FISHERIES TECHNOLOGIST REVIEWER 2018

Jun Gregorio H. Japona

Bachelor of Science in Fisheries Mindanao State University at Naawan School of Marine Fisheries
and Technology

“I can do all things through Christ who strengthens me.” Philippians 4:13

Aquaculture Set A

1. Republic Act 8550

c. Fisheries Code of 1998
2. Republic Act 8435
d. Agriculture and Fisheries Modernization Act
3. The raising of two or more species of fish or crustaceans in a pond
b. polyculture
4. The first species of tilapia introduced in the Philippines
d. O. mossambicus/ T. mossambica
5. Aquaculture is synonymous to
c. fish culture
6. This fish culture method requires the use of enclosures in shallow protected areas of inland
water generally in lakes or lagoons.
c. fish pen method
7. The process of releasing fish fry or fingerlings in a body of water like a fishpond or lake.
b. stocking
8. These are microscopic plants in pond
d. phytoplankton
9. This is the number of fish seed material stocked in a given area of water
b. stocking rate
10. The release of fish in natural body of water
c. stock enhancement
11. Fish with uniform size are stocked in progressively larger ponds as more space is needed
b. multi-stage stocking
12. Includes fish, all other aquatic flora and fauna and other living resources of the aquatic
environment, including, but not limited to salt and corals
c. aquatic resources
13. A stationary weir or trap devised to intercept and capture fish consisting of rows of bamboo
stakes, plastic nets and other materials fenced with split bamboo mattings or wire mattings.
b. fish coral or baklad
14. People directly or personally and physically engaged in taking and/or culturing and
processing fishery and/or fishery resources
a. fisherfolk
15. The biggest lake in the Philippines
d. Laguna de Bay
16. Adult bangus
a. sabalo
17. The incumbent director of the Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources
d. Asis Perez
18. This consists of the microscopic plants and animals found in the bottom of ponds
 a. lablab
19. Local name for milkfish fry
c. kawag kawag
20. This method of culturing milkfish is also known as the deepwater method
c. plankton method
21. A fish that holds fertilized eggs in its buccal cavity for rearing
b. mouth brooders
22. A fishing gear made of synthetic netting used for harvesting fish
a. seine
23. A fishing gear made of synthetic netting used for harvesting fish
a. seine
24. Genetically male tilapia (GMT) is a product of
d. YY-male technology
25. An act providing for the development, management and conservation of the fisheries and
aquatic resources. Integrating all laws pertinent thereto, and for other purposes
b. Republic Act 8550
26. The art and science of catching fish for livelihood
c. fish capture
27. The process of preserving foods in hermetically-sealed containers like tin cans and jars or
bottles through the application of heat to sterilize the food and the container a. drying b.
boiling c. canning d. salting
28. This is the method of processing fish by lowering its water content through exposure to the
sun
b. drying
29. This is defined as the total amount of salt in grams contained in one kilogram of seawater
(SW) when all the carbonate has been converted to oxide, bromine, and iodine, replaced by
chlorine and organic matter less completely oxidized
b. salinity
30. Inversion of prospective genetic tilapia females by feeding a male synthetic hormone
c. sex reversal
31. This is defined as the amount of feed needed to produce a kilo of flesh
b. feed conversion
32. Nets in the form of a conical bag with the mouth kept open by various devices and the entire
gear towed, trailed or trawled usually in the bottom of the sea to capture submerged species
that naturally stay near the sea bottom
b. trawls
33. Baited devices made of bamboo, rattan, or chicken wire formed into regular receptacles and
having a non return value which provides easy entrance but difficult exit of fish
a. fish pot
34. Variously shaped and framed small bag nets used entirely by hand or partly by mechanical
power in which fish are captured by scooping
b. dip nets
35. A mixture of freshwater (FW) and seawater (SW)
b. brackishwater
36. The sperm of the fish
c. milt
37. An animal that feeds on minute organisms suspended in water
a. plankton feeder
38. Juvenile fish stocked in ponds or other units of culture
c. fingerlings
39. Native catfish
b. Clarias macrocephalus
40. The scientific name of mud fish
b. Channa striata
41. These are small ponds in milkfish ponds used exclusively for rearing fry to fingerlings
a. nursery ponds
42. Live fish boat for transporting milkfish fry
b. petuya
43. Harvesting method in milkfish culture operation where it takes advantageous of the tendency
of the fish to swim against the current
a. pasubang method
44. The collective terms for microscopic organism suspended in water
c. plankton
45. It is the energy that is released as heat when a substance is completely oxidized to CO2,
nitrous oxide and H2O.
b. intake energy
46. The total amount of energy contained in a diet is usually determined through
a. bomb calorimetry
47. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid (EAA)
b. tyrosine
48. The carbohydrate storage molecules found in plants is
d. cellulose
49. The breakdown of glucose liberating energy is known as
c. glycolysis
50. It is an expression which relates the gram of weight gained to the grams of crude protein fed
b. protein efficiency ratio
51. Are the major lipid components biological membrane
d. phospholipids
52. Are organic molecules that act as cofactors or substrates in some metabolic reactions
b. vitamins
53. Insulin is importance in fish for
a. amino acid metabolism
54. The ratio of the length of the digestive tract to body length of fish is known as
a. relative gut length
55. Which of the following plays very important role in fat digestion?
d. liver
56. Freshwater fish from cold water have an essential requirement for fatty acids of
d. combination of n-3 and n-6 series
57. Marine fish oils are dietary sources of essential fatty acids (EFA) of the
c. n-3 series
58. Which of the following is not a function of carbohydrates in aquaculture diets
a. cheap source of protein
59. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin
a. ascorbic acids
60. One calorie is equal to
a. 4.185 joules
61. Which of the following is not a wet feed
d. fish meals
62. Which of the following is a major mineral required by fish?
b. magnesium
63. Which of the following is not secreted in the pancreas?
a. chitinase
64. Major nitrogen containing compounds present in both plants and animals are
b. proteins
65. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
d. sucrose
66. Which of the following is a polysaccharide?
c. cellulose
67. The main storage carbohydrate of animals is.
b. glycogen
68. Proteins have approximately
a. 6-8% H
69. Fatty acids that lack double bonds between carbons are known as
c. saturated fatty acids
70. One of the phases of aquaculture
b. nursery
71. One of the systems of production
a. intensive
72. The choice of production system depends on
a. stocking density of animals
73. Factor that often leads to disease
d. exposure of the animal to stress
74. One advantage of tilapia pond culture is that the fish
b. feed on natural food
75. The study of genes and genotypic frequencies within a population
b. population genetics
76. Component that is due to the additive effects of the genes
a. additive variance
77. Variance that is due to the interaction of alleles between two or more loci
b. epistatic variance
78. It is a breeding program in which individuals or families are chosen in an effort to change the
population mean in the next generation
b. cross breeding
79. Variance that is transmitted in a predictable and reliable manner
a. additive variance
80. The raw material with which the animals breeder most work
a. genetic variation
81. The proportion of individuals in the population with a particular genotype
a. genotypic frequency
82. Component that is due to the interaction of the alleles at each locus
b. dominance variance
83. The observable or measurable differences among individuals within a population for a
particular trait
b. phenotypic variation
84. Only a small random sample of parents’ variance is inherited by its progeny
a. additive variance
85. Only a small random sample of parents’ variance is inherited by its progeny
a. additive
86. Considered as the governor in any selection program
c. heritability
87. Describes a diploid organism that carries two different alleles at one or more genetic loci
b. heterozygous
88. Offspring of two different varieties or two different species
c. hybrid
89. Organism that has been genetically engineered to contain one or more novel genes, taken
from one or more different species and inserted into its genome
a. transgenic
90. Loss or alteration of genetic identity in wild population of organisms that may result from
interbreeding of genetically distinct stocks introduced to the wild either intentionally or
accidentally
d. genetic dilution
91. Feed cost is not a major expense item under this culture system
c. extensive culture
92. The most likely effect of a subsidy on inputs in fish production
b. increase in production
93. Cultivation of only one target species at a given time and place
c. monoculture
94. A sequence of organism, each of which provides food for the next, beginning with primary
producers and extending to carnivores
a. food chain
95. The process by which green plants algae and other primary producers produce food for their
own growth, plus oxygen from CO2 and water and in the presence of light
b. photosynthesis
96. Most are of earthen construction
c. ponds
97. It must be available in the necessary quantity and quality
a. water
98. A culture system where two or more agricultural commodities are simultaneously grown in a
certain area
c. integrated farming
99. This is the best way to maintain the water quality for fish production
b. water exchange
100. It is the heart of a successful fish culture
d. water quality

Aquaculture Set B

1. A culture system where two or more agricultural commodities are simultaneously grown in a
certain area
c. integrated farming
2. This is the best way to maintain the water quality for fish production
b. water exchange
3. It is the heart of a successful fish culture
d. water quality
4. This is an inverted mosquito net used to hold fish
a. hapa
5. Method of feeding fish with excess amount
b. ad libitum feeding
6. It is the rearing of fish
d. fish culture
7. This is the process of eating and being eaten
c. food chain
8. This is a culture system with two or more compatible fish species in a culture container
a. polyculture
9. It is a management technique done by choosing species of fish to grow
b. selective stocking
10. This is the biomass a body of water can support
c. carrying capacity
11. This is a culture system called all in all out culture system
d. monoharvest
12. Percentage of energy loss in every step of the food chain
a. 90%
13. This is the most desired fish food
b. phytoplankton
14. This is the limiting nutrient in fish culture
c. phosphorus
15. The main goal of aquaculture development is
a. food security
16. This is the position of the organism in the food chain
b. trophic level
17. This is the main source of energy of fish and organic matter
a. sunlight
18. This is one of the reasons why there is variability of growth rate
a. hierarchy of feeding
19. Bighead carp is scientifically named
c. Aristichthys nobilis
20. This is the prime commodity of our country from freshwater
b. tilapia
21. When an ecosystem is limited by biota, this is the system that could be practiced
c. monoculture
22. The harvesting method you have to follow if you practice varied sizes of fish stocking
a. selective harvesting
23. The harvesting method you have to follow if you practice varied sizes of fish stocking
a. selective harvesting
24. This is a type of fish that directly feed on aquatic plants
d. grazer
25. The is the gain in weight by fish
a. absolute growth
26. The weight increase of fish in a day is termed
a. average growth rate
27. Small fish has higher of this growth rate than large fish
d. relative growth
28. This is the King of Fishes in China
c. common carp
29. Development of aquaculture commenced in what century?
a. 16th
30. A culture system producing stable-sized fish is
a. grow-out
31. This is an Indian carp
a. rohu
32. This is the act of putting or adding fish into the pond
a. stocking
33. It is the balance of fish population with fish food available in the pond
b. stocking fraction
34. Fish of uniform size are stocked in progressively larger ponds
c. multi-stage stocking
35. A fishing gear which is a cone-shaped net
b. cast nets
36. A fishing gear used to encircle a body of water by drawing both ends used after pond has
been drained
b. seine net
37. This is a remedy done if fertilization is not effective to produce natural fish food organisms by
buffering the water
c. liming
38. Type of feed formulated out of the naturally available ingredients
c. practical feed
39. This fish activity is higher in small fish than large fish per unit body weight
d. metabolic rate
40. This is affected by the quality of ration given to fish
a. amount of fish waste
41. It is also known as bintol
b. crab lift net
42. This is a water quality parameter which affects the metabolic rate of fish being cultured
b. temperature
43. This is a process of releasing the nutrient content of organic matter by bacteria
b. mineralization
44. This kind of fertilizer is mostly carbon
a. organic
45. It is the total weight of the organisms contained in a sample
c. biomass
46. This is an aquaculture diet as an additional source of nutrient by fish
c. supplemental
47. Culture system with low intensity
b. extensive
48. This is the rearing of aquatic organism under controlled condition
b. aquaculture
49. A fish use for breeding purposes
b. broodstock
50. A fish larger than fry but not of marketable size
a. fingerling
51. This is the food that fish eats in nature
a. natural food
52. The taxonomy or identification and classification of Philippine fishes and other living aquatic
resources started by the first American group of scientists who came to the Philippines to initiate
fisheries work. The American who made extensive collections of fish all over the country and
wrote several publication monographs describing the different fish collections is
a. Dr. Albert W.C. T. Herre
53. A Filipino, a Zoology graduate from University of Chicago who wrote the first report in the
family Mugilidae, a first checklist of Philippine fishes and identification of marine protozoans
a. Dr. Hilario A. Roxas
54. A Filipino graduate from Stanford University who wrote the first reports on Philippine
flatfishes
b. Dr. Deogracias V. Villadolid
55. The father of tilapia sex reversal in the Philippines
b. Dr. Rafael D. Guererro III
56. The first Philippine University who first initiated fisheries education is
b. University of the Philippines in Los Banos
57. The Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources (BFAR) started as a small agency in 1901
under the name
a. Bureau of Government Laboratories, Department of Interior of the Philippine Commission
58. The oldest fish culture practiced in the Philippines
a. milkfish
59. The first demonstration fish farm established in 1931 in the Philippines was
a. Oyster Farm in Hinigaran, Negros Occidental
60. The leading commercial producers of milkfish in the world are
a. Taiwan, Indonesia, Philippines
61. It is a system in bangus culture used to effect stock manipulation and increase stocking rates
a. Modular system
62. It is an assemblage of phytoplankton and zooplankton which serves as a food for milkfish in
brackishwater ponds
b. lablab
63. It is a major farmed penaeid shrimp in the Philippines
a. Penaeus mondon
64. It is an illegally-introduced shrimp species in the country that is now a subject of legal
controversy
b. Litopenaeus indicus
65. A species of tilapia that is cold tolerant and also called as blue tilapia
b. Oreochromis aureus
66. A herbivorous tilapia species in the Philippines which is also called as yellow tilapia
b. Tilapia zillii
67. An introduced crayfish from Australia being mass cultured presently in Iloilo, Philippines
b. Cherax quadricarinatus
68. A herbivorous crayfish species from Louisiana, USA being marketed as a pet in the aquarium
fish trade industry in the Philippines
a. Procambarus clarkii
69. Which shrimp species is indigenous in Philippine waters?
b. Macrobrachium idella
70. A popular aquaculture prawn species whose reproduction and larval rearing occur in
saltwater but adult grows in freshwater
a. Macrobrachium rosenbergii
71. A commonly-cultured mudcrab in brackishwater and has a high aquaculture potential and
market value
a. Scylla serrata
72. The first mariculture park in the country was established in August 2001 at
a. Samal Island, Davao del Norte
73. A pest of the cultured seaweed Kappaphycus and Eucheuma which is an epiphyte that grows
on and entirely covers the affected seaweed. It is locally known as balahibo or balbas because of
its hairy appearance. It competes for nutrients and light with the host.
d. Polyponia sp.
74. A dominant carp species cultured in the fishpens of Laguna de Bay
b. Aristichthys nobilis
75. This is a species of abalone with a good foreign market and its hatchery developed by
SEAFDEC/AQD. Locally known as lapas or sobra-sobra. This species is also called cocktail abalone
because of its small size (maximum shell length at 10-11 cm). It is the fastest growing abalone in
the world since a marketable size of 5-6 cm can be attained in one year compared with five years
for some temperature species
a. Haliotis asinina
76. The leading abalone producer from aquaculture in the world is Taiwan. The abalone species
this country cultures is
c. Haliotis diversicolor
77. The largest species of abalone prized as food and extensively marketed
a. Haliotis rufescens
78. A mussel species extensively farmed in the Philippines, Thailand, and New Zealand
c. Green mussel Perna viridis
79. A newly-introduced freshwater (FW) mussel in the country from Thailand and found in
Pampanga. A human food with aquaculture potential
a. Pilsbyochoncha exilis
80. It is a freshwater mussel that can be used as food and pearl culture. It is called in Japanese as
karasu
a. Hyriopsis schlegeli
81. A saltwater pearl oyster species also called as tipay that can be used for pearl aquaculture in
the Philippines. It produces the famous and expensive South Sea pearl
a. Silver-lipped pearl oyster Pinctada maxima
82. A saltwater (SW) pearl oyster species also called as tipay bato that can be used for pearl
aquaculture in the Philippines. It produces black pearl
c. Black-lipped pearl oyster Pinctada margaritifera
83. It is the fastest growing pearl oyster species (also called as wasay-wasay) that can be used for
pearl aquaculture and it produces pink pearls.
d. Mabe pearl oyster Pteria penguin
84. A tiny bivalve cultivated in the province of Capiz in the island of Panay, west central
Philippines as live feed for shrimp and mudcrab, and sometimes for tilapia and milkfish
a. Agiis
85. A mangrove clam locally known as imbao which is widely distributed in the Indo-West Pacific,
from East and South Africa, including Madagascar and the Red Seam to eastern Polynesia; north
to southern Japan and Hawaii, and south to New South Wales. It inhabits the muddy bottom of
mangrove area, or the adjacent mudflats. It grows to a maximum size 8-9 cm shell length, total
weight of 180-210 g and is a potential aquaculture species
a. Anadonta edentula
86. A bivalve mollusk locally called as kapis, commercially and economically important because
of its translucent shell. They can be made into beautiful handicrafts and they can be used for
making animals glue, chalk, shellack, soldering lead, and paint. The shellcraft product is exported
to US, Japan, West Germany and other European countries. They can be cultured or transplanted
in suitable areas and there are 27 kapis beds in the Philippines
a. Placuna placenta
87. A freshwater gastropod that belongs to the family Pilidae that was introduced in the
Philippines in the 1980’s as a source of food but eventually became pest in rice fields
c. Pomacea cananiculata
88. A pond system design that allows for the continuous program of pond preparation and
harvest of milkfish in brackishwater (BW) but this system is input and labor intensive and
requires an area of about 8 hectares.
b. Modular pond system
89. A parasitic isopod that is a major pest in the cage culture of Nile tilapia in Taal Lake
a. Alitropus typus
90. A fungus-associated disease that affects FW and estuarine warm water fishes that was first
reported in farmed "ayu" in Japan and severe outbreaks occurred in grey mullet Mugil cephalus
Australia. Some important culture species such as tilapia, milkfish and carps are found to be
resistant to this disease
a. Epizootic ulcerative syndrome
91. A kind of mycotoxin found in feeds
a. aflatoxin
92. The ratio of feed consumed to the fish biomass gained is called
a. Feed conversion ratio
93. The physiological capacity of the fish to convert feeds to fish flesh is termed
a. Feed conversion efficiency
94. Fishes with no stomachs have
a. No acid phase of digestion
95. In fishes with stomach, the transport of food from the stomach into the midgut is controlled
by a muscular sphincter called
a. Pylorus
96. The stomach of voracious fish produces pepsin and the pH is
a. 4
97. For carnivorous (e.g. trout and dalag) and non-carnivorous (e.g. tilapia and carp) fishes, the
feeding practices are as follows
a. Large meals and less frequent feeding and small meals and more frequent feeding,
respectively
98. The tilapias are cichlid species which are endemic to the
a. Middle East and Africa
99. Sex reversal is one of the methods to produce all-male tilapia. This method is done by the
oral administration of the hormone called
a. 17 á-methyl testosterone
100. The chromosomes of the normal male and female tilapia are
a. XY and XX, respectively
Aquaculture Set C

1. A process that strips oxygen from an ecosystem.

a. photosynthesis b. respiration
c. BOD and COD d. all of the above
2. One of the following statements is incorrect.
a. Autotrophs produce their own food.
b. Heterotrophs are primary producers
c. Photosynthesis builds up carbohydrates
d. Most larval stages of fish are either omnivorous or carnivorous.
3. A lotic aquaculture system is exemplified by
a. recirculating system b. open pond with water exchange
c. flow through system d. all of the above
4. The highest fish production can be achieved in
a. flow through/recirculating system b. aerated ponds
c. pen d. cage
5. Energy-wise, the culture of what species will yield most?
a. carnivorous b. omnivorous
c. herbivorous d. none
6. Which of the following will not cause low primary productivity in ponds?
a. nutrient deficiency b. acidity
c. low stocking density d. pest
7. When fish gasps at the surface, a fish culturist must immediately do one of the following:
a. fertilize the pond b. drain the pond
c. activate life support system d. feed the species
8. Aquaculture may affect the environment through the following:
a. Eutrophication of aquatic systems
b. Reduction of pelagic fisheries populations
c. Decimation of important natural life support systems
d. All of the above
9. One of the commodities listed below is not a top fishery export of the Philippines
a. milkfish b. seaweeds
c. prawn d. tuna
10. In terms of finfish production, one of the following agro-ecological zones yields the most in
both volume and value.
a. mariculture areas b. brackishwater ponds
c. freshwater ponds d. none of the above
11. Carrying capacity can be increased by:
a. fertilization b. aeration
c. feeding d. all of the above
12. Primary productivity in natural systems is contributed by the following:
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a. photosynthesis b. chemosynthesis
c. photoassimilation d. all of the above
13. Photosynthesis occurs in:
a. majority of plants
b. areas with light wavelenght within visible range
c. euphotic zone of a lake
d. all of the above
14. A pond deficient with nitrogen must not be fertilized with
a. urea b. ammonium sulphate
c. solophos d. ammonium phosphate
15. Plankton method of growing food requires a minimum depth of:
a. 15-20cm b. 75-100cm
c. 15-30cm d. below 15cm
16. A gaseous biogeochemical cycle that is self- replenishing, almost a perfect cycle.
a. Nitrogen cycle b. Phosphorous cycle
c. Carbon cycle d. Carbon Dioxide cycle
17. Fish grows isometrically when their Length-Weight relationship yields a b value of:
a. 1 b. 3
c. < or > 1 d. < or > 3
18. Cost of fish production can be improved by:
a. improvement of FCR b. efficient feed formulation
c. proper feeding d. all of the above
19. Feeds that contain ingredients of precisely known composition and formulated from
synthetic substances.
a. practical diets b. complete diets
c. purified diets d. balance diets
20. Suitable range of water pH for fish growth.
a. 5-8 b. 6.5-9
c. 6.0-9.0 d. 6.5-11
21. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. All biogeochemical cycles are self-replenishing
b. The lower the FCR the better
c. Carrying capacity is the ability of the pond to produce natural foods
d. growth potential of a fish can be exceeded with proper maintenance of growth related factor
22. A type of parasitic crustacean that is caused by parasitic copepod, worm-like adults buried in
the body and only female species infect the fish
a. Lerneasis b. fish lice
c. skin fluke d. gill fluke
23. Protogyny, in which female species turn into males, is common to this family except:
a. Labridae b. Scaridae
c. Serranidae d. Monocantidae
24. This is a phenomenon caused by low salinity, temperature and light intensity. This health
condition of seaweed wherein it exudes organic substances, which is mucilaginous in nature and
with the presence opportunistic bacteria in the water column aggravates the whitening of the
branches.
a. tip discoloration b. die off
c. ice-ice disease d. tip darkening
25. Kjeldahl digestion is the method of analysis of what major fraction of feeds and feedstuff?
a. crude protein b. moisture
c. crude fat d. crude fiber
26. Weed control is one of the different strategies in pond management. Which of the following
is not an adverse effect of weeds?
a. utilize soil nutrients
b. increase in hydrogen sulfide concentration
c. interfere with the production of fish
d. impede solar exposure of the pond
27. The following species of fish exhibit bisexual reproduction except:
a. catfish b. milkfish
c. mullets d. none of these
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28. It is defined as the number of eggs spawned
a. fecundity b. fertility
c. spawning d. stocks
29. In ponds, the problem with acid sulfate soils usually originates in:
a. gates b. levees
c. dikes d. canals
30. What is the active ingredient of the organic pesticide, derris roots?
a. rotenone b. saponin
c. teaseed d. nicotine
31. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a. Chaetoceros b. Brachionus
c. Skeletonema d. Spirulina
32. Which of the following families exhibit a protandrous mode of reproduction?
a. Serranidae b. Ciprinidae
c. Penaeidae d. Clariidiidae
33. Which of the following statement about feeds and feeding of fishes and shrimps is incorrect?
a. Milkfish broodstock are fed with 25%protein.
b. Milkfish larvae fed on chlorella.
c. Tilapias are omnivorous
d. Shrimp more actively at night.
34. What anti- nutritional substance is found in ipil-ipil that interferes with enzyme synthesis in
the liver?
a. lectin b. memosine
c. phytates d. thiaminase
35. Aflatoxicosis is a disease resulting from exposure of feeds to aflatoxin- contaminated diet.
This is also known as
a. Red disease b. Black disease
c. Paralytic syndrome d. Fusarium disease
36. Anti- nutritional substance that is found in cassava that releases poisonous hydrocyanic acid
upon hydrolysis.
a. peroxide b. cyanogens
c. tannin d. phytates
37. Which of the following minerals is considered as macro-element and required in the diet in
relatively large amount?
a. iron b. copper
c. chlorine d. selenium
38. What do you call the milkfish breeders?
a. sabalo b. kawag-kawag
c. gravid d. berried
39. Which of the following is considered as unslaked lime?
a. CaO b. CaOH
c. CaS104 d. CaCO3
40. Which of the following is not a mode of action of probiotics?
a. dampen the immunological system of the host
b. eliminate phatogenic bacteria
c. help in digestion
d. prevent adhesion of harmful bacteria
41. Which of the following is not recommended as environment-friendly practice in an aqua
farm?
a. feed right b. recirculating aquaculture system
c. monoculture practice d. use of settling pond
42. Which of the following has nitrogen as its only nutrient component (single fertilizer)?
a. urea b. potassium chloride
c. potasium sulfate d. super phosphate
43. Which of the following is not a zooplankton?
a. brachionus b. moina
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c. chaetoceros d. artemia
44. Which of the following factors affect fecundity?
a. buoyancy of the eggs b. size of the eggs
c. type of spawning and age of the fish d. all of these
45. Which of the following species of fish exhibit parthenogenic reproduction?
a. Amazon molly b. snakehead
c. freshwater prawn d. mullet
46. Organisms that spawn more than once before dying
a. semelparous b. homologous
c. iteroparous d. homozygous
47. A product of fish protein metabolism and decomposition of organic matter by bacteria
a. urea b. phosphorous
c. potassium d. ammonia
48. Which of the following environmental stimuli affect spawning of tropical species?
a. rainfall and floods b. courtship behavior
c. temperature d. all of these
49. Brood hiders whose eggs endure dry season
a. xerophils b. speleophils
c. ostracophils d. aphyrophils
50. This feed is given to fish weighing 5.1-30.0 grams per piece
a. mash b. crumbles
c. juvenile pellets d. adult pellets
51. Brachionus is commonly known as
a. artemia b. green algae
c. rotifers d. megalopa
52. Which of this animal litter has the highest nitrogen content?
a. sheep (old) b. broiler (fresh)
c. swine (fold) d. layers (fresh)
53. Soil type with 22% clay, 14% silt and 63% sand
a. clay-clay type b. sandy-clay type
c. sandy-loam type d. loam type
54. Example of antibiotics used as dietary component of aqua feeds
a. Anthaxanthin b. gonadotrophine
c. canthaxanthin d. oxytetracycline
55. Dissolve oxygen is high in:
a. high temperature b. high salinity
c. high pressure d. high evaporation
56. Routinely added to most fish diets to prevent fats from becoming rancid in storage
a. antibiotics b. vitamins
c. pigments d. antioxidant
57. Overliming can give a deficiency of
a. Fe b. Mn
c. Zn d. Cu
58. Often used to flocculate suspended solids so that they will settle quickly
a. aluminum sulfate b. calcium carbonate
c. pyrite d. magnesium sulfate
59. A complex community of microbenthic biota closely associated with pond bed
a. lablab b. lumot
c. phytoplankton d. zooplankton
60. Which of the following feedstuff has the highest apparent protein digestibility?
a. gelatin b. yeast
c. corn starch d. fish meal
61. Substances added to feeds to make it stable in water
a. vitamins b. fillers
c. antibiotics d. binders
62. Refers to the layer of the land or the changes in the surface and elevation of the ground
a. soil pH b. soil area
c. soil texture d. topography
63. Vibriosis occurs in the following conditions except:
a. high temperature b. high salinity
c. high oxygen d. high organic load
64. Localized tissue anemia due to obstruction of the inflow of blood.
a. lethargy b. necrosis
c. anemia d. ischemia
65. Abnormal protrusion of the eyeball of the fish
a. exophthalmia b. ulceration
c. ischemia d. necrosis
66. Origin of Red tilapia
a. Thailand b. Singapore
c. Egypt d. Taiwan
67. Origin of aquaculture
a. China b. Japan
c. US d. Greece
68. Which of the following is the chemical commonly used as treatment for viral infections?
a. copper sulfate b. oxylinic acid
c. magnesium oxide d. none of these
69. This is a normal free-living organism either in water or the fish, but is capable of adopting
pathogenic role under certain circumstances.
a. Primary or obligate pathogen b. Opportunistic pathogen
c. Isopod infestation d. Bacterial hemorrhagic septicemia
70. Condition characterized by a deficiency of hemoglobin, packed cell volume, or erythrocytes in
the blood
a. thrombosis b. anorexia
c. dystrophy d. anemia
71. Luminous Bacterial Disease is caused by what strains of Vibrio?
a. V. harveyii and V. splendidus b. V. penaeicida and V. damsel
c. V. fluvialis and V harveyii d. V. alginolyticus and V. splendidus
72. This is caused by opportunistic gram-negative bacteria like Vibrio, Aeromonas, Pseudomonas
and members of Enterobacteriaceae
a. Isopod infestation
b. Infections of acid fast bacteria
c. Bacterial Hemorrhagic Septicemia
d. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome
73. The following are examples of major viral infections in fish except:
a. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome
b. Lymphocystis Disease
c. Yellow Head Virus Disease
d. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome
74. Best known viral disease of marine and freshwater fish
a. Herpesvirus b. Lymphocystis
c. Viral Nervous Necrosis d. White spot disease
75. Several species of crabs are now of commercial value and can be obtained from the natural
habitat or hatchery. Which of the following is considered the native crab?
a. Scylla tranquebarica b. Scylla olivaceous
c. Scylla serrata d. Scylla paramamosain
76. White Spot Syndrome Virus (WSSV) Disease, a major viral infection in penaid shrimp, is
caused by
a. Parvovirus b. Baculovirus
c. Rhabdovirus d. nodavirus
77. Which of the following water management methods is stressful to shrimps during culture?
a. frequent water exchange b. application of Probiotics
c. application of lime d. production of green water
78. The egg-carrying females of common crustaceans such as prawn and crabs are termed
a. elated b. pregnant
23 | P a g e
c. berried c. matured
79. Larval stage of Penaeus after nauplius
a. post larvae b. broodstock
c. zoea d. fingerlings
80. Which of the following is incorrect about the sex determination of Siganus canaliculatus?
a. Males are generally smaller than females
b. Abdomen of female is distinctly plump
c. Whitish fluid come from the abdomen of male once pressed
d. Female is more active than male
81. Known as the giant/king mud crab
a. Scylla paramamosain b. Scylla olivacea
c. Scylla tranquebarica d. Scylla serrata
82. A serious viral problem to grouper culture which was first reported in Japan in 1991 and
1994.
a. Viral Nervous Necrosis b. Taura Syndrome Virus
c. White Spot Disease d. Lymphocystis disease
83. Which of the following is not a right technique in handling and transporting prawn spawners?
a. Place the organism in plastic bag with oxygen pressure
b. Place the spawner in freshwater with continuous aeration
c. Put certain amount of ice outside the plastic bag to be use
d. all of these
84. Which of the following statements is incorrect about male crab?
a. it has 4 pairs of gonopods
b. it has semi-circular abdomen
c. it has semi-circular abdomen and it has smaller cheliped than female
d. all of these
85. The following species of Siganus make use of coral reef as its habitat except:
a. punctatus b. vermiculatus
c. luridus d. none of these
86. Berried crabs should be:
a. disinfected through formalin bath b. fed with 30-40% biomass daily
c. stocked in tank with freshwater d. all of the above
87. Walking legs of prawn
a. periopods b. uropods
c. pleopods d. gonapods
88. Crustacean parasite known as fish louse
a. Argulus b. Caligus
c. Ergasilus d. Lernea
89. Viral Nervous Necrosis (VNN), common among groupers and related species is caused by:
a. rhabdovirus b. parvovirus
c. baculovirus d. nodavirus
90. This is a serious finfish disease in Asia affecting more than 100 species of wild and cultured
fish and to a lesser extent brackishwater fishes.
a. Infectious Acid Fast Bacteria b. Bacterial Hemorrhagic Septicemia
c. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome d. Fungal disease
91. Tilapia nests can be natural or constructed cavities. What do you call this kind of ecological
spawning?
a. Psammophils b. Phytophils
c. Aphrophils d. Speleophils
92. The following are gross signs of Spinning Tilapia Syndrome except:
a. do not feed b. scale loss
c. swim in spiral pattern d. gasping for air
93. What is the right water management for semi-intensive culture of tilapia in ponds?
a. frequent water change b. flow-through
c. 50% water change after 2 months d. 5-10% daily water change
94. Common carp spawns between 2-8am and eggs hatched in __________days.
a. 1-2 b. 4-5
c. 2-3 d. 5-6
95. At how many months do catfish reach maturity?
24 | P a g e
a. 4-5 months b. 1 - 3 months
c. 6 - 8 months d. more than 1 year
96. The species of carp which is flat head, sub-inferior mouth, herbivore and widely introduced
for weed control.
a. Ctenopharyngodon idella b. Cyprinus carpio
c. Ctenopharyngodon nobilis d. Hypothalmichtys molitrix
97. He introduced Tilapia in the Philippines in 1950
a. Guerrero b. Tayamen
c. Genomar d. Villadolid
98. The success of the milkfish culture in fishpens in Laguna de Bay could be attributed to the
following except:
a. occurrence of algal bloom b. absence of true plankton feeders
c. mixed water d. bottom is sandy and coralline
99. First maturation of common carp occurs within how many months.
a. 3-5 b. 6-8
c. 8-12 d. 4-8
100. Carp, catfish, and snakehead are usually inflicted with cestode, and endoparasitic tapeworm
with ribbon-like body. Causative agent is:
a. Echinocephalus b. Alitropus
c. Argulus d. Botriocephalus

Aquaculture Set D

1. The local pattern of tide curve (better known as design tide curve) upon which fishpond design
is based can be obtained from an analysis of the tide record drawn along ________________
a. zero datum which is mean lower low water
b. zero datum which is mean low water
c. zero datum which is mean high water
d. zero datum which is mean higher high water
2. It serves as the foundation of the structure and its elevation for main gates must be lower
than the pond bottom elevation and is slightly lower than the lower tide of the site
a. dikes
b. levees
c. catching pond
d. floor
3. The broadened and extended part of the floor. It serves as protection to scouring and future
seepage of water at the gates sides.
a. dike
b. floor
c. crown
d. apron
4. This is built against the side walls to support or reinforce it; it also helps in reducing seepage
flow along the sidewalls
a. wing wall
b. buttress
c. catwalk
d. apron
5. Reinforced concrete slab or thick wooden planks that span the sidewalls
a. wing wall
b. buttress
c. catwalks
d. apron
6. They are generally wooden planks used to control the amount of water flowing through the
gate
a. flash boards/slabs
b. apron
c. screen
d. buttress
7. Framed bamboo strips or polyethylene meshes fitted into the groves, used to prevent the exits
of cultured organisms and the entry of predators
a. pillars
b. braces
c. screens
d. slabs
8. These provides the control of water to and from the control canal and into the different pond
components such as catching pond or nursery pond
a. main gate
b. main dike
c. blocks
d. secondary/tertiary dike
9. A more recent innovation in pond construction which convey water across the dikes and
similar embankments, it is smaller and less expensive made of concrete hollow blocks or
asbestos cement, it may or may not have wing walls.
a. gate
b. canal
c. culvert

d. stand pipe
10. It helps retain water for use in the fish farming operation as well as to protect everything
within it from destruction
a. dikes
b. gates
c. slabs
d. perimeter dike
11. The design of perimeter dike must be based on sound engineering principles and economic
feasibility. There are generally two types of perimeter dike design, what are those?
a. for exposed area and for protected area
b. for domestic and export market
c. for commercial and for backyard farming
d. for hatchery and for grow-out
12. In the formula Hm= (Hat –Gs)+Mf + F , Hat pertains to______________
1-(%S/100)
a. height of astronomical tide
b. height of allowable tide level
c. height of agricultural terrain
d. none
13. These structure in fish pond usually starts from the main gate and transverse the central
portion of the farm.
a. supply canal
b. water supply canal
c. main water supply canal
d. tertiary water supply canal
14. Usually, these structures are the veins supplying the nursery and transition pond in fish farm.
These can be modified to serve as catching pond.
a. diversion canal
b. nursery supply canal
c. tertiary canal
d. drainage canal
15. These canals are built primarily for the purpose of protecting the farm from being flooded
with runoff water coming from the watershed
a. diversion canal
b. nursery supply canal
c. tertiary canal
d. drainage canal
16. These canals are built to facilitate flow-through system in intensive farming
a. diversion canal
b. nursery supply canal
c. tertiary canal
d. drainage canal
17. Refers to configuration of the ground surface
a. Topography
b. surface
c. ground level
d. slope
18. The following are factors to be consider in selecting brackishwater pond except
a. water supply
b. trend of supply and demand
c. vegetation
d. topography
19. The suitable site for fishpond is brackishwater/mangrove swamps. This preliminary step in
the construction is done to kill the tress by filling up the pond water.
a. underbrushing
b. watering 27 | P a g e

c. uprooting
d. withering
20. Tool/equipment in piling soil blocks
a. digging blade
b. bolo
c. tagad
d. cover
21. Digging blade in the Philippines is called ____________
a. sarap
b. sekop
c. pacul
d. sorok
22. Soil/mud blocks are transported from the digging site by means of the following except
__________
a. bamboo raft
b. dug-out boat
c. flat boat
d. petuya
23. This tool is used to compact the soil blocks, made of a short log
a. drag line
b. tamping device
c. digging blade
d. sarap
24. A track-mounted crane particularly good for dike construction, canal digging and deepening.
a. wooden mallet
b. drag line
c. tamping device
d. transit line
25. Manual method in transporting soil blocks where workers forms a single line positioned at 1-
2m apart, extending from the source to the dike construction site relaying the blocks to each
man until it reaches the pile.
a. line system
b. sliding system
c. flat boat system
d. raft system
26. Another manual method in transporting soil blocks applicable when the source of blocks is
close to the site, the workers throw the blocks on the board letting the blocks to slide down to
the base of the dikes.
a. line system
b. sliding system
c. flat boat system
d. raft system
27. Final step in fishpond construction
a. drying
b. watering
c. leveling
d. cracking
28. The following are functions of pumps in aquaculture except
a. As a total or supplementary means of obtaining waters
b. As aerators
c. For lifting water in sites where elevation is beyond the ample reach of tidal fluctuation
d. Strictly for supplementary means
29. This refers to the vertical distance from the surface of the water to centreline of the pump
impeller
a. suction head 28 | P a g e

b. discharge head
c. total dynamic head
d. drawdown
30. A vertical distance from the centreline of impeller to the point of discharge
a. suctionhead
b. discharge head
c. total dynamic head
d. drawdown
31. The sum of suction head, discharge head, hydraulic head losses and velocity
a. suctionhead
b. discharge head
c. total dynamic head
d. drawdown
32. The lowering of water surface below the static level during pumping
a. suctionhead
b. discharge head
c. total dynamic head
d. drawdown
33. The water level before pumping begin
a. static level
b. hydraulic loss
c. discharge
d. performance curve
34. Reduction of water level due to several uncontrolled factors taking place as operation goes
on and thereafter.
a. static level
b. hydraulic loss
c. discharge
d. performance curv
35. Refers to the rate of flow or the volume of water pumped per unit time
a. static level
b. hydraulic loss
c. discharge
d. performance curve
36. Refers to the variation of the head with capacity at a constant impeller speed
a. static level
b. hydraulic loss
c. discharge
d. performance curve
37. Pump that is characterized by operating at low head and low discharge
a. Centrifugal pump
b. Deep-well turbine
c. Propeller
d. Hydraulic pump
38. A pump that is capable of operating at high head and low to high discharge
a. Centrifugal pump
b. Deep-well turbine
c. Propeller
d. Hydraulic pump
39. This pump has the characteristic of operating at low head but delivering large volume of flow
a. Centrifugal pump
b. Deep-well turbine
c. Propeller
d. Hydraulic pump
40. A special type of pump which delivers water into the pond by using a wooden trough
equipped with series of blades connected by flexible joints powered by windmill.
a. Propeller
b. Centrifugal pump
c. Dragon-wheel pump
d. Push pump
41. Special type of pump suitable for lifting water at an inclination of not more than 20°. The
water is being pushed up by means of propeller through a tube or pipe.
a. Propeller
b. Centrifugal pump
c. Dragon-wheel pump
d. Push pump
42. Shrimp fry are also gathered using push pump with less than 20% mortality. The collected fry
are treated with _____________, an active ingredient from soy bean, which selectively kills
finfish species but not shrimp fry.
a. quinaldine
b. MS222
c. clove oil
d. saponin
43. Which of the following components of pumping plant serves as a basin provided at the foot
of the pump column suction head, this protects the system against excessive debris, floatsam
and also minimizes silting.
a. pump and prime mover foundation
b. suction sump
c. distribution canals
d. push pump
44. The following are components of pumping plants in coastal fish farms. Which among them
does the carrying of weight of the pump and engine?
a. pump and prime mover foundation
b. suction sump
c. distribution canals
d. push pump
45. In fish farms with accessible supply of electricity where there are no frequent power
interruptions occur, preferably, the type of prime mover to be used is __________________?
a. engine-powered
b. electric-powered
c. hydraulic-powered
d. diesel-powered
46. One of the accessories in propeller pumps which change the direction of the drive from
vertical to horizontal, change input and provide alternative horizontal drive where there is
already a vertical electric motor during the pump.
a. gear drive
b. cross joints and shafts
c. pump columns
d. hydraulic driven pump
47. This is a system where a prime mover drives a hydraulic pump and the high pressure
transmitted through hydraulic hoses which drives a hydraulic motor attached to the impeller.
a. pump columns
b. cross joints and shafts
c. gear drive
d. hydraulic driven pump
48. Comprise about 50-70% of total developmental cost in coastal fishpond development
a. construction cost
b. feasibility planning and designing
c. estimating development cost
d. contingencies
49. A part of budget normally set aside specifically intended for unexpected additional expenses
a. construction cost
b. feasibility planning and designing
c. estimating development cost
d. contingencies
50. Considered as the simplest culture system in shrimp culture where the stocking density
ranges from 2,000-5,000 fry/hectare.
a. traditional culture system
b. improved traditional culture system
c. semi-intensive method
d. intensive method
51. pH is generally considered as one of the most important factors to be considered in
aquaculture. In shrimp culture, the preferable water pH range from______________
a. 7.5-8.5
b. 7.5-9
c. 7.5-10
d. 3.5-14
52. Most ponds developed along the coastal areas with dense mangrove vegetation often have
acid-sulfate problem during the first few years of operation. This is due to the accumulation of
__________
a. organic materials
b. hydrogen sulfide
c. pyrite
d. methane
53. Perennial fish ponds in the Philippines is characterized by acid sulfate soil and during pond
leveling the pyrites (iron sulfide) are oxidized producing ____________________- which acidifies
the soil correspondingly reducing the natural productivity.
a. acidic water
b. acidic substances
c. sulphuric acid
d. hydrogen sulfide
54. A remedy done to neutralize acidic soil
a. fertilization
b. drying
c. ploughing
d. liming
55. After neutralizing acidic soil with lime, acid are removed through ________________
a. fertilization
b. flushing
c. crack drying
d. ploughing
56. Tiger shrimp
a. Penaeus japonicus
b. Penaeus merguiensis
c. Penaeus indicus
d. Penaeus monodon
57. What differentiates Penaeus indicus from Penaeus merguiensis?
a. meristic traits
b. body proportion
c. behavioral response
d. feeding habit
58. Metapenaeus ensis are able to tolerate water temperature of 25-45°C, therefore they are
________
a. Euryhaline
b. euryphagous
c. eurythermal
d. Polythermal
59. The determination of soil class is still maid in the field mainly by feeling the soil with fingers.
If the soil you squeezed in moist will for a cast but will crumble when touch, then the type of
your soil is…
a. sandy
b. sandy loam
c. loam
d. silty loam
60. This type of soil will form a “long, flexible ribbon” when pinched between thumb and fingers,
a fine textured soil that usually form very hard lump when dry.
a. clay loam
b. sandy loam
c. silty loam
d. clay
61. This type of fine, textured soil will form a “ribbon” when pinched between fingers but will
break readily barely sustaining its own weight.
a. clay loam
b. sandy loam
c. silty loam
d. clay
62. The amount of each soil separate in a soil mixture determines its texture. The most reliable
method in determining the amount of each soil is…
a. Peterson method
b. Buoyocous mechanical test
c. Laboratory test
d. Field test
63. A simple device use in soil sampling
a. corer
b. digger
c. digging blade
d. auger
64. It is the most important physical property of soil in fishpond engineering which helps
determine its ability to resist seepage, attainable compaction and load bearing capacity.
a. texture
b. pH
c. acid-forming substance
d. permeability
65. Refers to the lay of the land
a. slope
b. elevation
c. topography
d. pond lay out
66. A zone in coastal edge as probable site for fishpond characterized by its marginal land along
edges of cultivation, seeded by seawater at highest high tide, highly elevated and generally no
acid sulfate soils.
a. Zone A
b. Zone B
c. Zone C
d. Zone D
67. A probable site for fishpond which is generally elevated, vegetated with many swamp areas,
some are earthmounds and some portions are acid sulfate soils.
a. Zone A
b. Zone B
c. Zone C
d. Zone D
68. A zone which is generally low elevation, densely vegetated and with high occurrences of
pyrite build-up.
a. Zone A
b. Zone B
c. Zone C
d. Zone D
69. This zone has low elevation, it is very exposed to wave action which may require expensive
big dikes and wave protection structure, and it has no acidity problem, hence, ideal for shrimp
culture.
a. Zone A
b. Zone B
c. Zone C
d. Zone D
70. In what type of vegetation does an aquaculturist prefer to build his brackishwater pond?
a. Rhizophora vegetated zone
b. mangal zone
c. Nypa zone
d. Avicennia zone
71. A zone with this type of vegetation indicates a productive soil because of its less dense root
system compared to other vegetation.
a. Mangrove zone
b. Rhizophora zone
c. Avicennia zone
d. Bruguiera zone
72. Refers to incoming/rising tide
a. spring tide
b. neap tide
c. flood tide
d. high tide
73. Refers to outgoing/falling tide
a. ebb tide
b. neap tide
c. flood tide
d. spring tide
74. Refers to the time interval between two successive high waters
a. tidal range
b. tidal period
c. tidal inequity
d. spring tide
75. Refers to differences between highest high waters and lowest low waters
a. tidal range
b. tidal period
c. diurnal inequity
d. spring tide
76. Refers to the differences in height of the two high waters or of the two low waters of each
day
a. tidal range
b. tidal period
c. diurnal inequity
d. spring tide
77. Tides that occur under syzygy condition
a. tidal range
b. tidal period
c. diurnal inequity
d. spring tide
78. These are extra high spring tide which occur twice a year at the time of vernal and autumnal
equinoxes.
a. highest high tide
b. Equinoctial autumnal equinoxes
c. MHHW
d. MLLW
79. A method in determining the height of tide which involves plotting of the tide curve.
a. graphical method
b. chart plotting method
c. plotting technique
d. tide plotting
80. This refers to the area/space provided for ecological consideration as well as physical
protection against flooding and wave action. It usually, in the Philippines, is at least 100m from
the sea.
a. perimeter dike
b. drainage canal
c. Miscellaneous structural zone
d. sanctioned buffer zone
81. A smallest unit in pond system where fry are stocked before allowed passing to nursery
pond.
a. catching pond
b. fry acclimatization pond
c. nursery pond
d. preparatory pond
82. One of the following is not appropriately described by the following statement: is located
adjacent to the nursery pond inorder to have efficient and quick transfer of fingerlings
a. transition pond
b. withholding pond
c. stunting pond
d. holding pond
83. The largest compartment in pond system comprising 80% of the total area.
a. holding pond
b. kitchen pond
c. catching pond
d. grow out
84. This portion of the pond is strictly intended to augment the availability of food
a. holding pond
b. kitchen pond
c. catching pond
d. grow out
85. Plankton production
a. shallow water method
b. deep water method
c. lablab method
d. plankton method
86. Lablab production
a. shallow water method
b. deep water method
c. lablab method
d. plankton method
87. A complex community of micro-benthic biota closely associated with pond bottom.
a. lablab
b. plankton
c. periphyton
d. algae
88. Which of the following term corresponds “sanction buffer zone”?

a. buffer zone
b. drainage canal
c. perimeter dike
d. salvage zone
89. This compartment distributes the tidal inflow to the various ponds and provides
independence in the operation of individual pond compartment.
a. reservoir pond
b. division pond
c. housing site
d. sedimentation basin
90. These structures are located near the water source before the incoming tide enters the pond.
It is intended to settle suspended solids carried by the flowing waters.
a. reservoir pond
b. division pond
c. housing site
d. sedimentation basin
91. These spaces are set aside for farm personnel and for storehouses.
a. salvage zone
b. buffer zone
c. miscellaneous zone
d. housing
92. A versatile piece of instrument which is use for measuring vertical and horizontal distances,
angles, for prolonging lines and for leveling operations.
a. levels
b. engineer’s transit
c. leveling rod
d. range poles
93. Are slender round poles usually made of metal or wood painted with alternative bands of red
and white, these are stuck along the line of survey inorder to establish a straight line of sight
a. levels
b. engineer’s transit
c. leveling rod
d. range poles
94. Refers to the normal length of step or stride of an individual
a. pace
b. pacing
c. phase
d. phage
95. It is defined as the ratio of the measured distance in the number of paces made to cover the
measured distance.
a. pacing
b. paces
c. pace factor
d. all of the above
96. The quick and accurate way of measuring distance is by ……
a. stadia method
b. pace factor
c. topographic survey
d. contour survey
97. Distance
a. upper stadia minus lower stadia divided by stadia constant multiplied to a hundredth
b. lower stadia minus upper stadia divided by stadia constant multiplied to a hundredth
c. the product of upper and lower stadia divided by stadia constant multiplied to a hundredth
d. the quotient of upper and lower stadia added to stadia constant divided to a hundredth
98. In measuring the distance using a modern stadia rod, distance is equal to…….
a. upper stadia minus lower stadia divided by stadia constant multiplied to a hundredth
b. lower stadia minus upper stadia divided by stadia constant multiplied to a hundredth
c. upper stadia minus lower stadia multiplied to a hundredth
d. lower stadia minus upper stadia multiplied to a hundredth
99. The line in between upper and lower stadia
a. stadia hair
b. cross lines
c. intersections
d. horizontal cross hairs
100. The difference between upper and lower stadia reading…
a. distance
b. contour line
c. equinox
d. stadia interval

Aquaculture Set E
1. The following are instruments used for angle measurement except…
a. plane table
b. alidade
c. sextant
d. DSRT
2. Angles that are measured in vertical plane
a. vertical angles
b. azimuth
c. angular angles
d. back azimuth
3. Angles that are measured along horizontal plane
a. front azimuth
b. angular angles
c. horizontal angles
d. interior angles
4. An angle that has been referred from North and South and can never be greater than 90°
a. interior anlges
b. bearing
c. deflection angle
d. angular angle
5. Refer to the angle between a line and the prolongation of the preceeding line
a. interior angle
b. bearing
c. deflection angle
d. angular angle
6. Angles that are determined by clockwise measurement
a. <’s to the right
b. clockwise angle
c. right angle
d. interior angle
7. Angle inside a given figure
a. <’s to the right
b. clockwise angle
c. right angle
d. interior angle
8. A method used in computing area wherein boundaries of the farm are plotted to scale and
area is determined by the use of planimeter
a. planimeter method
b. double-meridian distance
c. trapezoidal rule
d. plotting into geometric figure
9. A method use in computing area where area is calculated from coordinates of the farm
a. planimeter method
b. double-meridian distance
c. trapezoidal rule
d. plotting into geometric figure
10. This method is applicable for calculating areas of land bounded by irregular curves
a. planimeter method
b. double-meridian distance
c. trapezoidal rule
d. plotting into geometric figure
11. A method in computing area which include plotting the boundaries of the scale involving
mathematical computation
a. planimeter method

b. double-meridian distance
c. trapezoidal rule
d. plotting into geometric figure
12. This kind of survey requires technical know-how and skill in leveling operation. The ultimate
objective in doing this survey is to reflect on map the relief or changes in elevation of the fish
farm site including other relevant features.
a. levelling survey
b. topographic survey
c. lay-outing
d. double-meridian survey
13. The basic operation in engineering survey that leads to the production of topographic map
a. levelling survey
b. topographic survey
c. lay-outing
d. double-meridian survey
14. A kind of direct levelling which determines the difference in elevation of two points which are
distant apart.
a. distant levelling
b. differential levelling
c. profile levelling
d. double-point levelling
15. A kind of direct levelling which determines the differences in elevation of points along a
prescribed line and at measured intervals.
a. distant levelling
b. differential levelling
c. profile levelling
d. double-point levelling
16. Refers to the vertical distance of the ground
a. slope
b. topography
c. benchmark
d. elevation
17. Refers to the station or point in the ground of known elevation and of permanent nature, this
point provides the reference/ baseline point of elevation from where other station is calculated.
a. slope
b. topography
c. benchmark
d. elevation
18. The point where a rod reading is taken and generally along the line being run
a. station
b. backsight
c. foresight
d. turning point
19. A reading taken on point of known elevation, more known as plus sight
a. station
b. backsight
c. foresight
d. turning point
20. A reading taken on any point of unknown elevation and is always subtracted, hence, known
as minus sight
a. station
b. backsight
c. foresight
d. turning point
21. It is an intermediate station or reference point whenever the instrument are moved from one
set up to another, this point is no longer needed right after the necessary reading are taken
a. station
b. backsight 38 | P a g e

c. foresight
d. turning point
22. It is the relative elevation of the line of sight of the instrument
a. turning point
b. foresight
c. ground profile
d. backsight
23. Refers to the graph of the ground surface which shows change in elevation with distance
a. turning point
b. height of the instrument
c. ground profile
d. foresight
24. These show the configuration or changes in elevation of the ground in a topographic map.
Each point represents the points of the same elevation and is spaced according to the differences
in elevation between two adjacent lines.
a. turning point
b. benchmark
c. topographic lines
d. contour line
25. Lates calcarifer
a. tarpun
b. mangrove kacj
c. pompano
d. apahap
26. 1 decimeter is equal to…
a. 10cm
b. 50cm
c. 100cm
d. 0.5cm
27. 1.61km equals to….
a. 1 statute mile
b. 1 knot
c. 1 nautical mile
d. 1 mile
28. 1.85km equals to…
a. 1 statute mile
b. 1 knot
c. 1 nautical mile
d. 1 mile
29. 1 hectare
a. 2.47 acres
b. 1 acres
c. 0.54 acres
d. 2.2 acres
30. 1m2 equals to…
a. 3km2
b. 2.59km2
c. 2.59m3
d. 2.59km
31. 1 circumference
a. 1800
b. 0900
c. 000°
d. 1
32. Are fine-meshed rectangular net supported by two poles at both ends employed for
fingerling collection
a. fingerling seine

b. cast net
c. push net
d. scoop net
33. Rectangular or square net use in counting fingerlings or before transport
a. fingerling seine
b. scoop net
c. fingerling suspension net
d. transition net
34. This tightens the collecting bunt of harvesting bag nets to impound catch
a. rope
b. metal rings
c. rhumb line
d. lazy line
35. A versatile net used for sampling fish or shrimp to monitor its growth
a. seine net
b. scoop net
c. cast net
d. hapa net
36. These are either electric or engine powered machineries which can remedy critical oxygen
condition in fish farms.
a. pumps
b. fish wheel
c. paddlewheel
d. none of the above
37. A simple hand instrument designed to eliminate burrowing crabs into the fishpond dikes
a. predatory hook
b. crab hook
c. eel hook
d. snare
38. Mound-building mud lobster
a. Panulirus anomala
b. Thallasina anomala
c. Panulirus interruptus
d. Panulirus sp.
39. These soil are those that contain high concentration of hydrogen and aluminum ion resulting
to poor productivity when utilize as fishpond
a. sandy coralline
b. mudflats
c. acid sulfate soil
d. pyrite
40. Acid sulfate soil results from the formation of___________
a. hydrogen sulfide
b. pyrite
c. acid sulfate
d. methane
41. Upon bacterial decomposition in perennial brackishwater pond, abundant sulfate from
seawater is reduced to sulfides which then undergo chemical reaction forming crystals known as
____________
a. pyrite
b. aluminum crystals
c. crystalline nodules
d. mineral pyrites
42. What does an aquaculturist do to prevent dike erosion?
a. utilize dikes as vegetable farm
b. liming
c. dike concreting
d. plant Bermuda grass 40 | P a g e

43. Which of the following has highest aquaculture production as of 2013?

a. Region I
b. Region II
c. Region III
d. ARMM
44. Which of the following has the highest rice-fish culture production?
a. CARAGA
b. Region IV
c. Region V
d. Region III
45. Which of the following has the least aquaculture production?
a. Region III
b. CAR
c. NCR
d. ARMM
46. Silver perch
a. Bidyanus bidyanus
b. Anabas sp.
c. Hypothalmichthys molitrix
d. Lates calcarifer
47. Sea bass
a. Lates sp.
b. Neoceratodus forsterii
c. Saurida tumbil
d. Lates calcarifer
48. Breeding period of Bidyanus bidyanus
a. 5months
b. 1 year
c. 7 months
d. 3 months
49. Pond loach is locally known as __________
a. liwit
b. Dojo
c. apahap
d. salamander fish
50. Dojo is named in scientific society as…
a. Ophicephalus striatus
b. Chitala ornate
c. Channa striata
d. Misgurnus anguillicaudatus
51. Integrated culture of oyster and fish
a. depuration purposes
b. aquasilviculture
c. green water technology
d. talaisdaan
52. Chinese soft-shelled turtle
a. Pelodiscus sinensis
b. Trionyx schlegelii
c. Potamochelys sp.
d. Erythmochelys imbricate
53. Female mud crab is called…
a. sire
b. jennies
c. dame
d. bucks
54. Male mud crab is called…
a. sire 41 | P a g e

b. jennies
c. dame
d. bucks
55. A chemical attractant release by mature female to get noticed by males
a. pheromone
b. secondary substance
c. ova
d. ovules
56. Which of the following statement about fertilization is incorrect?
a. Ponds which have excessive water flow can be efficiently fertilized.
b. Do not fertilize ponds with extensive areas less than two feet deep. The added nutrients will
promote the growth of undesirable rooted aquatic vegetation in areas
c. Do not fertilize ponds with no history of weed problems and very light fish harvests. It serves
no purpose to increase pounds of fish in the pond if very few are going to be
d. Do not fertilize commercially fed ponds. Added nutrients promote excessive phytoplankton
blooms that could lead to dissolved oxygen depletions, resulting in fish
57. Refers to the ability of lake to dilute material whether they are naturally occurring from the
watershed or from a human-induced spill is termed as…
a. carrying capacity
b. competence
c. dilution capacity
d. dissolution
58. Are graphs used to provide a visual representation of the relationship between the surface
area of a certain ecosystem and its depth, able to give us accurate information at a glance?
a. hypsographic curves
b. hydrographic curves
c. hypsographic arc
d. hydrographic arc
59. It is represented in scientific literature as V..
a. velocity
b. number five
c. volume
d. angle
60. It is represented in scientific society as A
a. area
b. hypsographic arc
c. radius
d. circumference
61. Ź in scientific literature means…
a. mean depth
b. circumference
b. area
d. distance
62. Some organisms are motile throughout their lives, but others are adopted to move or to be
moved at precise, limited phases of their life cycle. This particular stage in their lives is known as
a. dispersive phase
b. density-dependent dispersal
c. density-independent dispersal
d. natal dispersal
63. A situation where an individual, often juveniles, move away from where it was born
a. dispersive phase
b. density-dependent dispersal
c. density-independent dispersal
d. natal dispersal
64. A situation where an individual, often adult, where an individual moves away from one
breeding location to breed elsewhere
a. dispersive dispersal 42 | P a g e

b. natal dispersal
c. breeding dispersal
d. density-dependent dispersal
65. A special, dormant propagules of freshwater sponges
a. planula
b. tardigrades
c. zygote
d. gemmulae
66. Passive dispersal
a. dispersive phase
b. density-independent dispersal
c. density-independent dispersal
d. natal dispersal
67. Active dispersal
a. dispersive phase
b. density-independent dispersal
c. density-independent dispersal
d. natal dispersal
68. Silver pompano, scientifically named as Trachinotus blochii belongs to family…
a. Apogonidae
b. Syngnathidae
c. Carangidae
d. Scombridae
69. Mud crab juvenile is called
a. megalopa
b. crablets
c. post juvenile
d. sub adult
70. Gant freshwater prawn, locally known as “ulang” has been scientifically known as
a. Macrobrachium resenbergii
b. Microbrachium rosenbergie
c. Macrobrachium rosenvergie
d. Macrobrachium rosenbergii
71. A kind of survey which takes into account the true spheroidal shape of the earth
a. plane surveying
b. apparent survey
c. Geodetic survey
d. Spheroidal survey
72. Refers to the degree of perfection
a. accuracy
b. precision
c. apparent
d. true measurement
73. Refers to the degree of refinement
a. accuracy
b. precision
c. apparent
d. true measurement
74. Refers to the difference from the true value caused by the imperfection of the surveyor’s
senses, imperfection of the instrument or by weather effect.
a. mistake
b. error
c. difference
d. accidental error
75. Refers to the difference from the true value caused by the inattention of the surveyor
a. mistake
b. error 43 | P a g e

c. difference
d. accidental error
76. This refers to the horizontal angle with respect to a reference line which is read clockwise
a. direction
b. horizontal angle
c. meridian
d. true meridian
77. Refers to the fixed line of reference
a. direction
b. horizontal angle
c. meridian
d. true meridian
78. It is an angle formed by the intersection of two lines in a horizontal plane
a. direction
b. horizontal angle
c. meridian
d. true meridian
79. This refer to the direction of a line passing through the geographic North and South poles and
the surveyors position
a. meridian
b. true meridian
c. magnetic meridian
d. assumed meridian
80. This is the direction taken by the magnetized needle of the compass at the surveyor’s
position
a. meridian
b. true meridian
c. magnetic meridian
d. assumed meridian
81. This is an arbitrary direction taken for convenience
a. meridian
b. true meridian
c. magnetic meridian
d. assumed meridian
82. Refers to the series of successive straight lines that are connected together
a. traverse
b. contour line
c. latitude
d. meridian
83. Crucian carp
a. Carassius auratus
b. Carassius carassius
c. Lepomis macrochirus
d. Labeo ruhita
84. Blue gill sun fish
a. Carassius auratus
b. Carassius carassius
c. Lepomis macrochirus
d. Labeo ruhita
85. Round scad, as of 2011, is the top specie in commercial fisheries, it is scientifically known as
a. Decapterus macrosoma
b. Selar crumenopthalmus
c. Rastrelliger brachysoma
d. Nemipterus sp
86. Mosquito fish
a. Ophicaphelus striatus
b. Periopthalmus sp.
c. Gambusia affinis 44 | P a g e

d. Monopterus albus
87. A fish that is closely associated with mangrove area, which behaves more like an amphibian
than fish
a. Ophicaphelus striatus
b. Periopthalmus sp.
c. Gambusia affinis
d. Monopterus albus
88. Knife fish
a. Chitala ornata
b. Channa striata
c. Misthicthyes luzonensis
d. Leptoceris kalayaanensis
89. Smallest fish which measures 7.9 cm in adult size, found in Sumatra
a. Misthichthyes lozunensis
b. Pandaca pygmea
c. Carapuss bermudensis
d. Paedocypris progenetica
90. Channel catfish
a. Caranx ignobilis
b. Acanthurus mata
c. Loligo edulis
d. Ictalurus punctatus
91. Diwal
a. Paphia undulate
b. Histrio histrio
c. Barnea manilensis
d. Latimeria chalumnae
92. The only fresh water species from the family Carangidae
a. Caranx ignobilis
b. Lepomis macrochirus
c. Sardinella tawilis
d. Epomia reptans
93. Northern blue fin tuna
a. Thunnus obesus
b. Euthynnus affinis
c. Auxis thazard
d. Thunnus thynnus
94. Kurinding
a. Thunnus obesus
b. Euthynnus affinis
c. Auxis thazard
d. Thunnus thynnus
95. Big eye tuna
a. Katsuwonus pelamis
b. Euthynnua affinis
c. Thunnus obesus
d. Thunnus albacores
96. Gulyasan
a. Katsuwonus pelamis
b. Euthynnua affinis
c. Thunnus obesus
d. Thunnus albacores
97. Diamond-back squid
a. Loligo edulis
b. Octopus vulgaris
c. Thysanotheutis rhombus
d. Thysanotheutis dombus
98. Australian lungfish 45 | P a g e

a. Neoceratodus forsterii
b. Anguilla anguilla
c. Salmo salar
d. Abyssobrotula galathae
99. A fish from family Channichthyidae which carries no hemoglobin on its blood
a. Vandellia cirrhosa
b. Missgurnus anguillicaudatus
c. Gambusia affinis
d. Chionodraco hamatus
100. Electric-generating fish
a. Saurida tumbil
b. Hippoglossus stenolepsis
c. Scarus ghoban
d. Electrophorus electricus
Aquaculture Set F 46 | P a g e

1. One of the following is phases in aquaculture

a. intensive
b. extensive
c. flow through
d. grow out
2. In aquaculture, the choice of culture system depends on ______________________
a. desired quantity of animals to be stocked in a given area
b. amount of feed
c. water availability
d. all of these
3. The following are production system in aquaculture except for ______________
a. supra-intensive
b. extensive
c. semi-intensive
d, intensive
4. Any abnormality in structure or function displayed by living organisms through specific or non-
specific sign.
a. symptoms
b. stress
c. disease
d. paranormal behavior
5. The development of disease in a particular aquaculture system involves several factors; the
farmed fish (host), the disease causing organism (pathogen) and __________________
a. viruses
b. implications
c. culture system
d. environment
6. Resistance/susceptibility of the host depends on ________________
a. age/size of host organism
b. species and health of the fish
c. defense mechanisms employed
d. all of these
7. Major characteristics of infectious disease
a. capability for direct transmission and ability to multiply in the host tissue
b. mode and ability for transmission
c. resistance
d. virulence and resistance
8. Defined as the sum of physiological responses the fish makes to maintain or regain its normal
balance
a. response
b. stress
c. acclimatization
d. alarm stage
9. The following are phases of responses and adaptation of an organism to stress except for
a. acclimatization stage
b. alarm stage
c. adaptive stage
d. exhaustion stage
10. An organisms’ response to stress by which the fish attempts to escape from the problem
a. adaptive stage
b. exhaustion stage 47 | P a g e
c. alarm stage
d. acclimatization stage
11. An organisms’ response to stress by which the organism tries to adjust to change and reach a
new equilibrium, both physiologically and behaviorally, to survive the new environmental
condition.
a. adaptive stage
b. exhaustion stage
c. alarm stage
d. acclimatization stage
12. Under the situation where the organism can no longer adapt the existing condition and the
fish’ finally dies having reached the final stage of its stress response.
a. adaptive stage
b. exhaustion stage
c. alarm stage
d. acclimatization stage
13. Involves recognizing the occurrence of an abnormality and identifying its cause
a. Disease diagnosis
b. Disease monitoring
c. Biological Assay
d. Presumptive test
14. The following are list of ‘on-site’ procedures to investigate disease outbreaks except
for___________
a. examine fresh materials from healthy, moribund and dead fish then collect fish tissue sample
b. measure environmental condition and investigate factors and rearing condition
c. gather information on the time-course of mortalities and deliver suitable samples with
accompanying information to the diagnostic laboratory
d. presumptive identification of pathogen
15. The following are list of laboratory procedures to investigate disease outbreaks except
for_________
a. presumptive identification of pathogen
b. positive identification and confirmation and testing for dry sensitivity and effectiveness
c. evaluation of recommendations and reports of additional analysis
d. collect fish tissue samples
16. Widespread outbreaks of fish disease
a. coenocytic
b. epizootic
c. zoonotic
d. chronic
17. Viruses are ultramicroscopic organisms with size ranges of up to 10-300nm. In order for a
virus to visualize, _____________ is required
a. electron microscope
b. microfilters
c. compound microscope
d. computer
18. The compound viral component of a virus is called nucleocapsid which might be enveloped or
naked. This envelope is _________________ in nature
a. protein
b. lipid
c. DNA
d. RNA
19. Mode of disease transmission by which the infectious agent transfer from parent to offspring
a. vertical transmission 48 | P a g e

b. horizontal transmission
c. direct transmission
d. indirect transmission
20. Mode of transmission by which the pathogen comes in contact from the environment
a. vertical transmission
b. horizontal transmission
c. direct transmission
d. indirect transmission
21. The resulting destruction of a virus-infected cell
a. cytophatic effect
b. infection
c. occulation
d, none of these
22. The focal site of cytophatic effect induced by each virion will cause a development of a clear
zone called ____________. The number of which indicates the estimated viral particles in given
sample.
a. hemorrhage
b. occlusion
c. opaque
d. plaque
23. Causative agent of a viral disease in fishes
a. Aeromonas, Hydrophila, Aphanomyces invadans
b. Aquariovirus
c. Iridovirus
d. Harpesvirus
24. A major viral disease in penaid shrimp with Baculovirus as causative agent
a. Yellow Head Virus Disease
b. Monodon Baculovirus
c. White Spot Syndrome Virus Disease
d. all
25. Bacterial disease particularly in fishes is hard to diagnose. Why is that so?
a. most bacterial disease shows similar signs
b. bacterial infection may appear on the skin or fins
c. because of inflammation
d. because preventive measures are costly
26. These are enzyme produce by bacteria which are highly toxic to the host because it contains
proteases, hemolysins, exohemogglutins and cytotoxins.
a. plasmalemma
b. peptodoglycan
c. extracellular product
d. nucleocapsid
27. Most common method used to detect the presence of bacteria
a. gram stain
b. gram stain
c. PCR
d. ELISA
28. Bacteria are ubiquitous. This means __________
a. bacteria are resistant
b. bacteria has the ability to multiply under physical and chemical conditions of the host tissue
c. bacteria can be found or present almost everywhere
d. all
29. Bacteria can be secondary opportunistic invader. This means __________________ 49 | P a g
e

a. causing death to a host

b. attacking only when the host is weakened or injured
c. all
d. none
30. One of the following is important bacterial disease in fishes.
a. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome
b. Channel Catfish Virus Disease
c. EUS
d. Columnaris disease
31. Bacterial disease in crustaceans occur as
a. bacteria fouling of surfaces
b. cuticular or subcuticular localized infections
c. internal or systemic infections
d. all
32. Bacterial disease of penaid shrimp with Vibrio harveyii and Vibrio splendidus as causative
agent
a. filamentous bacterial disease
b. Luminous Bacterial Disease
c. saprolegnosis
d. EUS
33. Straminipilous organisms
a. fungal-like organisms
b. pathogenic organisms
c. virulence
d. filamentous organisms
34. Hyphae constitute the body of a fungus that is either septate or non-septate. Network of
septate are called ________
a. coenocytic
b. conidia
c. mycelia
d. thallus
35. Considered the most popular antimycotic agent
a. Malachite green
b. Sodium chloride
c. Formaldehyde
d. none
36. Mycobacteriosis is also called ________________
a. Streptococcal infection
b. Red Spot Disease
c. Septicemia
d. Piscine Tuberculosis
37. The following are causative agent of larval mycosis except
a. Ichthyophorus sp.
b. Lagenidium sp.
c. Sirolpidium sp.
d. Haliphthorous
38. Black Gill Disease or Fusarium Disease is commonly observed in juvenile shrimp grown in
ponds. Why is that so?
a. its causative agent is Fusarium solani
b. Fusarium, as Fusarium Disease causative agent, is ubiquitous soil fungi
c. because perhaps juvenile stage is the critical stage in shrimp life cycle
d. all of these 50 | P a g e

39. Fungal Disease associated with Aspergillus sp. in a not properly stored or expired feed
a. Black gill disease
b. Larval mycosis
c. Fusarium disease
d. Aflatoxicosis
*40. “Ich” or White Spot Disease has Cryptocaryon irritans as causative agent for marine and
Brackishwater fishes and ________________ for freshwater fishes.
a. Ichthyopthirius multifiliis
b. Protozoan
c. Lernea
d. alitropus typus
41. Sea lice
a. Ergasilus
b. Caligus
c. Argulus
d. All
42. Fish louse
a. Ergasilus
b. Caligus
c. Argulus
d. All
43. Are intercellular parasites with unicellular spore containing sporoplasm and coiled polar
filament
a. sporozoans
b. protozoans
c. Microsporeans
d. monogeneans
44. Whish of the following sequences is true
a. Theronts – Trophont – Tomont - Tomites
b. Trophont-tomont-tomites-theronts
c. Tomont-tomites-trophont-theronts
d. Tomites-throphont-tomont-therons
45. Life cycle of a parasite wherein only one host is needed to complete its life cycle
a. Direct life cycle
b. indirect life cycle
c. complete life cycle
d. incomplete life cycle
46. An organism wherein larval stage of a parasite develops
a. paratenic host
b. carrier host
c. intermediate host
d. final host
47. An organism where the parasite stays but no development occurs
a. paratenic host/carrier
b. intermediate host
c. final host
d. periodic host
48. An organism where adult developmental stage of a parasite develops
a. paratenic host/carrier
b. intermediate host
c. final host
d. periodic host
49. Fish disease that is due to supersaturation of dissolved gas
a. swimbladder stress syndrome
b. Gas bubble disease
c. asphyxiation
d. all
50. Very low level of dissolved oxygen
a. Asphyxiation/Hypoxia
b. Anorexia
c. Septicemia
d. All
51. Occur when water becomes too basic
a. Acidosis
b. Alkalosis
c. Basecity
d. all
52. Devoid of dissolved oxygen
a. Anorexia
b. Hypoxia
c. Gas bubble disease
d. Anoxia
53. Two types of diets (supplemental and complete) maybe prepared in ____________
a. larval feeds, starter feeds, maintenance feeds
b. fish meal, fish silage
c. moist, semi-moist, dry
d. all
54. Moisture content of a moist ration
a. 40%
b. 50%
c.. 60%
d. 70%
55. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a. calcium, phosphorous, sulfur
b. sodium,chlorine
c. potasium, magnesium
d. iron, copper, zinc
56. Black-death disease of shrimp/prawn
a. Mineral deficiency
b. Vitamin C deficiency
c. lipid and fat deficiency
d. Amino acid deficiency
57. Primary organ affected by Aflatoxicosis
a. liver
b. Swimmerets
c. hepatopancreas
d. carapace
58. Untreated cottonseed meal
a. gossypol
b. mimosine
c. phytic acid
d. tannin
59. Soybean meal 52 | P a g e

a. phytic acid
b. tannin
c. rotenone
d. mimosine
60. Untreated/raw fish meal
a. phytic acid
b. thiaminase
c. chitinase
d. mimosine
61. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a. Cleanliness improves the general standard of health
b. Stress plays a major role in the susceptibility of fish disease
c. Quarantine measures are critically important to prevent international spread of disease
d. Termination procedure can never be used to control fish disease
62. Are protective or defense measures designed to prevent a disease from occurring. They are
used to combat external parasite and stress-mediated bacterial diseases
a. Disinfection
b. Prophylactic method
c. Quarantine method
d. Chemotherapy
63. Cheapest disinfectant
a. ozone
b. Trifularin
c. drugs
d. Chlorine
64. Most powerful oxidizing agent
a. Triatomic oxygen
b. treflan
c. drugs
d. hypochlorite
65. It involves the use of drugs or chemicals for treating infectious diseases. It is considered as
the method of ‘last retort’ in any disease control program
a. Turbidostat
b. Microcosm
c. ozonation method
d. Chemotherapy
66. Method of chemical treatment
a. external method
b. systemic method
c. Parenteral method
d. all
67. Method of chemical treatment used to control Ectoparasite. It can be topical or by
Immersion
a. external method
b. Systemic method
c. Parenteral treatment
d. Flow through treatment
68. Method of chemical treatment employed for systemic infections where chemicals are added
to a feed.
a. external method
b. Systemic method
c. Parenteral treatment 53 | P a g e

d. Flow through treatment

69. Direct and most effective route of drug administration, accurate dosage but is labor intensive
a. external method
b. Systemic method
c. Parenteral treatment
d. Flow through treatment
70. An external method of chemical treatment wherein the chemical is added at a constant rate
by a constant flow device, the chemicals moves through and out of the container to be replace
by a new, clean water.
a. topical
b. dip
c. long bath
d. Flow through
71. An external method of chemical treatment wherein the chemical solution is added in
concentrated form at the inlet and allowed to pass through the water flow system and out of the
effluent pipe.
a. short bath method
b. Flow through
c. Long bath
d. Flush method
72. An external method of chemical treatment where the fish are scooped out and suspended in
the chemical solution for a few second to 3min. then rinsed well with clean water and return to
the clean/disinfected holding facility.
a. Dip method
b. Short bath method
c. Flush method
s. Flow through
73. Parenteral method of chemical treatment wherein the needle is inserted into space posterior
to the dorsal fin above the midline of the body
a. Intramuscular
b. Intraperitoneal
c. Intravenous
d. external
74. Parenteral method of chemical treatment wherein the needle is inserted into the visceral
cavity or the belly of the fish
a. Intramuscular
b. Intraperitoneal
c. Intravenous
d. external
75. Parenteral method of chemical treatment wherein the needle is inserted either by direct
cardiac puncture or through the caudal artery
a. Intramuscular
b. Intraperitoneal
c. Intravenous
d. external
76. A procedure involving use of responses of an organism to detect or measure the presence or
effect of one or more substances, wastes or environmental factor.
a. Chemical treatment
b. Chemotherapy
c. Biological Assay
d. All of these 54 | P a g e

77. A Bioassay procedure that is almost always a flow through test. It determines the maximum
allowable toxicant concentration.
a. short term
b. long term
c. intermediate
d. long lasting
78. Method of adding test solution where the test animal remains in the same test concentration
for the duration of the test.
a. Static
b. Renewal
c. Recirculation
d. Flow through
79. Method of adding test solution where the test animals are transferred to test solution of the
same composition at periodic intervals.
a. Static
b. Renewal
c. Recirculation
d. Flow through
80. Fish immune system
a. Innate (non-specific)
b. Adaptive (specific)
c. all
d. none
81. A fish immune system which refers to various physical and cellular attributes that collectively
represents the fish first line of defense.
a. Soluble barriers
b. Physical barriers
c. Innate immunity
d. Adaptive immunity
82. A fish immune system which is able to recognize and response selectively and has the ability
to respond preferentially to foreign substances and has the ability to respond better to repeated
exposure.
a. Soluble barriers
b. Physical barriers
c. Innate immunity
d. Adaptive immunity
83. A foreign substance, known as immunogen because it induces the immune response.
a. Abscess
b. antibody
c. antigen
d. defense mechanism
84. A glycoprotein produce in response to the introduction of an antigen, it has the ability to
combine with the antigen that stimulated its production, it is sometimes referred to as
immunogen.
a. abscess
b. antibody
c. antigen
d. defense mechanism
85. The process of facilitating phagocytosis of bacteria by coating them with protein.
a. encapsulation
b. opsonization
c. inhibition 55 | P a g e

d. agglutinization
86. The observable condition that accompanies damage to the body. It is a localized response to
tissue injury and to invading micros.
a. barrier
b. inhibition
c. encapsulation
d. Inflammation
87. A specialized-white blood cell produced by higher vertebrates, which has the capacity to kill
tumor cells and cells infected by virus.
a. lectins
b. Cytotoxicity
c. encapsulation
d. phagocytosis
88. The study of antigen-antibody reaction ‘in vitro’
a. Cytotoxicity
b. ichthyotoxism
c. Serology
d. diagnosis
89. This technique is widely used method in fish immunology and combines electrophoresis with
immunoprecipitation.
a. immunoelectrophoresis
b. single diffusion
c. double diffusion
d. Diagnosis
90. Type of harmful and toxic algal bloom that basically produces harmless water discoloration,
but contributes greatly to oxygen depletion.
a. Type A species
b. Type B species
c. Type C species
d. Type D species
91. Type of harmful and toxic algal bloom that produces potent toxins
a. Type A species
b. Type B species
c. Type C species
d. Type D species
92. Type of harmful and toxic algal bloom that are non-toxic to human but are harmful to fish
and invertebrates by damaging or clogging their gills.
a. Type A species
b. Type B species
c. Type C species
d. Type D species
93. Yellow tail (ayu)
a. Chatonella antique
b. Coregonous lavaretus
c. Seriola quinqueradiata
d. Aphazomenon fros-aqua
94. Loss of appetite
a. abscess
b. anorexia
c. ascites
d. coenocytic 56 | P a g e

95. The theory which states that clones of effector B and T cells arise from single cell that are
stimulated to reproduce by antigen binding to their receptor
a. Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium Theory
b. Clonal Selection Theory
c. Selective Theory of Clones
d. none of these
96. A non-motile, resistant and dormant stage of certain organism
a. Cyst
b. hibernate
c. senescence
d. steady-state
97. Blood cells of invertebrates
a. Granulocytes
b. Hemoglobin
c. Anthaxanthin
d. Hemocyanin
98. An abnormal or unusual increase in the number of cell in a tissue
a. hyaline
b. hyperemia
c. hyperplasmma
d. hypha
99. Localized tissue anemia due to obstruction of the inflow of the blood
a. mycosis
b. ischemia
c. septicemia
d. scoliosis
100. A systemic disease caused by the invasion and multiplication of pathogenic microorganism
in the bloodstream.
a. septicemia
b. ischemia
c. mycosis
d. scoliosis

Aquaculture Set G 2. The following are sustainable approaches to aquaculture except

1. Fish farm waste consists of a. the search for alternatives to fish meal and fish biomass and the
a. solid matter need to reduce feed cost
b. dissolved matter
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
b. the greater use of supplementary feeds and supplementary feeding systems
c. the need to promote high value commercial feeds
d. integration of feed development and feeding management practices with environmental awareness
3. Three of the following choices are components of the general structure of amino acid. Which does not belong to the group?
a. covalent bond
b. carboxyl group
c. amino group
d. alkyl group
4. Which does not belong to the group?
a. methionine
b. histidine
c. cysteine
d. lysine
5. The following are Non-Essential Amino Acids except for 58 | P a g e
a. alanine
b. serine
c. tyrosine
d. threonine
6. Protein that is soluble in aqueous system
a. Simple protein
b. Globular protein
c. Conjugated protein
d. Derived protein
7. Proteins that are highly insoluble and resistant to action of digestive enzyme
a. Simple protein
b. Globular protein
c. Fibrous protein
d. Derived protein
8. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Protein is absorbed from the intestine mainly as amino acid
b. Fish tissues contain about 50% protein in dry weight basis
c. The carbon chains are oxidized to produce energy or synthesized into tissues
d. Disruption of any level of molecular organization leads to proper functions of protein
9. The amino acid lacking in protein is known as
a. degenerated amino acid
b. digested amino acid
c. excreted amino acid
d. limiting amino acid
10. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. lysine is limiting in corn while methionine is limiting in soy bean
b. excess amino acid are used as energy source or converted to fat
c. amino acid profile is of no use to aquaculture
d. the closer the profile to the requirement, the higher is the nutritional value
11. A method used to determine whether an amino acid is essential or non-essential wherein it uses a series of amino acid test diet
containing crystalline-L amino acid as source of nitrogen and a 10-week feeding trial conducted
a. amino acid profile method
b. growth response method
c. radioisotope method
d. quantitative method
12. A method used to determine the essentiality of amino acid wherein the fish is injected with radioactively labeled 14C glucose and fed
on a natural diet for one week
a. amino acid profile method
b. growth response method
c. radioisotope method
d. quantitative method
13. This indicates the growth response of a fish to graded levels of an essential nutrient in their diet. This method assumes that weigth gain
is linearly related to increasing dietary levels of the EAA at/or below the required level
a. broken line analysis
b. FCR
c. amino acid profile method
d. dose response curve 59 | P a g e
14. It has been used to estimate the essential amino acid requirements. It assumes a linear relation between growth and dietary level of the
essential amino acid at/or below the required level
a. broken line analysis
b. FCR
c. amino acid profile method
d. dose response curve
15. The following statements are true except
a. amino acid imbalance has nothing to do with reduced growth in animals
b. In young growing animals, the greatest proportion of the body weight is in the form of muscle
c. some of the amino acid may leach out during feeding before they can be taken up
d. the limiting amino acid in one source can be supplemented by another source
16. In broken line analysis, the linearly ascending line instantly breaks to horizontal and the point is claimed as
a. turning point
b. basal point
c. breakpoint
d. linear point
17. Another way of meeting the EAA needs of an animal is by supplementing the practical diet with
a. protein supplement
b. soybean meal
c. crystalline L-amino acid
d. binders
18. Nutrient leaching can be minimized by using water stable diet through the use of ________
a. efficient binder
b. employing appropriate formulation
c. all
d. none of the above
19. Dietary amino acid imbalance which occurs when some amino acids are fed in excess of the required levels causing an increase in the
requirement for another amino acid of similar structure
a. amino acid deficiency
b. amino acid antagonism
c. amino acid toxicity
d. all of the above
20. A dietary amino acid imbalance which occurs when excess amount of certain amino acids are fed and the negative effects cannot be
improved by adding other sources in the diet
a. amino acid deficiency
b. amino acid antagonism
c. amino acid toxicity
d. all of the above
21. How will you determine the quantity of protein or amino acid in a feedstuff
a. chemical method
b. biological method
c. response method
d. response analysis method
22. In this method of protein evaluation, body weight gain and nitrogen retention are used as criteria for protein quality which is
considered as more accurate
a. chemical method
b. biological method
c. response method 60 | P a g e
d. response analysis method
23. Used to measure biological value of protein
a. Protein Efficiency Ratio
b. Biological value
c. Net Protein Utilization
d. all of the above
24. The minimum amount of dietary protein needed for optimum growth of most cultured aquatic species
a. 27% - 60%
b. 30% - 38%
c. 40% -45%
d. 30% - 40%
25. Which of the following has the highest protein biological value?
a. gelatin
b. egg protein
c. soybean meal
d. casein
26. The absorbed amino acid is used as _____________
a. incorporated into the metabolic pool, mixed with free amino acids originating from various tissues and synthesized into tissue proteins
b. synthesized into nitrogen-containing tissue constituents
c. deaminated, resulting in a carbon chain and amino group
d. all of the above
27. "Deamination" refers to ________________________
a. incorporation of amino acid
b. production of amino acid
c. removal of nitrogen
d. utilization of nitrogen
28. The following are causes of amino acid deficiency except_____________
a. EAA’s are naturally costly and incorporation of which to feedstuff is labor intensive
b. presence of chemicals
c. excessive heat treatment during manufacture
d. leaching
29. Carboxyl (COOH), amino (NH) and alkyl (R) group, as constituents of general structure of amino acid are attached to ____________
a. OH
b. Acid
c. Alpha carbon
d. Alpha base
30. Are diverse group of organic compounds that are important components of all living matter. They are insoluble in water but soluble in
non-polar, organic solutes such as ether and alcohol
a. Vitamins
b. Lipids
c. Minerals
d. Carbohydrates
31. The following are functions of dietary lipid except
a. source of metabolic energy
b. source of essential fatty acid
c. involve in alkaline digestion 61 | P a g e
d. none of the above
32. Are type of lipids that accumulate in the adipose or fat tissues; they are the primary means by which animals store energy
a. phospholipids
b. waxes
c. steroids
d. triglycerides
33. Main component of biological membrane
a. phospholipids
b. waxes
c. steroids
d. triglycerides
34. Types of lipid that are biologically important in reproductive process
a. phospholipids
b. waxes
c. steroids
d. triglycerides
35. Fatty acids that lack double bond
a. saturated
b. unsaturated
c. polyunsaturated
d. highly unsaturated
36. Fatty acid containing two or more double bond
a. saturated
b. unsaturated
c. polyunsaturated
d. highly unsaturated
37. Fatty acid containing four double bonds or more
a. saturated
b. unsaturated
c. polyunsaturated
d. highly unsaturated
38. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Fish that lives in warm waters contain more saturated fatty acid than those that lives in colder waters
b. Fish and crustaceans are unable to adjust their level of polyunsaturated fatty acid to maintain membrane integrity and function in cold
waters
c. Diet of an organism has nothing to do with fatty acid composition
d. all of the above
39. Which does not belong to the group?
a. corn oil
b. palm oil
c. sunflower oil
d. capelin oil
40. Cheap source of energy
a. oatmeal
b. rice
c. carbohydrates
d. glucose 62 | P a g e
41. Which does not belong to the group?
a. Ribose
b. Starch
c. Glucose
d. Fructose
42. The following are disaccharide except
a. Chitin
b. Sucrose
c. Maltose
d. Lactose
43. Refers to metabolic reactions resulting in breakdown of complex molecules to simple products
a. anabolism
b. digestion
c. absorption
d. catabolism
44. Refers to metabolic reactions resulting into synthesis of more complex compound from simple precursors
a. anabolism
b. digestion
c. absorption
d. catabolism
45. Natural desire to satisfy hunger
a. satiation
b. appetite
c. feeding
d. forage
46. Why is it important to provide optimal proportion of non-protein energy source in fish diets?
a. because deficiency in non-protein energy source in a diet may result in rapid growth
b. because deficiency in non-protein energy source protein whose function is mainly for tissue repair, will be used as energy source
c. because non-protein energy source easily leach out in water, hence, limiting the organisms appetite
d. none of the above
47. Water soluble vitamins B complex and C are excreted in _____________
a. feces
b. urine
c. gills
d. none of the above
48. Lipid soluble vitamins, A, D, E and K, are excreted in _______________
a. feces
b. urine
c. gills
d. respiration
49. Which does not belong to the group?
a. Thiaminase
b. Cyanocobalamin
c. Panthotenic acid
d. Menadione
50. Which does not belong to the group? 63 | P a g e
a. Retinol
b. Sunshine vitamin
c. Pyridoxine
d. alpha Tocopherol
51. Onchorynchus mykiss
a. Rainbow trout
b. Pacific salmon
c. Sockeye salmon
d. Sea bream
52. What is the stable storage form of vitamin C in fish tissue?
a. L-ascorbic acid
b. Crystalline acid
c. Ascorbate-2-sulfate
d. Ascorbate-2-monophopshate
53. What vitamin is essential for maintainance of normal blood clotting for bone formation?
a. Panthotenic acid
b. Sunshine vitamin
c. Menadione
d. Ascorbate -2- polyphosphate
54. Minerals required in a diet in relatively large quantities
a. macrominerals
b. microminerals
c. essential minerals
d. noon-essential minerals
55. Refers to the degree of damage caused by organism
a. phatogenicity
b. virulence
c. disease
d. stress
56. Refers to the ability of the pathogen to cause damage
a. phatogenicity
b. virulence
c. disease
d. stress
57. The following pairs are correct except
a. Ciliophora – ciliated
b. Sarcomastigophora – flagellated
c. Myxozoa - spore-forming
d. Flagella – flagellated
58. Generally, minerals in fishes serve as components of tissue and cofactors or activators of enzymes. The following are functions of more
soluble minerals except
a. essential component of visual pigment
b. membrane potentials
c. maintenance of acid-base balance
d. Functions in osmoregulation
59. Most fishes are highly adaptable in their feeding habits and utilize the most readily available food, hence, the key factor in determining
what the fish will eat is _____________
a. fish appetite 64 | P a g e
b. food availability
c. manner of feeding
d. relative gut length
60. The breakdown of complex organic substances into simpler substances so that they are available for metabolism
a. Ecdysis
b. Digestion
c. Absorptioon
d. Ingestion
61. Mechanisms in nutrient absorption in fishes
a. simple diffusion
b. active transport
c. pinocystosis
d. all of the above
62. Mechanism in nutrient absorption in fish where solutes pass through the membrane from an environment of high to low solute
concentration without using energy
a. simple diffusion
b. active transport
c. pinocystosis
d. all of the above
63. Mechanism in nutrient absorption in fish requiring a continuous supply of energy and transports solute only in one direction
a. simple diffusion
b. active transport
c. pinocystosis
d. all of the above
64. Mechanism in nutrient absorption in fish involving the process by which materials are taken into the cell through an invagination and
subsequent dissolution of a part of a cell membrane
a. simple diffusion
b. active transport
c. pinocystosis
d. all of the above
65. An enzyme that catalyzes the digestion of starch
a. amylase
b. proteases
c. pepsin
d. bromeline
66. Other complex carbohydrates that are potential sources of energy but are not readily digested are cullulose which is a component of
plant cell wall and ___________________________________
a. chitin, component of trout
b. chitin, component of crustacean exoskeleton
c. chitin, component of hepatopancreas
d. all of the above
67. Provision of unlimited amount of feed until satiation
a. supplemental feeding
b. feeding to satiation
c. ad libitum feeding
d. dietary feeding
68. Fishes with no stomach has _____________ 65 | P a g e
a. no acid phase of digestion
b. a pH of 4
c. no feeding pattern
d. no classical conditioning
69. Stomach of sharks
a. Y-shape
b. U-shape
c. J-shape
d. no shape
70. The choice of feed ingredient in aquafeed formulation depends on __________
a. content of essential nutrient and cost
b. digestibility, bioavailability and commercially available
c. absence of antinutritional factors and toxic substances
d. all of the above
71. The following are feed binders except __________
a. Vitamin C
b. alpha starch
c. hemicelluloses
d. lignosulfates
72. Antinutritional substance of soybean and other legumes that destroys red blood cell
a. Thiaminase
b. Cyanogens
c. Gossypol
d. Lectins
73. Antinutritional factor of poorly stored and unprotected oils which binds proteins and Vitamins in a diet
a. Phytates
b. Estrogens
c. Peroxides
d. Lectins
74. What would be the remedy for the removal of toxin gossypol in cottonseed meal to avoid binding of phophorus and proteins in a diet?
a. solvent extraction
b. addition of iron salts or phytase
c. proper storage
d. autoclaving
75. Soybean is good source of protein in a diet. Untreated soybeans and other legumes, though, have trypsin inhibitor which binds trypsin
to form an inactive compound in a diet. What would be the remedy for the inactivation of trypsin inhibitor in a soybean?
a. autoclaving
b. dry heating or cooking
c. soaking
d. solvent extraction
76. Method of evaluating feedstuff and aquafeeds using senses to detect the presence of adulterants in the feed
a. physical
b. chemical
c. microbiological
d. biological 66 | P a g e
77. Method of feed evaluation which quantifies the amount of a given compound present in the feed
a. microbiological
b. physical
c. chemical
d. biological
78. Method of feed evaluation using microorganisms
a. chemical
b. physical
c. microbiological
d. biological
79. Method of feed evaluation which involves feeding experiment, but is more tedious and expensive yet more accurate
a. chemical
b. physical
c. microbiological
d. biological
80. These are important components in any feed formulation since they determine how fast and how much of a feed will be taken in by the
animals
a. protein
b. binder
c. attractants
d. food color
81. One of the following is the simplest method in determining water stability of pellets
a. weight-loss determination
b. crumbling the pellet by hand or checking for rough edges
c. use of wire baskets
d. determination of % water stability
82. An index to the nutritive value of feed and feedstuff
a. chemical evaluation
b. crude protein
c. moisture content
d. proximate analysis
83. High moisture content can lead to growth of molds during storage hence, feedstuff and aquafeeds should be dried to contain less than
____% of moisture
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
84. Method used in determining crude protein content
a. Proximate analysis
b. Kjeldahl method
c. liquid chromatograph
d. Titration method
85. The quality of lipid contained in feedstuff is determined by its fatty acid composition which is obtained through ____________
a. liquid chromatograph
b. Proximate analysis
c. Kjeldahl method
d. Gas chromatographic analysis 67 | P a g e
86. Oxidative deterioration of lipids has been shown to cause rancid flavor in stored feedstuff and the degree of oxidation can be
determined through
a. peroxide value
b. Free fatty acid value
c. Thiobarbituric acid number
d. all of the above
87. An instrument used to measure the caloric content of feed sample
a. bomb calorimeter
b. bomb calorimetry
c. peroxide value
d. fatty acid value
88. Gossypol is an endogenous toxin present in the gland of cottonseed. This persists during production, unless the _______________
a. cottonseed is glandless
b. feedstuff is well mixed
c. feedstuff is pelleted
d. feedstuff is not used in feeding
89. Method of feed application
a. manual
b. mechanical
c. all
d. none
90. In case of low DO in pond, what would be the scheme or method of management that an aquaculturist should do?
a. liming
b. fertilization
c. drying
d. aeration
91. A mathematical method used in formulating feed but applicable only to few ingredients to be balanced
a. Winkler method
b. Algebraic method
c. Pearson’s square
d. Chi square
92. Refer to organisms that feed on relatively small items
a. planktivores
b. microphagous
c. grazers
d. strainers
93. Natural food in pond are composed of complex blue-green and green algae, diatoms, rotifers, crustaceans, insects, roundworms,
detritus and plankton
a. lumot
b. phytoplankton
c. natural food
d. lablab
94. A chemical reaction of water in which the reagent other than water is decomposed and hydrogen and hydroxyl added
a. Glycolysis
b. Autolysis 68 | P a g e
c. Hydrolysis
d. Metabolism
95. Unit of energy in metric system
a. calorie
b. kilocalorie
c. Joule
d. gram
96. Synthesis of biomolecules that occur within the animal's body
a. digestion
b. Ecdysis
c. de novo synthesis
d. biosynthesis
97. Enrichment of a certain body of water
a. pollution
b. wastes
b. eutrophication
d. desalinization
98. Number of times feed is given in a day
a. feeding frequency
b. feeding rate
c. feeding chart
d. feed formulation
99. Feeds that are intended for aquaculture species
a. feed
b. fish feed
c. supplemental feed
d. aquafeed
100. Any of various seafishes that has low market value as human food
a. catch
b. angler fish
c. trash fish
d. wet fish
Aquaculture Set H
1. Any abnormality in structure or function displayed by living organisms through a specific or non-specific sign.
a. Disease
b. Illness
c. Sickness
d. Syndrome
2. Causes of disease in farmed aquatic animals:
a. Infectious organism
b. wrong management practices
c. environmental problems
d. all of the above
3. ___________, and _______________ may indicate disease in fish.
a. Tissue or organ damage
b. reduced growth rate or death
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
4. Three phases in aquaculture
a. All of these
b. Hatchery
c. Nursery
d. Grow-out
5. Production system in aquaculture
a. Extensive
b. Semi-intensive
c. Intensive
d. all of the above 70 | P a g e
6. Factors related to the development of disease in aquaculture system
a. Farmed fish (host)
b. disease causing organism (pathogen)
c. surroundings (environment)
d. all of the above
7. It can be either resistant or susceptible to a given disease
a. Host
b. Pathogen
c. Parasite
d. none of the above
8. Resistance or susceptibility of the host depends on
a. Age or size of the host organism/ species
b. defense mechanisms employed/health of the fish
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
9. Pathogen can be classified into:
a. Physical agents (extreme temperature changes and radiation)
b. Chemical agents (environmental contaminants, toxins, nutritional imbalances and drugs, chemical overdose)
c. Biological agents (viruses, fungi, bacteria, parasites)
d. All of the above
10. The following are major characteristics of an infectious agent except
a. ability to multiply in the host tissue
b. Capability for direct transmission
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
11. Mode of transmission of pathogen
a. Vertical transmission
b. horizontal transmission
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
12. Pathogen transmission where infectious agents transfer from parent to offspring
a. Vertical transmission
b. Horizontal transmission
c. Parallel transmission
d. Linear transmission
13. Pathogen transmission where infectious agent comes in contact with the hosts through the water, feeds or through carrier animals that
is in the environment
a. Parallel transmission
b. Vertical transmission
c. Horizontal transmission
d. Linear transmission
14. Essential to the prevention and control of disease
a. Stability of the environment
b. Understanding the role of the environment in affecting nature and cause of disease
c. none of the above
d. all of the above
15. An important consideration in the farming of aquatic animals
a. Knowledge
b. Human attitude
c. Human behavior
d. Human element
16. Aquaculture technicians and other personnel should have _______________ and _____________of the species they culture to assure
the success of an aquaculture operation.
a. Adequate knowledge and trustworthy
b. Very good performance and honest
c. Adequate knowledge and understanding
d. Good in communication and understanding 71 | P a g e
17. These may lead to costly mistakes and poor yield in farming of aquatic animals
a. Financial problem or lack of facilities
b. Lack of experience or insufficient personnel
c. Lack of knowledge of understanding
d. all of the above
18. The sum of the physiological responses the fish makes to maintain or regain its normal balance.
a. Exhaustion
b. Stress
c. Malnutrition
d. Disease
19. Phases of response and adaptation to stress
a. All of these
b. Alarm stage
c. Adaptive stage
d. exhaustion stage
20. Fish attempts to escape from the problem.
a. adaptive stage
b. alarm stage
c. exhaustion stage
d. all of the above
21. Fish's body attempt to react to the environmental change, and tries to adjust to the change and reach a new equilibrium, both
physiologically and behaviorally, to survive the new environmental conditions.
a. adaptive stage
b. exhaustion stage
c. alarm stage
d. none of the above
22. If the environmental change is so great that the fish cannot adapt to it, then the fish is stressed and dies.
a. All of these
b. alarm stage
c. adaptive stage
d. exhaustion stage
23. The act of identifying the cause of disease.
a. Dissecting
b. Diagnosis
c. Surgery
d. All of the above
24. Sign of diseases
a. Reduced feeding/ abnormal changes in fish color and behavior
b. fish may stay away from the school or swim at the surface or along the tanks sides exhibit flashing/scraping on the bottom of projecting
objects
c. darting/ whirling or twisting
d. all of the above
25. This is essential in selecting the best management approach to correct the problem and the best possible treatment for the disease.
a. Correct treatment
b. correct diagnosis
c. none of the above
d. all of the above
26. This is vital in monitoring the health status of any cultured population.
a. Consistent record keeping
b. regular monitoring
c. daily examination
d. all of the above
27. The keeping of records is necessary to enable the farm personnel to
a. Identify environmental problems
b. learn from past mistakes
c. to minimize production costs 72 | P a g e
d. all of the above
28. One of the biggest deterrents to sustainable production in aquaculture.
a. Disease occurrence
b. Health management
c. Sanitation
d. none of the above
29. A minute infectious agent which can be resolved or viewed clearly only under a high power microscope. It lacks independent
metabolism, and is able to replicate only within a living cell.
a. microbes
b. fungi
c. virus
d. detritus
30. A microscope used to visualize viruses.
a. Mechanical microscope
b. Electron microscope
c. Light Microscope
d. Dissecting microscope
31. Basic structure of a virion, which encloses a nucleic acid genome
a. hypha
b. capsid
c. envelope
d. nucleocapsid
32. The identical protein subunits of capsid
a. Capsomeres
b. Nucleic acid
c. Amino acid
d. Nucleocapsid
33. The full set of genes present in a cell or virus; all the genetic material in an organism.
a. gene
b. nucleic acid genome
c. envelope
d. genome
34. Virus that do not have an envelope.
a. naked virus
b. virus
c. viral infection
d. none of the above
35. RT-PCR is acronym of
a. Reverse Transciptase-Polymerase Chain Reactions
b. Reserve Transciptase-Polymerase Chain Reactions
c. Reversing Transciptase- Polymerase Chain Reactions
d. Reserve Transciptase- Polymerase Chain Reacting
36. A complex disease attributed to rhabdavirus, the bacterium Aeromonas hydriphila, and the fungus Aphanomyces invadans.
a. Channel Catfish Virus Disease (CCVD)
b. Grass Carp Hemorrhagic Disease (GCHD)
c. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome (EUS)
d. Viral Nervous Necrosis Virus (VNN)
37. These diseases consist of a chronic, necrotic, and mycotic granulomatous inflammatory response.
a. EUS
b. VNN
c. IHHNV
d. HPV
38. Causative agent of channel catfish virus disease (CCVD).
a. Herpesvirus ictaluri
b. Aeromonas hydrophila
c. Flavobacterium columnares 73 | P a g e
d. Aphanomyces sp
39. Clinical sign of channel catfish virus disease (CCVD).
a. abdominal distension
b. exophthalmia, pale or hemorrhagic gills,
c. petechial hemorrhage at the base of the fins and throughout the skin
d. all of the above
40. Aquareovirus is a causative agent of what viral infections disease?
a. Grass carp hemorrhagic disease
b. Channel Catfish Virus Disease
c. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome
d. Sleepy Grouper Disease
41. Effect of grass carp hemorrhagic disease (GCHD) on host:
a. The disease consists of a chronic, necrotic, and mycotic granulomatous inflammatory response.
b. Hemorrhages occur in the musculature, oral cavity, intestinal tract, liver, spleen and kidney
c. Diseased of fish pale livers, empty digestive tracts, the intestine filled with greenish to brownish fluid and the spleens are red spotted.
d. all of the above
42. Causative agent of Spinning Tilapia (ST) syndrome.
a. Nodavirus
b. Rhabdovirus
c. Bacoluvirus
d. Iridovirus
43. Gross signs of spinning tilapia syndrome (STS).
a. all of these
b. affected tilapia fry and fingerlings swim in a spiral pattern
b. sink to the bottom then rise and hang at a 45 degrees angle just under the water surface, gasping for air
d. they do not feed and darker in color
44. The causative agent of viral nervous necrosis (VNN)
a. Nodavirus
b. Iridovirus
c. Aquareovirus
d. Rhabdovirus
45. The gross signs of this viral infection are: affected larvae and juveniles show lethargy, pale color, loss of appetite, thinness, loss of
equilibrium and corkscrew swimming and some fish sink to the bottom then float to the surface again.
a. Lymphocystis Disease
b. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome
c. Viral nervous necrosis
d. Sleepy Grouper Disease
46. This viral infection is also known as paralytic syndrome, viral encephalopathy and retinopathy, spinning grouper disease, piscine
neuropathy, or fish ensaphalitis.
a. VNN
b. HPV
c. ST
d. SGD
47. Infected fish have clusters of pear-like nodules up to 5mm in diameter that develop on the skin, gills or fins resulting from an
enlargement of tissue cells and its causative agent is iridovirus.
a. Lymphocytis disease
b. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome
c. Grouper Iridovirus of Taiwan Disease
d. Sleepy Grouper Disease
48. Diseased fish swim in circles and are anemic; fish losses appetite then become underweight and lethargic.
a. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome
b. Whirling Disease
c. Sleepy Grouper Disease
d. Grouper iridovirus of Taiwan disease (TGIV)
49. Species of fish affected by sleepy grouper disease. 74 | P a g e
a. Epinephelus coiodes
b. Epinephelus tauvina
c. Epinephelus malabaricus
d. Epinephelus fuscogutatus
50. Fish exhibits extreme lethargy and low appetite, swims alone or hung at the water surface or remains at the bottom.
a. SGD
b. TGIV
c. CCVD
d. EUS
51. The presence of distinct white cuticular spots most apparent at the exoskeleton and epidermis of diseased shrimp about 2 days after
onset.
a. White Spot Syndrome Virus
b. Yellow Head Virus Disease
c. Monodon Baculovirus Disease
d. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome
52. The causative agent of white spot syndrome virus disease.
a. Nodavirus
b. Iridovirus
c. Baculovirus
d. Rhabdovirus
53. Infected shrimps show light yellowish, swollen cephalothorax; gills appear whitish, yellowish or brown.
a. Monodon Baculovirus Diasease
b. Yellow Head Virus Disease (YHV)
c. White Spot Syndrome Virus
d. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome
54. Affected shrimps exhibit pale-bluish-gray to dark blue -black coloration, sluggish and inactive swimming movements, loss of appetite
and retarded growth.
a. White Spot Syndrome Virus
b. Monodon Baculovirus (MBV) Disease
c. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome Virus
d. Yellow Head Virus Disease
55. MBV causative agent:
a. Baculovirus
b. Aeromonas hydropilla
c. Peneaus monodon-type Baculovirus
d. Iridovirus
56. What stages of shrimp wherein MBV was first (viral infections) diagnosed?
a. Egg, larvae; juveniles, and adult
b. Mysis, postlarvae, juveniles and adult
c. Nuplius, mysis, postlarvae and sudadult
d. Mysis, postlarvae, juveniles and spawner
57. The causative agent of this disease is parvovirus:
a. Monodon baculovirus
b. Infectious Hypodermal and Hematopoietic Necrosis Virus (IHHNV) Disease
c. Hepatopancreatic Parvo-like Virus
d. White Spot Syndrome Virus
58. This disease shows erratic swimming behavior of shrimp, rising slowly to the water surface, hanging and rolling over until the ventral
side is up, and eventually sinks to the bottom.
a. MBV
b. HPV
c. IHHNV
d. ST
59. This disease develops loss of appetite and retards growth.
a. Infectious Hypodermal and Hemtopoietic Virus Disease
b. Hepatopancreatic Parvo-like virus (HPV) disease
c. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome 75 | P a g e
d. none of these
60. Causative agent of HPV is
a. Parvovirus
b. Baculovirus
c. Nodavirus
d. Iridovirus
61. One-celled microorganisms which lack well-defined nucleus.
a. Pathogens
b. Fungi
c. Virus
d. Bacteria
62. These bacterial pathogens are capable of living for a long time in the tissues of their host without causing injury.
a. Obligatory pathogens
b. Opportunistic Pathogens
c. Secondary Pathogen
d. Primary Pathogen
63. In all animal production systems, one of the major problem facing production, development and expansion of the aquaculture industry
is
a. Virus Disease
b. Sickness
c. Bacterial disease
d. Illness
64. These microorganisms are of very small dimensions, usually between 0.5 and 10 microns.
a. Microbes
b. bacteria
c. virus
d. host
65. A living organism harboring another organism.
a. host
b. parasites
c. fungus
d. prey
66. Weakness or sluggishness
a. stress
b. lethargy
c. drying
d. weak
67. Localized death of a tissue
a. cancer
b. skin burn
c. inflammation
d. necrosis
68. A disease-producing agent
a. virus
b. pathogen
c. microbes
d. fungus
69. Any morbid change in function or structure of an organ or tissue
a. infection
b. lesions
c. inflammation
d. ulceration
70. A host in which the larval stages of a parasite develop
a. Intermediate host
b. Primary host
c. Secondary host 76 | P a g e
d. Tertiary host
71. Bacteria that promote growth of an organism or inhibit pathogenic microorganisms.
a. Antibiotics
b. Probiotics
c. Antibacteria
d. All of the above
72. Disposition of disease
a. Not susceptible
b. susceptible
c. Susceptible
d. susceptible
73. The most common method used to detect the presence of bacteria.
a. Gram negative
b. Gram stain
c. Gram positive
d. Gram strain
74. Gram stain classified into:
a. gram positive bacteria
b. gram negative bacteria
c. all of the above
d. neutral gram bacteria
75. Bacteria that possess a thick peptidoglycan cell wall which retain initial crystal violet stain during washing with 95% alcohol.
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. Gram stain
d. All of the above
76. Bacteria those posses a unimolecular peptiglycan cell wall bounded on one side by the cytoplasmic membrane and on the other side by
the outer membrane, such cells are decolorized of different kinds of bacteria.
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. Gram stain
d. Pathogenic
77. Three distinct forms of bacteria:
a. spiral
b. bacilli
c. cocci
d. all of the above
78. Isolated bacterium suspected of causing the disease.
a. Causative agent
b. Causative organism
c. Causative bacteria
d. Causative microbes
79. The appearance of a white spot on some parts of the head, gills, fins or body; distinct reddish tinge; lesions are circular, more necrotic
on gills, develop hemorrhagic ulcers in skins, with an overlying serom of bacterial cells and necrotic tissue, are the first indications of
infection of:
a. Aflatoxicos
b. Mycobacteriasis
c. Red disease
d. Columnaris disease
80. An opportunistic pathogen widely distributed in the water, and it is the causative agent of columnaris disease characterized by yellow-
green, flat, and rough spreading colonies that adhere to the media when it grows in solid media.
a. Flexibacter sp.
b. Flavobacterium columnare
c. Aeromonas sp. 77 | P a g e
d. Vibrio splendidus
81. Edwardsiella tarda is the causative agent of:
a. Edwarsiella septicaemia or Edwarsiellosis
b. Edwarsiella tarda
c. Edwadsiella sp.
d. all of the above
82. Infections of this organism manifest itself by the presence of small, 3-5 mm cuteneous or skin lesions located dorso-laterally on the
body.
a. Edwarsiella tarda
b. Edwarsiella sp.
c. Vibrio sp.
d. Vibrio vulfinis
83. Causative agent of vibriosis:
a. Vibrio alginolyticus
b. V. anguillarum
c. V. vulnificus
d. all of the above
84. The presence of red spots in tanks is a sign of
a. Skin infection
b. Microbial infection
c. Vibrio infection
d. Fungal infection
85. This disease causes the darkening in color, enlargement of the abdominal area to an extensive superficial reddening of a large area of
the body, often with necrosis of fins or tail and extensive ulceration over a considerable portion of the flanks or dorsum.
a. Pseudomonad Septicaemia
b. Lymphocystis disease
c. Protozoan Infestation
d. Motile Aeromonad Septicaemia
86. Causative agent of Motile Aeromonad Septicaemia:
a. Aeromonas hydrophila
b. A. caviae
c. A. sobria
d. all of the above
87. This organism enters the host either through the oral route or through broken or abraded skin and damaged gills, then carried
throughout the fish body by the blood stream; their toxin destroy body tissues, organs and functions, and it dysfunction may lead to
mortality of up to 70%.
a. Aeromonas sp.
b. Vibrio sp.
c. Flexibacter sp.
d. Pseudomonas spp.
88. This disease causes small haemorrhages in the skin around the mouth and opercula and along the ventral or abdominal surfaces and
body surfaces may ooze blood and slime in severe cases but there is no reddening of the fins and anus.
a. Pseudomonad Septicaemia or Red Spot Disease
b. Motile Septicaemia Disease
c. Lerneasis
d. Red Disease
89. This disease caused erratic swimming, darkening of body color, unilateral or bilateral exopthalmia, corneal opacity, hemorrhages on the
opercula and the bases of the fins and ulceration of the body surface.
a. Vibriosis
b. Piscine Tubercolosis
c. Mycobacteriosis
d. Streptococcal Infection
90. Causative agent of streptococcal infection:
a. Pseudomonas fluorescens
b. Aeromonas hydrophila 78 | P a g e
c. Vibrio vunificus
d. Streptococcus sp.
91. The effect of streptococcus sp. on host/fish:
a. swim in spiraling motion
b. spleen and kidney are enlarged
c. All of the above
d. none of the above
92. To prevent and control the infection of streptococcus sp. it is necessary to:
a. avoid overcrowding, overfeeding and unnecessary handling or transport
b. remove and slaughter promptly all moribund fish in ponds or net cages
c. apply erythromycin at 25-50mg/kg body weight of fish for 4-7 days
d. all of the above
93. A systematic, chronic, progressive disease presenting various clinical features depending species and ecological conditions. It show gray
white lesions of various sizes on most organs and tissues but the kidney and liver are most often involved.
a. Mycobacteriosis
b. Streptococcal Infection
c. Piscine Mycobacteriosis
d. Columnaris Disease
94. A chronic progressive disease which may take several years to progress from the asymptomatic state to clinical illness.
a. Columnaris Disease
b. Mycobacteriosis
c. Piscine Mycobacteriosis
d. Vibriosis
95. The primary method of controlling Mycobacteriosis.
a. Sanitation
b. Disinfection
c. Destruction of carrier of fishes
d. all of the above
96. Species of shrimps affected by Filamentous Bacterial Disease are:
a. all of these
b. Penaeus monodon
c. P. merguiensis
d. P. indicus
97. Presence of fine, colorless, thread-like growth on the body surface and gills as seen under the microscope; infected eggs show a thick
mat of filaments on the surface, which may interfere with respiration or hatching.
a. Filamentous Bacterial Disease
b. Shell Disease
c. Luminous Bacterial Disease
d. Non-luminous Vibrios
98. Causative agent of Filamentous Bacterial Disease
a. Leucothrix sp./Thiothrix sp.
b. Flexibacter sp./Cytophaga sp.
c. Flavobacterium sp
d. all of the above
99. Filamentous Bacterial Disease can be prevented and controlled by:
a. maintain good water quality
b. apply cutrine plus at 0.15 ppm copper in 24 h flowthrough treatments
c. apply 0.5 ppm copper in 4 to 6-h static treatments for PL 2 and older
d. all of the above
100. The disease manifests itself as brownish to black, single or multiple eroded areas on the general body cuticle, appendages and gills; a
cigarette butt-like appearance and blister containing cyanotic gelatinous fluid.
a. Shell Disease, Brown/Black Spot, Black Rot/Erosion, Blisters, Necrosis of Appendages
b. Red Spot Disease
c. Blue Disease
d. Luminous Bacterial Disease
Aquaculture Set I
1. The target organ of infection by Luminous Bacterial Disease.
a. Liver
b. Lungs
c. Hepatopancreas
d. Stomach
2. This disease shows erratic or disoriented swimming; loss of appetite; opaqueness of abdominal muscle,
anorexia and expansion of chromatophores; hepatopancreas show degrees of inflammation, hemocytic
infiltration and fibriosis.
a. Luminous Bacterial Disease
b. Red Spot Disease
c. Filamentous Bacterial Disease
d. Non-Luminous Vibrios
3. The best precaution against the occurrence of bacterial infections
a. all of these
b. provide fish with optimum environmental conditions
c. adequate amounts of the right kinds of food
d. avoidance stress, including overcrowding
4. The use of ____________ should always be an option of last resort.
a. Vitamins
b. Probiotics
c. Antibiotics
d. all of the above
5. The unit structure of fungi and a tubular filament.
a. Hyphae
b. Hypha
c. Fungus
d. Cilia
81 | P a g e
6. The process of introducing a suspension of disease-producing microorganisms modified by killing or
attenuation so that it will not cause disease and can stimulate the formation of antibodies upon inoculation.
a. Injection
b. Dissection
c. Vaccination
d. Medication
7. Organism that obtains their food from dead or decaying organic matter.
a. Detritus
b. Benthos
c. Salps
d. Saprotrophs
8. Organism that is capable of living on dead organic materials as shown by their ability to grow on synthetic
media.
a. Obligate Parasites or biotrophs
b. Facultative Parasites or Saprobes
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
9. Organism which cannot be cultured in synthetic media.
a. Obligate Parasites or biotrophs
b. Facultative Parasites or Saprobes
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
10. Formations of white cottony growth on fish eggs and on affected tissues of fish.
a. Branchiomycosis
b. Epizootic UlcerativeSyndrome
c. Ichthyophoniasis
d. Saprolegniosis
11. The chemical used for the prevention and treatment of saprolegnian infections of fishes and fish eggs
a. chemotherapeutants including bath treatments of either the zinc-free malachite green, sodium chloride and
formalin
b. a chelated copper compound
c. benzalkonium chloride
d. copper sulfate
12. This disease causes darker discoloration and loss of appetite; fish float just below the water surface; fish
may be hyperactive with a very jerky movement; and ulcerative lesions throughout the body.
a. Branchiomycosis
b. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome
c. Ichthyophoniasis
d. Saprolegniasis
13. The causative agent of epizootic ulcerative syndrome
a. Saprolegnia sp.
b. Brachiomysis sp.
c. Aeromonas sp.
d. Aphanomyces invadans
14. Useful treatment for (Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome (EUS)
a. 5 ppm Coptrol (a chelate copper compound) and 0.1 mg/l malachite green
b. zinc-free malachite green
c. copper sulfate
d. sodium chloride
15. Gills become pale with brownish areas due to hemorrhage and thrombosis, or grayish as a result of
ischemia.
a. Saprolegniasis
b. Ichthyophoniasis
c. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome
d. Branchiomycosis (Gill Rot)
16. The causative agent of Gill Rot
a. Aphanomyces invadans
82 | P a g e
b. Saprolenia sp.
c. Aeromonas hydrophila
d. Branchiomyces spp.
17. The chemicals that have been used to treat branchiomyces are
a. malachite green; benzalkonium chloride
b. copper sulfate; sodium chloride
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
18. Erratic swimming behavior and swelling of abdomen; internal organs become swollen with numerous
whitish nodules up to 2mm diameter.
a. Branchiomycosis
b. Ichtyophoniasis
c. Saprolegniasis
d. Lerneasis
19. This disease cause sudden onset of mortalities in larval stages of shrimps and crabs.
a. Red disease
b. Larval Mycosis
c. Black Gill Disease
d. Red spot Disease
20. This disease causes black spot appearance that preceded mortalities in juvenile shrimps grown in ponds.
a. Black Gill Disease
b. Larval Mycosis
c. Blue disease
d. Red Disease
21. This disease cause yellowish, and eventually reddish discoloration of the shrimp body and appendages;
become lethargic with weak swimming activity and soft shelling.
a. Shell Disease
b. Aflatoxicosis (red disease)
c. Red Spot Disease
d. Larval Mycosis
22. A relationship that benefits one or both parties or living together.
a. Mutualism
b. Commensalism
c. Parasitism
d. Symbiosis
23. No party is harmed and both could live without the other.
a. Mutualism
b. Commensalism
c. Parasitism
d. Ectoparasites
24. A relationship where both parties benefits from each other and neither could live without the other.
a. Mutualism
b. Commensalism
c. Parasitism
d. Symbiosis
25. A one-way relationship in which one party depends upon, and benefits from, the other partner,
biochemically and physiologically.
a. Mutualism
b. Commensalism
c. Parasitism
d. Parasites
26. Parasites that live on the external surfaces of the host.
a. Endoparasites
b. Ectoparasites
c. Parasites
d. Host
27. Parasites that found in the internal organs.
83 | P a g e
a. Endoparasites
b. Ectoparasites
c. Parasites
d. Host
28. These are unicellular, microscopic organisms with specialized structures for locomotion, food gathering,
attachment and protection.
a. Ciliates
b. Protozoans
c. Flagellates
d. Cilia
29. Have short, fine cytoplasmic outgrowths called cilia as a locomotory organelle and are either attached or
motile and mainly ectoparasites.
a. Protozoan
b. Flagellates
c. Host
d. Ciliates
30. This disease is also known as ichthyophthiriasis("Ich") or White Spot Disease because of the presence of a
few to numerous whitish or grayish spots on the skin and gills; loss their appetite, lethargic, with dull, opaque
or hemorrhagic eyes.
a. Protozoan infestation
b. Monogenean Infestation
c. Dinegean Infestation
d. Cestode Infestation
31. The causative agents of the protozoan infestation
a. Ichthyophthirius multifilis in freshwater
b. Cryptocaryon irritans in marine and brackishwater
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
32. They have one or longer, hair-like structures called flagella used as a locomotory organelle; they occur on
the skin, gills, intestinal organs and blood of fish.
a. Ciliates
b. Flagellates
c. Cilia
d. Spores
33. These parasites can cause sluggishness, pale gills, and emanciated body when it attached to the fish.
a. Trypanosoma, Cryptobia, Ichthyobodo
b. Ichthyophthirius multifiliis, Cryptocaryon irritans
c. Myxidium, Myxobolus, Myxosoma
d. Gyrodactylus, Dactylogyrus, Pseudorhabdosynochus
34. This disease can cause white cysts formed on the skin, gills, muscle, rain, heart, ovaries or other internal
organs of fish and cysts produce thick milky exudates when ruptured.
a. Flagellates
b. Protozoans Infestation
c. Nematode Infestation
d. Myxosporeans
35. This infestation can cause pale skin and gills with increased mucus production, frayed fins, and the cornea
may become opaque.
a. Dinegean Infestation
b. Monogenean infestation
c. Cestode Infestation
d. Nematode Infestation
36. The presence of small, white to yellow or brown to black cysts on the skin, fins, gills, muscle, stomach or
intestine.
a. Cestode Infestation
b. Monogenean Infestation
c. Dinegean Infestation
d. Nematode Infestation
84 | P a g e
37. This infestation show sluggish, with emaciated body because of non-feeding and commonly found in
intestine of fish.
a. Acanthocephalan Infestation
b. Caligus Infestation
c. Cestode Infestation
d. Argulus Infestation
38. This parasite causes necrotic hemorrhagic ulcers in the intestine of the host and it is caused by
Acanthocephalus and Pallisentis.
a. Caligus Infestation
b. Larnaeid Infestation
c. Protozoan Infestation
d. Acanthocephalan Infestations
39. These parasites have segmented bodies covered by shell with jointed appendages.
a. Isopod Infestation
b. Mollusc parasites
c. Crustacean parasite
d. Marine Leech Infestation
40. This infestation show the parasite attached to the skin, fins, buccal or opercular mucosa with two
conspicuous black spots and attachment area hemorrhagic or ulcerated.
a. Argulus infestation (fish louse)
b. Caligus Infestation
c. Ergasilid Infestation
d. Crustacean Infestation
41. This is transparent parasite that appears like white patches, but is not permanently attached to the skin,
fins, and gills and may cause skin ulcer, hemorrhagic, and infested areas have no scales.
a. Lernaeid Infestation
b. Argulus Infestation
c. Caligus Infestations
d. Ergasilid Infestation
42. The infestation where parasites attaches to gills and body surface of the host; white to dark copepods and
the affected fish have emaciated body.
a. Lernaeid Infestation
b. Argulus Infestation
c. Crustacean Infestation
d. Ergasilid Infestation
43. These parasites can be seen protruding from nostrils, skin, bases of fins, gill, buccal cavity.
a. Caligus
b. Lernaea
c. Ergasilus
d. Argulus
44. The effect of this parasite to the host/fish, skin and muscle are swollen, ulcers may develop and result to
muscle necrosis.
a. Lernaeid infestation
b. Mollusc Infestation
c. Crustacean Infestation
d. Protozoan Infestation
45. Isopod infestation resulting to reduced opercular movements, loss of appetite, anemia, and slow growth
rate.
a. Zeylanicobdella arugamensis
b. Alitropus and Nerocila
c. Glochidia
d. Lernaea
46. The Zeylanicobdella arugamensis attaches to the skin, fins, eyes, nostrils, operculum and inside the mouth
of the fish and it may cause hemorrhagic.
a. Mollusc Infestation
b. Marine infestation
c. Protozoan Infestation
85 | P a g e
d. Crustacean Infestation
47. Signs of this protozoan infestation are fuzzy mat on gills and body surface
a. Glochidia
b. Gregarines
c. Nosema, Agmasoma, Pliestophora, Glugea and Ichthyosporidium
d. Vorticella, Zoothamnium, Epistylis, Acineta and Ephelota
48. Parasites needing only one host to complete its life cycle.
a. Indirect Cycle
b. Parasites Life Cycles
c. Intermediate host
d. Direct Life Cycle
49. Parasites may also have more than one host to complete its life cycle.
a. Indirect Life Cycle
b. Intermediate Host
c. Direct Life Cycles
d. Paratenic host
50. Non-infectious diseases are caused by:
a. adverse environmental conditions
b. nutritional disorders
c. genetic defects
d. all of the above
51. These diseases may be caused by low dissolved oxygen, high ammonia, high nitrite, or natural or man-
made toxins in the aquatic environment.
a. Non-infectious Disease
b. Environmental disease
c. Skin Disease
d. none of the above
52. This is due to supersaturation of dissolved gases; supersaturation may be due to leaks in pump or valve
systems in hatcheries; dense algal bloom that presumably caused oxygen depletion at night and
supersaturation during the day.
a. Sunburn Disease
b. Gas Bubble Disease
c. Hypoxia
d. Asphyxiation
53. This is associated with malfunction of the swimbladder and also associated with a combination of
handling, high ambient temperature, high ambient illumination, dense algal bloom that presumably cause
oxygen depletion at night and supersaturation during the day.
a. Gas bubble Disease
b. Swimbladder Stress Syndrome
c. Hypoxia
d. Anorexia
54. Very low levels of dissolved oxygen.
a. Asphyxiation/hypoxia
b. Anorexia
c. Anoxia
d. Hyperoxia
55. This is caused by a drop in the pH to a level too low for the species.
a. Acid sulfate
b. Acidosis
c. salinity
d. alkalinity
56. This is due to excessive levels of ultraviolet irradiation from sunlight when fish are stocked in shallow
uncovered raceways under intense sunlight.
a. Inflammation
b. Skin disease
c. Gill disease
d. Sunburn disease
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57. This is a shrimp disease caused by temperature and salinity shock, low oxygen levels, overcrowding, rough
handling and severe gill fouling.
a. Black Gill Disease
b. Muscle Necrosis
c. Body Cramp
d. Hypoxia
58. Associated with handling of shrimp in warm, humid air much warmer than culture water and mineral
imbalance.
a. Bent/cramped tails or Body Cramp
b. Soft Shelling
c. Red Disease
d. Muscle Necrosis
59. Closely associated with low temperature of culture water, that may cause the presence of old exoskeleton
attached to the newly molted larvae, especially in appendages
a. Acid Sulfate Disease Syndrome
b. Chronic Soft Shelling Disease
c. Black Gill Disease
d. Incomplete Molting
60. This is caused by low water and soil pH, which show poor growth, low molting frequency and yellow to
orange to brown discoloration of the gill and appendage surfaces.
a. Red Disease
b. Acidosis/Acid Sulfate Disease syndrome
c. Chronic Soft-Shell Syndrome
d. Incomplete Molting
61. This is due to chemical contaminants, heavy siltation and ammonia or nitrite in rearing water; high organic
load due to residual feed, debris, and fecal matter on the pond bottom which show the blackening of the gill
discoloration and gill filaments become totally black.
a. Black Gill Disease
b. Block Gill Disease
c. Muscle Necrosis
d. Acidosis
62. This is associated with high application of lime in the pond that gives it a high initial pH; prolonged
exposure to low salinity, which affected shrimp have red short streaks on gills or abdominal segments,
yellowish to reddish discoloration of the body and increased fluid in the cephalothorax, emitting foul odor.
a. Red Spot Disease
b. Acid Sulfate Disease Syndrome
c. Black Gill Disease
d. Red Disease
63. Associated with exposure of normal hard-shelled shrimps to pesticides and piscicides, which shows shell
that is often dark rough and wrinkled and affected shrimps are weak.
a. Incomplete Molting
b. Chronic Soft-Shell Syndrome/Soft-Shelling
c. Red Disease
d. Molting
64. Diets designed to add nutrients to food obtained from the pond or aquarium environment.
a. Complete feeds
b. Supplemental feeds
c. Incomplete feeds
d. Artificial feeds
65. Feeds for intensively reared fishes that do not get nutrients supplied from the environment.
a. Complete feeds
b. Incomplete feeds
c. Artificial feeds
d. Natural feeds
66. Various stages of fish require various sizes of feeds classified as:
a. larval feeds; starter feeds
b. grower feeds; finisher feeds
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c. broodstock feeds; maintenance diets
d. all of the above
67. The most expensive ingredient in fish feed, it may be tempting to economize on this ingredient.
a. Vitamin
b. Minerals
c. Carbohydrates
d. Protein
68. This is used as energy food supply.
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Vitamins
d. Fats
69. It is necessary for absorption of some vitamins and constitutes a relatively cheap energy source.
a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Lipids
d. Amino acids
70. These are complex organic substances that are essential to a wide variety of metabolic processes and are
divided into two classes: fat-soluble and water-soluble.
a. Vitamins
b. Fats
c. Protein
d. Minerals
71. This is required to fish for maintenance of osmotic balance between body fluids and their environment.
a. water
b. fats
c. Vitamins
d. Minerals
72. Useful in diagnosing feeds problems
a. Nutritional deficiency signs
b. Gross signs
c. Internal disease signs
d. none of the above
73. Components of feeds which are important binders in commercial fish feed production.
a. Fats
b. Antioxidant
c. Vitamins
d. Carbohydrates
74. Reduction or cessation of growth is the common sign of what nutritional deficiency of fish?
a. Fats and lipids deficiency
b. Amino acid deficiency method
c. Vitamin imbalances
d. Minerals deficiency
75. This deficiency usually seen in fish fed on trash fish or pelleted diets in which part of lipid component has
gone rancid.
a. Fats and lipids deficiency
b. Amino acid deficiency method
c. Minerals deficiency
d. Vitamin imbalances
76. Depletion of the body storage of any single vitamin can be responsible for specific or general disease signs.
a. Amino acid deficiency method
b. Minerals deficiency
c . Fats and lipids deficiency
d. Vitamin imbalances
77. This disease is characterized by necrosis and degeneration of the natural musculature of fish and
associated with vitamin deficiency and with lipid peroxides in the diet.
a. Nutritional myopathy syndrome
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b. Vitamin imbalances
c. Fats and lipids deficiency
d. Mineral deficiency
78. This nutritional deficiency occur in juvenile to sub adult penaeid shrimp cultured intensively in tanks and is
caused by low level of vitamin C in the diet, lack or absence of algal growth or other vitamin C sources in the
culture system.
a. Vitamin Imbalances
b. Vitamin C deficiency
c. Minerals imbalances
d. Fats and lipids deficiency
79. This syndrome causes shrimps to become weak, prone to epibiotic fouling and cannibalism and have
reduced market value.
a. Molting
b. Blue shell syndrome
c. Chronic soft-shell syndrome
d. Underfeeding
80. This disease syndrome is light blue rather than grayish brown in color.
a. Black gill disease
b. Blue disease or blue shell syndrome
c. Vitamin imbalances
d. Body cramp
81. This refers to a syndrome of uncertain etiology; occur together with striated muscles as the organ.
a. Body cramp or cramped tail syndrome
b. Muscle necrosis
c. Underfeeding
d. Shell disease
82. This syndrome is indicated by the loss and oversized shells due to the reduction of the muscular mass in
the abdominal region.
a. Underfeeding
b. Vitamin imbalances
c. Overfeeding
d. Under size feeding
83. These organisms grow on the feeds, cause spoilage and produced toxins such as aflatoxin.
a. Aspergillus
b. Micrococcus
c. Bacillus
d. Salmonella
84. This organ is responsible in the digestion, absorption and storage of food, damage in its tissues lead to
slow growth.
a. Hepatopancreas
b. Stomach
c. Intestine
d. Kidney
85. A toxin present in untreated cottonseed meal, causes anorexia and ceriod accumulation in the liver.
a. Saponin
b. Phytic acid
c. Mimosine
d. Gossypol
86. These occur as contaminants in fish meal and can cause mortality when present in fry feeds.
a. copper
b. chlorine
c. manganese
d. Chlorinated hydrocarbons
87. Leaves from ipil-ipil contain a poisonous amino acid, which cause pathological changes in the storage cells
of the shrimp's digestive organ.
a. saponin
b. memosine
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c. nicotine
d. gossypol
88. These are present in the water and some of them cause disease only when the host have been weakened
through exposure to stressful environmental conditions.
a. diatoms
b. plankton
c. fungi
d. microorganism
89. These can be removed by ultraviolet radiation and through the process of microfiltration.
a. Potential pathogens
b. Chemical pollutants
c. Biofiltration
d. Carbon filtration
90. Chemical pollutants can be eliminated by:
a. Carbon filtration
b. biofiltration
c. water dilution
d. all of the above
91. This refers to fish free of all species- specific pathogens.
a. Specific pathogenic organisms (SPF)
b. Specified disease
c. Coded pathogenic organism
d. Uncontrolled fish
92. This includes fish free of all diseases appearing in a list drawn up by an international agreement.
a. Specific pathogenic organism
b. Specified disease
c. Coded pathogenic organisms (CPF)
d. Uncontrolled fish
93. This relate to fish reared in water supplies in which pathogenic organisms could exist, multiply and be
disseminated by wild life fish.
a. Specific pathogenic organism
b. Coded pathogenic organism
c. Specific disease (SDF)
d. Uncontrolled fish
94. This consists of fish not checked for the presence of disease or pathogens.
a. Specific pathogenic organism
b. Coded pathogenic organism
c. Specific disease (SDF)
d. Uncontrolled fish
95. Have recommended policy measures dealing with the introduction of the aquatic species and guidelines
for implementation, including methods to minimize the possibility of disease transfers, this is ICES which stand
for:
a. International Council for the Exploration of the Seas
b. Integrated Council for the Exploration of the Seas
c. International Council for Exploring the Seas
d. International Council for the Exploration of the Species
96. The primary objective of this method is to protect the host by intercepting the pathogen or cutting its
pathway to the host.
a. Environmental methods
b. Chemical methods
c. Physical methods
d. none of the above
97. This should be accessible by road to avoid excessively long transport time of the larvae or fish.
a. Farmhouse
b. Facilities
c. hatchery/farm
d. none of the above
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98. It is crucial in the hatchery or pond; it can spell the difference between success and failure of the
aquaculture enterprise.
a. management
b. good water quality
c. temperature
d. Good management practice
99. This provides aeration in ponds and in a large settling reservoir it reduces the organic and particulate load
before it is directed into ponds.
a. Puddle wheel
b. Surface aerator
c. Paddle wheel
d. Aerator
100. The target organ of infection by Luminous Bacterial Disease.
a. liver
b. lungs
c. hepatopancreas
d. stomach