P R O J E C T M A N A G E M E N T T R A I N I N G

SELF ASSESSMENT ANSWERS

MODULE 1 DEFINTIONS AND CONCEPTS

1. A project is:
a. An activity with a fixed start date, but no end date
b. A number of ongoing tasks an organisation undertakes
c. A set of activities with fixed start and end dates
d. A task without a budget

The correct answer is (c). A project should have a fixed duration. (See page 7 of the manual).

2. Project management is:

a. Just like any other kind of management
b. Done differently in the United States and Europe
c. A job that should only be undertaken by technical staff
d. The planning and controlling of resources for a specific time to achieve a pre-
determined goal

The correct answer is (d). The rest are only partly true, or apply only to specific projects. (See
page 8 of the manual).

3. Which one of these is not part of the project life cycle?

a. Implementation
b. Ongoing maintenance
c. Conceptualisation
d. Planning

The correct answer is (b). Ongoing maintenance is not a project activity, although it may be
planned for during the project. (See page 16 of the manual).

4. Projects can fail because:

a. The project is planned in too much detail
b. The project is not controlled closely
c. Stakeholder requirements are too specific
d. Project risks are identified too early in the project

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The correct answer is (b). The other answers are features of successful projects. (See pages 7
and 11 of the manual).

MODULE 2 PLANNING

5. What two types of quote are often used for projects?

a. Fixed or negotiated
b. Variable or cash on delivery
c. Fixed or variable
d. Variable or performance based

The correct answer is (c). Variable quotes are often called ‘Time and Materials’. (See page 22
of the manual).

6. The project charter:

a. Is only used for large projects
b. Is the project mission statement
c. Is a detailed project plan for the project
d. Does not contain the stakeholder’s responsibilities

The correct answer is (b). It is not a detailed plan, but rather an outline of the project, and should
be developed for all projects. It should include the stakeholder responsibilities. (See page 23 of
the manual).

7. The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS):

a. Is a list of the main phases of the project
b. Is only needed if a project planning software is used
c. Should cover task on an hour by hour basis
d. A hierarchical description of all the tasks to be performed

The correct answer is (d). The WBS is needed for all projects and is a detailed list of tasks with
their deliverables. (See page 25 of the manual).

8. The Resource and Responsibility Allocation Matrix (RRAM)

a. Sets out the responsible resource for each task
b. Does not include stakeholder responsibilities
c. Lists responsible and required resources

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d. Does not include the project support staff

The correct answer is (c). The RRAM provides a complete view of all the resources needed to
complete each task. (See page 27 of the manual).

9. The following are methods for project estimation:

a. Standards within the company
b. Estimates based on costing individual activities
c. Algorithmic techniques
d. All of the above

The correct answer is (d). Any of the first three techniques can be used, depending on the
company’s experience. (See page 30 of the manual).

10. The project schedule:

a. Is used to calculate how long the project will take
b. Can only be done using a software program
c. Contains the lists of tasks, their duration and resources allocated
d. Is the same as the Gantt chart

The correct answer is (c). The project schedule should be more than just a Gantt chart with
durations, and can be dome by hand if necessary. (See page 31 of the manual).

11. The following tools can be used to generate the project schedule:
a. Microsoft Excel
b. Microsoft Project
c. Primavera
d. All of the above

The correct answer is (d). Project schedules can be generated in Excel, but the other two tools
are better. (See page 32 of the manual).

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MODULE 3 PROJECT RISK

12. The most common factors, which contribute to the risk of a project, are:
a. Cost, schedule and scope
b. Resources and liability
c. A and B
d. Ownership and contractors

The correct answer is (c). Ownership is associated with liability and contractors are described
under Resourcing. (See page 40 of the manual).
13. The risk assessment process involves:
a. Examining cost, schedule and resourcing criteria
b. Reviewing project objectives and quality measures
c. Building a project baseline
d. Calculating the ETC

The correct answer is (c). The project baseline will specify: the total project cost, schedule, and
the resources necessary to achieve the project objective. This serves as the basis for monitoring
and controlling the project. The ETC (estimated time to completion) should be monitored and
revised on a monthly, or weekly, basis depending upon the size and duration of the project. (See
page 42 of the manual).

14. The risks associated with large projects running over time may be minimised by:
a. Reducing the scope of the project
b. Focusing on quality control
c. Following a policy of divide and conquer
d. Minimising the number of departments involved

Answers (a) (c) and (d) are all technically correct. Although reducing the scope of the project
would include minimising the number of departments and people involved. Focusing solely on
quality control would not be prudent in this instance. (See page 42 of the manual).

15. Risk Management will only be successful if:

a. A thorough scope of work document has been prepared
b. The project success criteria are incorporated into specific phases
c. A risk management plan is created and monitored
d. Risks identified have been quantified

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The correct answer is (c). (a), (b) and (d) are some of the tasks/elements that would need to be
examined in formulating such a plan. (See pages 44 and 45 of the manual).

MODULE 4 PROJECT CONTROL

16. Project controls are used to assess:

a. Schedule
b. Budget
c. Quality
d. All of the above

The correct answer is (d). Schedule, budget and quality are all concerns of the project manager.
(See page 49 of the manual).

17. Quality control is

a. Ensured by use of standards like ISO
b. The responsibility of every team member
c. Can be added at the end of the project
d. Not important in small projects

The correct answer is (b). Although ISO standards help to put a quality framework in place, they
do not ensure adherence without the efforts of team members. (See page 7 of the manual; page
50 of the manual discusses quality control).

18. Progress data on a project can be collected by

a. Having team meetings
b. Filling in timesheets
c. Individual feedback
d. All of the above

The correct answer is (d). Any of the first three methods can be used, although timesheets are
often the most accurate. (Page 51 of the manual expands on this).

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For the next two questions please refer to the figure below:

Budgeted
Total

To Date
Total

Time
Now
Target
Completion

19. The blue line is referred to as the

a. Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS)
b. Planned Value (PV)
c. Performance Management Budget (PMB)
d. Either (a) or (b)

The correct answer is (d). The blue curve is the original project baseline, and is referred to both
as the BCWS and the PV. (These terms are all defined on page 53 of the manual).

20. The green line is referred to as the:

a. Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP)
b. Actual Cost (AC)
c. Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP)
d. Either (a) or (b)

The correct answer is (d). The green curve represents what has been achieved, and is referred
to both as the ACWP and the AC. (These terms are all defined on page 53 of the manual).

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21. In an Earned Value Analysis, the Schedule Variance (SV) is calculated as:
a. EV – AC
b. EV – PV
c. AC + ETC
d. PMB – ETC

The correct answer is (b). This compares what should have been achieved to date to what has
actually been achieved to date. (These terms are all defined on page 53 of the manual).

22. The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is calculated from:

a. EV/PV
b. EV/AC
c. (BAC-EV)/CPI
d. None of the above

The correct answer is (a). This compares what has been achieved to what should have achieved
as a percentage. (These terms are all defined on page 53 of the manual).

MODULE 5 PROJECT ORGANISATION

23. Which one of the following statements is not true?

a. The functional organisation is ideally suited to run projects
b. In the functional organisation, the entire organisation is structured around logically
coherent units
c. Functional organisations give people the opportunity to specialise
d. Project organisations can result in a duplication of work effort

The correct answer is (a). Problems arise when the functional organisation is used to run projects.
Individuals who work in their respective functional areas are expected to perform project related
activities as well. Often the responsibility for the project is vaguely defined, or even shared
amongst a number of people and the problems are compounded. Individuals will hide behind their
functional responsibilities and let the project slip behind schedule. (See page 65 of the manual).

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24. Which of the following questions would not be answered by the staffing plan?
a. Specific job descriptions or position descriptions
b. Whether internal and/or external resources will be used?
c. When and how will people be added?
d. Individual standing time in relation to downtime?

The correct answer is (a) Specific job descriptions or position descriptions, including job title,
skills, responsibilities, knowledge, authority, expected physical work environment, and so on form
part of the organisational plan which is informed and preceded by the staffing plan. (See pages
69 and 70 of the manual).

25. What is the role of the Project Sponsor?

a. To train users
b. To chair the steering committee
c. To determine the critical priorities for the project
d. To own the product or system when it becomes operational

The correct answers are (b), (c) and (d). The project team trains users. (See page 68 of the
manual)

26. What are the duties of the Functional Manager in a Matrix Organisation?
a. The ongoing management of the function in the organisation
b. To manage the project in a day-to-day sense
c. To take accountability for the overall success of the project
d. To make sure that the necessary skills are provided by the organisation

Answers (a), (c) and (d) are all correct. The functional manager is responsible for the ongoing
management of the function in the organisation, such as ensuring that the correct techniques
relative to the function are used and that the necessary skills exist in the organisation. The project
manager will manage the project in a day-to-day sense by drawing on the skills provided by the
functional manager. In this structure, it is essential that both the project and functional manager
accept responsibility for the successful outcome of the project. (See page 67 of the manual).

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MODULE 6 THE PROJECT TEAM

27. When would you use a controlled centralised project team structure?
a. When you have a small team
b. When you need to break the project up into independent units
c. When the project duration is likely to run over several years
d. When the project task is extremely complex

The correct answer is (b). Answers (a), (c) and (d) are applicable to a democratic decentralised
structure. (See pages 72-74 of the manual).

28. What factors characterise the ‘norming’ phase of team development?

a. Getting the job done is the important issue
b. Control is the driving force
c. Leadership struggles predominate
d. Basic ground rules for team performance are laid

The correct answers are (a) and (b). Leadership struggles characterise the ‘storming’ phase,
whilst basic ground rules for team performance are normally laid in the ‘forming stage’. (See page
75 of the manual).

29. What project tools should be used to determine the use of external contractors and
consultants?
a. The Gantt Chart
b. The Staffing Plan
c. RRAM
d. The WBS

The correct answer is (d). The tasks designated in the WBS should determine whether a
Contractor or a Consultant should be engaged. The WBS and RRAM are then be used to define
the external resource requirements, assign responsibilities and design monitoring systems. The
staffing plan is derived from this activity. The Gantt chart builds a graphic representation of the
WBS and the RRAM. (See Module 3, and page 87 of the manual).

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30. Which of the statements below clarifies the distinction between Contractors and
Consultants?
a. Consultants provide specialised advice or data derived from studies or research;
contractors take on longer tasks
b. Consultants are paid a contract price; contractors submit fee-based charges.
c. Contractors develop approaches to particular problems, whilst consultants are
responsible for specific tasks
d. Consultants work on project elements; contractors take responsibility for whole
projects.

The correct answers are (a) and (d) (See page 87 of the manual).
Contractors assume responsibility for:
 Whole project/s
 Specific tasks
 Longer tasks
 Contract price
 Project contract stipulating penalties and conditions
 Meeting contract deadlines

Consultants provide for:

 Project elements
 Specific advice
 Services and tasks usually within shorter time frames
 Specialised advice/data derived from studies or research
 Fee based charges-may charge extra for travel, facilities, etc.
 Results not time, fees not wages
 Developing approaches to particular problems

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