Manufacturing Technology II

SYLLABUS
PSN College of Engineering and Technology Regulation 2018
Department: Mechanical Branch Code/

Engineering Degree/Branch B.E - MECH
(mention all branches for
Semester: III which the subject is
offered)
Subject Code: 210007 L T P C
Subject Title: MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY - II 3 0 0 3
OBJECTIVE:
To understand the concept and basic mechanics of metal cutting, working of standard machine tools such as lathe,
shaping and allied machines, milling, drilling and allied machines, grinding and allied machines and broaching.
Unit 1 THEORY OF METAL CUTTING Total Hrs 9+3
Mechanics of chip formation, single point cutting tool, forces in machining, Types of chip, cutting tools–
nomenclature, orthogonal metal cutting, thermal aspects, cutting tool materials, tool wear, tool life, surface finish,
cutting fluids and Machinability.
Unit 2 TURNING MACHINES Total Hrs 9+3
Centre lathe, constructional features, specification, operations – taper turning methods, thread cutting methods,
special attachments, machining time and power estimation. Capstan and turret lathes- tool layout – automatic lathes:
semi-automatic – single spindle: Swiss type, automatic screw type – multi spindle:
Unit 3 SHAPER, MILLING AND DRILLING MACHINES Total Hrs 9+3
Shaper Machines – Construction – Operations. Milling Machines - operations-types of milling cutter. Drilling
machines and Operations - Drilling, reaming, boring, and Tapping. – Drill Bit nomenclature – Applications
Unit 4 GEAR CUTTING MACHINES Total Hrs 9+3
Gear cutting – forming and generation principle and construction of gear milling, hobbing and gear shaping
processes –finishing of gears- Typical applications.
Unit 5 ABRASIVE PROCESS AND BROACHING Total Hrs 9+3
Abrasive processes: grinding wheel – specifications and selection, types of grinding process– cylindrical grinding,
surface grinding, centreless grinding and internal grinding- Typical applications – concepts of surface integrity.
Broaching machines: broach construction – push, pull, surface and continuous broaching machine.
Total Hours to be taught 60
Outcome:
CO 1: Students will be able to apply theory of metal cutting in real life machining
CO 2: To understand the operational principles of turning machines and its elements
CO 3: To understand the constructional and operational features of shaper, planner, milling, drilling machines
CO 4: To study the types of gear manufacturing processes along with super finishing processes
CO 5: To study the details about the grinding and broaching processes.
Text Book:
1. Hajra Choudhury, "Elements of Workshop Technology", Vol.II., Media Promoters 2014
1. Rao. P.N “Manufacturing Technology - Metal Cutting and Machine Tools", 3rd Edition, Tata McGraw-Hill,
New Delhi, 2013
Reference (s):
1. Richerd R Kibbe, John E. Neely, Roland O. Merges and Warren J.White “Machine Tool Practices”, Prentice
Hall of India, 1998
2. GeofreyBoothroyd, "Fundamentals of Metal Machining and Machine Tools", Mc Graw Hill, 1984
3. HMT, "Production Technology", Tata McGraw Hill, 1998.
4. Roy. A.Lindberg, “Process and Materials of Manufacture,” Fourth Edition, PHI/Pearson Education 2006.
Online Resources:
0 https://www.youth4work.com/onlinetalenttest/Thermal-Engineering-test
1 https://www.careerride.com/mcq-tag-wise.aspx?Key=Thermal%20Engineering&Id=16
CO/PO Mapping
(S/M/W indicates strength of
1-Weak, 2-Medium, 3-Strong
correlation)
PO1 PO2 PO3 PO4 Po5 PO PO7 PO8 PO9 PO10 PO11 PO12
6
CO1 3 3
CO2 3 3 2 2 1 1
CO3 3 3 1 1
CO4 3 3
CO5 3 3 2 1
Case study
 A case study on existing petrol car engines design parameters

 A case study on solar water heating for flat plate collector
 Thermal numerical simulation for metal matrix composite design: Application to weight saving
in electronic packaging for aeronautics
 Centrifugal compressor in industry-case study
 Case study of ventilation and air conditioning system
 Air conditioning system for college buildings
 Natural refrigerants-Case study
 Supermarket refrigeration- Transcritical Carbon Dioxide -Case study
 A case study of solar refrigeration
 Typical Low and Intermediate Pressure Steam Turbine Issues-case study
Program Outcomes
Engineering Graduates will be able to:
1. Engineering Knowledge: Apply the knowledge of mathematics, science, engineering fundamentals, and
an engineering specialization to the solution of complex engineering problems.
2. Problem Analysis: Identify, formulate, review research literature, and analyze complex engineering
problems reaching substantiated conclusions using first principles of mathematics, natural sciences, and
engineering sciences.
3. Design/ Development of Solutions: Design solutions for complex engineering problems and design
system components or processes that meet the specified needs with appropriate consideration for the
public health and safety, and the cultural, societal, and environmental considerations.
4. Conduct Investigations of Complex Problems: Use research-based knowledge and research methods
including design of experiments, analysis and interpretation of data, and synthesis of the information to
provide valid conclusions.
5. Modern Tool Usage: Create, select, and apply appropriate techniques, resources, and modern
engineering and IT tools including prediction and modelling to complex engineering activities with an
understanding of the limitations.
6. The Engineer and Society: Apply reasoning informed by the contextual knowledge to assess societal,
health, safety, legal and cultural issues and the consequent responsibilities relevant to the professional
engineering practice.
7. Environment and sustainability: Understand the impact of the professional engineering solutions in
societal and environmental contexts, and demonstrate the knowledge of, and need for sustainable
development.
8. Ethics: Apply ethical principles and commit to professional ethics and responsibilities and norms of the
engineering practice.
9. Individual and teamwork: Function effectively as an individual, and as a member or leader in diverse
teams, and in multi disciplinary settings.
10. Communication: Communicate effectively on complex engineering activities with the engineering
community and with society at large, such as, being able to comprehend and write effective reports and
design documentation, make effective presentations, and give and receive clear instructions.
11. Project management and finance: Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the engineering and
management principles and apply these to one’s own work, as a member and leader in a team, to
manage projects and in multidisciplinary environments.
12. Lifelong learning: Recognize the need for, and have the preparation and ability to engage in
independent and life-long learning in the broadest context of technological change.
Quiz question
THERMAL ENGINEERING
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - OTTO CYCLE AND DIESEL CYCLE
1. In which of the following cycle heat is added at constant volume?
a. Otto cycle
b. Diesel cycle
c. Dual cycle
d. Carnot cycle
Answer a. Otto cycle
2. In which of the following cycle heat is added at constant pressure?

a. Otto cycle
b. Diesel cycle
c. Dual cycle
d. Carnot cycle
Answer b. Diesel cycle
3. Which of the following cycle is used for Spark Ignition engine?

a. Otto cycle
b. Diesel cycle
c. Dual cycle
d. Carnot cycle
Answer a. Otto cycle
4. Which of the following cycle is used for Compression Ignition engine?

a. Otto cycle
b. Diesel cycle
c. Dual cycle
d. Carnot cycle
Answer b. Diesel cycle
5. The efficiency of the Otto cycle is independent of

a. Heat supplied
b. Compression ratio
c. Ratio of specific heats
d. None of the above
Answer a. Heat supplied
6. For same compression ratio

a. Diesel cycle has lower efficiency than Otto cycle
b. Diesel cycle has higher efficiency than Otto cycle
c. Diesel cycle and Otto cycle have equal efficiencies
d. Depends upon the load on engine
Answer a. Diesel cycle has lower efficiency than Otto cycle
7. What is the formula for compression (rk) ratio of the Otto cycle?
a. rk = Volume of cylinder at the beginning of compression / Volume of cylinder at the end
of compression
b. rk = Volume of cylinder at the end of compression / Volume of cylinder at the beginning

of compression
c. rk = Volume of cylinder at the end of compression / clearance volume
d. none of the above
ANSWER a. rk = Volume of cylinder at the beginning of compression / Volume of cylinder at

the end of compression
8. What is the relation between compression ratio (rk) and the efficiency of the Otto cycle?
a. efficiency decreases with increase in compression ratio

b. efficiency increases with increase in compression ratio
c. efficiency is not affected by change in compression ratio
ANSWER b. efficiency increases with increase in compression ratio
9. The compression ratio cannot be increased beyond certain limit as it results in
a. auto-ignition of fuel
b. detonation
c. engine knocking
d. all the above
ANSWER d. all the above
10. Use of gasoline blend like tetraethyl lead in internal combustion engine
a. increases the octane rating of the fuel

b. allows engine to operate at higher compression ratio
c. avoids auto-ignition of fuel
d. all of the above
ANSWER d. all of the above
11. How the efficiency of the SI engine is affected by the specific heat ratio (γ) of the working fluid?
a. the efficiency of the engine increases with increase in specific heat ratio (γ) of the working fluid
b. the efficiency of the engine decreases with increase in specific heat ratio (γ) of the working fluid
c. the efficiency of the engine does not affected by change in specific heat ratio (γ) of the working fluid
ANSWER a. the efficiency of the engine increases with increase in specific heat ratio (γ) of the
working fluid
12. For the same capacity engines, the compression ratio of diesel engine
a. is lower than the compression ratio of SI engine

b. is higher than the compression ratio of SI engine
c. is same as the compression ratio of SI engine
d. cannot say
ANSWER b. is higher than the compression ratio of SI engine
13. Rate of burning in the compression ignition engine can be controlled by
a. rate of injection of fuel

b. rate of air taken into carburetor
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER a. rate of injection of fuel
14. For the same maximum pressure and temperature, what is the relation among the efficiencies of the Otto
cycle, the Diesel cycle and the Dual cycle?
a. ηDual >ηDiesel >ηOtto
b. ηDiesel >ηDual >ηOtto
c. ηDiesel >ηOtto >ηDual
d. ηOtto >ηDiesel >ηDual
ANSWER b. ηDiesel >ηDual >ηOtto
15. Air standard cycle uses as a working medium.
a. Perfect gas
b. Real gas
c. Ideal gas
d. Natural gas
ANSWER a. Perfect gas
16.For perfect gas
a. cp – cv = R
b. cp + cv = R
c. cp / cv = R
d. cp X cv = R
Where cp & cv are specific heats at constant pressure and volume.
ANSWER a. CP – CV = R
17. The self-ignition temperature of diesel as compared to petrol is

a. higher
b. lower
c. same
d. varies
ANSWER a. higher
18.For same compression ratio and heat input

a. Otto cycle is more efficient
b. Diesel cycle is more efficient
c. Both are equally efficient
ANSWER a. Otto cycle is more efficient
19. For the same peak pressure and heat input

a. Otto cycle is more efficient
b. Diesel cycle is more efficient
c. Both are equally efficient
ANSWER b. Diesel cycle is more efficient
20. In diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

a. spark
b. injected fuel
c. heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
d. ignitor
ANSWER c. heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
21. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

a. air used for combustion under pressure
b. forced air for cooling the cylinder
c. burnt air containing products of combustion
d. air used for forcing burnt gases out of the engines cylinder during the exhaust stroke
ANSWER d. air used for forcing burnt gases out of the engines cylinder during the
exhaust stroke
22. Supercharging is the process of

a. supplying the engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
b. providing forced cooling air
c. injecting excess fuel
d. raising the exhaust pressure
ANSWER a. supplying the engine with air at a density greater than the density of the
surrounding atmosphere
23. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7 the
percentage increase in efficiency will be
a. 2%
b. 4%
c. 8%
d. 14%
ANSWER d. 14%
24. A spark plug is used in

a. petrol engine
b. diesel engine
c. gas engine
d. steam engine
ANSWER a. petrol engine
25. The air standard Otto cycle comprises

a two constant pressure processes and two constant volume
processes b two constant pressure and two constant entropy
processes
c. two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes
d. none of the above.
ANSWER (c) two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes
26.An ideal air standard Otto cycle has a compression ratio of 8.5. If the ratio of the specific heats is
1.4, then what is thermal efficiency (in percentage) of the Otto cycle?
a. 57.5%
b. 45.7%
c. 52.5%
d. 95%
ANSWER a. 57.5%
27. For an engine operating on air standard Otto cycle, the clearance volume is 10% of the swept
volume. The specific heat ratio of air is 1.4. The air standard cycle efficiency is
a. 38.3 %
b. 39.8 %
c. 60.2 %
d. 61.7 %
ANSWER d. 61.7%
28. A diesel engine is usually more efficient than a spark ignition engine because
a. Diesel being a heavier hydrocarbon, release more heat per kg than gasoline
b. The air standard efficiency of diesel cycle is higher than the Otto cycle, at a fixed compression ratio
c. The compression ratio of a diesel engine is higher than that of an Spark ignition engine
d.Self ignition temperature of diesel is higher than that of gasoline.
ANSWER c. The compression ratio of a diesel engine is higher than that of an S.I engine
29. For spark ignition engine, the equivalence ratio of mixture entering the combustion chamber has
values
(A) for idling and for peak power conditions
(B) for both idling and peak power conditions
(C) for idling and for peak power conditions
(D) for both idling and peak power conditions
ANSWER (B) for both idling and peak power conditions
30. An engine working on air standard Otto cycle has a cylinder diameter of 10 cm and stroke length of
15 cm. The ratio of specific heats for air is 1.4. If the clearance volume is 196.3 cc and the heat
supplied per kg of air per cycle is 1800 kJ/kg, then work output per cycle per kg of air is
a. 879.1 kJ/
b. 890.2 kJ
c. 895.3 kJ
d. 973.5 kJ
ANSWER d. 973.5 kJ
31. The maximum temperature in the I.C engine cylinder is of the order of
a. 500 – 1000 C
b. 1000 – 1500 C
c. 1500 – 2000 C
d. 2000 – 2500 C
ANSWER d. 2000 – 2500 C
32. The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio with increase in cut-off ratio will
a. increase
b. decrease
c. independent
d. increase or decrease depending upon other factors
ANSWER b. decrease
33. Combustion in compression ignition engine is

a. homogeneous
b. heterogeneous
c. laminar
d. turbulent
ANSWER b. heterogeneous
34. The specific fuel consumption per BHP hour for diesel engine is approximately
a. 0.1 kg
b. 0.2 kg
c. 0.3 kg
d. 0.4 kg
ANSWER b. 0.2 kg
35. The specific fuel consumption per BHP hour for petrol engine is approximately
a. 0.1 kg
b. 0.2 kg
c. 0.25 kg
d. 0.35 kg
ANSWER c. 0.25 kg
36. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the engine size in following way
a. injecting more fuel
b. increasing flywheel size
c. scavenging
d. supercharging
ANSWER d. supercharging
37. The air fuel ratio in petrol engines is controlled by

a. valve opening / closing
b. governing
c. carburetion
d. scavenging
ANSWER c. carburetion
38. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine?
a. petrol engine
b. steam turbine
c. diesel engine
d. gas turbine
ANSWER b. steam turbine
39. Most high-speed compression engines operate on

a. diesel cycle
b. Otto cycle
c. dual cycle
d. Carnot cycle
ANSWER c. dual cycle
40. Which of the following medium is compressed in a diesel engine cylinder?

a. air
b. air and fuel
c. air and lubricating oil
d. fuel
ANSWER a. air
41. A supercharger is used to compress

a. air
b. gasoline
c. fuel oil
d. all of the above
ANSWER a. air
42. The term scavenging is generally associated with

a. 2-stroke engine
b. 4-stroke engine
c. high efficiency engine
d. diesel engine
ANSWER C. high efficiency engine
43. If the intake air temperature of Internal combustion engine increases, its efficiency will
a. increase
b. decrease
c.remains same
d unpredictable
ANSWER b. decrease
44. The temperature of interior surface of the cylinder wall in normal operation is not allowed to exceed
a. 80 C
b. 120 C
c. 180 C
d. 240 C
ANSWER c. 180 C
45. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of
the order of
a.6 : 1
b. 9 : 1
c. 12 : 1
d. 15 : 1
Answer d. 15:1
46. The knocking in spark ignition engines can be reduced by

a. Retarding the spark.
b. Increasing the engine speed.
c. Both a and b.
d. None of these.
ANSWER c. Both a and b
47. The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by

a. High self-ignition temperature.
b. Low volatility.
c. High viscosity.
d. All of the above
48. In a 75 cc engine the parameter cc indicates

a. fuel tank capacity
b. lubricating oil capacity
c. swept volume
d. cylinder volume
ANSWER c. swept volume

49. Supercharging is done to
a. increase the efficiency
b. increase the power
c. reduce the weight for a given output achieve fuel economy
ANSWER c. reduce the weight for a given output

50. The mean effective pressure obtained from the engine indicator indicates the
a. maximum pressure developed
b. instantaneous pressure
c. exhaust pressure
d. average pressure
ANSWER d. average pressure
51. The tendency of a petrol engine to knock increases by

a. supercharging
b. scavenging
c. increasing the engine horse power
d. reducing the spark advance
ANSWER a. supercharging
52. Scavenging is usually done to increase the

a. thermal efficiency
b. speed
c. power output
d. fuel consumption
ANSWER c. power output
53. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
a. diesel
b. kerosene
c. gasoline
d. fuel oil
ANSWER c. gasoline
54. Self-ignition temperature of petrol is of the order of

a. 150 C
b. 240 C
c. 370 C
d. more than 500 C
ANSWER d. more than 500 C
55. The self-ignition temperature of diesel oil compared to petrol is

a. higher
b. lower
c. same
d. depends on the quality of fuel
ANSWER a. higher
56. Ignition quality of petrol is expressed by

a. Octane number
b. cetane number
c. calorific value
d. self-ignition temperature
ANSWER a. Octane number
57.The compression ratio of motor cars is

a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 13
ANSWER b. 7
58. The specific gravity of diesel oil is

a. 1
b. 0.85
c. 0.5
d. 0.7
ANSWER b. 0.85
59. The most popular firing order in a 4-cylinder inline internal combustion engine is a.
1-2-3-4
b. 1-3-2-4
c. 1-3-4-2
d. 1-2-4-3
ANSWER b. 1-3-4-2
60. The specific gravity of petrol is about

a. 0.65
b. 0.75
c. 0.85
d. 0.95
ANSWER b. 0.75
61. For the best results of efficient combustion, high speed diesel engines need an approximate cetane
number of
a. 100
b. 50
c. 10
d. 5
ANSWER b. 50
62. Ignition quality of diesel is expressed by

a. octane number
b. cetane number
c. calorific value
d. carbon content
ANSWER b. cetane number
63. Detonation can be controlled by

a. varying the compression ratio
b. using lean mixture
c. retarding the spark timing
d. reducing the rpm
ANSWER c. retarding the spark timing
64. The efficiency of a internal combustion engine normally is of the order of

a. 15-20 %
b. 20-25%
c. 25-30%
d. 30-35%
ANSWER d. 30-35%
65. With the increase in speed of the vehicle, the back pressure will
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remains unaffected
d. depends on other factors
ANSWER b. increase
66. The tendency of a diesel engine to knock increases if

a. engine speed is increased
b. engine power is increased
c. cetane number of the fuel is increased
d. compression ratio is increased
ANSWER d. compression ratio is increased
67. Mixing of air and fuel in the diesel engine occurs in

a. injection pump
b. carburetor
c. engine cylinder
d. inlet manifold
ANSWER c. engine cylinder

68. In a petrol engine, which of the following gas gets exhausted out without burning and
without transformation?
a. CO2
b. CO
c. O2
d. N2
ANSWER d. N2
69. Which of the following engine can work on very lean mixture
a. Spark ignition engine
b. compression ignition engine
c. two stroke engine
d. Four stroke engine
ANSWER b. compression ignition engine
70. If petrol is used in a diesel engine

a. higher knocking will occur
b. efficiency will be low
c. low power will be obtained
d. black smoke will be produced
ANSWER a. higher knocking will occur
71. For low load operation more economical engine is

a. petrol engine
b. diesel engine
c. muticylinder engine
d. two stroke engine
ANSWER b. diesel engine
72. The thermal efficiency of a diesel engine is of the order of

a. 92%
b. 68%
c. 34%
d. 25%
ANSWER c. 34%
73. Piston speed is equal to

a. stroke x rpm
b. (stroke x rpm) / 2
c. 2 x stroke x rpm
d. 4 x stroke x rpm
ANSWER c. 2 x stroke x rpm

74. Octane number of petrol normally used in petrol engines is of the order
of a. 20-30
b. 40-60
c. 60-70
d. 80-90
ANSWER d. 80-90
75.Thermal efficiency of an internal combustion engine on weak mixture is

a. higher
b. lower
c. unaffected
d. unpredictable
ANSWER a. higher
76. Cetane number is a measure of

a. ignition quality
b. addition in fuel
c. calorific value of fuel
d. viscosity of the fuel
ANSWER a. ignition quality
77. The back pressure of petrol engine is usually

a. 1 ata
b. 1.2 ata
c. 0.8 ata
d. 2 ata.
ANSWER b. 1.2 ata
78. If diesel is used in a petrol engine

a. engine will not run
b. engine detonates
c. engine gives smoke
d. engine knocks
ANSWER a. engine will not run
79. Cetane number of petrol is around

a. 10
b. 15-20
c. 35
d. 55-70
ANSWER b. 15-20
80. A engine will generate maximum torque when it

a. runs at maximum speed
b. develops maximum power
c. runs at lowest speed
d. consumes more fuel
ANSWER c. runs at lowest speed
81.Vapour lock is
a. complete or partial stoppage of fuel supply due to vaporization of the fuel
b. locking of carburetor due to high vapor pressure
c. excess fuel supply to the engine
d. supply of liquid fuel to the engine
ANSWER a. complete or partial stoppage of fuel supply due to vaporization of the

fuel
82. Which of the following is not related to spark ignition engine?

a. fuel injector
b. spark plug
c. flywheel
d. distributor
ANSWER a. fuel injector
83. If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine is lowered, the efficiency will
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remains same
d. increases upto certain limit and then decrease
ANSWER a. increase
84. The process of breaking up a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called
a. vaporization
b. carburetion
c. injection
d. atomization
ANSWER d. atomization
85. In diesel engine, the compression ratio as compared with the expansion ratio is
a. same
b. less
c. more
d. variable
ANSWER c. more
86. Specific fuel consumption is defined as

a. fuel consumption per hour
b. fuel consumed per km.
c. fuel consumed per BHP
d. fuel consumed per hour per BHP
ANSWER d. fuel consumed per hour per BHP
87. As a result of detonation in Internal combustion engines the following parameter attains very high
value.
a. peak pressure
b. rate of rise of pressure
c. rate of rise of temperature.
d. peak temperature.
ANSWER b. rate of rise of pressure
88. Diesel as compared to petrol is

a. more difficult to ignite
b. less difficult to ignite
c. highly ignitable
d. just about the same difficult to ignite
ANSWER a. more difficult to ignite
89. Engine pistons are usually made of aluminium alloy as it

a. is lighter
b. wears less
c. absorbs shocks
d. is stronger
ANSWER a. is lighter
90. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine cannot work is

a. 8:1
b. 10:1
c. 20:1 and
less d. 15:1
ANSWER c. 20:1 and less
91. The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by

a. High self-ignition temperature.
b. Low volatility.
c. High viscosity.
d. all of the above

92.In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes
a. Haphazard motion of the gases in the cylinder
b. Rotary motion of the gases in the cylinder.
c. Radial motion of the gases in the cylinder.
ANSWER a. Haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
93. The knocking in spark ignition engines can be reduced by

a. Retarding the spark.
b. Increasing the engine speed.
c. Both a and b
d. None of these.
ANSWER c. Both a and b.
94.An engine indicator is used to determine the following

a. Speed.
b. Temperature.
c. Volume of cylinder.
d. Mean effective pressure and Indicated horse power.
ANSWER d. Mean effective pressure and Indicated horse power.
95. Normally, an engine is warmed up at

a. Full-speed with load.
b. Full-speed without load.
c. Reduced speed with load.
d. Reduced speed without load.
ANSWER b. full-speed without load
96. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air

standard cycle efficiency is called
a. net efficiency
b. efficiency ratio
c. relative efficiency
d. overall efficiency
ANSWER c. relative efficiency
97. All heat engines utilize

a. lower heating value of oil
b. higher heating value of oil
c.net calorific value of oil
d. calorific value of fuel
ANSWER a. lower heating value of oil
98. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of

a.5-10 kg/cm2
b. 20-25
kg/cm2 c 60-
80 kg/cm2
d. 90-130 kg/cm2
ANSWER d. 90-130 kg/cm2
99. The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoretical
air required for complete combustion is
a. more
b. less
c. same
d. may be more or less depending on engine capacity
ANSWER b. less
100. The accumulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of

a. clearance volume
b. volumetric efficiency
c. ignition time
d. effective compression ratio
ANSWER d. effective compression ratio
THERMAL ENGINEERING
AIR COMPRESSORS
1. A large clearance volume in reciprocating compressor results in

A. reduced volume flow rate
B.Increased volume flow rate
C.Lower suction pressure
D. Lower delivery pressure
ANSWER: A
2. In a reciprocating air compressor the compressor work per kg of air

A. Increases as clearance volume increases
B.Decreases as clearance volume increases
C.Is independent of clearance volume
D. Increases with clearance volume only of multistage compressor
ANSWER: C
3. Which one of the following is correct?
A. In a multistage compressor adiabatic efficiency is less than stage efficiency
B.In a multistage turbine adiabatic efficiency is less than the stage efficiency
C.Preheat factor for a multistage compressor is greater than one
D. Preheat factor does not affect the multistage compressor performance
ANSWER: A
4. In reciprocating compressors, one should aim at compressing the air

A. Adiabatically
B.Isentropically
C.Isothermally
D. Polytropically
ANSWER: C
5. The power required to drive a turbo compressor for a given pressure ratio decreases when
A. Air is heated at entry
B.Air is cooled at entry
C.Air is cooled at exit
D. Air is heated at exit
ANSWER: B
6. Which one of the following statements are correct for reciprocating air compressor?
A. Its volumetric efficiency increases with increasing clearance ratio
B.Its volumetric efficiency increases with pressure ratio
C.Its volumetric efficiency does not vary with change in clearance ratio and pressure ratio
D. Its volumetric efficiency decreases with increasing clearance ratio and pressure ratio
ANSWER: D
7. In a two stage reciprocating air compressor, the suction and delivery pressure are 1 and 4 bar
respectively. For maximum efficiency the intercooler pressure is
A. 1.5 bar
B.2 bar
C.2.5 bar
D. 3 bar
ANSWER: B
8. For minimum work input in a two stage compression process the intermediated pressure is the
A. Arithmetic process of suction and discharge pressure
B.Logarithmic mean of suction and discharge pressure
C.Geometric mean of suction and discharge pressure
D. Hyperbolic mean of suction and discharge
ANSWER: C
9. Which one of the following statement is not correct for the volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating
air compressor?
A. It decreases with increase in ambient temperature
B.It increases with decrease in pressure ratio
C.It increases with decrease in clearance ratio
D. It decreases with increases in delivery pressure
ANSWER: A
10. In a single stage reciprocating air compressor, the work done on air to compressor is from suction
pressure to delivery pressure will be minimum when the compression is
A. Isothermal process
B.Adiabatic process
C.Polytropic process
D. Constant pressure process.
ANSWER: A
11. In a two stage reciprocating air compressor with a suction pressure of 2 bar and delivery pressure of 8
bar the ideal intercooler pressure will be
A. 10 bar
B.6 bar
C.4 bar
D. 3 bar
ANSWER: C
12. For a two stage compressor, the ratio of diameter of low pressure cylinder to high pressure cylinder is
equal to
A. Square of the ratio of final pressure to initial pressure
B.The ratio of final pressure to initial pressure
C.The square root of the ratio of final pressure to initial pressure
D. Cube root of the ratio of final pressure to initial pressure
ANSWER: C
13. Which one of the following methods can be adopted to obtain isothermal compression in an
air compressor?
A. Increasing the weight of the compressor
B.Inter-stage heating
C.Atmospheric cooling
D. Providing appropriate dimensions to the cylinder
ANSWER: A
14. The pressure rise in the impeller of centrifugal compressor is achieved by

A. the decrease in volume and diffusion action
B.the centrifugal action and decrease in volume
C.the centrifugal and diffusion action
D. the centrifugal and push pull action
ANSWER: D
15. Which one of the following types of impeller vanes are most commonly used in centrifugal
type compressors?
A. Forward curved
B.Radial
C.Backward curved
D. Tangential
ANSWER: C
16. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Reciprocating compressors are used to supply large quantities of air at a lower pressure ratio
B.Centrifugal compressors are used to supply large quantities of air at a lower pressure ratio
C.Centrifugal compressors are used to supply small quantities of air at a lower pressure ratio
D. Centrifugal compressors cannot be run at high speed because of impeller, diffuser and casing.
ANSWER: B
17. In a centrifugal compressor an increase in speed at a given pressure ratio causes

A. Increase in flow and increase in efficiency
B.Increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
C.Decrease in flow and increase in efficiency
D. Decrease in flow and decrease in efficiency
ANSWER: B
18. The specific speed of a centrifugal compressor is generally

A. less than that of reciprocating compressor
B.independent of compressor type, but depends only on size of compressor
C.higher than that of axial compressor
D. more than specific speed of reciprocating compressor but less than axial compressor
ANSWER: C
19. For a multistage compressor, the polytropic efficiency is

A. the efficiency of all stages combined together
B.the efficiency of one stage
C.Constant throughout for all the stages
D. a direct consequence of the pressure ratio
ANSWER: C
20. Surging basically implies

A. Unsteady, periodic and reversed flow
B.Forward motion of air at a speed above sonic velocity
C.The surging action due to the blast of air produced in a compressor
D. Forward movement of aircraft
ANSWER: A
21. Which one of the following type of compressor is mostly used for supercharging of I.C engine
A. Radial flow compressor
B.Axial flow compressor
C.Root blower
D. Reciprocating compressor.
ANSWER: C
22. In centrifugal compressor terminology, vaneless space refers to the space between
A. The inlet and blade inlet edge
B.Blades in the impeller
C.Diffuser exit and volute casing
D. Impeller tip and diffuser inlet edge
ANSWER: D
23. Reciprocating compressor are provided with

A. Simple disc/plate valve
B.Poppet valve
C.Spring-loaded disc valve
D. Solenoid valve.
ANSWER: A
24. Work input to the air compressor with n as index of compression

A. Increases with increase in value of n
B.Decrease with increase in value of n
C.remains same whatever the value of n
D. first increase and then decreases with increase of value of n.
ANSWER: A
25. In reciprocating air compressor the clearance ratio is given by A.

B.
C.
D.
ANSWER: C
26. With suction pressure being atmospheric, increase in delivery pressure with fixed clearance volume
A. increase volumetric efficiency
B.decrease volumetric efficiency
C.does not change volumetric efficiency
D. First increase volumetric efficiency and then decrease it
ANSWER: B
27. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor without clearance volume

A. Increases with increase in compression ratio
B.Decreases wit increase in compression ratio
C.Not dependent upon compression ratio
D. Unpredictable
ANSWER: C
28. In multi stage compressor, the isothermal compression is achieved by

A. Employing intercooler
B.By constantly cooling the cylinder
C.By running compressor at very slow speed
D. By insulating the cylinder
ANSWER: C
29. Compressor at high altitude will draw
A. More power
B.Less power
C.Same power
D. Unpredictable
ANSWER: B
30. Volumetric efficiency of air compressor is of the order of

A. 20% to 30 %
B. 40% to 50%
C. 60% to 70%
D. 70% to
90%
ANSWER: D
31. The area of actual indicator diagram on an air compressor as compared to area of ideal indicator
diagram is
A. Less
B.More
C.Same
D. Unpredictable
ANSWER: B
32. The clearance volume of the air compressor is kept minimum because
A. It allows maximum compression to be achieved
B.It greatly affects volumetric efficiency
C.It results in minimum work
D. It permits isothermal compression
ANSWER: B
33. The capacity of the compressor will be highest when its intake temperature is
A. Lowest
B.highest
C.Atmospheric
D. Unpredictable
ANSWER: C
35. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar, then
the delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be
A. 1 bar
B.16 bar
C.64 bar
D. 256 bar
ANSWER: C
36. In a single acting reciprocating compressor, the suction, compression and delivery of air takes place in
A. One stroke
B.Two stroke
C.Three stroke
D. Four stroke
ANSWER: B
37. The capacity of a compressor is expressed in

A.
B.
C.
D.
ANSWER: C
38. The maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is

A. 10 bar
B.20 bar
C.30 bar
D. 50 bar
ANSWER: A
39. Intercooling in multistage compression is done

A. To cool the air during compression
B.To cool the air at delivery
C.To enable compression in two stages
D. To minimize the work of compression
ANSWER: D
40. The ratio of work done per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is known as
A. Compressor capacity
B.Compression ratio
C.Compressor efficiency
D. Mean effective pressure
ANSWER: D
41. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called

A. Free air delivery
B.Compressor capacity
C.Swept volume
D. Mean effective pressure
ANSWER: B
42. Rotary compressors are used for delivering

A. Small quantities of air at high pressure
B.Large quantities of air at high pressure
C.Small quantities of air at low pressure
D.Large quantities of air at low pressure
ANSWER: D
43. In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in speed at a given pressure ratio causes

A. Increase in flow
B.Decrease in flow
C.Increase in efficiency
D. Increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
ANSWER: D
44. A large clearance volume in a reciprocating compressor results in

A. Reduced volume flow rate
B.Increased volume flow rate
C.Lower suction pressure
D. Lower delivery pressure
ANSWER: A
45. The ratio of indicated power to shaft power of the engine required to drive the compressor is called
A. Compressor efficiency
B.Volumetric efficiency
C.Isothermal efficiency
D. Mechanical efficiency
ANSWER: D
46. Clearance volume in compressor should be

A. As large as possible
B.As small as possible
C.About 50% of swept volume
D. About 100% of swept volume
ANSWER: B
47. Separators are generally installed in compressor

A. After the intercooler
B.Before the intercooler
C.Before the receiver
D. After the intercooler
ANSWER: A
48. Compressor mostly used for supercharging of IC engine is

A. Radial flow compressor
B.Axial flow compressor
C.Root blower compressor
D. Reciprocating compressor
ANSWER: A
49. Adiabatic compression is one in which

A. Temperature during compression remains constant
B.No heat leaves or enters the compressor cylinder during compression
C.Temperature rise follows a linear relationship
D. Work done is maximum.
ANSWER: B
50. The compressor performance at higher altitude compare to sea level will be
A. Same
B.Higher
C.Lower
D. Unpredictable
ANSWER: C
THERMAL ENGINEERING
IC PART 2
1. Reference fuels for knock rating of SI engine fuels would include

(a) Iso octane alpha methyl naphthalene
(b) Normal octance and aniline
(c) Isooctance and n octane
(d) N heptane and iso octane
Ans : d
2. A gas engine has a volume of 300 cc and clearance volume of 25 cc. Its volumetric efficiency is
0.8 and mech efficiency is 0.9. What is the volume of the mixture taken in per stroke?
(a) 248 cc
(b) 252 cc
(c) 264 cc
(d) 286 cc
Ans :c
3. The two reference fuel used for cetane rating are

(a) Cetane and iso octane
(b) Cetane and tetra ethyl lead
(c) Cetance and n-heptane
(d) Cetane and α- methyl naphthalene
Ans :d
4. By higher octane number of SI fuel, it is meant that the fuel has

(a) Higher heating value
(b) Higher flash point
(c) Lower volatility
(d) Longer ignition delay
Ans :d
5. Keeping other parameters constant brake power of diesel engine can be increased by
(a) Decreasing the density of intake air
(b) Increasing the temperature of intake air
(c) Increasing the pressure of intake air
(d) Decreasing the pressure of intake air
Ans :c
6. The method of determination of indicated power of multi cylinder SI engine is by use of

(a) Morse test
(b) Prony brake test
(c) Motoring test
(d) Heat balance test
Ans :a
7. Ratio of actual indicated work to hypothetical indicated work in a steam engine is the
(a) Indicated thermal efficiency
(b) Friction factor
(c) Mechanical efficiency
(d) Diagram factor
Ans :d
8. Which one of the following types of compressor is mostly used for supercharging of IC engines?
(a) Radial flow compressor
(b) Axial flow compressor
(c) Root blower
(d) Reciprocating compressor
Ans :c
9. A two stroke engine has a speed of 750 rpm. A four stroke engine having an identical cylinder size
runs at 1500 rpm. The theoretical output of the two stroke engine will
(a) Be twice that of the four stroke engine
(b) Be half that of the four stroke engine
(c) Be the same as that of the four stoke
(d) Depend upon whether it is a CI or SI engine
Ans :c
10. For same power output and same r, as compared to 2- stroke engines, four stroke SI engines
have
(a) Higher fuel consumption
(b) Lower thermal efficiency
(c) Highest exhaust temperatures
(d) Higher thermal efficiency
Ans :d
11. In a SI engine, which one of the following is the correct order of the fuels with
increasing detonation tendency?
(a) Paraffins, olefins, naphthenes, aromatics
(b) Aromatics, naphthenes, paraffins, olefins
(c) Naphthenes, olefins, aromatics, paraffins
(d) Aromatics, naphthenes, olefins, paraffins
Ans :d
12. Velocity of flame propagation in SI engine is maximum for a fuel air mixture which is
(a) 10% richer than stoichiometric
(b) Equal to stoichiometric
(c) More than 10% richer than stoichiometric
(d) 10% leaner than stoichiometric
Ans :a
13. In a variable speed SI engine, the maximum torque occurs at the maximum
(a) Speed
(b) Brake power
(c) Indicated power
(d) Volumetric efficiency
Ans :d
14. In a morse test for a 2 cylinder, 2 S SI engine, the brake power was 9 kW. Whereas the brake
power of individual cylinders with spark cut off were 4.25 kW and 3.75 kW. The mecheffic of the
engine is
(a) 90%
(b) 80%
(c) 45.5%
(d) 52.5%
Ans :a
15. In a 4 S diesel engine, the term ‘squish’ refers to the

(a) Injection of fuel in the precombustion chamber
(b) Discharge of gases from the precombustion chamber
(c) Entry of air into the combustion chamber
(d) Stripping of fuel from the
core Ans :c
16. In SI engines knocking can be reduced by

(a) Increasing the compression ratio
(b) Increasing the cooling water temperature
(c) Retarding the spark advance
(d) Increasing the inlet air temperature
Ans :c
17. The tendency of knocking in CI engine reduces by

(a) High self ignition temperature of fuel
(b) Decrease in jacket water temperature
(c) Injection of fuel just before TDC
(d) Decrease in injection pressure
Ans :c
18. If the performance of diesel engine of different sizes, cylinder dimensions and power rating are to
be compared, which of the following parameters can be used for such comparison?
(a) Swept volume
(b) Air fuel ratio
(c) Specific brake fuel consumption
(d) Volumetric efficiency
Ans :c
19. Which of the following factors increases the tendency of knocking in the CI engines?
(a) Increasing both the r and coolant temperatures
(b) Increasing both the speed and the injection advance
(c) Increasing the speed, injection advance and coolant temperature
(d) Increasing the compression ratio
Ans :c
20. The stoichiometric air fuel ration for petrol is 15:1 . What is the air fuel ratio required
for maximum power?
(a) 16:1 – 18:1
(b) 15:1
(c) 12:1 – 14:1
(d) 9:1 – 11:1
Ans :c
21. A 4S diesel engine, when running at 2000 rpm has an injection duration of 1.5 ms.What is the
corresponding of the crank angle in degrees?
(a) 18°
(b) 9°
(c)36°
(d) 15°
Ans :a
22. An engine produces 10 kW brake power while working with a brake thermal efficiency of 30%. If the
calorific value of the fuel used is 40000 kJ/kg, then what is the fuel consumption?
(a) 1.5 kg/hour
(b) 3 kg/hour
(c) 0.3 kg/hour
(d) 1 kg/hour
Ans :b
23. Which one of the following cannot be controlled by a 3 way catalytic converter?
(a) HC emission
(b) CO emission
(c) NOx emission
(d) SPM emission
Ans :d
24. A 40 kW engine has a mechanical efficiency of 80 %. If the frictional power is assumed to be

constant with load, what is the approximate value of the mechanical efficiency at 50 % of the
rated load?
(a) 45%
(b) 55 %
(c) 65%
(d) 75%
Ans :c
25. The knocking tendency in CI engines increases with

(a) Increase of coolant water temperature
(b) Increase of temperature of inlet air
(c) Decrease of compression ratio
(d) Increase of compression ratio
Ans :c
26. Hydrogen gas has less than the density of air.

a)1/12th
b) 1/10th
c)2/3rd
d) 1/3rd
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
27. The heating value per unit volume of hydrogen gas is less than that of air.
a)1/12th
b) 1/10th
c)2/3rd
d) 1/3rd
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None
28. The normal heptane(C7H16) is given a rating of octane number.

a) 0
b) 50
c) 100
d) 120
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
29. A fuel of an octane number rating of 75 matches in knocking intensity as a mixture of

a) 75% iso-octane and 25% normal heptane
b) 75% normal heptane and 25% iso-octane
c) 75% petrol and 25% diesel
d) 75% diesel and 25% petrol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
30. A mixture containing 65% of iso-octane and 35% of normal heptane will have
a) cetane number 65
b) octane number 65
c) cetane number 35
d) octane number 35
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A mixture containing 65% of iso-octane and 35% of normal heptane will have octane
number 65 as octane number is the number percentage containing iso-octane.
31. A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of
a) 40% cetane and 60% alpha methyl naphthalene
b) 40% alpha methyl naphthalene and 60% cetane
c) 40% petrol and 60% diesel
d) 40% diesel and 60% petrol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of 40% cetane
and 60% alpha methyl naphthalene as cetane number is counted on cetane percentage.
32. Anti-knock for compression ignition engines is

a) napthene
b) tetra ethyl lead
c) amyl nitrate
d) hexadecane
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Amyl nitrate is the anti-knock for compression ignition engines.
33. Which of the following fuel has little tendency towards detonation?
a) Benzene
b) Iso-octane
c) Normal heptane
d) Alcohol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Benzene has little tendency towards detonation.
34. Which of the following fuel detonates readily?

a) Benzene
b) Iso-octane
c) Normal heptane
d) Alcohol
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Normal heptane detonates readily.
35. Disadvantage of hydrogen as a fuel in IC engine is

a) storage is safe
b) low NOx
c) detonating tendency
d) easy handling
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
36. Major constituent of natural gas is

a) ethane
b) methane
c) butane
d) propane
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Only methane is the major constituent of natural gas.
37. Octane of natural gas is

a) 60-80
b) 80-100
c) >100
d) <60
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The octane number of natural gas is always > 100.
38. L-MPFI system uses

a) port injection
b) direct injection
c) manifold injection
d) throttle body injection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: L-MPFI system uses port injection while multi-point fuel injection system uses port injection
and throttle body injection while D-MPFI system uses direct injection.
39. D-MPFI system uses

a) port injection
b) direct injection
c) manifold injection
d) throttle body injection
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: D-MPFI system uses direct injection and L-MPFI system uses port injection while multi-
point fuel injection system uses port injection and throttle body injection.
40. Common rail injection system uses injection pressures of the order a)
100-200 bar
b) 200-400 bar
c) 400-600 bar
d) 1500 bar
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Generally, common rail injection system uses injection pressures of the order 1500
bar.
41. Continuous injection system usually has

a) plunger pump
b) rotary pump
c) gear pump
d) vane pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In common use continuous injection system usually has rotary pump.
42. With EFI of diesel engines

a) sharp start and stop is not possible
b) very high injection pressure can be obtained
c) sudden cylinder cut-off is impossible
d) diagnostic properties are poor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally, with EFI of diesel engines very high injection pressure can be obtained.
43. senor senses the amount of oxygen in the engine exhaust and calculates air-fuel
ratio.
a) Engine temperature
b) Exhaust gas
c) Air flow
d) Air inlet temperature
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Exhaust gas senor senses the amount of oxygen in the engine exhaust and calculates
air- fuel ratio while engine temperature sensor senses the temperature of the engine coolant, and
from this data the computer adjusts the mixture strength to rich side for cold starting.
44. In sensor, output voltage changes in proportion to air-fuel ratio.

a) engine temperature
b) exhaust gas
c) air flow
d) air inlet temperature
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Only in exhaust gas sensor, output voltage changes in proportion to air-fuel ratio.
45. The sensor senses the temperature of the engine coolant, and from this data the
computer adjusts the mixture strength to rich side for cold starting.
b) exhaust gas
c) air flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The engine temperature sensor senses the temperature of the engine coolant, and
from this data the computer adjusts the mixture strength to rich side for cold starting while the
air flow sensor, monitors mass or volume of air flowing into the intake manifold for adjusting the
quantity of fuel and exhaust gas senor senses the amount of oxygen in the engine exhaust and
calculates air-fuel ratio.
46 The sensor, monitors mass or volume of air flowing into the intake
manifold for adjusting the quantity of fuel.
b) exhaust gas
c) air flow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The air flow sensor, monitors mass or volume of air flowing into the intake
manifold for adjusting the quantity of fuel while exhaust gas senor senses the amount of
oxygen in the engine exhaust and calculates air-fuel ratio.
47. The sensor, checks the temperature of the ambient air entering the engine for
fine tuning the mixture strength.
b) exhaust gas
c) air flow
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The air inlet temperature sensor, checks the temperature of the ambient air
entering the engine for fine tuning the mixture strength whereas the engine temperature sensor
senses the temperature of the engine coolant, and from this data the computer adjusts the
mixture strength to rich side for cold starting while the air flow sensor, monitors mass or volume
of air flowing into the intake manifold for adjusting the quantity of fuel and exhaust gas senor
senses the amount of oxygen in the engine exhaust and calculates air-fuel ratio.
48. The sensor, senses the movement of the throttle plate so that the mixture flow can
be adjusted for engine speed and acceleration.
a) throttle position
b) manifold pressure
c) camshaft position
d) knock
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The throttle position sensor, senses the movement of the throttle plate so that the
mixture flow can be adjusted for engine speed and acceleration while the manifold pressure
sensor, monitors vacuum in the engine intake manifold so that the mixture strength can be
adjusted with changes in engine load and the camshaft position sensor, senses rotation of engine
camshaft for speed and timing of injection.
49. The sensor, monitors vacuum in the engine intake manifold so that the mixture
strength can be adjusted with changes in engine load.
d) knock
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The manifold pressure sensor, monitors vacuum in the engine intake manifold so that
the mixture strength can be adjusted with changes in engine load and the camshaft position sensor,
senses rotation of engine camshaft for speed and timing of injection.
50. The sensor, senses rotation of engine camshaft for speed and timing of injection.
d) knock
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The camshaft position sensor, senses rotation of engine camshaft for speed and timing of
injection whereas the throttle position sensor, senses the movement of the throttle plate so that the
mixture flow can be adjusted for engine speed and acceleration while the manifold pressure
sensor, monitors vacuum in the engine intake manifold so that the mixture strength can be
adjusted with changes in engine load.
51. The sensor,is a microphone type sensor that detects ping or pre-ignition noise so
that the ignition timing can be retarded.
d) knock
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The knock sensor,is a microphone type sensor that detects ping or pre-ignition noise
so that the ignition timing can be retarded while the camshaft position sensor, senses rotation
of engine camshaft for speed and timing of injection whereas the throttle position sensor, senses
the movement of the throttle plate so that the mixture flow can be adjusted for engine speed and
acceleration while
the manifold pressure sensor, monitors vacuum in the engine intake manifold so that the mixture
strength can be adjusted with changes in engine load.
52. In electronic fuel injection, there is improvement in the efficiency due to

comparatively less resistance in the intake manifolds which will cause less pressure losses.
a) mechanical
b) volumetric
c) overall
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In electronic fuel injection, there is improvement only in the volumetric efficiency due
to comparatively less resistance in the intake manifolds which will cause less pressure losses and no
other efficiencies are hindered.
53. The methods used on fuel injection are :

a) air injection
b) mechanical injection
c) solid fuel injection
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The methods used on fuel injection are air injection, mechanical injection and solid fuel
injection.
54. Removal of air from the pipeline is termed as in injection system.

a) bleeding
b) wound
c) sweating
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally, the removal of air from the pipeline is termed as bleeding in injection
system.
55. The usual types of diesel injectors are :

a) single hole injector
b) multi hole injector
c) long stem injector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The types of diesel injectors are single hole injector, multi hole injector and long stem
injector.
56. In pre-chamber and swirl type of combustion system is used.

a) single hole injector
b) multi hole injector
c) long stem injector
d) pintle nozzle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In pre-chamber and swirl type of combustion system pintle nozzle is used and not the
other nozzles.
57. is used to enable cold starting, with out the use of a heater plug.
a) Pintaux nozzle
b) Multi hole injector
c) Long stem injector
d) Pintle nozzle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally, intaux nozzle is used to enable cold starting, with out the use of a heater
plug.
58. If one or more nozzles are not spraying correctly then occurs.
a) dripping
b) misfiring
c) cold firing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If one or more nozzles are not spraying correctly then misfiring occurs and not cold
firing.
59. Solid injection is also called

a) air injection
b) mechanical injection
c) compression fuel injection
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally, solid injection is also called mechanical injection.
60. Fuel is injected into the cylinder at the end of stroke.

a) suction
b) compression
c) expansion
d) exhaust
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fuel is injected into the cylinder at the end of compression stroke and not at
suction or expansion stroke.
61. In injection system only one pump is sufficient for multi-cylinder engine.
a) air
b) mechanical
c) compression fuel
d) common rail
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
62. Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to alcohols as alternate fuel in
IC engines
a) anti-knock characteristics of alcohol is poor
b) alcohol contains about half the heat energy of gasoline/litre
c) alcohol does not vaporize as easily as gasoline
d) alcohols are corrosive in nature
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Anti-knock characteristics of alcohol is good.
63. Gasohol is a mixture of

a) 90% ethanol + 10% gasoline
b) 10% ethanol + 90% gasoline
c) 40% ethanol + 60% gasoline
d) 50% ethanol + 50% gasoline
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 10% ethanol + 90% gasoline makes gashol.
64. Small amount of gasoline is added to alcohol to

a) reduce the emission
b) to increase the power output
c) to increase the efficiency
d) to improve cold weather starting
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
65. Alcohols alone cannot be used in CI engines as

a) their self ignition temperature is high
b) latent heat of vaporization is high
c) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
66. Paraffins are generally represented by

a) CnHn
b) CnH2n
c) CnH2n+2
d) CnH2n-6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Paraffins are generally represented by CnH2n+2 while olefins are generally represented
by CnHn .
67. Paraffins have molecular structure of

a) chain saturated
b) chain unsaturated
c) ring saturated
d) ring unsaturated
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
68. Olefins are generally represented by

a) CnHn
b) CnH2n
c) CnH2n+2
d) CnH2n-6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Olefins are represented by CnHn and paraffins are generally represented by CnH2n+2.
69. Hydrocarbons are decomposed into smaller hydrocarbons by

a) reforming
b) refining
c) cracking
d) polymerization
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrocarbons are decomposed into smaller hydrocarbons by cracking while the molecular
structure of the straight-run gasoline is changed by reforming.
70. The molecular structure of the straight-run gasoline is changed by

a) reforming
b) refining
c) cracking
d) boiling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The molecular structure of the straight-run gasoline is changed by reforming and
hydrocarbons are decomposed into smaller hydrocarbons by cracking.
71. For S.I. engines fuel most preferred are

a) aromatics
b) paraffins
c) olefins
d) napthenes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For S.I. engines fuel most preferred are aromatics while for C.I. engines fuel most
preferred are paraffins.
72. For C.I. engines fuel most preferred are

a) aromatics
b) paraffins
c) olefins
d) napthenes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For C.I. engines fuel most preferred are paraffins and for S.I. engines fuel most
preferred are aromatics.
73. In spark ignition engines, the knocking tendency can be decreased by

a) decreasing compression ratio
b) controlling intake throttle
c) controlling ignition timing
d) adding dopes like tetraethyl lead and ethylene dibromide
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
74. In two stroke engine, which of the following functions are performed at the same time?
a. Compression and exhaust
b. Intake and Expansion
c. Intake and exhaust
d. Intake and compression
(Ans:c)
75. The compression ratio in a Compression Ignition (CI) engine is generally in

between
a. 8 to 13
b. 14 to 23
c. 20 to 28
d. 25 to 32
(Ans:b)
76. The compression ratio in a Spark Ignition (SI) engine is generally in

between
a. 7 to 10
b. 10 to 14
c. 14 to 18
d. 18 to 22
(Ans:a)
77. Which of the following is not true for two stroke engine as compared to
four stroke engine?
a. Less cooling is required
b. Greater lubrication is required
c. More uniform torque on crankshaft
d. Complete exhaust of products of combustion
(Ans:a)
78. The relation between Indicated power (ip), Friction power (fp) and
Brake power (bp) is
a. ip = fp – bp
b. ip = fp + bp
c. bp = ip + fp
d. bp = ip / fp
(Ans:b)
79. Which of the following is not true for internal combustion engine as
compare to external combustion engine?
a. It has lower ratio of weight to output
b. They are self starting
c. Higher overall efficiency
d. Mechanical simplicity
(Ans:b)
80. Heat engine uses energy to produce mechanical work.

a. Thermal
b. Fluid
c. Kinetic
d. Electric
(Ans:a)
81. Which of the following is not an internal Combustion (IC) engine?

a. Gas engine
b. Wankel engine
c. Jet engine
d. Stirling engine
(Ans:d)
82. The energy of expanding gas is transferred by piston to connecting rod

through
a. Crank pin
b. Gudgeon pin
c. Bearing
d. Crankcase
(Ans:b)
83. Which of the following is not used in four stroke compression-ignition (CI)
engines?
a. Fuel pump
b. Spark plug
c. Fuel injector
d. Inlet and outlet Valves
(Ans:b)
84.In compression ignition (CI) engine, the compression ratio is

a. Cylinder volume / Clearance volume
b. Swept Volume / Cylinder Volume
c. Clearance volume / Cylinder volume
d. Cylinder volume / Swept volume
(Ans:a)
85. In two stroke engine there is one

power stroke in of crankshaft rotation.
a. 90°
b. 180°
c. 270°
d. 360°
(Ans:d)
86. In four stroke engine there is one

power stroke in of crankshaft rotation.
a. 180°
b. 360°
c. 540°
d. 720°
(Ans:d)
87. The ascending order of strokes in four stroke engine is

a. Suction stroke – Expansion stroke – Compression stroke – Exhaust stroke
b. Suction stroke – Compression stroke – Expansion stroke –Exhaust stroke
c. Suction stroke – Expansion stroke – Exhaust stroke – Compression stroke
d. Suction stroke – Compression stroke – Exhaust stroke – Expansion stroke (Ans:b)
88. In four stroke engine which of the following is also known as power
stroke
a. Suction stroke
b. Compression stroke
c. Expansion stroke
d. Exhaust stroke
(Ans:c)
Applied Thermal Engineering

Multiple Choice Questions
Measurements of fuel and air consumption, brake power and in-

cylinder pressure. Tutorials on engine performance parameters.
Heat balance sheet. Engine performance curves.
1. The increase in intake air temperature into IC engine, its efficiency

A. increase
B. decrease
C. does not alter
D. unpredictable
on ANSWER: B
2. An engine indicator is used to determine the following
A. Speed
B. Temperature
C. M.E.P
D. Volume of
cylinder ANSWER: C
3. In a typical medium speed 4- stroke Diesel engine, the inlet valve
A. opens 20°before top dead centre and closes at 35°afterthebottomdead centre.
B. opens up at top dead centre and closes at bottomdead centre
C. may open orcloseanywhere
D. remains open for 200°
ANSWER: A
4. Combustion in compressionignitionengineis
A. homogeneous
B. hetrogeneous
C. Bothhomogeneous and hetrogeneous
D. Laminar
ANSWER: B
5. The specific fuel consumption for diesel engine is approximately
A. 0.15 kg/kWh
B. 0.2 kg/kWh
C. 28 kg/kWh
D. 0.36
kg/kWh ANSWER: B
6. The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to the theoretical
air requirement for complete combustion is
A. more
B.unpredictable
C. same
D. less
ANSWER: D
7. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than others , then for that cylinder the
A. exhaust will be smoky
B. scavenging occurs
C. exhaust temperature will be high
D. engine starts
overheating ANSWER: B
8. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the engine speed or size in
the following way
A. feeding more fuel
B. increasing the flywheel size
C. heating intake air
D. supercharging
ANSWER: D
9. The process of breaking up or liquid into fine droplets by spraying is
A. vaporization
B. atomization
C. condensation
D. evaporation
ANSWER: B
10. As a result of detonation in an I.C engine, following parameter attains a high value
A. peak temperature
B. peak pressure
C. rate of pressure rise
D. rate of temperature
rise ANSWER: C
11. The accumulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of
A. clearance volume
B. volumetric efficiency
C. ignition time
D. effective compression
ratio ANSWER: D
12. Which of the following is compressed in a diesel engine cylinder
A. air
B. fuel
C. air and fuel
D. air and lub oil
ANSWER: A
13. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is governed by
A. fuel pump
B. governor
C. carburetor
D. injector
ANSWER: C
14. In diesel engine the fuel injected would burn instantaneously at about compressed
air temperature of
A. 1000°C
B. 250°C
C. 450°C
D. 2000°C
ANSWER: A
15. Whencrudeoilisheated, which of thefollowinghydrocarbonisgiven off first

A. kerosene
C. gasolene
C. natural gas
D. paraffin
ANSWER: C
16. A 100 cc engine has thefollowingparameter as 100 cc
A. fuel tankcapacity
B. sweptvolume
C. luboilcapacity
D. clearence
volumen ANSWER: B
17. Whenthecrankshaft of 4-stroke running at 1500 rpm thecamshaftwillrun at
A. 3000 rpm
B. 6000 rpm
C. 1500 rpm
D. 750 rpm
ANSWER: D
18. Engine pistons are usually made of aluminium alloy because it
A. is lighter
B. wears less
C. Stronger
D. absorbs
shocks ANSWER: A
19. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol engine compared to diesel engine of same H.P is
A. same
B.more
C. less
D. unpredictable
ANSWER: B
20. A diesel engine compared to petrol engine, running at full load is
A. less efficient
B. equally efficient
C. more efficient
D. other factors will decide
it ANSWER: C
21. Morse test is conducted on the engine to calculate the mechanical efficiency of
A. single cylinder CI engine
B. single cylinder SI engine
C. only on two stroke engines
D. multi cylinder
engine ANSWER: D
22. Motoring test is conducted on IC engines to determine
A. brake power
B. indicated power
C. friction power
D. fuel consumption at full load
ANSWER: C
23. Supercharging of an IC engine is done so that the
A. thermal efficiency increases
B. power output increases
C. speed of the engine increases
D. power output
decreases ANSWER: B
24. By supercharging the power output of an engine is expected to increase
by A. 20%
B. 45%
C. 75%
D. 50%
ANSWER: A
25. Super charging by Roots blower means
A. the cost will be very high
B. the life would be short
C. creating balancing problems at high speeds
D. handling large volume of air without being too bulky
ANSWER: D
26. A reciprocating compressor is not suitable for use as a supercharger because:
A. it runs at lower rpm
B. the pressure ratio is high
C. volumetric efficiency is high
D. it is bulky and can handle small quantity of air
ANSWER: D
27. Ignition timing of a multi-cylinder SI engine can be adjusted by
A. rotating the cam shaft
B. adjusting the generator pulley
C. rotating the distributor
D. adjusting the pump
pulley ANSWER: C
28. The sparking voltage of the spark plug is
A. 6 to 12 V
B. 100 to 450 V
C. 1 to 2 kV
D. 20 to 30kV
ANSWER: D
29. In a cycle the spark lasts roughly for
A. 1 sec
B. 0.1 sec
C. 0.0001 sec
D.001 sec
ANSWER: C
30. The critical spark energy required to ignite a given mixture
A. decreases with decreasing sparking voltage
B. increases with decreasing sparking voltage
C. increases with increasing sparking voltage
D. decreases with increasing sparking
voltage ANSWER: D
31. In a battery ignition system, the intensity of spark is
A. minimum at low engine speed
B. minimum at low engine speed and increases with engine speed
C. maximum al low engine speed and decreases with engine speed
D. maximum at low engine
speed ANSWER: C
32. Solid injection in CI engine means injection of
A. solid fuel only
B. liquid fuel only
C. liquid fuel and air
D. solid fuel and air
ANSWER: B
33. In a carburetor the level of the fuel in the float chamber as compared to the level of the
main jet in the venture is
A. lower
B. same
C. higher
D. same or higher
ANSWER: A
34. In a simple carburetor, the air-fuel ratio increases when the
A. density of air increases
B. velocity of air increases
C. velocity of air decreases
D. density of air
decreases ANSWER: B
35. HUCR is the highest compression ratio at which the
A. engine can be run
B. engine gives maximum output
C. engine is most efficient
D. fuel can be used in a test engine without detonation
ANSWER: D
36. Octane number of gasoline is obtained by comparing the performance of the engine
when running on a mixture of the following hydrocarbons
A. ethane and methane
B. normal heptane and iso-octane
C. iso-heptane and octane
D. iso-octane and
TEL ANSWER: B
37. Most high speed compression ignition engine operate on
A. dual cycle
B. otto cycle
C. diesel cycle
D.Carnot
cycle
ANSWER: A
38. The size of inlet valve of an engine in comparison to exhaust valve is
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. varies from design to
design ANSWER: B
39. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburetor, operating with dirty
air filter as compared to clean filter will be
A. higher
B. lower
C. remain unaffected
D. unpredictable
ANSWER: A
40. The actual volume of fresh charge admitted in 4-stroke petrol engine is
A. equal to stroke volume
B. equal stroke volume and clearance volume
C. less than stroke volume
D. more than stroke volume
ANSWER: C
41. The reason for supercharging in any engine is to be
A. increase efficiency
B. increase power
C. effect fuel economy
D. reduce weight and bulk for a given output
ANSWER: D
42. Supercharging is essential in
A. aircraft engines
B. petrol engines
C. gas turbines
D. diesel
engines ANSWER: A
43. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel
A. diesel
B. kerosene
C. fuel oil
D. gasoline
ANSWER: D
44. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio of a petrol engine is of the order of
A. 6:1
B. 10:1
C. 15:1
D. 20:1
ANSWER: C
45. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately
A. 1:1
B. 5:1
C. 20:1
D. 10:1
ANSWER: D
46. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine cannot work is
A. 8:1
B. 12:1
C. 15:1
D. 20:1 and less

ANSWER: D
47. A 5 BHP engine running at full load would consume diesel of the order of
A. 0.3 kg/hr
B. 1 kg/hr
C. 3 kg/hr
D. 5
kg/hr ANSWER;
B
48. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to
A. instantaneous and rapid burning of the first part of the charge
B. instantaneous auto ignition of the last part of the charge
C. delayed burning of the last part of the charge
D. reduction of delay
period ANSWER: A
49. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the air is supplied by a
A. supercharger
B. centrifugal pump
C. movement of engine piston
D. reciprocating
pump ANSWER: C
50. In two stroke engine one power occurs in of crank rotation
A. 180°
B. 360°
C. 270°
D. 720°
ANSWER: B
THERMAL ENGINEERING
PSYCHROMETRY
1. Which of the following statement is true?

A. the chart is plotted for pressure equal to 760mm Hg
B. the constant wbt line represents adiabatic saturation process
C. the constant wbt line coincides with constant enthalpy line
D. all of the mentioned
ANSWER : D
2. In sensible heating or cooling,

A. work done remains constant
B. dry bulb temperature or air remains constant
C. both of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER : A
3. When humidity ratio of air air is said to be dehumidified.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
ANSWER : B
4. Air can be cooled and dehumidified by
A. circulating chilled water in tube across air flow
B. placing evaporator coil across air flow
C. spraying chilled water to air
ANSWER : D
5. Cooling and dehumidification of air is done in summer air conditioning.

A. true
B. false
ANSWER : A
6. Heating and humidification is done in

A. summer air conditioning
B. winter air conditioning
ANSWER : B
7. Which of the following is an absorbent?

A.silica gel
B. activated alumina
ANSWER : C
8. When air passes through silica gel,

A. it absorbs water vapour molecules
B. latent heat of condensation is released
C.dbt of air increases
ANSWER : D
9. In adiabatic evaporative cooling, heat transfer between chamber and surroundings is

A. zero
B. high
C. low
ANSWER : A
10. The cooling tower uses the phenomenon of evaporative cooling to cool warm water
above the dbt of air.
A. true
B. false
ANSWER : B
11. Cooling towers are rated in terms of

A. approach
B. range
ANSWER :C
12. What is the temperature at which the water vapour in the mixture of water vapour in air,
starts condensing called?
A. condensation temperature
B. dew point temperature
C. vaporization temperature
D. all of the above
ANSWER : B
13. The temperature of air recorded by thermometer when the bulb is covered by a cotton wick
saturated by water is called as
A. dry bulb temperature

B. wet bulb temperature
C. stream temperature
D. psychrometric temperature
ANSWER : B
14. Which temperature can be measured by an instrument called psychrometer?
A. dry bulb temperature

B. wet bulb temperature
C. both a. and b.
D. none of the above
ANSWER : C
15. When dry bulb temperature (DBT) and wet bulb temperature (WBT) are measured,
greater the difference between DBT and WBT,
A. greater the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

B. smaller the amount of water vapour held in the mixture
C. same the amount of water vapour held in the mixture
ANSWER : B
16. What is sensible cooling of air?
A. the cooling in which sensible heat of air is removed in order to reduce temperature
B. the cooling in which temperature of air is reduced without changing in its moisture content
C. both a. and b.
ANSWER : C
17. When the humidity ratio of air increases the air is said to be
A. dehumidified
B. humidified
C. heated
D. cooled
ANSWER : B
18. The temperature at which the air cannot hold all the water vapour mixed in it and some
vapour starts condensing is called as
A. humidification temperature
B. dehumidification temperature
C. dew point temperature
ANSWER : C
19. A Mixture of dry air and water,the formation of fog starts when,
A. air temperature is equal to the dew point temperature
B. air temperature is greater than the dew point temperature
C. both a. and b.
ANSWER : A
20. When the dew point temperature is equal to the air temperature then the relative humidity is
A. 0%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. unpredictable
ANSWER : C
21. On psychrometric chart, wet bulb temperature lines are
A. horizontal with uniformly spaced

B. horizontal with non-uniformly spaced
C. inclined with uniformly spaced
D. inclined with non-uniformly spaced
ANSWER :C
22. What is the perfect condition for dehumidification of air?
A. air is heated above its dew point temperature

B. air is cooled up to its dew point temperature
C. air is heated below its dew point temperature
D. air is cooled below its dew point temperature
ANSWER : D
23. When the rate of evaporation of water is zero, the relative humidity of the air is
A. 0%
B. 100%
C. 50%
D. unpredictable
ANSWER : B
24. When,
H1 = Total heat of air entering the coil (heating or cooling)
H2 = Total heat of air leaving the coil (heating or cooling)
H3 = Total heat of air at the end of the process (humidification or dehumidification)
then, the sensible heat factor (H2 – H1) / (H3 – H1) represents the process of
A. cooling and humidification

B. cooling and dehumidification
C. heating and humidification
D. heating and dehumidification
ANSWER : C
25. The dew point temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature for
A. saturated air
B. unsaturated air
C. both saturated and unsaturated air
D. none of the
above ANSWER : B
26. At 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb temperature is
A. lower than the dew point temperature

B. higher than the dew point
temperature
C. equal to the dew point temperature
ANSWER : C
27. Humidification is the process of addition moisture in air at
A. constant wet bulb temperature

B. constant dry bulb temperature
C. constant latent heat
ANSWER : B
28. Air at dry bulb temperature Td1 is passed through the heating coil and some amount of air is
by passed unaffected and leaves with dry bulb temperature Tb2 and the temperature of heated air
is Td3 (where Td2 < Td3), what is the correct formula for by pass factor (The amount of air by
passed unaffected)?
A. Bypass Factor = (Td3 – Td2) / (Td3 – Td1)

B. Bypass Factor = (Td3 – Td1) / (Td3 – Td2)
C. Bypass Factor = (Td2 – Td1) / (Td2 – Td3)
D. Bypass Factor = (Td2 – Td3) / (Td2 – Td1)
ANSWER : D
29. The horizontal line in psychrometric chart joining the change of state of air represents
A. humidification
B. sensible cooling or heating
C. sensible cooling or heating with humidification
D. sensible cooling or heating with dehumidification
ANSWER : B
30. The moisture content lines in psychrometric chart are also called as
A. relative humidity lines

B. specific humidity lines
C. both a. and b.
D. none of the
above ANSWER : B
31. At any point on the saturation curve in psychometric chart, the dry bulb temperature is
always
A. less than the corresponding wet bulb temperature

B. more than the corresponding wet bulb temperature
C. equal to the corresponding wet bulb temperature
D. cannot predict
ANSWER : C
32..The dry-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychrometric chart along the:
a. Left vertical axis

b. Right vertical axis
c. Saturation line and sloping downward to the right
d. Top horizontal axis
e. Horizontal axis on the bottom of the
chart ANSWER: E
33. Absolute or specific humidity is

a) the actual mass of moisture present in a specific amount of air
b) the maximum mass of moisture that a specific amount of air can hold
c) the ratio of the mass of moisture contained in a specific amount of air to the maximum amount
of moisture this specific amount of air can contain
d) the mass of moisture present in a specific amount of air at that absolute temperature
e) a specific amount of air saturated with moisture
ANSWER: A
34. The heat content of air is called the of the air.
a. Temperature
b. Humidity
c. Enthalpy
d. Psychrometry
e. Entropy
ANSWER: C
35. Relative humidity is
a) the ratio of water vapour in the air compared to the total amount water vapour the air could
contain at a given temperature
b) equal to the dry bulb temperature divided by the wet bulb temperature
c) equal to the wet bulb temperature divided by the dry bulb temperature
d) the ratio of the mass of water vapour divided by the mass of dry air
e) the ratio of the mass of water vapour divided by the mass of wet air
ANSWER: A
36. The term "relative humidity" applies to
a) the percentage of moisture in the air as compared to the amount of moisture the air can hold at
a specific temperature
b) the weight of the moisture in the air
c) the dryness fraction of the air
d) the amount of moisture in the air
e) the amount of humidity in the air
ANSWER: A
37. Dew point can be best defined as the:
a. Absolute temperature at which air, upon heating, will evaporate moisture

b. . Percentage of moisture that air can hold at a given temperature and pressure
c. . Temperature that air will begin to evaporate moisture
d. . Temperature at which air, upon cooling, becomes saturated, causing moisture
to condense should the temperature drop further
e. . Atmospheric pressure at which air will condense moisture
Answer: D
38. Dry-bulb temperature is:
a. The absolute temperature corresponding to the atmospheric pressure

b. The same as the wet-bulb temperature if the relative humidity is less than 100%
c. Not required to find the relative humidity
d. The temperature of the air measured with an ordinary thermometer
e. The dew point temperature
Answer: D
39.Standard air is the:
a. Mass of 1 cubic meter of dry air at 20°C and atmospheric pressure

b. Mass of a cubic meter of air at atmospheric conditions
c. Volume of air at ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure
d. Volume of 1 kg of dry air at 21°C and atmospheric pressure at sea level or 101.325 kPa
e. Volume of 1 kg of air at 15°C and 100 kPa
Answer: D
40. The specific humidity scale on a psychrometric chart is along the:
a. Bottom horizontal axis

b. Right side vertical axis
c. Top horizontal axis at the top of the chart
d. Left saturation line
e. Left-side vertical axis and left side
Answer: B
41.A device for measuring relative humidity is called:
a. A dew point analyzer

b. An R. H. gauge
c. An aspirating gauge
d. A psychrometer
e. A
chronometer
Answer: D
42. Wet-bulb temperature is:
a. The temperature indicated by a thermometer whose bulb covered by a water-wetted wick and
exposed to a rapidly moving stream of air
b. The same as the dry-bulb temperature if the relative humidity is less than 100%
c. The dew point temperature
d. Always less than the dry-bulb temperature
e. Not required to find the relative humidity
Answer: A
43. The specific volume of air is expressed as the volume of:
a. 1 kg of air at 101.325 kPa in cm3

b. 0.833 kg of air at standard pressure and temperature in m3
c. 1 kg of air at 101.325 kPa and 21 degrees Celsius in m3
d. 1 g of air occupied at any temperature and pressure
e. 1 kg of air, regardless of temperature and pressure
Answer: C
44. The specific volume on a psychrometric chart:
a. Is plotted on vertical lines and read on the horizontal scale at the bottom of the chart
b. Is plotted on horizontal lines and read on the vertical scale on the left side of the chart
c. Is plotted on horizontal lines and read on the vertical scale on the right side of the chart
d. Has its lines originate on the volume scale along the saturation line which slope steeply down
to the right of the chart
e. Is plotted on vertical lines and read on the horizontal scale at the top of the chart
Answer: D
45. The volume of standard air is m3/kg of dry air.
a. 0.533
b. 0.633
c. 0.733
d. 0.833
e. 0.933
Answer: D
46. The dew point is the:
a. Dry bulb temperature on a psychrometer

b. Temperature at which water vapour will start to be absorbed into the air
c. Temperature below which water vapour will start to condense out of the air
d. Pressure below which water vapour will start to condense out of the air
e. Temperature at which water will start to evaporate
Answer: C
47. The degree of saturation varies between
A. 1 to infinity
B. 0 to infinity
C. 0 to 1
ANSWER : C
48. What is the degree of saturation?
A. the ratio of the actual relative humidity to the saturated specific humidity at the
same temperature
B. the ratio of the actual specific humidity to the saturated specific humidity at the
same temperature
C. the ratio of the saturated specific humidity to the actual specific humidity at the
same temperature
ANSWER : B
49. What is the relative humidity for a saturated air?
A. 0%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. cannot say
ANSWER : C
50. What is the specific humidity?
A. the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
B. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
C. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in a mixture of air and water vapour
D. the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of dry air in a mixture of air and water vapour
ANSWER : D
51. The ratio of partial pressure of water vapour in a mixture to the saturation pressure of water
at the same temperature of the mixture is called as
A. humidity
B. partial humidity
C. specific humidity
D. relative
humidity
ANSWER : D
52. Dry air does NOT contain
A. krypton
B. argon
C. neon
ANSWER : D
53. In sensible cooling process the relative humidity:
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains constant
D. none of the
above ANSWER : B
54. In psychrometric chart, dew point temperature lines are
A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. curved
D. straight lines slopping downwards to the
right ANSWER : A
55. In psychrometric chart, specific humidity lines are:
A. vertical
B. horizontal
C. inclined
D. curved lines
ANSWER : B
55. An air washer can work as:
A. Humidifier
B. Dehumidifier
C. Filter
D. All of the
above ANSWER :
56. Sling psychrometer is used to measure
A. only dry bulb temperature

B. only wet bulb temperature
C. dry and wet bulb temperature
D. relative
humidity ANSWER
:C
THERMAL ENGINEERING
REFRIGERATION
1. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of

(a) water at 0°C
(b) ice at - 4°C
(c) mixture of ice, water and vapour under equilibrium conditions under NTP conditions
(d) mixture of ice and water Under equilibrium
conditions. Ans: D
2. Vapour compression refrigeration is some what like

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) reversedCamot cycle
(d) reversed Rankine
cycle Ans: C
3. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant?

(a) Ericsson
(b) Stirling
(c) Carnot
(d) Bell-coleman
Ans: d
4. Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires
(a) very little work input
(b) maximum work input
(c) nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
(d) zero work input
Ans: a
5. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is

(a) noisy operation
(b) quiet operation
(c) very little power consumption
(d) its input only in the form of
heating. Ans: D
6.The relative coefficient of performance is

(a) actual COP/theoretical COP
(b) theoretical COP/actual COP
(c) actual COP x theoretical COP
(d) 1-actual COP x theoretical
COP Ans: a
7. Clapeyron equation is a relation between

(a) temperature, pressure and enthalpy
(b) specific volume and enthalpy
(c) temperature and enthalpy
(d) temperature, pressure, specific vapour and
enthalpy. Ans: D
8. Clapeyron equation is applicable for registration at

(a) saturation point of vapour
(b) saturation point of liquid
(c) sublimation temperature
(d) triple point.
Ans: a
9. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid

(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condenser
(c) after passing through the expansion throttle valve
(d) before entering the expansion
valve Ans: a
10. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet vapour
(c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
valve Ans: c
11. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure saturated liquid
valve Ans: d
12. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour

(d) beforeentering the expansion
valve Ans: b
13. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated vapour
(b) before passing through the
condenser (c)before entering the
expansion valve
(d) before entering the compressor
Ans: D
14. The boiling point of ammonia

is (a) -100°C
(b) -50°C
(c) - 33.3°C
(d) 33.3°C.
Ans: c
15. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to melting of 1000
kg of ice
(a) in 1 hour
(b) in 1 minute
(c) in 24 hours
(d) in 12 hours
Ans: c
16. One tonrefrigeration corresponds to

(a) 50 kcal/min
(b) 50 kcal/kr
(c) 80 kcal/min
(d) 80
kcal/hr Ans:
a
17. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to

(a) 210 kJ/min
(b) 21 kJ/min
(c) 3.5 kJ/min
(d) 2.4
kJ/min Ans: a
18. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle
(a) Rankine
(b) Carnot
(c) Reversed Carnot.
(d) Brayton
Ans: c
19. Allowable pressure on high-pressure side or ammonia absorption system is of the order of
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) slightly above atmospheric pressure
(c) 2-4 bars
(d) 5-6
bars Ans: d
20. The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by
(a) evaporator
(b) safety relief valve
(c) dehumidifier
(d) driers
Ans: d
21. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non-condensable gases, as compared to that
actually required forcondensing temperatures without non-condensable gases,
(a) will be higher
(b) will be lower
(c) will remain unaffected
(d) may be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non-condensable gases
Ans: a
22. Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure
(a) above which liquid will remain liquid
(b) above which liquid becomes gas
(c) above which liquid becomes vapour
(d) above which liquid becomes
solid Ans: a
23. Critical temperature is' the temperature above which
(a) a gas will never liquefy
(b) a gas will immediately liquefy
(c) water will evaporate
(d) water will never evaporate

Ans: a
24. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have
(a) high sensible heat
(b) high total heat
(c) high latent heat
(d) low latent heat
Ans: c
25. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of
(a) 0.1 ton
(b) 5 tons
(c) 10 tons
(d) 40
tons Ans:
26. The COP of a domestic refrigerator
(a) is less than 1
(b) is more than 1
(c) is equal to 1
(d)depends upon the weather conditions.
Ans: b
27. The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor
(a) centrifugal
(b) axial
(c) miniature sealed unit
(d) piston type
reciprocating Ans: d
28. Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of
(a) compressor
(b) condenser
(c) evaparator
(d) expansion valve.
Ans: a
29. Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant
(a) Co2
(b) Freon-11
(c) Freon-22
(d) Air
Ans: d
30. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following type of
expansion device
(a) electrically operated throttling valve
(b) manually operated valve
(c) thermostatic valve
(d) capillary
tube Ans: d
31. Air refrigeration operates on
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Reversed Carnot cycle
(c) Rankine cycle
(d) Brayton cycle.
Ans: d
32. Air refrigeration cycle is used in
(a) domestic refrigerators
(b) commercial refrigerators
(c) air conditioning
(d) gas
liquefaction Ans: d
33. In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve is
(a) liquid
(b) sub-cooled liquid

(c) saturated liquid
(d) wet vapour
Ans: d
34. The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be
(a) lower than atmospheric pressure
(b) higher than atmospheric pressure
(c) equal to atmospheric pressure
(d) could be anything
Ans: b
35. For better COP of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to temperature in evaporator
and condenser must be
(a) small
(b) high
(c) equal
(d) anything
Ans: a
36. The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator are
(a) condenser tubes
(b) evaporator tubes
(c) refrigerant cooling tubes

(d) capillary
tubes Ans: a
37. The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at
(a) compressor discharge.
(b) expansion valve
(c) evaporator
(d) condenser
discharge Ans: a
38. Highest temperature encountered in refrigeration cycle should be
(a) near critical temperature of refrigerant
(b) above critical temperature
(c) atcritica. temperature
(d) much below critical
temperature Ans: d
39. In refrigerator, liquid receiver is required between condenser and flow controlling device, if
quantity of refrigerant for
system is
(a) less than 2 kg
(b) more than or equal to 3.65 kg
(c) more than 10 kg
(d) there is no such consideration

Ans: b
40. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant
(a) Freon-11
(b) Freon-22
(c) C02
(d) ammonia.
Ans: e
41. One of the purposes of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to
(a) reduce compressor overheating
(b) reduce compressor discharge temperature
(c) increase cooling effect
(d) ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion (throttling)
valve Ans: d
42. The value of COP in vapour compression cycle is usually
(a) always less than unity
(b) always more than unity
(c) equal to unity
(d) any one of the
above Ans: b
43. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) less for small capacity and more for high capacity.
(d) more for small capacity and less for high capacity
Ans: b
44. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature
(a) of cooling medium
(b) of freezing zone
(c) of evaporator
(d) at which refrigerant gas becomes liquid
Ans: d
45. Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator
(a) results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer
(b) increases heat transfer rate
(c) decreases compressor power.
(d) can be avoided by proper
design Ans: a
46. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating refrigerant and the
medium being cooled should be
(a) high, of the order of 25°
(b) as low as possible (3 to 11°C)
(c) zero
(d) any
value Ans: b
47. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an accumulator at suction of compressor is used to
(a) collect liquid refrigerant and prevent it from going to compressor
(b) detect liquid in vapour
(c) superheat the vapour
(d) increase refrigeration
effect Ans: a
48. Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant charge at least
(a) 10%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
Ans: c
49. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporization of a refrigerant
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) depends on other
factors Ans: b
50. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27°C and evaporator
temperature of- 23°C. TheCarnot coefficient of performance of cycle will be
(a) 0.2
(b) 1.2
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans: c
51. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant
(a) highmisibility with oil
(b) low boiling point
(c) good electrical conductor
(d) large latent heat
Ans: c
52. In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid between
(a) condenser and expansion valve

(b) compressor and evaporator
(c) expansion valve and evaporator
(d) compressor and
condenser Ans: c
53. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one medium to other in ammonia
absorption system
(a) strong solution to weak solution
(b) weak solution to strong solution
(c) strong solution to ammonia vapour
(d) ammonia vapour to strong solution.
Ans: b
54. Efficiency of a Carnot engine is given as 80%. If the- cycle direction be reversed, what will be
the value of COP ofreversed Carnot cycle
(a) 1.25
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.25
Ans: d
55. Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be

(a) critical pressure of refrigerant
(b) much below critical pressure
(c) much above critical pressure
(d) near critical
pressure Ans: b
56. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of +27°C and evaporator
temperature of - 23°C,then the Carnot COP will be
(a) 0.2
(b) 1.2
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans: d
57. A certain refrigerating system has a normal operating suction pressure of 10 kg/cm gauge and
condensing pressure ofabout 67 kg/cm. The refrigerant used is
(a) Ammonia
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Freon
(d) Brine
Ans: b
58. Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of refrigeration system
(a) compression
(b) direct
(c) indirect
(d) absorption
Ans: d
59. If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered, keeping the condenser temperature
constant, the h.p. of compressorrequired will be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more/less depending on
rating Ans: b
60. In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by

(a) compressor
(b) condenser
(c) evaporator
(d) expansion
valve Ans: d
61. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle ?
(a) condenser
(b) evaporator
(c) compressor
(d) expansion
valve Ans: b
62. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by

(a) halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
(b) sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke
(c) using reagents
(d) sensing reduction in
pressure. Ans: a
63. Pick up the incorrect statement
(a) lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is nonvolatile
(b) lithium bromide plant can't operate below 0°C
(c) a separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted water vapour by
condensing
(d) concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in comparison to
that entering the generator
Ans: c
64. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure-enthalpy-diagram
represents
(a) condensation of the refrigerant vapour
(b) evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
(c) compression of the refrigerant vapour
(d) metering of the refrigerant
liquid Ans: b
65. Mass flow ratio of NH3 in comparison to Freon-12 for same refrigeration load and same
temperature limits is of the orderof
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 9
(c) 9 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
66. Freon group of refrigerants are
(a) inflammable
(d) toxic
(c) non-toxic and non-inflammable
(d) non-toxic and
inflammable Ans: c
67 Ammonia is
(a) non-toxic
(b) non-inflammable
(c) toxic and non-inflammable
(d) highly toxic and
inflammable Ans: d
68. In vapour compression cycle using NH3 as refrigerant, initial charge is filled at
(a) suction of compressor
(b) delivery of compressor
(c) high pressure side close to receiver
(d) low pressure side near
receiver Ans: c
69. Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show
(a) constant pressure lines
(b) constant temperature lines
(c) constant total heat lines

(d) constant entropy
lines Ans: a
70. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, condensation and de-superheating is represented by a

horizontal line because theprocess
(a) takes place at constant pressure (b) takes place at constant temperature
(c) takes place at constant entropy
(d) takes place at constant enthalpy
Ans: a
71. One ton of the refrigeration is
(a) the standard unit used in refrigeration problems
(b) the cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
(c) the refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours
(d) the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions
Ans: c
72. Superheating in a refrigeration cycle
(a) increases COP
(b) decreases COP
(c) COP remains unaltered

(d) other factors decide
COP Ans: b
73. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour pressure difference
between cabinet and atmosphereis high, then
(a) bigger cabinet should be used
(b) smaller cabinet should be used
(c) perfectly tight vapour seal should be used
(d) refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be
used Ans: c
74. Choose the correct statement
(a) A refrigerant should have low latent heat
(b) If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with low boiling point should be
used
(c) Pre-cooling and sub-cooling bf refrigerant are same
(d) Superheat and sensible heat of a. refrigerant are same
Ans: b
75. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in comparison to delivery side is
(a) bigger
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) smaller/bigger depending on
capacity Ans: a
76. Moisture in freon refrigeration system causes
(a) ineffective refrigeration
(b) high power consumption
(c) freezing automatic regulating valve
(d) corrosion of whole
system Ans: c
77. The advantage of dry compression is that
(a) it permits higher speeds to be used
(b) it permits complete evaporation in the evaporator
(c) it results in high volumetirc and mechanical efficiency
(d) all of the
above Ans: d
78. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Temperature of medium being cooled must be below that of the evaporator
(b) Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid
(c) All solar thermally operated absorption systems are capable only of intermittent operation
(d) frost on evaporator reduces heat
transfer Ans: a
79. Under-cooling in a refrigeration cycle
(a) increases COP
(b) decreases COF
(c) COP remains unaltered
(d) other factors decide
COP Ans: a
80. For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should be
(a) high
(b) low
(c) optimum
(d) any
value Ans: b
81. The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the
(a) heat of compression
(b) work done by compressor
(c) enthalpy increase in compressor
(d) all of the
above Ans: d
82. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator temperature, keeping condenser
temperature constant, will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant
used Ans: a
83. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant
(a) pressure lines
(b) temperature lines
(c) total heat lines
(d) entropy lines
Ans: c
84. Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system
(a) vapour compression
(b) vapour absorption
(c) carnot cycle
(d) electrolux
refrigerator Ans: a
85. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for CO2 system) is to approximate
following h.p. per ton of Refrigeration
(a) 0.1 to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(b) 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(c) 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(d) 2 to 5 h.p. per ton of
refrigeration Ans: c
86. Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration cycle
(a) lowers evaporation temperature
(b) increases power required per ton of refrigeration
(c) lowers compressor capacity because vapour is lighter
(d) all of the above.
Ans: d
87. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant
(a) condenser
(b) evaporator
(c) condenser and absorber
(d) condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier).
Ans: d
88. The refrigeration effect in a dry evaporator compared to flooded evaporator in a similar plant
is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more or less depending on ambient conditions
Ans: c
89. The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature, keeping the
evaporator temperatureconstant, will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
(d) remain
unaffected Ans: a
90. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point

(a) Freon-12
(b) NH3
(c) CO2
(d) Freon-22
Ans: d
91. The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption plant is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on size of
plant Ans: a
92. The C.O.P. of a domestic refrigerator in comparison to domestic air conditioner will be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) dependent on weather
conditions Ans: c
93. The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia absorption plant when
(a) ammonia vapour goes into solution

(b) ammonia vapour is driven out of solution
(c) lithium bromide mixes with ammonia
(d) weak solution mixes with strong
solution Ans: a
94. The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as compared to change in

condenser temperature, influences the value of C.O.P.
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equally.
(d) unpredictable
Ans: a
95. The characteristic equation of gases pv = mRT holds good for
(a) mono atomic gases
(b) diatomic
gases (c)real
gases
(d) ideal gases
Ans: c
96. Air refrigeration cycle is used in
(a) domestic refrigerators

(b) gas liquefaction
(c)commercial refrigerators
(d) Chillers
Ans: b
97. The condition of refrigerant before entering the expansion or throttle valve, in a vapour
compression system
(a) dry vapour
(b) wet vapour
(c)liquid-vapour mixture
(d) high pressure saturated liquid
Ans: d
98. In a refrigeration cycle, the super heating……..C.O.P
(a)decreases
(b)does not change
(c) increases
(d)none of the
above Ans: a
99. In milk chilling plant, the usual secondary refrigerant is
(a)ammonia
(b)sodium silicate
(c) glycol
(d) brine
Ans: d
100. For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell and tube condenser are made of
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(c) steel
(d) bras
s Ans: c
101. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator

(a) increases heat transfer
(b) improves C.O.P. of the system
(c) increases power consumption

(d) reduces power consumption
Ans: c
102. The freon group of refrigerants are

(a) halo-carbon refrigerants
(b) azeotrope refrigerants
(c) inorganic refrigerants

(d) hydro-carbon
refrigerants Ans: a
Unit II
1. The working cycle in case of four
stroke engine is completed in following number of revolutions of crankshaft
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) 8.
Ans: c
2. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

(a) spark
(b) injected fuel
(c) heat resulting from compressing air that
is supplied for combustion
(d) ignition
(e) combustion chamber.
Ans: c
3. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

(a) air used for combustion sent under
pres-sure
(b) forced air for cooling cylinder
(c) burnt air containing products of
combustion
(d) air used for forcing burnt gases out of
engine’s cylinder during the exhaust period
(e) air fuel mixture.
Ans: d
4. Supercharging is the process of

(a) supplying the intake of an engine with
air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
(b) providing forced cooling air
(c) injecting excess fuel for raising more
load
(d) supplying compressed air to remove
combustion products fully
(e) raising exhaust pressure.
Ans: a
5. Does the supply of scavenging air at a

density greater than that of atmosphere mean engine is supercharged ?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) to some extent
(d) unpredictable
(e) depends on other factors.
Ans: b
6. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency
to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency is called
(a) net efficiency
(b) efficiency ratio
(c) relative efficiency
(d) overall efficiency
(e) cycle efficiency.
Ans: c
7. Compression ratio of LC. engines is

(a) the ratio of volumes of air in cylinder
before compression stroke and after compression stroke
(b) volume displaced by piston per stroke and
clearance volume in cylinder
(c) ratio of pressure after compression and
before compression
(d) swept volume/cylinder volume
(e) cylinder volume/swept volume.
Ans: a
8. The air standard efficiency of an Otto

cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given compression ratio is
(a) same
(b) less
(c) more
(d) more or less depending on power rating
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
9. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is

expressed in terms of
(a) kcal
(b) kcal/kg
(c) kcal/m2
(d) kcal/n?
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
11. If the intake air temperature of I.C.

engine increases, its efficiency will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) unpredictable
(e) depend on other factors.
Ans: b
12. All heat engines utilize

(a) low heat value of oil
(b) high heat value of oil
(c) net claorific value of oil
(d) calorific value of fuel
Ans: a
13. An engine indicator is used to determine
the following
(a) speed
(b) temperature
(c) volume of cylinder
(d) m.e.p. and I.H.P.
(e) BHP.
Ans: d
14. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C.

engine are usually based on
(a) low heat value of oil
(b) high heat value of oil
(c) net calorific value of oil
(d) calorific value of fuel
Ans: b
17. If the compression ratio of an engine

working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the %age increase in efficiency
will be
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 8%
(d) 14%
(e) 27%.
Ans: d
18. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel

consumption guarantees are based on
(a) high heat value
(b) low heat value
(c) net calorific value
(d) middle heat value
(e) calorific value.
Ans: b
19. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle

diesel engine the inlet valve
(a) opens at 20° before top dead center and
closes at 35° after the bottom dead center
(b) opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
(c) opens at 10° after top dead center and
closes 20° before the bottom dead center
(d) may open or close anywhere
(e) remains open for 200°.
Ans: a
20. The pressure and temperature at the end

of compression stroke in a petrol engine are of the order of
(a) 4 – 6 kg/cm2 and 200 – 250°C
(b) 6 – 12 kg/cm2 and 250 – 350°C
(c) 12 – 20 kg/cm2 and 350 – 450°C
(d) 20 – 30 kg/cm2 and 450 – 500°C
(e) 30 – 40 kg/cm2 and 500 – 700°C.
Ans: b
21. The pressure at the end of compression in

the case of diesel engine is of the order of
(a) 6 kg/cm
(b) 12kg/cmz
(c) 20 kg/cmz
(d) 27.5 kg/cmz
(e) 35 kg/cm
Ans: e
22. The maximum temperature in the I.C.

engine cylinder is of the order of
(a) 500- 1000°C
(b) 1000- 1500°C
(c) 1500-2000°C
(d) 2000-2500°C
(e) 2500-3000°C
Ans: d
23. The thermal efficiecny of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio,
with increase in cut-off ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) be independent
(d) may increase or decrease depending on
other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
24. Pick up the wrong statement

(a) 2-stroke engine can run in any direction
(b) In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is
obtained in 4-strokes
(c) thermal efficiency of 4-stroke engine is
more due to positive scavenging
(d) petrol engines work on otto cycle
(e) petrol engines occupy more space than
diesel engines for same power output.
Ans: e
25. Combustion in compression ignition

engines is
(a) homogeneous
(b) heterogeneous
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) laminar
(e) turbulent.
Ans: b
26. The fuel in diesel engine is normally

injected at pressure of
(a) 5-10 kg/cm2
(b) 20-25 kg/cm2
(c) 60-80 kg/cm2
(d) 90-130 kg/cm2
(e) 150-250 kg/cm2
Ans: d
27. The specific fuel consumption per BHP

hour for diesel engine is approximately
(a) 0.15 kg
(b) 0.2 kg
(c) 0.25 kg
(d) 0.3 kg
(e) 0.35 kg.
Ans: b
28. The temperature of interior surface of

cylinder wall in normal operation is not allowed to exceed
(a) 80°C
(b) 120°C
(c) 180°C
(d) 240°C
(e) 320°C.
Ans: c
30. Crankcase explosion in I.C. engines

usuall occurs as
(a) first a mild explosion followed by a bi
explosion
(b) first a big explosion followed by a mil
explosion
(c) both mild and big explosions occi
simultaneously
(d) never occurs
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
31. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs

duto
(a) leaking piston rings
(b) use of thick head gasket
(c) clogged air-inlet slots
(d) increase in clearance volume caused b
bearing-bushing wear
Ans: e
32. The specific fuel consumption per BH hour

for a petrol engine is approximately
(a) 0.15 kg
(b) 0.2 kg
(c) 0.25 kg
(d) 0.3kg
(e) 0.35 kg.
Ans: c
33. The air requirement of a petrol engine
during starting compared to theoretical airequired for complete combustion is
(a) more
(b) loss
(c) same
(d) may be more or less depending on engine capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
34. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle

I.C engine remains open for nearly
(a) 180°
(b) 125°
(c) 235°
(d) 200°
(e) 275°.
Ans: c
35. Which of the following is not an interns

combustion engine
(a) 2-stroke petrol engine
(b) 4-stroke petrol engine
(c) diesel engine
(d) gas turbine
(e) steam turbine.
Ans: e
36. Pick up the false statement

(a) Thermal efficiency of diesel engine i
about 34%
(b) Theoretically correct mixture of air am
petrol is approximately 15 : 1
(c) High speed compression engines operate on
dual combustion cycle
(d) Diesel engines are compression ignition
engines
(e) S.I. engines are quality-governed engines.
Ans: e
37. If one cylinder of a diesel engine

receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the
(a) exhaust will be smoky
(b) piston rings would stick into piston
grooves
(c) exhaust temperature will be high
(d) engine starts overheating
(e) scavenging occurs.
Ans: e
38. The output of a diesel engine can be

increased without increasing the engine revolution or size in following way
(a) feeding more fuel
(b) increasing flywheel size
(c) heating incoming air
(d) scavenging
(e) supercharging.
Ans: e
39. It the temperature of intake air in IC

engines is lowered, then its efficiency will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase upto certain limit and then
decrease
(e) decrease upto certain limit and then
in-crease.
Ans: a
40. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle

diesel engine
(a) compression starts at 35° after bottom
dead center and ends at top dead center
(b) compression starts at bottom dead center
and ends at top dead center
(c) compression starts at 10° before bottom
dead center and, ends just before top dead center
(d) may start and end anywhere
Ans: a
41. For the same compression ratio

(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than the
Diesel
(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient’than Otto
(c) both Otto and Diesel cycles are, equally
efficient
(d) compression ratio has nothing to do with
efficiency
(e) which is more efficient would depend on
engine capacity.
Ans: a
42. The precess of breaking up or a lipuid into fine droplets by spraying

is called
(a) vaporisation
(b) carburetion
(c) ionisation
(d) injection
(e) atomisation.
Ans: e
43. As a result of detonation in an I.C. engine, following parameter attains

very high value
(a) peak pressure
(b) rate of rise of pressure
(c) rate of rise of temperature
(d) peak temperature

(e) rate of rise of horse-power.
Ans: b
44. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) All the irreversible engines have same efficiency
(b) All the reversible engines have same efficiency
(c) Both Rankine and Caront cycles have same
efficiency between same temperature limits
(d) All reversible engines working between
same temperature limits have same-efficiency
(e) Between same temperature limits, both
petrol and diesel engines have same efficiency.
Ans: d
45. Most high speed compression engines operate on

(a) Diesel cycle
(b) Otto cycle
(c) Dual combustion cycle
(d) Special type of air cycle
(e) Carnot cycle.
Ans: c
48. The accunmulation of carbon in a cylinder

results in increase of
(a) clearance volume
(b) volumetric efficiency
(c) ignition time
(d) effective compression ratio
(e) valve travel time.
Ans: d
49. Which of the following medium is

compressed in a Diesel engine cylinder
(a) air aione
(b) air and fuel
(c) air and lub oil
(d) fuel alone
(e) air, fuel and lub oil.
Ans: a
54. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine

is controlled by
(a) fuel pump
(b) governor
(c) injector
(d) carburettor
(e) scavenging.
Ans: d
55. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle

diesel engine
(a) fuelinjection starts at 10° before to
dead center and ends at 20° after tor dead center
(b) fuel injection starts at top dead center
and ends at 20° after top dead center
(c) fuel injection starts at just before top
dead center and ends just after top deac center
(d) may start and end anywhere
Ans: a
56. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is

(a) less difficult to ignite
(b) just about the same difficult to ignite
(c) more difficult to ignite
(d) highly ignitable
Ans: c
57. In diesel engine the diesel fuel injected

into cylinder would burn instantly at about compressed air temperature of
(a) 250°C
(b) 500°C
(c) 1000°C
(d) 150CPC
(e) 2000°C.
Ans: c
58. When crude oil is heated, then which of the

following hydrocarbon is given off first.
(a) kerosene
(b) gasoline
(c) paraffin
(d) diesel
(e) natural gas.
Ans: e
59. The rating of a diesel engine, with

increase in airintlet temperature, will
(a) increase linearly
(b) decrease linearly
(c) increase parabolically
(d) decrease parabolically
(e) first decrease linearly and then increase
parabolically.
Ans: b
60. A 75 cc engine has following parameter as

75 cc
(a) fuel tank capacity
(b) lub oil capacity
(c) swept volume
(d) cylinder volume
(e) clearance volume.
Ans: c
61. A heat engine utilises the

(a) calorific value of oil
(b) low heat value of
(c) high heat value of oil
(d) mean heat value of oil
Ans: c
62. Gaseous-fuel guarantees are based on

(a) calorific value of oil
(b) low heat value of oil
(c) high heat value of oil
(d) mean heat value of oil
Ans: b
63. Fuel consumption of diesef engines is not

guaranteed at one quarter load because at such low loads
(a) the friction is high
(b) the friction is unpredictable
(c) the small difference in cooling water
temperature or in internal friction has a disproportionate effect
(d) the engine is rarely operated
Ans: c
64. Polymerisation is a

chemical process in which molecules of a compound become
(a) larger
(b) slowed down
(c) smaller
(d) liquid
(e) gaseous.
Ans: a
65. The term scavenging is generally

associated with
(a) 2-stroke cycle engines
(b) 4-stroke cycle engines
(c) aeroplane engines
(d) diesel engines
(e) high efficiency engines.
Ans: e
66. In diesel engine, the compression ratio

in comparison to expansion ratio is
(a) same
(b) less
(G) more
(d) variable
(e) more/less depending on engine capacity.
Ans: c
67. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C.

engine running at 1500 rmp will run at
(a) 1500 rpm
(b) 750 rpm
(c) 3000 rpm
(d) any value independent of engine speed
Ans: b
68. Engine pistons ‘are usually made of

aluminium alloy because it
(a) is lighter
(b) wears less
(c) absorbs shocks
(d) is stronger
(e) does not react with fuel and lub oil.
Ans: a
69. Most high speed compression engines

operate on
(a) Otto cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Dual cycle
(d) Carnot cycle
(e) Two stroke cycle.
Ans: c
70. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol

engine compared to diesel engine of same H.P. is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) less or more depending on operating
conditions
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
71. A diesel engine as compared to petrol

engine (both running ar rated load) is
(a) more efficient
(b) less efficient
(c) equally efficient
(d) unperdictable
(e) other factors will decide it.
Ans: a
72. The size of inlet valve of.an engine in comparison to exhaust valve
is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on capacity of engine
(e) varies from design to design.
Ans: b
74. In a cycle, the spark lasts roughly for

(a) 1 sec
(b) 0.1 sec
(c) 0.01 sec
(d) 0.001 sec
(e) 0.0001 sec.
Ans: d
75. Which of the following is false statement

:
Excess quantities of sulphur in diesel fuel are Objectionable because it may
cause the following
(a) piston ring and cylinder wear
(b) formation of hard coating on piston
skirts
(c) oil sludge in the engine crank case
(d) detonation
(e) forms corrosive acids.
Ans: d
76. Which of the following is false

statement. Some of the methods used to reduce diesel smoke are as follows
(a) using additives in the fuel
(b) engine derating i.e. reducing the
maxi-mum flow of fuel
(c) increasing the compression ratio
(d) adherence to proper fuel specification
(e) avoidance of overloading.
Ans: c
77. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine

fitted with suction carburettor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to
clean filter will be
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) remain unaffected
(d) unpredictable
Ans: a
78. Pick up the wrong statement about

supercharging
(a) supercharging reduces knocking in diesel engines
(b) there can be limited supercharging in petrol engines because
of detonation
(c) supercharging at high altitudes is
essential
(d) supercharging results in fuel economy
(e) supercharging is essential in aircraft
engines.
Ans: d
79. The actual volume of fresh charge

admitted in 4-stroke petrol engine is
(a) equal to stroke volume
(b) equal to stroke volume and clearance
volume
(c) less than stroke volume
(d) more than stroke volume
(e) more than cylinder volume.
Ans: c
80. The magneto in an automobile is basically

(c) transformer
(b) d.c. generator
(c) capacitor
(d) magnetic circuit
(e) a.c. generator.
Ans: b
81. The reason for supercharging in any

engine is to
(a) increase efficiency
(b) increase power
(c) reduce weight and bulk for a given
out-put
(d) effect fuel economy
Ans: c
82. The operation of forcing additional air

under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as
(a) scavenging
(b) turbulence
(c) supercharging
(d) pre-ignition
(e) dissociation and carburretion of fuel.
Ans: c
83. Supercharging is essential in

(a) diesel engines
(b) gas turbines
(c) petrol engines
(d) aircraft engines
(e) marine engines.
Ans: d
84. The minimum cranking speed in case of

petrol engine is about
(a) half the operating speed
(b) one-fourth of operating speed
(c) 250-300 rpm
(d) 60-80 rpm
(e) 10-20 rpm
Ans: d
85. In a typical medium speed 4 stroke cycle

diesel engine
(a) exhaust valve opens at 35° before bot-tom
dead center and closes at 20° after top dead center
(b) exhaust valve opens at bottom ‘dead
center and closes at top dead center
(c) exhaust valve opens just after bottom
dead center and closes just before top dead center
(d) may open and close anywhere
(e) none of the above is true.
Ans: a
86. Flash point of fuel oil is

(a) minimum temperature to which1 oil is heated in order to give
off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when
brought in contact with a flame
(b) temperature at which it solidifies or
congeals
(c) temperature at which it catches fire
without external aid
(d) indicated by 90% distillation
temperature, i.e. when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
Ans: a
87. The mean effective pressure obtained from

engine indicator indicates the
(a) maximum pressure developed
(b) minimum pressure
(c) instantaneous pressure at any instant
(d) exhaust pressure
(e) average pressure.
Ans: e
88. For the same power developed in I.C.

engines, the cheaper system is
(a) naturally aspirated
(b) supercharged
(c) centrifugal pump
(d) turbo charger
Ans: b
89. Installation of supercharger on a

four-cycle diesel engine can result in the following percentage increase in
power
(a) upto 25%
(b) upto 35%
(c) upto 50%
(d) upto 75%
(e) upto 100%.
Ans: e
90. Scavenging is usually done to increase

(a) thermal efficiency
(b) speed
(c) power output
(d) fuel consumption
Ans: c
91. Which of the following is the lightest

and most volatile liquid fuel
(a) diesel
(b) kerosene
(c) fuel oil
(d) gasoline
(e) lub oil.
Ans: d
92. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio

for petrol engine is of the order of
(a) 6 : 1
(b) 9 : 1
(c) 12 : 1
(d) 15 : 1
(e) 20 : 1.
Ans: d
93. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a

petrol engine is approximately
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 5 : 1
(c) 10:1
(d) 15 : 1
(e) 20 : 1.
Ans: c
94. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine

can not work is
(a) 8 : 1
(b) 10 : 1
(c) 15 : 1
(d) 20 : 1 and less
(e) will work at all ratios.
Ans: d
95. For maximum power generation, the air

fuel ratio for a petrol engine for vehicles, is of the order of
(a) 9 : 1
(b) 12 : 1
(c) 15 : 1
(d) 18 : 1
(e) 20: 1.
Ans: b
96. The following volume of air is required

for consuming 1 liter of fuel by a four stroke engine
(a) 1 m3
(b) 5 m3
(c) 5-6 m3
(d) 9-10 m3
(e) 15-18 m3.
Ans: d
97. Pour point of fuel oil is the

(a) minimum temperature to which oil is
heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to
ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
congeals
(c) it catches fire without external aid
(d) indicated by 90% distillation temperature
i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
(e) temperature at which it flows easily.
Ans: b
98. A 5 BHP engine running at full load would

consume diesel of the order of
(a) 0.3 kg/hr
(b) 1 kg/hr
(c) 3 kg/hr
(d) 5 kg/hr
(e) 10 kg/hr.
Ans: b
99. Diesel engine can work on very lean air

fuel ratio of the order of 30 : 1. A petrol engine can also work on such a lean
ratio provided
(a) it is properly designed
(b) best quality fuel is used
(c) can not work as it is impossible
(d) flywheel size is proper
(e) engine cooling is stopped.
Ans: c
100. A diesel engine has

(a) 1 valve
(b) 2 valves
(b) 3 valves
(d) 4 valves
(e) no valve.
Ans: c
101. A hmh flame speed is obtained in diesel

engine when air fuel ratio is
(a) uniform throughout the mixture
(b) chemically correct mixture
(c) about 3-5% rich mixture
(d) about 10% rich mixture
(e) about 10% lean mixture.
Ans: d
102. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to

(a) instantaneous and rapid burning of the
first part of the charge
(b) instantaneous atuo iginition of last part
of charge
(c) delayed burning of the first part of the
charge
(d) reduction of delay period
(e) all ot the above.
Ans: a
103. The air-fuel ratio in petrol engines-is
controlled by
(a) controlling valve opening/closing
(b) governing
(c) injection
(d) carburettion
(e) scavenging and supercharging.
Ans: d
104. Volatility of diesel fuel oil is

(a) minimum temperature to which oil is
heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to
ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
congeals
(c) it catches fire without external aid
(d) indicated by 90% distillation
temperature, i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
(e) temperature at which it flows easily.
Ans: d
105. Which is more viscous lub oil

(a) SEA 30
(b) SAE 4£
(c) SAE 50
(d) SAE 70
(e) SAE 80.
Ans: e
106. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the

combustion chamber is located
(a) above the piston & below the piston
(c) between the pistons
(d) any where
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: c
107. A stoichiometric air-fuel ratio is

(a) chemically correct mixture
(b) lean mixture
(c) rich mixture for idling
(d) rich mixture for over loads
(e) the ratio used at full rated parameters.
Ans: a
108. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine,

the air is supplied by
(a) a supercharger
(b) a centrifugal blower
(c) a vacuum chamber
(d) an injection tube
(e) forced chamber
Ans: c
109. In loop scavenging, the top of the
piston is
(a) flat
(b) contoured
(c) slanted
(d) depressed
(e) convex shaped.
Ans: b
110. In the crankcase method of scavenging,

the air pressure is produced by
(a) supercharger
(b) centrifugal pump
(c) natural aspirator
(d) movement of engine piston
(e) reciprocating pump.
Ans: d
Unit III
This set of Steam and Gas Turbines Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Types”.
1. Non Condensing steam turbine can also be called as _________

a) Extraction steam turbine
b) Back pressure steam turbine
c) Impulse steam turbine
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The other name for Non condensing turbines is back pressure turbines.
2. Condensing turbine is used for __________

a) central power generation
b) to reduce outlet temperature
c) to increase efficiency of steam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reducing outlet temperatures and increasing efficiency of the steam are required
for every turbine irrespective of its use. So condensing turbines are used for central power
generation.
3. Steam turbine is classified on basis of __________

a) type of blades
b) exhausting condition
c) type of Steam flow
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Steam turbines are classified by
type of blades, exhausting condition, type of steam flow, division of steam flow, type of
compounding.
4. High pressure turbine is a Non-Condensing turbine due to __________
a) exhaust conditions
b) axial flow of the steam
c) pressure-velocity compounding
d) velocity compounding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For high pressure turbines exhaust conditions are controlled by regulating valve
which makes them to come under the category of Non-Condensing turbines.
5. Impulse blades are in the shape of __________

a) Rain drop
b) Circular
c) Half moon
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Blades used in impulse turbines are half moon shaped because as steam enters the
moving blade it pushes the blade forward.
6. Astern turbines are used in _________

a) power generation
b) marine purposes
c) aircraft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Astern turbines are those classified based on exhaust conditions and are used for
marine purposes.
7. In condensing turbines vacuum is obtained by ____________

a) sudden pressure drop
b) removal of non condensable gases
c) sudden drop in pressure and by removal of non condensable gases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Due to sudden drop in pressure vacuum appears and the remaining non condensable
gases are removed from the steam in order to maintain the vacuum.
8. Cross compound steam turbines are once used in _____________

a) generation of electricity
b) marine ships
c) automobiles
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cross compound turbines are once used in marine ships before two stroke diesel
engines.
9. When steam reaches turbine blades the type of force responsible for moving turbine blades are
_____________
a) Axial force
b) Shear force
c) Longitudinal force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Axial force pushes the turbine blade forward and causes movement in turbine
blade.
10. Reaction turbine works with the force obtained from change in pressure energy.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reaction turbine runs with the force obtained from change in pressure energy.
A steam nozzle covert
a. heat energy of steam into kinetic energy

b. potential energy of steam into kinetic energy
c. kinetic energy of steam into mechanical energy
d. heat energy of steam into mechanical energy
(Ans:a)
The smallest section in nozzle is known as
a. throat
b. venturi
c. convergent
d. divergent
(Ans:a)
Which of the following is not true for steam nozzles?
a. In convergent nozzle there is divergent after throat

b. Convergent-divergent nozzle has higher expansion ratio
c. Convergent-divergent nozzle produces steam at higher velocities as compared to a
convergent nozzle
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

Which of the following is true for steam flow through nozzle?
a. The flow is assumed to be adiabatic

b. The steam loses its pressure and heat while passing through nozzle
c. The work done is equal to the adiabatic heat drop
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)
The maximum velocity of steam at throat is
a. {2(n/n+1) p1v1}^1/2
b. {2(n/n+1) p1v1}^3/2
c. {2(n/2n+1) p1v1}^1/2
d. {2(n/2n+1) p1v1}^3/2
Where, n=1.135 for saturated steam and 1.3 for superheated steam. p1= initial pressure of steam,
v1=initial volume of 1 kg of steam at pressure p1
(Ans:a)
The correct order in which energy is converted from one form to another, in steam power
plant is
a. Kinetic energy – potential energy – mechanical energy – electrical energy

b. Kinetic energy – potential energy– electrical energy – mechanical energy
c. potential energy – Kinetic energy –mechanical energy – electrical energy
d. mechanical energy – potential energy – Kinetic energy –electrical energy
(Ans:c)
The steam turbine can be governed by the following methods except
a. Throttle governing
b. Nozzle governing
c. By pass governing
d. Reaction governing
(Ans:d)
In reaction turbine the fixed blade

a. alter the direction of steam
b. allow steam to expand to a larger velocity
c. functions as same of nozzle
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)
The following are the method for compounding except
a. velocity compounding
b. pressure compounding
c. volume compounding
d. reaction turbine
(Ans:c)
In velocity compounding, steam is passed through
a. fixed nozzle-moving blades-fixed blades-moving blades

b. fixed nozzle-moving blades-fixed nozzles-moving blades
c. moving blades-fixed nozzles- fixed blades-moving blades
d. fixed blades-moving blades-fixed nozzles- moving blades
(Ans:a)
In pressure compounding, steam is passed through
a. fixed nozzle-moving blades-fixed blades-moving blades

b. fixed nozzle-moving blades-fixed nozzles-moving blades
c. moving blades-fixed nozzles- fixed blades-moving blades
d. fixed blades-moving blades-fixed nozzles- moving blades
(Ans:b)
In pressure velocity compounding
a. moving blades are used

b. fixed nozzles are used
c. fixed blades are used
d. All of the above are used
(Ans:d)
Which of the following is a steam turbine?
a. De laval
b. Kaplan
c. Francis
d. Bulb
(Ans:a)
Maximum efficiency in impulse steam turbine is
a. 2Cosα
b. Cos2α
c. Cos(α/2)
d. Cos^2α
Where α is nozzle angle
(Ans:d)
Degree of reaction is given by
a. Heat drop in moving blades / total heat drop in the stage

b. Heat drop in fixed blades / total heat drop in the stage
c. Heat drop in moving blades / Heat drop in fixed blades
d. total heat drop in the stage / Heat drop in fixed blades
(Ans:a)
Maximum efficiency in reaction steam turbine is
a. 2Cos^2α/(1+ Cos^2α)
b. Cos2α/(1+ Cos^2α)
c. Cos(α/2) /(1+ Cos^2α)
d. Cosα/(1+ Cos^2α)
Where α is nozzle angle
(Ans:a)
Unit IV
Unit V
Refrigerant used should be such that its normal boiling point is

(a) Greater than the temperature required
(b) Less than the temperature required
(c) Equal to the temperature required
(d) None
(Ans:b)
Pressure of refrigerant in the evaporator should be

(a) Equal to the atmospheric pressure
(b) Less than the atmospheric pressure
(c) Greater than the atmospheric pressure
(d) None
(Ans:c)
Latent heat is highest for

(a) Refrigerant – 22
(b) Ammonia
(c) Water
(d) None
(Ans:c)
Specific heat at constant pressure is highest

(a) Refrigerant – 22
(b) Ammonia
(c) Water
(d) None
(Ans:c)
Specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume are equal

(a) Vapor Refrigerant – 22
(b) Vapor Ammonia
(c) Water vapors
(d) None
(Ans:d)
Cp of air is
(a) > Cv of air
(b) = Cv of air
(c) < Cv of air
(d) None
(Ans:c)
Primary refrigerant is one which is sensibly

(a) Heated in the evaporator
(b) Cooled in the evaporator
(c) Neither heated in evaporator nor cooled in condenser
(d) None
(Ans:d)
Secondary refrigerant is one which is

(a) Cooled by the water
(b) Cooled by the air
(c) Cooled by the primary refrigerant
(d) None
(Ans:c)
Which one acts as a primary, secondary as well as a tertiary refrigerant
(a) Water
(b) Ammonia
(c) Freon-22
(d) None
(Ans:d)
Which one acts as a primary, secondary as well as a tertiary refrigerant

(a) Water
(b) Air
(c) Freon- 22
(d) None
(Ans:b)
Which is the primary refrigerant in central air conditioning plant

(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Freon-22
(d) None
(Ans:c)
Which is the secondary refrigerant in central air conditioning plant

(e) Air
(f) Water
(g) Freon-22
(h) None
(Ans:b)
Which is the tertiary refrigerant in central air conditioning plant

(i) Air
(j) Water
(k) Freon-22
(l) None
(Ans:a)
Which is the secondary refrigerant in an ice plant

(i) Air
(j) Water
(k) Freon-22
(l) None
(Ans:d)
Which is the secondary refrigerant in an ice plant

(i) Mercury
(j) Brine solution
(k) Freon-22
(l) None
(Ans:b)
Which is the secondary refrigerant in an window air conditioner

(i) Water
(j) Brine solution
(k) Air
(l) None
(Ans:c)
LEFT TO RIGHT
1. The process in which heat is rejected continuously from the system
3. 210kj/kg 5. Opening and closing of valves in
4 stroke engine is operated by
7. Unit of calorific valve
9. Lever one end is connected to connecting rod and other end to crank shaft
11. Cylindrical block to compress the air-fuel mixture during compression stroke
13. a device that transfers heat from a colder area to a hotter area by using mechanical energy
15. The compartment which absorbs heat from refrigeration system
17. In the two stroke engine the circumference of engine cylinder is provided with
19. Mechanical reservoir in IC engine
TOP TO BOTTOM
2. The refrigerant commonly used in air conditioning
4. Petrol engine works on
6. In the compression ignition engine Fuel is supplied through
8. Refrigerant used in VAR
10. The power developed inside the cylinder of engine is
12. During this stroke piston moves from TDC to BDC and inlet valve remains open
14. The volume from TDC to BDC or vice versa
16. The device expands the refrigerant in the air conditioning
18. Ratio of heat removed from refrigerator to the work supplied
20. 4-stroke petrol engine is also called as
Across
2. the distance between the electrodes
4. What happens when the key is turned
7. resistance unit
8. Stops the electrical current escaping
9. the unit of measurement for electromotive force
10. the distance the spark plug screws into the cyclinder
11. This helps prevent the 'points' burning out
13. sends the electricity to the correct spark plug
15. Provides the electromotive force
16. found between the coil and the spark plug
18. found in many places to turns things on and off
19. the components which provides the spark
20. found inside the distributor
Down
1. the full name for HT
3. these are only found on old type ignition systems
5. fitted to ignition systems to stop interference
6. probably the best metal conductor
12. this ignites the fuel
14. this squirts fuel into the cylinder
17. This multiplies the battery voltage

Manufacturing Technology II

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SYLLABUS

PSN College of Engineering and Technology Regulation 2018

Department: Mechanical Branch Code/

 A case study on existing petrol car engines design parameters

Engineering Graduates will be able to:

1. In which of the following cycle heat is added at constant volume?

2. In which of the following cycle heat is added at constant pressure?

3. Which of the following cycle is used for Spark Ignition engine?

4. Which of the following cycle is used for Compression Ignition engine?

5. The efficiency of the Otto cycle is independent of

6. For same compression ratio

b. rk = Volume of cylinder at the end of compression / Volume of cylinder at the beginning

c. rk = Volume of cylinder at the end of compression / clearance volume

d. none of the above

ANSWER a. rk = Volume of cylinder at the beginning of compression / Volume of cylinder at

a. efficiency decreases with increase in compression ratio

ANSWER b. efficiency increases with increase in compression ratio

9. The compression ratio cannot be increased beyond certain limit as it results in

ANSWER d. all the above

a. increases the octane rating of the fuel

ANSWER d. all of the above

a. is lower than the compression ratio of SI engine

ANSWER b. is higher than the compression ratio of SI engine

13. Rate of burning in the compression ignition engine can be controlled by

a. rate of injection of fuel

ANSWER a. rate of injection of fuel

ANSWER b. ηDiesel >ηDual >ηOtto

15. Air standard cycle uses as a working medium.

ANSWER a. Perfect gas

16.For perfect gas

17. The self-ignition temperature of diesel as compared to petrol is

18.For same compression ratio and heat input

ANSWER a. Otto cycle is more efficient

19. For the same peak pressure and heat input

ANSWER b. Diesel cycle is more efficient

20. In diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

21. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

22. Supercharging is the process of

24. A spark plug is used in

ANSWER a. petrol engine

25. The air standard Otto cycle comprises

d.Self ignition temperature of diesel is higher than that of gasoline.

(A) for idling and for peak power conditions

(B) for both idling and peak power conditions

(C) for idling and for peak power conditions

(D) for both idling and peak power conditions

ANSWER (B) for both idling and peak power conditions

33. Combustion in compression ignition engine is

37. The air fuel ratio in petrol engines is controlled by

ANSWER b. steam turbine

39. Most high-speed compression engines operate on

ANSWER c. dual cycle

40. Which of the following medium is compressed in a diesel engine cylinder?

41. A supercharger is used to compress

42. The term scavenging is generally associated with

ANSWER C. high efficiency engine

46. The knocking in spark ignition engines can be reduced by

ANSWER c. Both a and b

47. The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by

ANSWER d. all of the above

48. In a 75 cc engine the parameter cc indicates

ANSWER c. swept volume

ANSWER c. reduce the weight for a given output