increase the capacity of the evaporator
c) control the refrigerant to the evaporator in case of the automatic valves fall d) bypass the compressor
60. Frost on the outside of the thermal expansion valve may be cause by:
a) king valve and the expansion valve b) receiver and the condenser
32

c) compressor and the receiver d) evaporator coils and the compressor
61. The charging valve is locate between the:
a) king valve and the expansion valve b) receiver and the condenser
c) compressor and the receiver d) evaporator coils and the compressor
62. A high suction pressure and a cold crankcase indicate:

a) air in the system b) leaky suction valves c) expansion valve open too wide d) B or C
63. A high temperature in the icebox could not caused by:
a) insufficient refrigeration b) air in the system
c) expansion valve open too wide d) too much refrigeration in the system
64. When occurring a Freon system for repairs:

a) pump down to 1 or 2 lbs pressure b) pump down to a slight vacuum
c) pump down to 10 to 15 lbs pressure d) remover all refrigerant from the system
65. The solenoid valve is located between the:
a) scale trap and the thermal expansion valve b) thermal expansion valve and the evaporator
c) king valve and the scale trap d) automatic and manual expansion valves
66. When starting a refrigerating system, always:

a) vent the condenser b) vent the evaporator c) bypass the condenser d) none of the above
67. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance work on it, be sure to:
a) have gas mask handy b) notify the captain
c) make arrangements to have perishables taken care of d) A and C
o
68. 212 F is equal to:
o o o o
a) 106 C b) 110 C c) 100 F d) 100 C
69. A good refrigerant should:

a) have a low boiling point b) have a high latent heat
c) be able to be liquefied at normal seawater temperature d) all of the above
o
70. 140 F is equivalent to:
o o o o
a) 50 C b) 60 C c) 40 C d) 55 C
o
71. 70 C is equivalent to:
o o o o
a) 150 F b) 160 F c) 155 F d) 155 F
72. Low suction pressure is caused by:
a) air in the system b) leaky compressor suction valves
c) solenoid valve not functioning properly d) expansion valve causing flooding back
73. The charging connection is a refrigerating system is located:

a) before the receiver b) between the condenser and the receiver
c) between the receiver and the king valve d) between the king valve and the solenoid valve
74. Water tube boilers have:
a) one fusible plug b) no fusible plugs c) two fusible plugs d) none of the above
75. The valve that prevents water from backing out of the boiler in the feed line is the:
a) bottom-blow valve b) skin valve c) feed-check valve d) feed-stop valve
76. The fuel oil heater is located:

a) on the discharge side of the service pump b) on the suction side of the service pump
c) on the discharge side of the transfer pump d) between the settling tank and the service pump
77. Boilers “pulsation are caused by:
a) too high fuel pressure b) insufficient air c) forcing the boiler beyond capacity d) all of the above
78. In the forced draft system:

a) each furnace has its own fan b) one fun supplies air to all furnaces
c) the fan is located in the uptake d) none of the above
79. In the closed fire room system:

a) each boiler has its own fan b) each furnace has its own fan
c) the fan is located in the uptake d) the fire room is supplied with air from one fan
80. The air cock on a boiler is located at the:

a) end of the superheater b) highest point of the steam and the water drum
c) superheater inlet d) top of the return headers
81. Soot blowers should be used in proper sequence so that:

a) excess stress will not set up in the boiler b) the docks will not covered with soot
c) the soot will be swept toward the uptakes d) there will be a loss of steam pressure
82. What is the first thing you would check on taking over a watch?
a) the bilges b) the periscope c) the water level d) the oil pressure
83. The boiler with its fan(blower) located in the uptake is operating on:
33

a) induced draft b) forced draft c) natural draft d) none of the above
84. A fireroom that is completely isolated(closed) operation:
a) induced draft b) forced draft c) natural draft d) none of the above
85. How many feedwater lines are connected to the boiler?

a) one b) two c) three d) four
86. If the water in the gage glass has not been blown down for a period of time, the level of the water in the glass will be:
a) the same as that in the steam and the water drum b) less than that in the steam and water drum
c) more than that in the steam and water drum d) none of the above
87. On taking over a watch, the fireman should check:

a) the water level in the boilers b) the bilges c) the periscope d) all of the above
88. When you are cleaning fuel-oil burner tips, use a:

a) steel scraper b) wire brush c) brass knife d) pocket knife
89. What is the amount of liquid in a tank if you get an ullage sounding of 11’4” and the empty ullage sounding of the tank is 32’2”?
a) 20’8” b) 20’10” c) 21’8” d) 21’10”
90. The amount of steam generated by a boiler is dependent upon:

a) the size of the sprayer plate b) the oil pressure c) the air pressure d) all of the above
91. When installing a new gage glass in a water gage you should secure the bolts from:
a) top of bottom b) bottom of top
c) center, alternately, toward each end d) top of bottom or bottom of top
92. One of the main purposes of refractories in a boiler furnace is to:

a) help preheat the air for the furnaces b) help preheat the feedwater
c) protect the economizer from excessive heat d) prevent excessive furnace hat losses
93. All fuel-oil service pump steam valves are fitted with:
a) safety locks b) automatic controls
c) reach rods leading to a location outside the fire room d) reached rods leading to the engine room
94. All fuel-oil tanks are vented through:

a) check vent to the settling tanks b) gooseneck vent located on the main deck
c) check valve to the transfer pump d) gooseneck vent which discharges to the settlers
95. Which of the following fire extinguishers would not be found in the fireroom?
a) foam type b) sand c) CO2 d) SO2
96. What is the average fuel-oil temperature range of the oil in the discharge line to the burners?
o o o o o o o o
a) 180 – 200 b) 150 – 180 c) 200 – 220 d) 150 – 200
97. Which of the following is a common type of oil burners?

a) Bethlehem b) Todd c) B & W d) all of the above
98. The boiler gage glasses should be blown down:

a) once a day b) at the beginning of every watch
c) every 12 hours d) every 8 hours
99. Gage pressure of 200 lbs per square inch is equivalent to what absolute pressure?
a) 215 b) 200 c) 185 d) 300

34

POWER PLANT ELEMENTS
SET A
1. It is a complex combination of economizer, boiler, suprheater, reheater, and air preheater. In addition, it has various auxiliaries, such as stokers,
pulverizers, burners, fans, emission control equipment, stack, and ash-handling equipment.
a) Boiler b) Steam Generator c) Evaporator d) Air receiver
2. The one of the following actions an operator should NOT take to stop or decrease carry-over caused by foaming in a boiler is to:
a) lower the water level in the drum b) blow down the boiler
c) increase the ratio of the chemical feed to the boiler d) reduce the steam output
3. It is that portion of steam generator where saturated liquid water is converted to saturated steam.
a) Boiler b) Steam Generator c) Evaporator d) Air receiver
4. Theses are steam generators used by utilities for electric-power generating plants.
a) Utility steam generators b) Industrial steam generators c) Fire tube boilers d) Water-tube boilers
5. The PRIMARY reason for treating de-aerated feed water with sodium sulphite is to:
a)remove dissolved oxygen b) control scale c) prevent carry-over d) increase alkalinity
6. These boilers are used by industrial and institutional concerns.

7. A boiler in which th products of combustion pass through the tube that is surrounded by water.
8. In accordance with recommended practice, a sample of boiler water for pH analysis should be taken:
a) immediately after chemicals should be taken b) just before bottom blow down
c) when the steaming rate is high d) prior to putting the boiler on the line
9. A boiler which is surrounded by the products of combustion, the water being inside the tube.
10. An economizer is used with a steam boiler in order to raise the temperature of the:
a) boiler feedwater by utilizing some of the heat in the exit flue gases
b) boiler feedwater by utilizing exhaust steam from the turbines or steam engines
c) air used for combustion of the fuel utilizing some of the heat in the exit flue gases
d) air used for combustion of the fuel utilizing exhaust some steam from the turbines or steam engines
11. The location of the oil burner remote control switch should GENERALLY be:
a) at the boiler room entrance b) on the boiler shell c) on the oil burner motor d) on a wall nearest the boiler
12. A MAJOR cause of air pollution resulting from the burning of fuel oil is _____ dioxide.
a) sulfur b) silicon c) nitrous d) hydrogen
13. The CO2 percentage in the flue gas of a power plant is indicated by a:
a) Doppler meter b) Ranarex indicator c) microtector d) hygrometer
14. The MOST likely cause of black smoke exhausting from the chimney of an oil-fired boiler is:
a) high secondary airflow b) low stack emission c) low oil temperature d) hygrometer
15. An induced draft fan is GENERALLY connected between the:

a) condenser and the first pass b) stack and the breeching
c) feed water heater and the boiler feed pump d) combustion chamber and fuel oil tanks
16. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is a:

a) capillary tube b) venture c) barometer d) calorimeter
17. In a closed feed water heater, the water and the steam:
a) come into direct contact b) are kept apart from each other
c) are under negative pressure d) mix and exhaust to the atmosphere
18. A knocking noise in steam lines is GENERALLY the result of:

a) superheated steam expansion b) high steam pressure c) condensation in the line c) rapid steam expansion
19. A monometer is an instrument that is used to measure:

a) heat radiation b) air volume c) condense water level d) air pressure
20. The bottom blow down on a boiler is used to:
1

a) remove mud drum water impurities b) increase boiler priming
c) reduce steam pressure in the header d) increase the boiler water level
21. The term spalling refers to a boiler:

a) flue gas content b) soot blower c) combustion chamber d) mud leg
22. The designated size of a boiler tube is GENERALLY based upon its:
a) internal diameter b) external diameter c) wall thickness d) weight per ft of length
23. A fusible plug on a boiler is made PRIMARILY of:

a) selenium b) tin c) zinc d) iron
24. A range of pH values for boiler feed water is NORMALLY:

a) 1 to 2 b) 4 to 6 c) 9 to 10 d) 12 to 15
o
25. The boiler horsepower is defined as the evaporation of _____ lbs. of water from and at 212 F.
a) 900 b) 400 c) 345 d) 34.5
26. A low pressure air-atomizing oil burner has an operating air pressure range of _______.
a) 25 to 35 b) 16 to 30 c) 6 to 10 d) 1 to 2
27. The FUNCTION of a counter flow economizer in a power plant is to:

a) use flue gases to heat feed water b) raise flue gas temperature
c) recirculate exhaust steam d) pre-heat combustion air
28. The one of the following boilers that is classified as an internally-fired boiler is the _____ boiler:
a) cross-drum straight tube b) vertical tubular c) Stirling d) cross-drum horizontal box-header
29. Try-cocks are used on a boiler PRIMARILY to:

a) check the gauge glass reading b) release steam pressure
c) drain the water column d) blow down the gauge glass
30. The FUCTION of a radiation pyrometer is to measure:

a) boiler water height b) boiler pressure c) furnace temperature d) boiler drum stresses
31. A boiler steam gauge should have a range of AT LEAST:

a) one-half the working steam pressure b) the working steam pressure
c) 1 ½ times the maximum allowable working pressure d) twice the maximum allowable working pressure
32. The acidity of boiling water is USUALLY determined by a ______ test.

a) Rockwell b) soap hardness c) paper d) alkalinity
33. Electrostatic precipitations are used in power plants to:

a) remove fly ash from flue gases b) measure smoke conditions
c) collect boiler impurities d) disperse minerals in feed water
34. Fly ash from the flue gases in a power plant is collected by a:
a) soot blower b) gas separator c) stack regulator d) mechanical separator
35. In power plants, boiler feed water is chemically treated in order to:
a) prevent scale formation b) increase water foaming c) increase oxygen formation d) increase the temperature of the water
36. The soot in a fire tube boiler GENERALLY settles on the:

a) bridge wall b) inside tube surface c) combustion chamber sides d) outside tube surfaces
37. The one of the following valves that should be used in a steam line to throttle the flow is the _____valve.
a) plug b) check c) gate d) globe
38. When the temperature of stack gases rises considerably above the normal operating stack temperature, it GENERALLY indicates:
a) a low boiler water level b) a heavy smoke condition in the stack
c) that the boiler is operating efficiently d) that the boiler tubes are dirty
39. A device which retains the desired parts of a steam-and-water mixture while rejecting the undesired parts of the mixture is a:
a) check valve b) colorimeter c) stud tube d) steam trap
40. Which of the following values most nearly equals one horsepower?
a) 550 ft-lbs per sec b) 3300 ft-lbs per min c) 5500 ft-lbs per hour d) 10000 ft-lbs per min
41. An after cooler on a reciprocating air compressor is used PRIMARILY to:

a) increase compressor capacity b) improve compressor efficiency
c) condense the moisture in the compressed air d) cool the lubricating oil
2

42. WOG stands for:
a) water or gas b) water, oil, gas c) water, gas, steam d) all of the above
43. An unloader is used on an air compressor to:

a) start easier b) stop easier c) run faster d) none of the above
44. What is added to oil to prevent sludge or lacquer from forming?

a) Detergents b) Anti-foaming engine c) Inhibitors d) Phosphates
45. Blow off piping usually refers to:

a) piping at the lowest part of the boiler b) piping coming from the safeties
c) piping coming from the super heater d) vent pipes
46. You are working the 4:00 PM to Midnight shift at an energy producing, coal burning steam plant. The first thing you would do when coming to work is:
a) add green coal and build up the fire b) blow down gauge glass & determine water level
c) clean the fires d) blow down the boiler
47. Soot is formed on a water tube boiler:

a) on the fan blades of the forced draft fan b) on the inside of the tubes
c) on the outside of the tubes d) in the steam drum
48. In terms of environmental pollution, the three elements which are the most damaging are:
a) carbon monoxide, sulfur, particulate matter b) carbon dioxide, sulfur, oxygen
c) particulate matter, sulfur, carbon dioxide d) oxygen and sulfur
49. What type of fire extinguisher would be used on a live electrical wire?
a) soda foam b) water c) carbon dioxide d) halon
50. Fuel oil is heated in a storage tank by use of:

a) fuel oil burner b) steam c) hot air d) electric coils
51. In the deep well installing or operation, the difference between static water level and operating water level is called:
a) suction lift b) drawdown c) priming level d) clogging
52. In a hydro-electric plant using a Francis turbine with medium head, the speed can be regulated using the:
a) deflector gate b) nozzle c) wicket gate d) weir
53. What is the color code of compressed air pipelines?

a) light blue b) red c) brown d) violet
54. One of the following task which is an example of preventive maintenance is:
a) cleaning the cup on a rotary cup burner b) cleaning a completely clog oil strainer
c) replacing a leaking valve d) replacing blown fuse
55. An air current in a confined space such as that in a cooling tower or chimney is called:
a) variable flow b) velocity profile c) velocity gradient d) draft
56. What kind of heat exchanger where water is heated to a point that dissolved gases are liberated?
a) evaporator b) condenser c) intercooler d) deaerator
57. What is the function of a steam separator?

a) trapping the steam and letting water through b) throttling
c) changing direction of the steam flow d) steam metering
58. Which of the following types of air dryers work by absorbing moisture on a solid desiccant material such as activated alumina, silicon gel or molecular
sieve?
a) regenerative dryer b) deliquescent dryer c) spray dryer d) refrigerated dryer
59. Another name for the liquid valve is:

a) Freon valve b) shut off valve c) king valve d) master valve
60. A draft tube is a part of which power plant?

a) diesel power plant b) gas turbine power plant c) steam power plant d) hydro-electric power plant
61. The term critical it associated with power plant of:

a) steam power plant b) diesel engine power plant c) gas turbine power plant d) nuclear power plant
62. Which of the following power plant can be installed within the shortest time?
a) nuclear power plant b) hydro-electric power plant c) gas turbine power plant d) diesel engine power plant
63. Which of the following power plant has least pollution problem?
a) steam power plant b) gas turbine power plant c) nuclear power plant d) Hydro-electric power plant
3

64. A turbo charge is a part of:
a) thermal power plant b) diesel engine power plant c) hydro-electric power plant d) nuclear power plant
65. In power plant, an electrostatic precipitator is installed between:

a) forced draft fan and induced draft fan b) furnace and chimney
c) primary air and secondary air d) furnace and forced draft fan
66. Which of the following industries is least polluting?

a) cement industry b) thermal power plant c) electronic industry d) oil refinery
67. Which of the following has an octane rating of more than 100?
a) gobar gas b) methyl alcohol c) benzyl d) ethyl alcohol
68. A device used to keep moisture from passing through the system is called:
a) humidifier b) aerator c) dehydrator d) trap
69. Select the plant that is suitable for peak load:

a) diesel engine plant b) steam power plant c) nuclear power plant d) all of the above
70. A pump which supplies a boiler “feed” water.

a) Supply pump b) Feed pump c) Independent pump d) Reciprocating pump
71. In most cases what causes faulty operation of centrifugal pump?

a) Faults on inlet line b) Improper priming c) defective motor d) Faults on discharge line
72. A boiler component used to superheat the steam.

a) Super heater b) Reheater c) Feed water heater d) Economizer
73. An equipment used to control steam temperature by removing energy from the steam. It can of the contact type or the shell-and-tube kind, using boiler
water as the cooling medium.
a) Attemperator b) Deaerator c) Desuperheater d) Orsat Apparatus
74. An open type of feedwater heater equip with internal accessories such as air-separating trays in the feedwater, especially oxygen. Excessive oxygen
dissolved in feedwater causes corrosion in boiler drums and tubes.
a) Attemperator b) Deaerator c) Desuperheater d) Orsat Apparatus
75. Diesel engine fuels are rated by:

a) cetane number b) octane number c) calorific valve d) SSU
76. It is generally understood to be the boiler heating surface subject to direct radiation from the surface of the grate, or from the surfaces of oil or gas
burners.
a) Boiler heating surface b) Direct heating surface c) Indirect heating surface d) Heating surface
77. The boiler heating surface within the flues is called as:
78. A closed vessel in which a liquid is heated or vaporized.

a) Boiler b) Hot vessel c) Heater d) Heating vessel
79. A fan used to force air under pressure is known as:

a) Centrifugal fan b) Rotary fan c) Blower d) Axial fan
80. In air distribution, the distance an air stream travels from an outlet to a position at which air motion along the axis reduces to velocity of 50 fpm is called
as:
a) Distance b) Blow c) Flow d) Drag
81. A pipe attached, as to a condenser, to lead off liquid refrigerant, parallel to main flow.
a) Baffle b) Aspirator c) Bleeder d) Agitator
82. In this type of industrial dust collector, the gas passed tangentially into a vertical cylinder with a conical bottom. The gas follows a spiral path with most
of separation taking place in the smaller section. How do you call this type of dust collector?
a) Cyclone Dust Collector b) Spray scrubber c) Electrostatic precipitator d) Dust filter
83. This is a prime mover actuated by the gases resulted from the combustion of liquid or pulverized fuel, injected in a fine state of subdivision into the
engine cylinder at or about the conclusion of the compression stroke. How do you call this prime mover?
a) Diesel Engine b) Gas engine c) Steam Engine d) Heat engine
84. This type of condenser is used to reject heat from a refrigeration system into water. What is this condenser?
a) Water-Cooled Condenser b) Air-cooled condenser
c) Flooded type condenser d) Fins type condenser
4

85. This instrument is used to measure electrical potential. What is this instrument commonly called?
a) Wattmeter b) Voltmeter c) Ammeter d) All of these
86. How do you call the potential electrical difference for electron flow from one line to another in an electrical circuit?
a) Voltage b) Current c) Resistance d) Resonance
87. It is a hydro power plant with a reservoir of sufficient size to permit carry-over storage from the wet season to dry season and, thus, to develop a firm
flow substantially more than the minimum natural flow.
a) Storage-type plant b) Run-of-river plant c) A pumped-storage plant d) All of these
88. It is a hydro plant that generates power for peak load but at off-peak, water is pumped from tail water pool to the headwater pool for future use.
89. This hydro plant is the one with a very limited storage capacity and can be used only as water comes. How do you call this hydro plant?
90. It is the channel into which the water is discharged after passing through the water turbine. How do call this channel?
a) Water tailrace b) Head water c) Penstock d) Water nozzle
91. It is a component in a hydro plant that absorbs water hammer during load fluctuations and serves as an auxiliary reservoir during high load demands.
What is this component?
a) Spillway b) Dam c) Surge tank d) penstock
92. Which of the following is a class of fire involving flammable liquids and gases?
a) Class A fire b) Class B fire c) Class C fire d) Class D fire
93. Class A fire is a class of fire involving which of the following?
a) Ordinary combustible materials such as wood, cloth, paper, rubber and plastic
b) Combustible metals, such magnesium, sodium, potassium, and other similar materials
c) Flammable liquids and gases
d) Energized electrical equipment
94. What is this class of fire involving energized electrical equipment?

95. Class D fire is a class of fire involving which of the following?

96. Which of the following is an instrument used to analyze flues gases?

a) Draft gage b) vircosimeter c) Orsat apparatus d) thermocouple
97. It reduces the pressure of the refrigerant to obtain a lower temperature and regulates the flow of refrigerant going to the evaporator. What is this?
a) Expansion valve b) compressor c) condenser d) aftercooler
98. What occurs when pumps are connected in parallel?

a) Increase head, same discharge b) no change
c) Increase discharge, same head d) increase discharge, increase head
99. It produces the necessary draft required for the flow of gases. What is this component?
a) Chimney b) exhaust fan c) blower d) absorption
100. It indicates the water level inside the boiler. What is this component?
a) Water column b) water walls c) baffles d) fusible plug
101. What is the ratio of the maximum demand of the system to the rated capacity of the system?
a) Operation factor b) utilization factor c) annual capacity factor d) use factor
102. Which of the following is a source of geothermal energy?
a) Hot spring b) steam vent c) geyser d) all of these
103. Which of the following is a type of a natural-draft cooling tower?
a) Forced-draft cooling tower b) Induced-draft cooling tower
c) Hyperbolic cooling tower d) All of the above
SET B
104. A component of steam power plant that drives the electric generator to produce electric power.
a) Steam engine b) Gas turbine c) Steam turbine d) Water turbine
105. This is a device commonly used to cool condenser water in Power and Refrigeration plants. The function of a cooling tower is to reject heat to the

atmosphere by reducing the temperature of water circulated through condenser or other heat rejection equipment.
5

a) Dryer b) Evaporator c) Condenser d) Cooling tower
106. It is the concrete structure that encloses the reservoir of a hydro‐electric power plant.
a) Spillway b) Dam c) Reservoir d) Surge Chamber
107. This is the chamber in the hydro‐electric power plant that stores water coming from the upper river or water falls.

o
108. The equivalent evaporation of 34.5 lb of water per hour from and at 212 F. This is equal to a heat output of 970.3 x 34.5 = 33 475 Btu/hr.
a) Boiler capacity b) Boiler Horsepower c) Electric power d) Mechanical power
109. In the hydro-electric power plant, this is weir in the reservoir which discharges excess water to maintain the head of the plant.

110. It is an aspirator or vacuum pump that creates a negative pressure on the filtrate side of the filter to hasten the process of filtering.
a) Fire pump b) Filter pump d) Reciprocating pump d) Centrifugal pump
111. In a hydro-electric power plant, this is a standpipe connected to the atmosphere and attached to the penstock so that the water will be at

atmospheric pressure.
112. One of the most popular pumps because of their simplicity, low cost, and ability to operate under a wide variety of conditions.
a) Rotary pump b) Centrifugal pump c) Reciprocating pump d) Screw pump
113. In a hydro-electric power plant, it is the channel that leads the water from reservoir to turbine.

a) Spillway b) Penstock c) Reservoir d) Surge Chamber
114. A type of centrifugal pump with specific speed ranging from 1500 rpm to 4500 rpm.
a) Radial type b) Francis type c) Mixed-flow type d) Propeller pump
115. It is a component in the reservoir of a hydro‐electric plant that opens or closes the entrance of the water into the penstock.
a) Trash Rack b) Silt Sluice c) Penstock d) Valve
117. It is the screen that prevents the leaves, branches and other contaminants to enter into the penstock of a hydro‐plant.
119. A type of centrifugal pump with specific speed above 8000 rpm.
120. This pump is known as piston pump and is a pump in which motion and pressure are applied to the fluid by a reciprocating piston in a cylinder.
a) Reciprocating pump b) Centrifugal pump c) Diaphragm pump d) Piston pump
121. This is a displacement-reciprocating pump in which the steam or power piston is connected to the pump piston by means of a rod, without crank motion
or flywheel.
a) Double-acting pump b) Single-acting pump c) Direct-acting pump d) Indirect-acting pump
122. This is a pump that develops its action through the alternate filling and emptying of an enclosed volume, say, in a piston-cylinder system.
a) Displacement pump b) Dynamic pump c) Rotary pump d) Centrifugal pump
123. This is a rotary pump in which two meshing gear wheels rotate in opposite directions so that the liquid is entrained on one side and discharged on the
other side.
a) Gear pump b) Screw-type pump c) Submersible pump d) Jet pump
124. These are pumps in which energy is continuously added to increase the fluid velocities within the machine to values greater than those occurring at the
discharge so subsequent velocity reduction within or beyond the pump produces a pump pressure increase.
a) Dynamic pumps b) Displacement pumps c) Rotary pumps d) Reciprocating pumps
125. These are displacement pumps that deliver a steady flow by the action of two members in rotational contact.
a) Rotary pumps b) Centrifugal pumps c) Screw-type pumps d) Duplex pumps
126. It is a displacement pump that raises liquid by means of helical impellers in the pump casing.
a) Screw-type pump b) Gear pump c) Vane-type pump d) Submersible Pump
6

127. It is a pump in which the pump itself and its electric driving motor are together in a protective housing that permits the unit to operate under water.
128. It is a pump with a rotating-vane device that uses a combination of mechanical impulse and centrifugal force to produce high liquid heads at low
discharge. This pump is also known as turbine pump.
a) Screw-type pump b) Gear pump c) Vane-type pump d) Regenerative pump
129. This is a multistage centrifugal pump used for lifting water from deep and small-diameter wells; and a surface electric motor operates the shaft. It is also
known as deep-wheel pump
a) Vertical turbine pump b) Gear pump c) Vane-type pump d) Regenerative pump
130. This is a pump in which an accelerating jet entrains a second fluid to deliver it at elevated pressure.
a) Vertical turbine pump b) Gear pump c) Jet pump d) Regenerative pump
131. It is a machine used for forcing running water to a higher level by using kinetic energy of flow; the flow of water in the supply pipeline is periodically
stopped so that small portion of water is lifted by the velocity head of a larger portion. This pump is also known as hydraulic ram.
a) Vertical turbine pump b) Hydraulic pump c) Jet pump d) Regenerative pump
132. A reciprocating pump where the packing is on the stationary casing instead of the moving piston.
a) Vertical turbine pump b) Hydraulic pump c) Diaphragm Pump d) Plunger-type pump
133. A reciprocating pump that is using as diaphragm to isolate the operating parts from pumped liquid in a mechanically actuated diaphragm.
134. These are another design of reciprocating pumps used for handling thick pulps, sewage sludge, acids, or alkaline solutions, mixture of water and gritty
solids that wear out metal pumps, and for handling liquid solutions or pulps where a constant flow volume is required.
135. This machine is used to convert the potential energy in water behind a dam into shaft work, ordinarily used to drive an electric generator
a) Water turbine b) Steam turbine c) Gas turbine d) Air turbine
136. A special type of propeller turbine featuring variable-angle blades that can be changed with water flow to maintain high efficiency
a) Water turbine b) Kaplan turbine c) Francis-type turbine d) Pelton turbine
137. It is a type of hydro-electric power plant with a reservoir of sufficient size to permit carry-over storage from the wet season to dry season and, thus, to
develop a firm flow substantially more than the minimum natural flow.
a) Storage-type plant b) Run-of-river plant c) Pumped-storage plant d) All of these
138. This plant is one with a very limited storage capacity and can be used only as water comes.
139. This hydro-power plant is suitable only for streams that have a sustained flow during the dry season or where other reservoirs upstream provide the
necessary storage.
140. A machine in the pumping action is accomplished by imparting kinetic energy to the fluid by high speed revolving impeller with vanes and subsequently
converting this kinetic energy into pressure energy either by passing the fluid thru a volute casing or thru diffuser vanes
a) Centrifugal pump b) Displacement pump c) Rotary pump d) Reciprocating pump
141. This pump is motivated by the force of steam on the steam piston. The steam and water pistons are connected by a piston rod and any force applied on
the steam piston is transmitted to the water piston. Steam and water pistons are normally double-acting which means that every stroke of the water
piston is a delivery stroke
a) Direct-acting reciprocating pump b) Indirect-acting Pump c) Displacement pump d) Centrifugal pump
142. This water pump is driven by, either an electric motor, internal combustion engine, steam turbine, gas turbine, or steam engine. It is also called power
pump. It has high efficiency and constant speed because of the type of drive. Capable of delivering constant quantity of fluid against variable head. It is
either single-acting or double-acting.
143. A reciprocating pump with one cylinder

a) Simplex pump b) Duplex pump c) Triplex pump d) All of these
144. A reciprocating pump with two cylinders

145. A reciprocating pump with three cylinders

146. The effluent coming out from the geothermal well as produced after drilling. This can be purely steam or hot water, or a mixture of both
a) Well-Bore product b) Brine water c) Dissolved solids d) Condensed water
147. It refers to a geothermal plant with its well producing all steam as the well-bore product.
7

a) Steam-dominated geothermal field b) Liquid geothermal field c) Ground subsidence d) Flashed water system
148. The well-bore product for this type of filed is practically all hot water, pressurized
149. A heat-saving equipment made of a bundle of tubes where the feedwater, before introduced to the boiler is heated by the outgoing flue gas. This is
normally installed in the breaching which is the part of the boiler between the gas outlet and the chimney.
a) Economizer b) Attemperator c) Desuperheater d) Deaerator
water as the cooling medium
151. A contact type desuperheater using boiler as the cooling medium sprayed directly into the superheated steam inside a mixing chamber equipped with
nozzles
dissolved in feedwater causes corrosion in boiler drums and tubes
153. A water-softening material of complex chemical structure and of sandy texture contained in a cylindrical tank where raw water is made to pass through.
The system removes various ions from the water, replacing then with other ions of like charge. In this process, the hardness of raw water like calcium
salts will be removed
a) Zeolite Softener b) Attemperator c) Desuperheater d) Deaerator
154. An apparatus consisting of glass burettes and graduated cylinder containing the proper chemical reagents; used to analyze the volumetric composition
of an exhaust gas or similar gases by absorption process
a) Orsat apparatus b) Bomb Calorimeter c) Gas calorimeter d) Steam calorimeter
155. A device used to determine the heating value of fluid.

156. It takes place in boiler tubes and drums due to the dissolved solids or salts in the feed water. These salts are usually calcium, magnesium and silicates.
Essentially it takes place when the water in the boiler reaches chemical saturation and precipitation with sedimentation flows, forming a layer of scale
on the heating surface and loose precipitates in drums
a) Scaling b) Corrosion c) Foaming and Priming d) Caustic Embrittlement
157. The destruction conversion of metal into oxides or salts. This is due to the acid condition of water or the presence of too much oxygen, carbon dioxides
or chlorides. The most serious factor is the oxygen dissolved in the feedwater.
158. The condition of boiler operation where stable foam is produced which may or may not be accompanied by priming, which is the production of wet
steam or slugs of waters. Wet steam or slugs of water is destructive to turbine blades, steam piping, and engine because of resulting metal erosion.
Foaming is primarily caused by too high concentration of dissolved salts, floating organic matter, or saponification of boiler water through mixture of oil
or grease with the alkal
159. The condition at which the steel tubes or drums or a boiler lose their toughness and cracks appear along the seams below the water line. This is
essentially due to the presence of relatively high concentration of sodium hydroxide in the absence of inhibit agents. A high concentration of sodium
hydroxide is attributed to the presence of too much sodium bicarbonate in the feedwater
160. The presence of impurity bearing droplets of water in the steam flow. This is primarily caused by foaming
a) Scaling b) Carryover c) Foaming and Priming d) Caustic Embrittlement
161. The condition that would occur when superheated steam expands suddenly to the most regions with little to condense partially, and there are no nuclei
to promote condensation. This results in steam temperature at a given pressure, and a lower specific volum
a) Supersaturation b) Carryover c) Foaming and Priming d) Caustic Embrittlement
162. A device used to measure the linear distance traversed

a) Odometer b) Bourdon Gauge c) Pitot tube d) Westphal Balances
163. A pressure measuring device
164. It measures the total pressure (static and velocity pressure)

165. It measures the specific gravity of a fluid
a) Odometer b) Bourdon Gauge c) Pitot tube d) Westphal Balance
166. Measure the specific gravity of a liquid

a) Hydrometer b) Radiation Pyrometer c) Optical Pyrometer d) Bomb Calorimeter
167. A maintenance method with periodic time schedule inspection to detect wear and tear in advance of actual equipment breakdown with subsequent
replacement of worn out parts before they fall in order to minimized interference in operation.
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a) Preventive Maintenance b) Maintenance Chart c) Corrective Maintenance d) Routine Maintenance
168. A typical time schedule chart indicating the equipment and the maintenance activity to accomplished such as lubrication or replacement of parts
169. A maintenance method for improvements or minor changes in design and substitution of more suitable components or improve materials of
construction to eliminate a problem
170. A maintenance method consists of the regular maintenance activities like lubrication, recharging of batteries and replacement of certain parts.
171. A typical weekly schedule of servicing an equipment to detect possible defect
a) Preventive Maintenance b) Inspection Schedule c) Corrective Maintenance d) Routine Maintenance
172. It provide effectives atmospheric dispersion of gaseous and particulate pollutants with acceptable ground level concentration. These are high enough to
produce draft.
a) Chimney b) Cyclone Dust Collector c) Spray Scrubber–tower type d) Electrostatic Precipitator
173. In this type of industrial dust collector, the gas passed tangentially into a vertical cylinder with a conical bottom The gas follows a spiral path with most
of the separation taking place in the smaller section.
174. In this type of industrial dust collector, the gas passing upward concurrently as the descending liquid. Set of spray are place in the tope come with the
various materials used in the layers to channel and mix the gas and water
175. In this type of industrial dust collector, charged dust particles are attracted to the electric field of the electrostatic precipitator
176. A type of boiler in which the water is inside the tubes while the hot gasses are outside
a) Fire-tube boiler b) Water-tube boiler c) Straight tube boiler d) Box header type boiler
177. These boilers are those in which the products of combustion passes through the tubes and the water lies around the outside of them
a) Fire-tube boilers b) Water-tube boilers c) Straight tube boilers d) Box header type boilers
178. A water tube boilers having a parallel group of straight equal-length tubes, arranged in a uniform pattern and joined at either ends to headers
a) Bent-tube boilers b) Water-tube boilers c) Straight tube boilers d) Box header type boilers
179. Boilers in which heating evaporation and superheating are accomplished in one pass, usually of the forced circulation type, and does not need
separation tanks.
a) Bent-tube boilers b) Once-through-boilers c) Straight tube boilers d) Box header type boilers
180. A device used to removed soot, cinder and fly ash that have accumulated at the surface of the boiler tubes utilizing steam jets or compressed air
a) Soot blower b) Steam purities c) Economizer d) Safety Valves
181. A device that removes solid or dissolved matter in steam which can become a source of operating difficulties in superheater and turbine.
182. A feed water heater deriving heat form gaseous products of combustion
183. A device that prevents rise of steam pressure above a predetermined limit
184. A device that gives information on the water level in the boiler
a) Water Column b) Blow-off-valve c) Steam vent d) Water Wall
185. A valve that is used to removed some of the water to reduce its concentration
186. A small outlet on the top drum normally closed by a valve, which may be opened when it is desired to hold atmospheric pressure in the boiler, as during
initial boiling out.
187. A system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the evaporative capacity of a water tube boiler and at the same time protect the furnaces walls
against high temperature
188. How do you call a large pipe or drum into which each group of boilers is connected?
a) Header b) spigot c) baffles d) stack
189. In pipe identification, what is the color of pipe used for electricity?
a) White b) light orange c) violet d) brown
190. It is the most widely-used industrial pressure gage applied to both pressure and vacuum.
a) Bourdon tube gage b) Bell-type gage c) Phillips vacuum gage d) Helical-type gage
191. Refined petroleum naptha by its composition is suitable for use as a carburetant in internal-combustion engines.
a) Alcohol b) alcohol & kerosene c) kerosene d) gasoline
192. Hydrocarbons found in liquefied Petroleum Gases.
a) propane b) propylene c) iso-butane d) all of these
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193. Which of the following is not a solid fuel?
a) Peat b) briquettes c) tar d) coke
194. How do you call the fans used to force air under pressure?
a) Blowers b) dehumidifiers c) fans d) exhausters
195. It measures temperature by electromotive force.

a) Thermocouple b) mercury thermometer c) radiation pyrometer d) optical pyrometer
196. It is a part of centrifugal pump which imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from centrifugal forces it produces as it rotates. What is this pump part?
a) Shaft b) impeller c) wearing rings d) bearings
197. How do you call a steel pipe coated with zinc-to resist corrosion?
a) Anti-rust pipe b) Wrought pipe c) Black pipe d) Galvanized pipe
198. What is a pipe fitting with a number of branches in line connecting the smaller pipes?
a) Cross-over b) saddle flange c) manifold d) header
199. Which of the following is not a requirement in designing pipe installation?
a) All pipings should be run parallel to building walls b) Minimum factor of safety of 4 for working pressure applied
c) Galvanized pipe should be used for steam d) All piping to header shall come back rack
200. How do you call the part of valve used to guide and support the valve stern?
a) Spigot joint b) Saddle flange c) Bull head tee d) Bonnet
201. In the piping installation, what is the color of the pipe to be used for water?
a) Blue b) Silver-gray c) White d) Green
202. Of the following devices, the one that is used to record the air-flow-steam-flow relationship of a boiler in a steam plant is a:
a) Orsat analyzer b) manometer c) steam-flow meter d) heat meter
203. In planning preventive maintenance program, the FIRST step to be taken is to:
a) repair all equipment that is not in service b) check all fuel oil burner tips
c) make an inventory of all planting equipment d) check all electrical wiring to motors
204. In accordance with recommended maintenance practice, thermostats used in a pneumatic temperature control system SHOULD be checked:
a) weekly b) bi-monthly c) monthly d) once a year
205. Of the following, the BEST method use to determine the moisture level in a refrigeration system is to:
a) weigh the driver after it has been in the system for a period of time b) visually check the sight glass for particles of corrosion
c) use a moisture indicator d) test a sampler lubricating oil with phosphorus pentoxide
206. Of the following, the MAIN purpose of a subcooler in a refrigerant piping system for a two-stage system is to:
a) reduce the total power requirements and total heat rejection to the second stage
b)reduce the total power requirements and return oil to the compressor
c) improve the flow of evaporator gas per ton and increase the temperature
d) increase the heat rejection per ton and avoid system shutdown
207. In large refrigeration systems and usual location for charging the refrigeration system is into the:
a) suction line b) liquid line between the receiver shut-off valve and the expansion valve
c) line between the condenser and the compressor d) line between the high pressure cut-off switch and the expansion valve
SET C
208. Consider as heat engine produces thermal energy which is transformed into rotational mechanical energy which is converted into electrical energy.
a) Hydro-electric power plant b) Diesel power plant c) thermal power plant d) Gas turbine power plant
209. In a Diesel engine fuel is burned inside the cylinder by:

a) Spark ignition b) Compression ignition c) Spark and compression ignition d) It depends on the type of the fuel
210. A component of steam power plant that drives the electric generator to produce electric power.
a) Steam engine b) Gas turbine c) Steam turbine d) Water turbine
211. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a) Fuel injector b) Spark plug c) Carburator d) Radiator
212. A component of auxiliary system used to supply air for combustion.

a) Intake system b) Exhaust system c) Fuel system d) Ignition system
213. This is a device commonly used to cool condenser water in Power and Refrigeration plants. The function of a cooling tower is to reject heat to the

atmosphere by reducing the temperature of water circulated through condenser or other heat rejection equipment.
a) Dryer b) Evaporator c) Condenser d) Cooling tower
214. It is an auxiliary system used to deliver fuel to cylinders under specific conditions.
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215. It is the concrete structure that encloses the reservoir of a hydro‐electric power plant.
216. This auxiliary component consists of the piston, cylinder, and cylinder head. These parts form the combustion chamber. Ignition occurs when the temp
of the compressed air within the chamber exceeds the ignition temp of the injected fuel.
217. This is the chamber in the hydro‐electric power plant that stores water coming from the upper river or water falls.

o
219. An auxiliary system component used to remove heat not transformed to work in order to prevent lobe oil breakdown, metal fatigue, stress This system
circulates coolant (Seawater, Freshwater, or air) through and around critical parts.
a) Intake system b) Exhaust system c) Cooling system d) Ignition system
220. In the hydro-electric power plant, this is weir in the reservoir which discharges excess water to maintain the head of the plant.

221. This Diesel engine auxiliary system component is used to provide adequate lube oil so that friction and wear can be reduced to a minimum for all
moving metal parts.
a) Lobe oil system b) Exhaust system c) Cooling system d) Ignition system
223. In a hydro-electric power plant, this is a standpipe connected to the atmosphere and attached to the penstock so that the water will be at

atmospheric pressure.
224. Diesel engine was invented in 1897 by:

a) Sadi Diesel b) Rudolf Diesel c) Jorge Diesel d) Mario Diesel
226. In a hydro-electric power plant, it is the channel that leads the water from reservoir to turbine.

a) Spillway b) Penstock c) Reservoir d) Surge Chamber
228. It is an electromechanical device that converts mechanical energy of a Diesel engine to alternating current electrical energy.
a) Alternator b) Exciter c) Turbocharger d) Electric motor
229. It is a component in the reservoir of a hydro‐electric plant that opens or closes the entrance of the water into the penstock.
231. The purpose of this engine component is to raise the volumetric efficiency above that value which can be obtained by normal aspiration. It is used to
increase rated power output capacity of a given engine or to make the rating equal at high altitudes corresponding to the un supercharged sea level
rating
a) Fuel injector b) Supercharger c) Fuel pump d) Intake valve
232. It is the screen that prevents the leaves, branches and other contaminants to enter into the penstock of a hydro‐plant.
233. Black color of smoke at the engine exhaust means:

a) Insufficient air b) Excess air c) Efficient combustion d) Too low compression pressure
235. One of the causes of white smoke in the engine exhaust:

a) Fuel valve open too long b) Too low compression pressure
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c) Overload on engine d) One or more cylinder not getting enough fuel
236. White smoke on the exhaust of a Diesel engine means:

a) Excess air b) Insufficient air c) Sufficient combustion d) Carbon in exhaust pipe
238. Color of smoke in the exhaust of the Diesel engine for efficient combustion.
a) White smoke b) Black smoke c) Light brown braze d) Bluish smoke
240. _____________ actually is not noxious as a product of combustion of all fossil fuels. It is now considered to be one of the main causes of the
greenhouse effect. A reduction of this emission can only be achieved by improving the engine efficiency or by using fuels containing lower
concentration of carbon such as natural gas.
a) Carbon dioxide (CO2) b) Sulfur oxides (SOx) c) Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) d) Carbon Monoxide
241. ______________ are formed due to the combustion of sulphur contained in the fuel. They are one of the primary causes of acid rain. This engine
emission is primarily influenced by the amount of sulphur contained in the fuel used. Much less influence can be taken by the fuel.
242. It is a colorless, highly noxious gas which forms where the combustion of fuels containing carbon proceeds under (possibly local) air starvation.
or flywheel.
244. A closed vessel in which steam is condensed by abstracting the heat and where the pressure is maintained below atmospheric pressure is known as a:
a) Condenser b) Evaporator c) Cooling tower d) Heater
245. In this type of steam condensers there is no direct contact between the steam and cooling water and the condensate can be re-used in the boiler.
a) Surface condenser b) Jet condenser c) Direct contact condenser d) Down flow condenser
247. In this steam condenser, Steam enters at the top and flows downward. The water flowing through the tubes in one direction lower half comes out in the
opposite direction in the upper half.
a) Central flow condenser b) Down flow condenser c) Evaporation condenser d) Jet condenser
248. In this condenser the steam passages are all around the periphery of the shell. Air is pumped away from the centre of the condenser. The condensate
moves radially towards the centre of tube nest. Some of the exhaust steams while moving towards the centre meets the undercooled condensate and
pre-heats it thus, reducing under cooling.
other side.
250. In this condenser steam to be condensed is passed through a series of tubes and the cooling waterfalls over these tubes in the form of spray. A steam
of air flows over the tubes to increase evaporation of cooling water, which further increases the condensation of steam.
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necessary storage.
268. ______________ is used in which nuclear energy is converted into heat to be used in producing steam for turbines, which in turn drive generators
that produces electric power.
a) Nuclear power plant b) Thermal power plant c) Gas turbine power plant d) Hydro-electric power plant

13




produce draft.
separation tanks.
14

SET D
310. It refers to the control of temperature, moisture content, cleanliness, air quality, and air circulation as required by occupants, a process, or a product in
the space.
a) Refrigeration b) Air conditioning c) Humidifying d) Cooling
311. What is the study of the properties of air and water vapor or moist air?
a) Psychrometry b) Refrigerating c) Dehumidifying d) Sensible heating
312. It is a closed vessel in which a liquid is heated or vaporized.

a) Air receiver b) Boiler c) Evaporator d) Condenser
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15

or flywheel.
other side.
necessary storage.
16

342. This water pump is driven by, either an electric motor, internal combustion engine, steam turbine, gas turbine, or steam engine. It is also called power
pump. It has high efficiency and constant speed because of the type of drive. Capable of delivering constant quantity of fluid against variable head. It is
either single-acting or double-acting.
343. A reciprocating pump with one cylinder

344. A reciprocating pump with two cylinders

345. A reciprocating pump with three cylinders

346. The effluent coming out from the geothermal well as produced after drilling. This can be purely steam or hot water, or a mixture of both
a) Well-Bore product b) Brine water c) Dissolved solids d) Condensed water
347. It refers to a geothermal plant with its well producing all steam as the well-bore product.
348. The well-bore product for this type of filed is practically all hot water, pressurized
349. A heat-saving equipment made of a bundle of tubes where the feedwater, before introduced to the boiler is heated by the outgoing flue gas. This is
normally installed in the breaching which is the part of the boiler between the gas outlet and the chimney.
water as the cooling medium
351. A contact type desuperheater using boiler as the cooling medium sprayed directly into the superheated steam inside a mixing chamber equipped with
nozzles

17






367. Measure the high extremely temperature
368. Measure the temperature thru varying resistance
369. A measuring device used to measure the Higher Heating Value of coal
370. It is used to determine quality of high quality of steam by a throttle valve
a) Throttling Calorimeter b) Anemometer c) Psychrometer d) Velometer
371. Use to measure the air speed (wind)

372. Use to measure the relative humidity of air
373. Use to measure all velocity

374. Measure the presence of radioactivity
a) Geiger-Muller Counter b) Separating Calorimeter c) Vibrating Rod d) Anemometer
375. It is used to measures sound intensity

376. It measures the frequency of an element
377. A device used in analyzing the dry products of combustion

a) Geiger-Muller Counter b) Separating Calorimeter c) Vibrating Rod d) Orsat Apparatus
378. A term used in pulverizing coal. It is the measure of the relative hardness or easiness of grinding of pulverized coal
a) Geiger-Muller Counter b) Separating Calorimeter c) Grindability index d) Orsat Apparatus
379. A pollution control device is used to control very small or minute particulates which not be dispersed by mechanical collector. This uses electrostatic
charges on two electrodes which ionize the particulates as they pass thru
a) Geiger-Muller Counter b) Electrostatic Precipitator c) Grindability index d) Orsat Apparatus
18

produce draft.
separation tanks.
396. A device that prevents rise of steam pressure above a predetermined limit
cutting edges.
machine.
404. The simplest operation that can be performed in a milling machine by having a cutter which length is greater than the diameter.
405. A milling machine operation which is machining large surfaces at right angle and parallel to the axis of the cutter.
19

a. Long-nose pliers b. Side-cutting pliers c. Diagonal pliers d. All of the above
a. Hammer b. Wrench c. File d. All of the above
a. Open-end wrench b. Adjustable wrench c. Box wrench d. All of the above
a. Box wrench b. Adjustable wrench c Open-end wrench d. None of the above
413. The operation of pushing off, rather than peeling off, a small chip with a very hard tool having no rake.
a. filing b. chipping c. scraping d. none of the above
414. A tool used to remove the high spots on the surface of a machine part or workpiece.
a. file b. chisel c. scraper d. all of the above
SET E
415. What is a device used to determine the specific gravity of liquid?

a) Manometer b) Hydrometer c) Psychrometer d) Pitot tubr
416. It is a device used to measure fluid velocity. How do you call this device?
a) Manometer b) Hydrometer c) Psychrometer d) Pitot tube
417. Which of the following is an instrument that can be used to measure the flow of water in a pipe of diameter up to 3 m?
a) Pitot tube b) Manometer c) Nozzle d) Piezometer
418. A vertical turbine pump with the pump and motor closed coupled and designed to be installed underground, as in the case of deep well pump, is known
as:
a) Deep well pump b) Shallow pump c) Submersible pump d) Turbine pump
419. A pump that takes suction from a public service main or private-use water system for the purpose of increasing the effective water pressure is said to
be:
a) Supply pump b) Booster pump c) Feed pump d) Horizontal pump
420. A centrifugal pump with one or more impellers discharging into one or more bowls and vertical eductor or column pipe used to connect the bowls to the
discharge head on which the pump driver is mounted.
a) Vertical shaft turbine pump b) Horizontal pump c) In-line pump d) Ground water pump
421. How do you call a space that is entirely devoid of gases, liquids, or solids?
a) Empty space b) Evacuated space c) Perfect vacuum d) Perfect space
422. It is a centrifugal pump in which the driving unit is supported by the pump having its suction and discharge flanges on approximately the same center.
What is this pump?
a) Horizontal pump b) In-line pump c) Horizontal Split-Cage Pump d) Ground water pump
423. How do you call a centrifugal pump characterized by a housing that is split parallel to the shaft?
a) Horizontal pump b) In-line pump c) Horizontal Split-Cage Pump d) Ground water pump
424. A water that is available from a well, driven into water-bearing subsurface strata. How do you call this?
a) Ground water b) Mineral water c) Surface water d) Hard water
425. The level, with respect to the pump, of the body of water from which it takes suction when the pump is in operation.
a) Ground water level b) Pumping water level c) Draw down level d) Static water level
426. What is the rate of flow of liquid measures per unit time, usually gpm or lps?
a) Discharge b) Capacity c) Volume flow rate d) Mass flow rate
427. How do you call a device set in a pipe to enable Bourdon gauge or a manometer to show the net or normal pressure?
a) Pressure gauge b) Manometer c) Piezometer d) Pitot tube
20

428. It is a centrifugal pump basic part that imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from centrifugal force as the impeller is rotated.
a) Casing b) Impeller c) Vanes d) Blade
429. It is a basic centrifugal part that gives direction to the flow from the impeller and converts this velocity energy into pressure energy that is usually
measured in meter of head.
a) Casing b) Impeller c) Vanes d) Stuffing box
a) Reciprocating pumps b) Diaphragm pumps c) Centrifugal pumps d) Rotary pumps
431. Which of the following is not true for centrifugal pumps?

a) The discharge of centrifugal pumps can be throttled without the building up an excessive pressure or overloading its driving unit.
b) The runner of the diffuser type pump is surrounded by gradually expanding passages formed by stationary guide vanes.
c) Casing is a basic centrifugal part that gives direction to the flow from the impeller and converts this velocity energy into pressure energy that is
usually measured in meter of head.
d) The discharge of centrifugal pumps cannot be throttled because there will be a building up of an excessive pressure; thus, overloading
the driving unit.
432. The specific speed of a Radial-type impeller centrifugal pump is:

a) Ranging from 500 to 3000 rpm b) Ranging from 1500 to 4500 rpm
c) Ranging from 4500 to 8000 rpm d) Greater than 8000 rpm
433. The specific speed of a Mixed-flow-type impeller centrifugal pump is:

c) Ranging from 4500 to 8000 rpm d) Greater than 8000 rpm
434. The specific speed of a propeller-type impeller centrifugal pump is:

c) Ranging from 4500 to 8000 rpm d) Above 8000 rpm
435. A centrifugal pump that is used for low heads (from 3 to 40 ft), low speed (200 to 1800 rpm), and large capacities.
a) Radial type pump b) Francis type c) Mixed flow type d) Propeller type
436. When a pump is operating at speeds other than that it is tested, the capacity is:
a) Proportional to the speed b) Proportional to the square of speed
c) Proportional to the impeller diameter d) Proportional to the square the impeller diameter
437. A pump in which motion and pressure are applied to the fluid by a reciprocating piston in a cylinder.
a) Reciprocating Pump b) Displacement pump c) Dynamic pump d) Centrifugal pump
438. Reciprocating pump is also known as:

a) Gear pump b) Screw pump c) Piston pump d) Vane pump
439. A displacement-reciprocating pump in which the steam or power piston is connected to the pump piston by means of a rod, without crank motion or
flywheel, is known as:
a) Double-acting pump b) Direct-acting pump c) Indirect-acting pump d) Power pump
440. A pump that develops its action through the alternate filling and emptying of an enclosed volume, say, in a piston-cylinder system.
a) Displacement pump b) Reciprocating pump c) Diaphragm pump d) Dynamic pump
441. A pump in which a measured quantity of liquid is entrapped in a space, its pressure is raised, and then it is delivered. Say, a reciprocating piston
cylinder, rotary vane, gear, or lobe pumps.
a) Displacement pump b) Positive displacement pump c) Dynamic pump d) Rotary pump
442. It is a rotary pump in which two meshing gear wheels rotate in opposite directions so that the liquid is entrained on one side and discharged on the
other side.
a) Gear pump b) Rotary pump c) Screw pump d) Vane pump
a) Gear pumps b) Rotary pumps c) Displacement pumps d) Dynamic pumps
444. A displacement pump that raises liquid by means of helical impellers in the pump casing, is known as:
a) Gear pump b) Screw-type pump c) Vane-type pump d) Piston-type pump
445. It is a reciprocating pump with two parallel cylinders.

a) Simplex pump b) Duplex pump c) Triplex pump d) Multi-cylinder pump
446. A pump in which the pump itself and its electric driving motor are together in a protective housing that permits the unit to operate under water, is known
as:
a) Direct-acting pump b) Deep well pump c) Submersible pump d) Turbine pump
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447. Submersible pumps are:
a) Either rotary, centrifugal, or reciprocating pumps b) Positive displacement pumps
c) Dynamic pumps d) Direct-acting pumps
448. A pump with a rotating-vane device that uses a combination of mechanical impulse and centrifugal force to produce high liquid heads at low discharge
is called as:
a) Vertical turbine pump b) Hydraulic pump c) Regenerative pump d) Reciprocating pump
449. Regenerative pump is also called as:

a) Turbine pump b) Hydraulic pump c) Regenerative pump d) Reciprocating pump
450. These are three-cylindered pumps used to produce overlapping deliveries and minimize pulsation.
a) Duplex pumps b) Triplex pumps c) Simplex pumps d) Multi-cylinder pumps
451. It is a reciprocating pump in which the steam piston connects directly to the liquid piston or plunger.
a) Power pump b) Indirect-acting pump c) Direct-acting pump d) Steam pump
452. Machine that convert the potential energy in water behind a dam into shaft work, ordinarily used to drive an electric generator.
a) Hydraulic machines b) Water turbines c) Steam turbines d) Water pumps
453. A special type of propeller turbine featuring variable-angle blades that can be changed with water flow to maintain high efficiency is known as:
a) Impulse turbine b) Reaction turbine c) Kaplan turbine d) Pelton turbine
454. Turbines that are used for an intermediate range of heads.

a) Francis, or radial- and mixed-flow, turbines b) Propeller turbines
c) Pelton turbines d) Impulse turbines
455. Water turbines that are built with fixed blades and variable-pitch blades.
a) Propeller turbines b) Francis turbines c) Pelton turbines d) Kaplan turbines
456. The difference in the total head for the water entering the turbine casing and the total head leaving the draft tube.
a) Net effective head b) Gross head c) Utilized head d) Total dynamic head
457. The speed of a hypothetical model turbine having the same configuration as the actual turbine, when the model would be of the proper size to develop
1 Hp at a head of 1 ft.
a) Specific speed b) Water runner speed c) Turbine speed d) Water speed
458. Impulse turbine efficiencies:

a) Vary from about 82 to 90 % b) Ranging from 90 to 95 % c) Vary from 85 to 90 % d) Vary from 95 to 98 %
459. A head measured at the bottom of the pitch circle of the runner with no consideration given to the water level at the tailrace (because there is no draft
tube).
a) Effective head of an Impulse turbine b) Effective head of a reaction turbine
c) Gross head of an Impulse turbine d) Gross head of a reaction turbine
460. Which of the following is an instrument used to analyze flues gases?

a) Draft gage b) vircosimeter c) Orsat apparatus d) thermocouple
461. It reduces the pressure of the refrigerant to obtain a lower temperature and regulates the flow of refrigerant going to the evaporator. What is this?
a) Expansion valve b) compressor c) condenser d) aftercooler
462. What occurs when pumps are connected in parallel?

a) Increase head, same discharge b) no change
c) Increase discharge, same head d) increase discharge, increase head
463. It produces the necessary draft required for the flow of gases. What is this component?
a) Chimney b) exhaust fan c) blower d) absorption
464. It indicates the water level inside the boiler. What is this component?
a) Water column b) water walls c) baffles d) fusible plug
465. What is the ratio of the maximum demand of the system to the rated capacity of the system?
a) Operation factor b) utilization factor c) annual capacity factor d) use factor
466. Which of the following is a source of geothermal energy?

a) Hot spring b) steam vent c) geyser d) all of these
467. Which of the following is a type of a natural-draft cooling tower?

a) Forced-draft cooling tower b) Induced-draft cooling tower
c) Hyperbolic cooling tower d) All of the above
468. Which of the following is the most commonly-used pyrometer?

a) Optical pyrometer b) Radiation pyrometer c) Thermoelectric pyrometer d) Bimetallic pyrometer
22

469. It is a pipe attached to the penstock to be able to let the water be at atmospheric pressure. What is this?
a) Draft tube b) Surge chamber c) Spillway d) Silt sluice
470. Which of the following is not considered as gaseous fuel?

a) Acetylene b) Liquefied petroleum gas c) Bunker d) Propane
471. What is the Ratio of the density of a liquid to the density of water?
a) Specific humidity b) specific gravity c) relative humidity d) relative gravity
472. In a steam generator, what do you call the duct that connects the boiler to the chimney?
a) Breeching b) Blowdown valve c) Gage glass d) Baffles
473. In relation to brakepower, what is the instrument used to measure the torque?
a) Tachometer b) Engine indicator c) Anemometer d) Dynamometer
474. Which of the following refrigerants is the one used in ice-plant refrigeration?
a) R-12 b) R-22 c) ammonia d) R-40
475. It is an instrument that indicates the percentage of carbon dioxide in flue gases in a power plant.
a) Hydrometer b) odometer c) Ranarex indicator d) dial indicator
476. In the steam generators, what is the ratio of the developed boiler hp to the rated boiler hp?
a) Actual specific evaporation b) percent rating c) net boiler efficiency d) thermal efficiency
477. The low thermal head plant is also known as:

a) Geothermal thermal plant b) Ocean-thermal energy conversion
c) Ocean hydro plant d) Ocean geothermal conversion
478. Which of the following converts the chemical energy to electrical energy?
a) Turbine b) Generator c) chemical converter d) fuel cell
479. It converts solar energy to electrical energy. How do you call this device
a) Photovoltaic cell b) Solar cell c) Flat plate d) Fuel cell
480. Which of the following is not an instrument used to measure flow rates?
a) Rotameter b) Velometer c) Anemometer d) Flowmeter
481. The refrigeration system follows which of the following cycles?

a) Rankine cycle b) reversed Rankine cycle c) reversed Carnot cycle d) Carnot cycle
482. It is a closed vessel intended for use in heating water or for application of heat to generate steam. What is this?
a) Water heater b) Intercooler c) Aftercooler d) boiler
483. The achievement of temperature below that of the surrounding temperature. How do you call that?
a) Air-conditioning b) refrigeration c) cooling and humidifying d) ventilation
484. How do you call an evaporator constructed of pipe or tubing?

a) Stop valve b) Brazed joint c) Expansion coil d) expansion valve
485. Which of the following is the minimum factor of safety for reinstalled or second hand boilers?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
486. It has the same equipment as the refrigerating system but it operates for the purpose of delivering heat at a higher temperature level. How do you call
this?
a) Steam generator b) Heat pump c) Steam-jet vacuum d) Heat engine
487. It is the one having two or more refrigerant circuits, each with a condenser, evaporator, and a pressure imposing element, where the evaporator of one
circuit cools the condenser of the other circuit. How do you call this system?
a) Absorption b) Brine spray c) Multiple d) Cascade
488. The temperature of air to be used for comfort cooling shall be in the range of:
o o o o o o o o
a) 19 C - 23 C b) 20 C - 23.3 C c) 21 C - 22 C d) 21 C - 23.3 C
489. It is a valve held closed by a spring or other means and designed to automatically relieve pressure in excess of its setting. What is this valve?
a) Pressure-limiting device b) Spring-relief device c) Pressure-relief device d) Safety-relief device
490. It is a part of centrifugal pump which imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from centrifugal forces it produces as it rotates. What is this pump part?
a) Shaft b) impeller c) wearing rings d) bearings
491. How do you call a steel pipe coated with zinc-to resist corrosion?
a) Anti-rust pipe b) Wrought pipe c) Black pipe d) Galvanized pipe
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492. What is a pipe fitting with a number of branches in line connecting the smaller pipes?
a) Cross-over b) saddle flange c) manifold d) header
493. Which of the following is not a requirement in designing pipe installation?

a) All pipings should be run parallel to building walls b) Minimum factor of safety of 4 for working pressure applied
c) Galvanized pipe should be used for steam d) All piping to header shall come back rack
494. How do you call the part of valve used to guide and support the valve stern?
a) Spigot joint b) Saddle flange c) Bull head tee d) Bonnet
495. In the piping installation, what is the color of the pipe to be used for water?
a) Blue b) Silver-gray c) White d) Green
496. What is the color for pipes used in communications?

a) Light blue b) safety yellow c) light orange d) white
497. Which of the following is a method of classifying coal?

a) By rank b) By grade c) By type d) All of these
498. It is a branch of which is larger than the run. How do you call this?
a) Compression joint b) saddle flanges c) bull head tee d) butt weld joint

504. Which of the following is not a solid fuel?

a) Peat b) briquettes c) tar d) coke
505. How do you call the fans used to force air under pressure?
a) Blowers b) dehumidifiers c) fans d) exhausters
506. It measures temperature by electromotive force.

a) Thermocouple b) mercury thermometer c) radiation pyrometer d) optical pyrometer
507. A refrigeration system using the direct method in which refrigerant is delivered to two or more evaporators in separate rooms or in refrigerators.
a) multiple-pressure b) direct expansion c) mechanical d) flooded
508. The carbon dioxide concentration of air in all rooms, when measured 910 mm. above the floor shall not exceed:
a) 90 ppm b) 100 ppm c) 110 ppm d) 120 ppm
509. A small fitting with a double offset, or shaped like the letter U with the ends turned out.
a) elbow toe b) expansion loop c) spigot joint d) cross-over
510. Color of pipe used for acids and alkalis.

a) violet b) safety red c) beige d) green
511. Determines the amount of non-combustible impurities, which come principally from the natural slats in the crude oil.
a) ash b) sulfur c) sodium d) fixed carbon
512. Relative humidity of air to be used for comfort cooling.
a) 50% to 55% b) 55% to 60% c) 60% to 65% d) 65% to 70%
513. A refrigerating system in which the pressure-imposing element is mechanically-operated.

a) central point b) absorption c) chilled water d) compression
514. What is a cushioning device at the end of a trolley, bridge or other moving parts of a crane operating on rails to minimize shock in the event of collision?
a) Bumper b) bridge c) buffer d) cover
515. How do you call a boom- type mobile crane mounted on endless tracks or tread belts?
a) Crawler crane b) hammerhead crane c) gantry crane d) jib crane
516. An apparatus for raising or lowering a load by application of a pulling force, but does not include a car or platform riding in guides.
a) crane b) hoist c) elevator d) none of these
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517. In boiler, what is the maximum distance of any smokestack from any woodwork or framing?
a) 305 mm b) 350 mm c) 400 mm d) 450 mm
518. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the absolute external pressure at the liquid-vapor interface.
a) Freezing point b) Boiling point c) Critical point d) Triple point
o
519. The equivalent evaporation of 34.5 lb of water per hour from and at 212 F. This is equal to a heat output of 970.3 x 34.5 = 33 475 Btu/h.
a) Mechanical power b) Horsepower c) Boiler Hp d) Equivalent Evaporation
520. All of the surface of the heat-transfer apparatus in contact on one side with the water or wet steam being heated and on the other side with the gas or
refractory being cooled, in which the fluid being heated forms part of the circulating system, this surface to be measured on the side receiving heat.
521. It is generally understood to be the boiler heating surface subject to direct radiation from the surface of the grate, or from the surfaces of oil or gas
burners.
522. The boiler heating surface within the flues is called as:
523. A closed vessel in which a liquid is heated or vaporized.

a) Boiler b) Hot vessel c) Heater d) Heating vessel
524. A fan used to force air under pressure is known as:

a) Centrifugal fan b) Rotary fan c) Blower d) Axial fan
525. In air distribution, the distance an air stream travels from an outlet to a position at which air motion along the axis reduces to velocity of 50 fpm is called
as:
a) Distance b) Blow c) Flow d) Drag
526. A pipe attached, as to a condenser, to lead off liquid refrigerant, parallel to main flow.
a) Baffle b) Aspirator c) Bleeder d) Agitator
527. In this type of industrial dust collector, the gas passed tangentially into a vertical cylinder with a conical bottom. The gas follows a spiral path with most
of separation taking place in the smaller section. How do you call this type of dust collector?
a) Cyclone Dust Collector b) Spray scrubber c) Electrostatic precipitator d) Dust filter
528. This is a prime mover actuated by the gases resulted from the combustion of liquid or pulverized fuel, injected in a fine state of subdivision into the
engine cylinder at or about the conclusion of the compression stroke. How do you call this prime mover?
a) Diesel Engine b) Gas engine c) Steam Engine d) Heat engine
529. This type of condenser is used to reject heat from a refrigeration system into water. What is this condenser?
a) Water-Cooled Condenser b) Air-cooled condenser
c) Flooded type condenser d) Fins type condenser
530. This instrument is used to measure electrical potential. What is this instrument commonly called?
a) Wattmeter b) Voltmeter c) Ammeter d) All of these
531. How do you call the potential electrical difference for electron flow from one line to another in an electrical circuit?
a) Voltage b) Current c) Resistance d) Resonance
532. It is a hydro power plant with a reservoir of sufficient size to permit carry-over storage from the wet season to dry season and, thus, to develop a firm
flow substantially more than the minimum natural flow.
533. It is a hydro plant that generates power for peak load but at off-peak, water is pumped from tail water pool to the headwater pool for future use.
534. This hydro plant is the one with a very limited storage capacity and can be used only as water comes. How do you call this hydro plant?
535. It is the channel into which the water is discharged after passing through the water turbine. How do call this channel?
a) Water tailrace b) Head water c) Penstock d) Water nozzle
536. It is a component in a hydro plant that absorbs water hammer during load fluctuations and serves as an auxiliary reservoir during high load demands.
What is this component?
a) Spillway b) Dam c) Surge tank d) penstock
537.Which of the following is a class of fire involving flammable liquids and gases?
538. Class A fire is a class of fire involving which of the following?
25

539. What is this class of fire involving energized electrical equipment?

540. Class D fire is a class of fire involving which of the following?

541. The one of the following actions an operator should NOT take to stop or decrease carry-over caused by foaming in a boiler is to:
a) lower the water level in the drum b) blow down the boiler
c) increase the ratio of the chemical feed to the boiler d) reduce the steam output
542. The PRIMARY reason for treating de-aerated feed water with sodium sulphite is to:
a)remove dissolved oxygen b) control scale c) prevent carry-over d) increase alkalinity
543. In accordance with recommended practice, a sample of boiler water for pH analysis should be taken:
a) immediately after chemicals should be taken b) just before bottom blow down
c) when the steaming rate is high d) prior to putting the boiler on the line
544. One advantage that the mechanical pressure atomizing oil burner has over the steam atomizing oil burner is that, with the mechanical pressure
atomizing oil burner, the:
a) required oil temperature is lower b) required oil temperature is lower
c) range of capacity available is wider d) fuel is more accurately and uniformly metered
545. Of the following, the LEAST likely cause of faulty atomization of fuel oil in a rotary cup burner is:
a) too low an oil temperature b) carbon formation on the rotary cup
c) too low an oil pressure d) insufficient secondary air
546. An economizer is used with a steam boiler in order to raise the temperature of the:
a) boiler feedwater by utilizing some of the heat in the exit flue gases
b) boiler feedwater by utilizing exhaust steam from the turbines or steam engines
c) air used for combustion of the fuel utilizing some of the heat in the exit flue gases
d) air used for combustion of the fuel utilizing exhaust some steam from the turbines or steam engines
547. The air function of an unloader on an electric motor-driven air compressed is to:
a) release the pressure in the cylinders in order to reduce the starting load
b) reduce the speed of the motor when the maximum pressure is reached
c) prevent excess pressure in the receiver
d) drain the condensate from the cylinder head
548. The MOST highly toxic of the following refrigerants is:

a) sulfur dioxide b) ammonia c) methyl chloride d) Freon 12
549. The MOST important objective of a safety training program should be motivate the worker to:
a) avoid tripping hazard b) use hand tools properly
c) write a clear concise accident report d) be constantly alert to safety hazards
550. The MOST important consideration in a fire prevention program is to:

a) train the staff to place flammable in fireproof containers b) know how to attack fires regardless of size
c) see that halls, corridors, and exits are not blocked d) detect and eliminate every possible fire hazard
551. The type of portable fire extinguisher recommended as MOST effective for putting out oil fires is the ____ type.
a) pump tank b) cartridge actuated c) soda acid d) foam
552. The four stages of the warning system designated by the high air pollution alert warning system are:
a) initial, chronic, acute, penetrating b) forecast, alert, warning, emergency
c) light, medium, heavy, extra heavy d) early, moderate, severe, toxic
553. When we say that a fuel oil has a high viscosity, we mean MAINLY that the fuel oil will:
a)evaporate easily b) burn without smoke c) flow slowly through pipes d) have a low specific gravity
554. The flame of an industrial rotary cup oil burner should be adjusted so that the flame:
a) has a yellow color with blue spots b) strikes all side of the combustion chamber
c) has a light brown color d) does not strike the rear of the combustion chamber
555. The location of the oil burner remote control switch should GENERALLY be:
a) at the boiler room entrance b) on the boiler shell c) on the oil burner motor d) on a wall nearest the boiler
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556. A MAJOR cause of air pollution resulting from the burning of fuel oil is _____ dioxide.
a) sulfur b) silicon c) nitrous d) hydrogen
557. The CO2 percentage in the flue gas of a power plant is indicated by a:
a) Doppler meter b) Ranarex indicator c) microtector d) hygrometer
558. The MOST likely cause of black smoke exhausting from the chimney of an oil-fired boiler is:
a) high secondary airflow b) low stack emission c) low oil temperature d) hygrometer
559. An induced draft fan is GENERALLY connected between the:

a) condenser and the first pass b) stack and the breeching
c) feed water heater and the boiler feed pump d) combustion chamber and fuel oil tanks
560. The PURPOSE of an air chamber on a reciprocating water pump is to:

a) maintain a uniform flow b) reduce the amount of steam expansion
c) create a pulsating flow d) vary amount of steam admission
561. An intercooler is GENERALLY found on a(n):

a) steam pump b) air compressor c) steam engine d) rotary oil pump
562. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is a:

a) capillary tube b) venture c) barometer d) calorimeter
563. In a closed feed water heater, the water and the steam:
a) come into direct contact b) are kept apart from each other
c) are under negative pressure d) mix and exhaust to the atmosphere
564. A knocking noise in steam lines is GENERALLY the result of:

a) superheated steam expansion b) high steam pressure c) condensation in the line c) rapid steam expansion
565. An electrical component known as a step-up transformer operates be:

a) raising voltage and decreasing amperage b) decreasing amperage and raising resistance
c) raising amperage and decreasing resistance d) raising voltage and amperage at the same time
566. A monometer is an instrument that is used to measure:

a) heat radiation b) air volume c) condense water level d) air pressure
567. The bottom blow down on a boiler is used to:

a) remove mud drum water impurities b) increase boiler priming
c) reduce steam pressure in the header d) increase the boiler water level
568. The term spalling refers to a boiler:

a) flue gas content b) soot blower c) combustion chamber d) mud leg
569. The wrench that would NORMALLY be used on hexagonally shaped screwed valves and fittings is the _____ wrench.
a) adjustable pipe b) tappet c) monkey d) open-end
570. The designated size of a boiler tube is GENERALLY based upon its:
a) internal diameter b) external diameter c) wall thickness d) weight per ft of length
571. A fusible plug on a boiler is made PRIMARILY of:

a) selenium b) tin c) zinc d) iron
572. A range of pH values for boiler feed water is NORMALLY:

a) 1 to 2 b) 4 to 6 c) 9 to 10 d) 12 to 15
o
573. The boiler horsepower is defined as the evaporation of _____ lbs. of water from and at 212 F.
a) 900 b) 400 c) 345 d) 34.5
574. A low pressure air-atomizing oil burner has an operating air pressure range of _______.
a) 25 to 35 b) 16 to 30 c) 6 to 10 d) 1 to 2
575. The FUNCTION of a counter flow economizer in a power plant is to:

a) use flue gases to heat feed water b) raise flue gas temperature
c) recirculate exhaust steam d) pre-heat combustion air
576. The packing of an expansion joint in a firebrick wall of a combustion chamber is GENERALLY made of:
a) silica b) brick cement c) silicon carbide d) asbestos
577. An open-ended steam pipe, called a steam lance, is USUALLY used on a boiler to:
a) remove soot b) bleed the steam header c) clean the mud drum d) clean chimneys
27

578. A high vacuum reading on the fuel oil gauge would indicate:
a) an empty oil tank b) high oil temperature c) a clogged strainer d) worm pump gears
579. The one of the following boilers that is classified as an internally-fired boiler is the _____ boiler:
a) cross-drum straight tube b) vertical tubular c) Stirling d) cross-drum horizontal box-header
580. Try-cocks are used on a boiler PRIMARILY to:

a) check the gauge glass reading b) release steam pressure
c) drain the water column d) blow down the gauge glass
581. The FUCTION of a radiation pyrometer is to measure:

a) boiler water height b) boiler pressure c) furnace temperature d) boiler drum stresses
582. A goose-neck is installed in the line connecting a steam gauge to a boiler to:
a) maintain constant steam flow b) prevent steam knocking
c) maintain steam pressure d) protect the gauge element
583. A boiler steam gauge should have a range of AT LEAST:

a) one-half the working steam pressure b) the working steam pressure
c) 1 ½ times the maximum allowable working pressure d) twice the maximum allowable working pressure
584. The acidity of boiling water is USUALLY determined by a ______ test.

a) Rockwell b) soap hardness c) paper d) alkalinity
585. Electrostatic precipitations are used in power plants to:

a) remove fly ash from flue gases b) measure smoke conditions
c) collect boiler impurities d) disperse minerals in feed water
586. Fly ash from the flue gases in a power plant is collected by a:
a) soot blower b) gas separator c) stack regulator d) mechanical separator
587. In power plants, boiler feed water is chemically treated in order to:
a) prevent scale formation b) increase water foaming c) increase oxygen formation d) increase the temperature of the water
588. The soot in a fire tube boiler GENERALLY settles on the:

a) bridge wall b) inside tube surface c) combustion chamber sides d) outside tube surfaces
589. The one of the following classifications of fuel oil strainers that is generally NOT used with the heavier industrial fuel oils is a ________ strainer.
a) wire mesh b) metallic disc c) filter cloth d) perforated metal cylinder
590. A pneumatic tool is GENERALLY powered by:

a) natural gas b) steam c) a battery d) air
591. The water pressure used in a hydrostatic test on a boiler is GENERALLY _______ maximum working pressure.
a) 4 times b) 2 times the c) 1 ½ times the d) the same as
592. The one of the following valves that should be used in a steam line to throttle the flow is the _____valve.
a) plug b) check c) gate d) globe
593. When the temperature of stack gases rises considerably above the normal operating stack temperature, it GENERALLY indicates:
a) a low boiler water level b) a heavy smoke condition in the stack
c) that the boiler is operating efficiently d) that the boiler tubes are dirty
594. A boiler safety valve is USUALLY set above the maximum working pressure by an amount equal to ____ of the maximum working pressure.
a) 6% b) 10% c) 12% d) 14%
595. Of the following devices, the one that is used to record the air-flow-steam-flow relationship of a boiler in a steam plant is a:
a) Orsat analyzer b) manometer c) steam-flow meter d) heat meter
596. In planning preventive maintenance program, the FIRST step to be taken is to:
a) repair all equipment that is not in service b) check all fuel oil burner tips
c) make an inventory of all planting equipment d) check all electrical wiring to motors
597. In accordance with recommended maintenance practice, thermostats used in a pneumatic temperature control system SHOULD be checked:
a) weekly b) bi-monthly c) monthly d) once a year
598. Of the following, the BEST method use to determine the moisture level in a refrigeration system is to:
a) weigh the driver after it has been in the system for a period of time b) visually check the sight glass for particles of corrosion
c) use a moisture indicator d) test a sampler lubricating oil with phosphorus pentoxide
599. Of the following, the MAIN purpose of a subcooler in a refrigerant piping system for a two-stage system is to:
a) reduce the total power requirements and total heat rejection to the second stage
b)reduce the total power requirements and return oil to the compressor
28

c) improve the flow of evaporator gas per ton and increase the temperature
d) increase the heat rejection per ton and avoid system shutdown
600. In large refrigeration systems and usual location for charging the refrigeration system is into the:
a) suction line b) liquid line between the receiver shut-off valve and the expansion valve
c) line between the condenser and the compressor d) line between the high pressure cut-off switch and the expansion valve
601. Assume that one of your assistance was near the Freon 11 refrigeration system when a liquid Freon line ruptured. Some of the liquid Freon 11 has
gotten into your assistant’s right eye. Of the following actions, the one which you should not take is to:
a) immediately call for an eye doctor specialist (medical doctor) b) gently and quickly rub the Freon 11 out of the eye
c) uses a boric-acid solution to clean out the Freon 11 from his eye d) wash the eye by gently blowing the Freon 11 out of his eye with air
602. A device which retains the desired parts of a steam-and-water mixture while rejecting the undesired parts of the mixture is a:
a) check valve b) colorimeter c) stud tube d) steam trap
603. The MAIN advantage of using water-tube boilers in preference to fire-tube boilers in an installation is that water-tube boilers can be:
a) built much larger b) equipped with super heaters c) stroke-fired d) made portable
604. Which of the following values most nearly equals one horsepower?
a) 550 ft-lbs per sec b) 3300 ft-lbs per min c) 5500 ft-lbs per hour d) 10000 ft-lbs per min
605. An after cooler on a reciprocating air compressor is used PRIMARILY to:

a) increase compressor capacity b) improve compressor efficiency
c) condense the moisture in the compressed air d) cool the lubricating oil
606. WOG stands for:

a) water or gas b) water, oil, gas c) water, gas, steam d) all of the above
607. An unloader is used on an air compressor to:

a) start easier b) stop easier c) run faster d) none of the above
608. What is added to oil to prevent sludge or lacquer from forming?

a) Detergents b) Anti-foaming engine c) Inhibitors d) Phosphates
609. Blow off piping usually refers to:

a) piping at the lowest part of the boiler b) piping coming from the safeties
c) piping coming from the super heater d) vent pipes
610. You are working the 4:00 PM to Midnight shift at an energy producing, coal burning steam plant. The first thing you would do when coming to work is:
a) add green coal and build up the fire b) blow down gauge glass & determine water level
c) clean the fires d) blow down the boiler
611. On a horizontal return tubular boiler, there is a baffle located near the exit of the boiler. Its purpose is to provide _______ steam.
a) wet b) dry c) superheated d) saturated
612. Soot is formed on a water tube boiler:

a) on the fan blades of the forced draft fan b) on the inside of the tubes
c) on the outside of the tubes d) in the steam drum
613. In terms of environmental pollution, the three elements which are the most damaging are:
a) carbon monoxide, sulfur, particulate matter b) carbon dioxide, sulfur, oxygen
c) particulate matter, sulfur, carbon dioxide d) oxygen and sulfur
614. What type of fire extinguisher would be used on a live electrical wire?
a) soda foam b) water c) carbon dioxide d) halon
615. Fuel oil is heated in a storage tank by use of:

a) fuel oil burner b) steam c) hot air d) electric coils
616. In the deep well installing or operation, the difference between static water level and operating water level is called:
a) suction lift b) drawdown c) priming level d) clogging
617. Which of the following is an characteristics of an impulse turbine?

a) steam striking blades on angle b) no steam reaction to velocity
c) steam striking blades at zero angle d) steam reversing direction
618. An after cooler on a reciprocating compressor is used primarily to:

a) cool the lubricating oil b) condense the moisture in the compressor air
c) improve compressor efficiency d) increase compressor capacity
619. In a hydro-electric plant using a Francis turbine with medium head, the speed can be regulated using the:
a) deflector gate b) nozzle c) wicket gate d) weir
29

620. What is the color code of compressed air pipelines?
a) light blue b) red c) brown d) violet
621. One of the following task which is an example of preventive maintenance is:
a) cleaning the cup on a rotary cup burner b) cleaning a completely clog oil strainer
c) replacing a leaking valve d) replacing blown fuse
622. An air current in a confined space such as that in a cooling tower or chimney is called:
a) variable flow b) velocity profile c) velocity gradient d) draft
623. What kind of heat exchanger where eater is heated to a point that dissolved gases are liberated?
a) evaporator b) condenser c) intercooler d) deaerator
624. What is the function of a steam separator?

a) trapping the steam and letting water through b) throttling
c) changing direction of the steam flow d) steam metering
625. Which of the following types of air dryers work by absorbing moisture on a solid desiccant material such as activated alumina, silicon gel or molecular
sieve?
a) regenerative dryer b) deliquescent dryer c) spray dryer d) refrigerated dryer
626. Another name for the liquid valve is:

a) Freon valve b) shut off valve c) king valve d) master valve
627. If no gaskets are used in the piping joints or a Freon system, the joint must be:
a) welded joints b) ground joints c) finished joints d) soldered joints
628. Which of the following gasket materials should be used on a Freon system:
a) asbestos b) rubber c) metallic d) A and C
629. A draft tube is a part of which power plant?

a) diesel power plant b) gas turbine power plant c) steam power plant d) hydro-electric power plant
630. The term critical it associated with power plant of:

a) steam power plant b) diesel engine power plant c) gas turbine power plant d) nuclear power plant
631. Which of the following power plant can be installed within the shortest time?
a) nuclear power plant b) hydro-electric power plant c) gas turbine power plant d) diesel engine power plant
632. Which of the following power plant has least pollution problem?
a) steam power plant b) gas turbine power plant c) nuclear power plant d) Hydro-electric power plant
633. A turbo charge is a part of:

a) thermal power plant b) diesel engine power plant c) hydro-electric power plant d) nuclear power plant
634. Which of the following is not a sound absorptive material?

a) rugs b) mirrors c) carpets d) heavy drapes
635. In power plant, an electrostatic precipitator is installed between:

a) forced draft fan and induced draft fan b) furnace and chimney
c) primary air and secondary air d) furnace and forced draft fan
636. Which of the following industries is least polluting?

a) cement industry b) thermal power plant c) electronic industry d) oil refinery
637. Which of the following has an octane rating of more than 100?
a) gobar gas b) methyl alcohol c) benzyl d) ethyl alcohol
638. A device used to keep moisture from passing through the system is called:
a) humidifier b) aerator c) dehydrator d) trap
639. Select the plant that is suitable for peak load:

a) diesel engine plant b) steam power plant c) nuclear power plant d) all of the above
640.Diesel engine fuels are rated by:
a) cetane number b) octane number c) calorific valve d) SSU
30

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MACHINE SHOP THEORY AND PRACTICE

MACHINE SHOP THEORY AND PRACTICE

3. A machine tool used mainly for producing holes in metal.

6. A file which is thick, rectangular-shaped file with parallel edges.

8. 29. Which of the following is not belong to standard shapes of file?

17. Which of the following is not a machining process?

19. Which one of the following is a finishing process?

24. Wrought iron contains a maximum of which of the following?

25. Pig iron is produced by reduction of iron ore in a:

30. Gun metal contains 5 to 10 percent of which of the following materials?

31. Y-alloy is an alloy of aluminum and which of the following metals?

34. Bearing materials should posses which of the following?

35. Which of the following is the trade name of polypropylene?

37. Which of the following is the use of surface gauge?

40. A sine bar is specified by:

41. A ratchet screw is provided on a micrometer screw gauge to:

42. Adjusting nut is provided on a micrometer screw gauge to:

44. Internal dovetail taper can be measured by which of the following?

45. Combination set is used to:

46. The measuring accuracy of the following instruments is least.

48. The cleaning of a file is done by which of the following?

49. Thin metal pieces can be cut with saw by:

51. A hacksaw is specified by the following parameter of its blade.

52. The length of hacksaw blade is measured:

53. Taps are used for which of the following?

54. Scrapers are used for which of the following?

56. Anvil is used for which of the following?

57. Fullers are used for which of the following?

58. During the upsetting operation:

59. Forging of mild steel is done at about:

60. The process of making bolt heads by forging is known as:

71. A hand tool used to cut internal threads.

73. Which of the following is not a principal part of a lathe machine?

74. One of the parts of tailstock of a lathe machine.

76. The process of cutting internal threads.

79. A half-moon stake is used for:

80. A tunnel stake is used for:

82. The following process is preferred for welding non-ferrous metals:

83. The commonly used gases in tungsten arc welding are:

87. In welding GMAW stands for which of the following?

88. The other term for GMAW

91. Which of the following is not a principal part of a lathe machine?

113. The process of producing a hole in the workpiece.

114. A shaper machine also known as slotter shaper.

117. ________ means putting the parts of something together.

122. A machine tool used mainly for producing holes in metal.

126. A file which is thick, rectangular-shaped file with parallel edges.

129. Which of the following is not belong to standard shapes of file?

138. Which of the following is not a machining process?

145. Wrought iron contains a maximum of which of the following?

146. Pig iron is produced by reduction of iron ore in a:

151. Gun metal contains 5 to 10 percent of which of the following materials?

152. Y-alloy is an alloy of aluminum and which of the following metals?

155. Bearing materials should posses which of the following?

156. Which of the following is the trade name of polypropylene?

158. Which of the following is the use of surface gauge?

162. A sine bar is specified by:

164. A ratchet screw is provided on a micrometer screw gauge to:

166. Adjusting nut is provided on a micrometer screw gauge to:

168. Internal dovetail taper can be measured by which of the following?

169. Combination set is used to:

171. The measuring accuracy of the following instruments is least.

174. The cleaning of a file is done by which of the following?